CUET PG 2026 Chemistry Question Paper is available for download here. The National Testing Agency (NTA) conducted the CUET PG 2026 Chemistry (SCQP08) examination on March 11, 2026, during Shift 3 from 04:00 PM to 05:30 PM.

CUET PG 2026 Chemistry Question Paper with Solutions PDF

CUET PG 2026 Chemistry Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

Which of the following equation is not correct?

  • (A) \(dG = VdP - SdT\)
  • (B) \(dA = -pdV + SdT\)
  • (C) \(dH = TdS + Vdp\)
  • (D) \(dU = TdS - pdV\)

Question 2:

The capillary action tendency of a liquid is a consequence of:

  • (A) Osmosis
  • (B) Vapour Pressure
  • (C) Viscosity
  • (D) Surface tension

Question 3:

The enthalpy change in the complete combustion of \(\alpha\)-D-glucose (\(C_6H_{12}O_6\)) and maltose (\(C_{12}H_{22}O_{11}\)) at \(298 K\), with the formation of gaseous \(CO_2\) and liquid \(H_2O\), are \(-2809.1 kJ mol^{-1}\) and \(-5645.5 kJ mol^{-1}\) respectively. The enthalpy change accompanying the conversion of \(1 mol\) of \(\alpha\)-D-glucose to maltose and \(H_2O\) is:

  • (A) \(-13.7 kJ mol^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(+27.4 kJ mol^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(+13.7 kJ mol^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(-27.4 kJ mol^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(+13.7\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The topic of this question is thermochemistry, specifically the application of Hess's Law to calculate reaction enthalpy using standard enthalpies of combustion.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Using Hess's Law, the enthalpy change of a reaction can be calculated from the enthalpies of combustion (\(\Delta H_c^\circ\)) of reactants and products:
\[ \Delta H_{reaction} = \sum \Delta H_c^\circ(reactants) - \sum \Delta H_c^\circ(products) \]

Step 3: Detailed Explanation:


Let us write the balanced chemical equation for the dimerization of \(\alpha\)-D-glucose to form maltose and water:
\[ 2C_6H_{12}O_6(s) \rightarrow C_{12}H_{22}O_{11}(s) + H_2O(l) \]
Let us calculate the enthalpy change for this dimerization process (\(\Delta H_{dimer}\)):
\[ \Delta H_{dimer} = [2 \times \Delta H_c(glucose)] - [\Delta H_c(maltose) + \Delta H_c(H_2O)] \]
Water (\(H_2O(l)\)) is already fully oxidized, so its heat of combustion is zero: \(\Delta H_c(H_2O) = 0\).

Substitute the given values into the equation:
\[ \Delta H_{dimer} = [2 \times (-2809.1 kJ mol^{-1})] - (-5645.5 kJ mol^{-1}) \] \[ \Delta H_{dimer} = -5618.2 + 5645.5 = +27.3 kJ \]
This \(\Delta H_{dimer} = +27.3 kJ\) is for the conversion of \(2 moles\) of glucose.

The question asks for the enthalpy change per \(1 mole\) of \(\alpha\)-D-glucose.

Therefore, we divide the calculated enthalpy by 2:
\[ \Delta H_{per mole glucose} = \frac{+27.3 kJ}{2} = +13.65 kJ mol^{-1} \approx +13.7 kJ mol^{-1} \]


Step 4: Final Answer

The enthalpy change accompanying the conversion of 1 mol of \(\alpha\)-D-glucose is \(+13.7 kJ mol^{-1}\).
Quick Tip: Always double-check the stoichiometry of the target reaction.
Hess's Law calculations using combustion data are always \((reactants) - (products)\), whereas calculations using formation data are \((products) - (reactants)\).
Be mindful of whether the question asks for the enthalpy per mole of reactant or per mole of product.


Question 4:

pH of a \(0.01 M Ca(OH)_2\) solution is: (Given \(\log_{10} 2 = 0.3010\))

  • (A) \(12.3\)
  • (B) \(7.0\)
  • (C) \(12.0\)
  • (D) \(12.602\)

Question 5:

Which of the following is/are intensive property/ies?

