PU LLB 2026 Question Paper for LLB 3 Years is available for download here. Panjab University Chandigarh conducted PU LLB 2026 exam for 3 Year LLB on 28 June in single shift from 10 AM to 11:30 AM. PU LLB 2026 LLB 3 Years Question Paper consists of 100 questions for 100 marks to be attempted in 90 minutes.

  • PU LLB 3 Years Question Paper is divided into 3 sections- Current Affairs and General Knowledge (30 questions), Legal Aptitude (40 questions) and Reasoning Ability and Knowledge of English (30 questions).
  • Each question carries 1 marks and there is negative marking of 0.25 for incorrect answers.

Candidates can download PU LLB 2026 LLB 3 Years Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below.

PU LLB 3 Years 2026 Question Paper with Solution PDF

PU LLB 3 Years Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solution
                     


Question 1:

Uttarakhand in India has topped in implementing the ICJS i.e. One Data One Entry 2.0 up to January 2026. The expression ICJS meant:

  • (A) Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System
  • (B) Integrated Criminal Justice System
  • (C) Integrated Computerised Justice System
  • (D) Interlinked Criminal Justice System

Question 2:

Which country is set to host the opening match of the FIFA World Cup 2026?

  • (A) Canada
  • (B) United States
  • (C) Mexico
  • (D) Brazil

Question 3:

What is the Codename for the joint US-Israeli military operation against Iran, launched in February 2026?

  • (A) Operation Roaring Fury/Epic Lion
  • (B) Operation Iron Shield/Iron Lion
  • (C) Operation Epic Fury/Roaring Lion
  • (D) Operation Lion’s Roar/Roaring Fury

Question 4:

Following the death of Ayatollah Ali Khamenei in March 2026, who was considered the new supreme leader?

  • (A) Ruhollah Khomeini
  • (B) Mohammad Bagher Zolghadr
  • (C) Mojtaba Khamenei
  • (D) Hassan Khomeini

Question 5:

What does the ‘Namo Drone Didi Yojna’ training initiative primarily consist of?

  • (A) Drone maintenance and repairs
  • (B) Drone pilot training and application of agricultural inputs
  • (C) High-