A. Volume

B. Density

C. Energy

D. Pressure

E. Molar heat Capacity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D only
  • (B) B, D, E only
  • (C) E only
  • (D) A, C only

Question 6:

Which of the following is not true with reference to derivation of Langmuir isotherm?

  • (A) All parts of the surface behave in exactly the same way as far as adsorption is concerned.
  • (B) The rate of adsorption is proportional to the concentration [A] of the molecule in gas or liquid phase.
  • (C) The rate of adsorption is proportional to the fraction of the surface that is bare.
  • (D) Fraction of surface covered (\(\theta\)) is given by \(\theta = \frac{K[A]}{1 - K[A]}\), \(K\) - Equilibrium constant.

Question 7:

The number of photons emitted by a \(100 W\) yellow lamp (\(\lambda = 560 nm\)) in \(1.0 s\) (assuming \(100%\) efficiency) is: (Given: \(h = 6.6 \times 10^{-34} Js\), \(c = 3.0 \times 10^8 ms^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(2.8 \times 10^{16}\)
  • (B) \(2.8 \times 10^{23}\)
  • (C) \(2.8 \times 10^{18}\)
  • (D) \(2.8 \times 10^{20}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(2.8 \times 10^{20}\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The topic of this question is atomic structure and quantum mechanics, specifically the dual nature of electromagnetic radiation and Planck's quantum theory.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Energy of a single photon: \(E_{photon} = \frac{hc}{\lambda}\)

Power is energy per unit time: \(Power (P) = \frac{Total Energy (E_{total})}{t}\)

Total energy emitted in time \(t\): \(E_{total} = P \times t\)

Number of photons (\(N\)): \(N = \frac{E_{total}}{E_{photon}}\)



Step 3: Detailed Explanation:


Let us write down the given values:


\(Power (P) = 100 W = 100 J s^{-1}\)

\(Time (t) = 1.0 s\)

\(Wavelength (\lambda) = 560 nm = 560 \times 10^{-9} m\)

\(h = 6.6 \times 10^{-34} J s\)

\(c = 3.0 \times 10^8 m s^{-1}\)


Calculate the total energy emitted in \(1.0 s\):
\[ E_{total} = 100 J s^{-1} \times 1.0 s = 100 J \]
Calculate the energy of a single photon:
\[ E_{photon} = \frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} J s \times 3.0 \times 10^8 m s^{-1}}{560 \times 10^{-9} m} \] \[ E_{photon} = \frac{1.98 \times 10^{-25}}{5.6 \times 10^{-7}} \] \[ E_{photon} \approx 3.5357 \times 10^{-19} J \]
Now, calculate the total number of photons (\(N\)):
\[ N = \frac{E_{total}}{E_{photon}} = \frac{100 J}{3.5357 \times 10^{-19} J} \] \[ N = 2.828 \times 10^{20} \approx 2.8 \times 10^{20} \]


Step 4: Final Answer

The number of photons emitted by the yellow lamp in \(1.0 s\) is \(2.8 \times 10^{20}\).
Quick Tip: For quick calculations in competitive exams:
\(hc \approx 2 \times 10^{-25} J m\).
Here, \(E_{photon} \approx \frac{2 \times 10^{-25}}{5.6 \times 10^{-7}} \approx 3.57 \times 10^{-19} J\).
Then \(N \approx \frac{100}{3.57 \times 10^{-19}} \approx 2.8 \times 10^{20}\).
This approximation saves precious time without losing precision.


Question 8:

Considering the normalized wave function of a particle in a 1-D box. Which of the following are true?

A. The wave functions are all sine functions.

B. The wave functions are with same maximum amplitude but different wave lengths.

C. The number of nodes increases as '\(n\)' increases.

D. The wave function \(\psi_n\) has \(n+1\) nodes.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, C, D only
  • (B) B, D only
  • (C) A, B, C only
  • (D) C, D only

Question 9:

Given * denotes an excited state; S-singlet state; T-triplet state.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Question 10:

Match List - I with List - II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Question 11:

Which of the following are correct with reference to Maxwells-Boltzmann distribution of velocities?

A. The fraction of molecules with very low (\(c \rightarrow 0\)) velocities and very high (\(c \rightarrow \infty\)) velocities, is very small.

B. The area under different curve obtained at different temperature is same.

C. The maximum of the curve represent average velocity at a particular temperature.

D. The area under the curve represents total number of molecules.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C only
  • (B) A, B, D only
  • (C) A, B, C, D
  • (D) B, C, D only

Question 12:

Consider the redox reaction \(Mg(s) + 2Ag^+(aq) \rightarrow Mg^{2+}(aq) + 2Ag(s)\). The expression of cell emf at \(298 K\) is:

  • (A) \(E = E^\circ + \frac{0.059}{2} \log \frac{[Mg^{2+}]}{[Ag^+]^2}\)
  • (B) \(E = E^\circ + \frac{0.059}{2} \log \frac{[Ag^+]^2}{[Mg^{2+}]}\)
  • (C) \(E = E^\circ - \frac{0.059}{2} \log \frac{[Mg^{2+}]}{[Ag]}\)
  • (D) \(E = E^\circ - \frac{0.059}{2} \log \frac{[Mg^{2+}]^2}{[Ag^+]}\)

Question 13:

Arrange the following in order of their decreasing ionic strength:

A. \(0.1 m NaCl\)

B. \(0.01 m K_2SO_4\)

C. \(0.001 m AlCl_3\)

D. \(0.01 m glucose\)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) B, C, A, D
  • (B) D, C, B, A
  • (C) A, B, C, D
  • (D) C, B, D, A

Question 14:

A molecule \(XY\) (mol. wt \(180 g mol^{-1}\)) undergoes second order association in water. If the van't Hoff factor '\(i\)' of the substance is \(0.88\); the degree of association of the substance is:

  • (A) \(10%\)
  • (B) \(28%\)
  • (C) \(48%\)
  • (D) \(24%\)

Question 15:

\(0.28 g\) of the following are dissolved in \(1 L\) of water. Arrange them in increasing order of their molarities:

A. Glucose (\(C_6H_{12}O_6\))

B. Urea (\(NH_2CONH_2\))

C. Benzoic Acid (\(C_6H_5COOH\))

D. Sucrose (\(C_{12}H_{22}O_{11}\))

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) D, A, C, B
  • (B) D, B, C, A
  • (C) B, A, C, D
  • (D) B, C, A, D

Question 16:

Arrange the following gases in increasing order of their critical temperatures:

A. \(W (a = 4.0 atm L^2 mol^{-2}; b = 0.027 L mol^{-1})\)

B. \(X (a = 8.0 atm L^2 mol^{-2}; b = 0.030 L mol^{-1})\)

C. \(Y (a = 6.0 atm L^2 mol^{-2}; b = 0.032 L mol^{-1})\)

D. \(Z (a = 12 atm L^2 mol^{-2}; b = 0.027 L mol^{-1})\)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) D, B, C, A
  • (B) A, C, B, D
  • (C) D, B, A, C
  • (D) B, C, D, A

Question 17:

Which of the following conditions are correct?

A. \(\Delta H\) is \(+ve\), \(\Delta S\) is \(-ve\) at any \(T\), results in non-spontaneous process

B. \(\Delta H\) is \(-ve\), \(\Delta S\) is \(-ve\) at low \(T\), results in non-spontaneous process

C. \(\Delta H\) is \(+ve\), \(\Delta S\) is \(+ve\) at low \(T\), results in spontaneous process

D. \(\Delta H\) is \(-ve\), \(\Delta S\) is \(+ve\) at any \(T\), results in spontaneous process

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) C, D only
  • (B) A, B, C only
  • (C) B, C only
  • (D) A, D only

Question 18:

Match List - I with List - II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Question 19:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Reactions between ions in solution are usually much faster than reactions between covalent substances.

Reason (R) : Covalent compounds are not soluble in water.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Question 20:

In a reaction \(A + B \rightarrow P\), rate is doubled when the concentration of B is doubled, and the rate increases by a factor of 8 when the concentration of both the reactants are doubled. The rate law of the reaction is:

  • (A) \(r = k[A][B]\)
  • (B) \(r = k[A]^2[B]\)
  • (C) \(r = k[A][B]^2\)
  • (D) \(r = k[A][B]^3\)

Question 21:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The equivalent conductance of weak electrolyte falls off much more rapidly with increase in concentration.

Reason (R) : The equivalent conductance of weak electrolyte at infinite dilution can be determined by extrapolation of the curve between equivalent conductance vs \(\sqrt{c}\) to zero concentration.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Question 22:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The enthalpy of any strong acid by a strong base is practically the same (\(-13.7 kCal mol^{-1}\)).

Reason (R) : Every neutralization reaction involves the combination of \(H^+\) and \(OH^-\) ions to form water.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Question 23:

Which of the following statements is not correct with reference to a catalyst?

  • (A) A catalyst does not increase the rate at which equilibrium is attained.
  • (B) A catalyst does not alter the value of equilibrium constant of a reversible reaction.
  • (C) A catalyst accelerates a reaction but undergoes no net chemical change.
  • (D) A catalyst does not initiate a chemical reaction.

Question 24:

Match List - I with List - II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Question 25:

Arrange the following four compounds in increasing order of their stability, if their heat of formation in standard states are given as : A. \(-500 kJ mol^{-1}\), B. \(+700 kJ mol^{-1}\), C. \(-900 kJ mol^{-1}\), D. \(+250 kJ mol^{-1}\). Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) C, A, D, B
  • (B) A, B, C, D
  • (C) B, D, A, C
  • (D) C, A, B, D

Question 26:

Choose the common features of VBT and MOT:

A. Resonance

B. Energy of overlapping orbitals of bonding atoms should be comparable

C. Paramagnetic behaviour of \(O_2\)

D. Symmetry of orbitals of bonding atoms

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) B and D only
  • (C) A and C only
  • (D) B and C only

Question 27:

Choose the paramagnetic species:

A. \(O_2^{2-}\)

B. \(NO^+\)

C. \(O_2\)

D. \(CO^+\)

E. \(NO\)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) B, C and D only
  • (C) C, D and E only
  • (D) A, B and E only

Question 28:

IR absorption spectra of metal carbonyl determine:

A. Geometry of mononuclear metal carbonyls

B. Determine bond order of CO bond

C. Differentiating between terminal and bridging CO

D. Enantiomerism in metal carbonyls

E. Study of Reaction Rates of Substitution reactions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C and D only
  • (B) A, B, C and E only
  • (C) B, C, D and E only
  • (D) A, C, D and E only

Question 29:

Choose the Diamagnetic tripositive ion of Lanthanoids :

A. La

B. Ce

C. Eu

D. Yb

E. Lu

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) B, D and E only
  • (C) A, C and E only
  • (D) B, C and D only

Question 30:

Arrange the following ligands as per increasing hapticity :

A. Allyl

B. Butadiene

C. Phenyl

D. Tropylium

E. Cyclooctatriene

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) C \(<\) A \(<\) B \(<\) E \(<\) D
  • (B) A \(<\) B \(<\) C \(<\) E \(<\) D
  • (C) A \(<\) B \(<\) C \(<\) D \(<\) E
  • (D) B \(<\) C \(<\) A \(<\) E \(<\) D

Question 31:

Arrange the following in increasing order of electron affinity :

A. F

B. Cl

C. Br

D. I

E. At

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) B \(>\) A \(>\) C \(>\) D \(>\) E
  • (B) A \(>\) B \(>\) C \(>\) D \(>\) E
  • (C) B \(>\) C \(>\) A \(>\) D \(>\) E
  • (D) B \(>\) A \(>\) C \(>\) E \(>\) D

Question 32:

Arrange the following in increasing order of spin only magnetic movement :

A. \(Co^{2+}\)

B. \(Ti^{3+}\)

C. \(Ti^{2+}\)

D. \(Fe^{2+}\)

E. \(Sc^{3+}\)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) E \(<\) C \(<\) B \(<\) A \(<\) D
  • (B) E \(<\) B \(<\) C \(<\) A \(<\) D
  • (C) E \(<\) B \(<\) A \(<\) C \(<\) D
  • (D) E \(<\) A \(<\) B \(<\) C \(<\) D

Question 33:

The correct sequence of Extraction of Lanthanoids from monazite sand is :

A. Treat with cold water

B. Dilute and adjust pH in alkaline range

C. Digest with Conc. \(H_2SO_4\) at 200°C

D. Separation by ion Exchange method

E. Add \(Na_2SO_4\)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) C \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) A \(\rightarrow\) E \(\rightarrow\) D
  • (B) A \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) E
  • (C) A \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) E \(\rightarrow\) D
  • (D) C \(\rightarrow\) A \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) E \(\rightarrow\) D

Question 34:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : \(Na^+(C_5H_{11})^-\) is more stable than \(Na^+(C_5H_5)^-\).

Reason (R) : \(C_5H_5\) readily accept electron to become 6-electron aromatic \(C_5H_5^-\).

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Question 35:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : In \([Ti(H_2O)_6]^{3+}\) electronic spectra the observed absorption is unsymmetrical appears to be result of more than one absorption bands.

Reason (R) : Due to Jahn Teller effect energy of \(d_{xy}\) is lowered so shown electronic jump \(d_{xy} \rightarrow d_{x^2-y^2}\) and \(d_{xy} \rightarrow d_{z^2}\) so give rise to two absorption bands.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Question 36:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : In \(B_2H_6\), two bridging H atoms prevent the rotation between B atoms.

Reason (R) : Terminal B-H bonds are normal covalent bonds ie two centre two electron (2C-2e) bonds.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Question 37:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : He and Ne do not form clathrates.

Reason (R) : He and Ne can be separated from Ar, Kr and Xe using quinol from the mixture of these gas.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Question 38:

Match List - I with List - II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Question 39:

Match List - I with List - II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Question 40:

Match List - I with List - II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Question 41:

Match List - I with List - II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Question 42:

For Schrodinger Wave Equation \(\nabla^2\psi + \frac{8\pi^2 m}{h^2}(E - V)\psi = 0\). Acceptable solution does NOT possess which of the following property ?

  • (A) \(\psi\) must be continuous
  • (B) \(\psi\) must be single valued
  • (C) \(\psi\) must be finite
  • (D) The probability of finding an electron at a point \(x, y, z\) is \(\psi^2\) so \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \psi^2 dxdydz \leq 1\)

Question 43:

The element with highest Electron Affinity among Group 16 is :

  • (A) O
  • (B) S
  • (C) Se
  • (D) Te

Question 44:

In metal carbonyl, IR absorption can distinguish nature of CO because :

  • (A) absorption for CO Terminal is at high frequency than CO Bridging
  • (B) absorption for CO Terminal is at same frequency than CO Bridging
  • (C) absorption for CO Terminal is at lower frequency than CO Bridging
  • (D) The intensity of peak for bridging is stronger than Terminal one

Question 45:

Using Pourbaix Diagram choose the Incorrect statement :

  • (A) \(Fe^{3+}_{(aq)} + e^- \rightarrow Fe^{2+}\) \(E^\circ = 0.77 V\) is independent of pH
  • (B) \(Fe^{3+}_{(aq)} + 3H_2O \rightarrow Fe(OH)_3^{(s)} + 3H^+_{(aq)}\) the formation of \(Fe(OH)_3\) is favoured by high pH
  • (C) \(Fe^{3+}_{(aq)} + 3H_2O(l) \rightarrow Fe(OH)_2(s) + 2H^+_{(aq)}\) the formation of \(Fe(OH)_2\) is favoured by high pH
  • (D) \(Fe(OH)_3(s) + H^+_{(aq)} + e^- \rightarrow Fe(OH)_2(s) + H_2O(l)\) the reaction is independent of pH

Question 46:

The Radial wave function for \(2 p\) orbital is :

  • (A) \(2\left(\frac{Z}{a_0}\right)^{3/2} e^{-\sigma}\)
  • (B) \(2^{-3/2}\left(\frac{Z}{a_0}\right)^{3/2} (e^{-\sigma}) e^{-\sigma/2}\)
  • (C) \(2^{-1}\left(\frac{Z}{a_0}\right)^{3/2} \sigma e^{-\sigma/2}\)
  • (D) \(2^{-1}\left(\frac{Z}{a_0}\right)^{3/2} (1 - \sigma) e^{-\sigma/2}\)

Question 47:

What type of bonding is present in clathrate compounds ?

  • (A) Ionic
  • (B) Covalent
  • (C) Coordinate
  • (D) No bond formation

Question 48:

Which of following organometallic complex do NOT OBEY 18 EAN Rule

  • (A) Complex (1)
  • (B) Complex (2)
  • (C) Complex (3)
  • (D) Complex (4)

Question 49:

The Interhalogen compound used in the estimation of iodine number in fats and oils is :

  • (A) \(ICl\)
  • (B) \(IBr\)
  • (C) \(ICl_3\)
  • (D) \(IF_7\)

Question 50:

Natural Mechanism in human body to inhibit the heavy metal ion poisoning is by :

  • (A) Cysteine
  • (B) thioneins
  • (C) glutathione
  • (D) 2,3 dimercatoproponol

Question 51:

IUPAC name of the following compound is :

  • (A) tricyclo \([2, 2, 1, 0^{2, 6}]\) heptane
  • (B) tricyclo \([2, 2, 2, 1^{1, 5}]\) heptane
  • (C) tetra cyclo \([2, 1, 0, 1^{1, 2}]\) heptane
  • (D) tetra cyclo \([2, 2, 1, 0^{2, 6}]\) heptane

Question 52:

Find the product X, Y in the following reaction:

  • (A) X = Benzyne, Y = Phenyl sulfide
  • (B) X = Ring-opened diamine, Y = 1,2-bis(alkylthio)benzene
  • (C) X = Benzyne, Y = 1,2-bis(alkylthio)benzene
  • (D) X = Benzene, Y = Phenyl sulfide

Question 53:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Enantiomers are inseparable on simple column chromatography.

Reason (R): Enantiomer binds achiral stationary phase with equal affinity and Enantiomers can be separated by using chiral stationary phase.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Question 54:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): HBr addition to alkenes gives Markonikov addition.

Reason (R): HBr addition to alkene in the presence of peroxide gives Anti-Markonikov addition as the reaction proceeds via radical mechanism.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Question 55:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In \(S_N1\) reaction racemic mixture is formed and in \(S_N2\) reaction inversion of configuration is observed.

Reason (R): \(S_N1\) reaction is concerted mechanism and \(S_N2\) reaction involves carbocation intermediate.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Question 56:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Carbon halogen bond in aryl and vinyl halides are unusually shorter.

Reason (R): Chlorobenzene, and vinyl chlorides undergo \(S_N1\) and \(S_N2\) reaction in general.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  • (D) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

Question 57:

Relative rate of alkaline hydrolysis of the compound is:



A. \(R = NO_2\)

B. \(R = Cl\)

C. \(R = H\)

D. \(R = CH_3\)

E. \(R = OCH_3\)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A \(>\) B \(>\) C \(>\) D \(>\) E
  • (B) A \(>\) E \(>\) C \(>\) B \(>\) D
  • (C) A \(<\) B \(<\) C \(<\) D \(<\) E
  • (D) A \(<\) E \(<\) B \(<\) C \(<\) D

Question 58:

How many N--H Stretching bands observed in the IR spectrum of primary Amines (\(R-NH_2\))?

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3

Question 59:

Identify the compound which shows mass spectrum: \(m/z = 60\ (100%)\), \(m/z = 61\ (3%)\), \(m/z = 62\ (0.2%)\) (m = mass, z = charge)

  • (A) \(H_2N-CH_2-CH_2-NH_2\)
  • (B) \(CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-OH\)
  • (C) \(CHO-CH_2-OH\)
  • (D) \(N_4H_4\)

Question 60:

Which one of the following is used as internal standard in NMR analysis?

  • (A) \(Me_3SiCl\)
  • (B) \(CCl_4\)
  • (C) \(Me_4Si\)
  • (D) \(CD_3OD\)

Question 61:

Pulegone on reaction with \(KMnO_4\) forms:

  • (A) 3-methyl adipic acid and Acetone
  • (B) Acetylene, and 3-methyl adipic Acid
  • (C) Cyclohexanone and Acetic acid
  • (D) 3-methyl cyclohexanone, and Acetone

Question 62:

Product formed in the following reaction is:

  • (A) Option (1)
  • (B) Option (2)
  • (C) Option (3)
  • (D) Option (4)

Question 63:

Reaction of Glucose with Excess acetic anhydride gives:

  • (A) Diacetate
  • (B) Triacetate
  • (C) Polyacetate
  • (D) Pentaacetate

Question 64:

\(\lambda_{\max}\) in UV spectrum of:

  • (A) \(215 nm\)
  • (B) \(237 nm\)
  • (C) \(229 nm\)
  • (D) \(219 nm\)

Question 65:

Correct order of pKa values of following acid is:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) B \(>\) D \(>\) E \(>\) A \(>\) C
  • (B) C \(>\) A \(>\) E \(>\) D \(>\) B
  • (C) B \(>\) A \(>\) D \(>\) E \(>\) C
  • (D) E \(>\) C \(>\) D \(>\) A \(>\) B

Question 66:

Relative reactivity of the following compound is towards displacement reaction is:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A \(>\) B \(>\) D \(>\) C \(>\) E
  • (B) A \(>\) C \(>\) B \(>\) E \(>\) D
  • (C) E \(>\) D \(>\) C \(>\) B \(>\) A
  • (D) A \(>\) B \(>\) C \(>\) E \(>\) D

Question 67:

Match List - I with List - II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Question 68:

Following are the sentences about alkenes reactions.

A. Alkenes undergoes electrophilic addition reactions

B. Alkenes undergoes nucleophilic addition reactions in general

C. As per Saytzeff's rule ease of formation of alkene is more substituted alkenes

D. Alkenes are inert towards peracids

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) A, C and D only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) A and C only

Question 69:

Which of the following statements are correct about aromatic compounds?

A. Isopropyl benzene can be prepared by friedel craft alkylation reaction using propyl chloride and \(AlCl_3\)

B. Styrenes on reaction with HBr gives Bromobenzene

C. t-Butyl benzene gives benzoic acid on reaction with \(KMnO_4\)

D. Arenium ion complex formed during the electrophilic substitution reaction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) A and C only
  • (C) A and D only
  • (D) A, B and D only

Question 70:

Following are the identification test of alcohols:

A. In Victor Meyer Test \(1^\circ\) alcohol gives red colour

B. In Victor Meyer Test \(2^\circ\) alcohol gives blue colour

C. In Victor Meyer Test \(3^\circ\) alcohol gives green colour

D. In Victor Meyer Test \(1^\circ\) alcohol gives yellow colour

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) A, B and D only
  • (C) A, C and D only
  • (D) A and B only

Question 71:

Identify the correct statement:

A. Nitriles react with Grignard Reagent followed by hydrolysis gives carbonyl compounds

B. Aldehyde reacts with alcohol to form hemiacetal

C. Carbonyl compounds are converted to corresponding acetal to increase the chemoselectivity

D. Carbonyl compound reacts with \(2^\circ\) amines and forms enamines

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) A, C and D only
  • (C) B, C and D only
  • (D) A, B, C and D only

Question 72:

Match List - I with List - II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Question 73:

Correct order of basicity of the following is:

A. \(^\ominus OH\)

B. \(^\ominus OR\)

C. \(^\ominus NH_2\)

D. \(R^\ominus\)

E. \(H_2O\)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) E \(>\) A \(>\) B \(>\) C \(>\) D
  • (B) E \(<\) A \(<\) B \(<\) C \(<\) D
  • (C) C \(>\) A \(>\) B \(>\) D \(>\) E
  • (D) E \(<\) B \(<\) D \(<\) A \(<\) C

Question 74:

Find the products X, Y in the following reactor:

  • (A) Option (1)
  • (B) Option (2)
  • (C) Option (3)
  • (D) Option (4)

Question 75:

Match List - I with List - II.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

CUET PG 2026 Chemistry Preparation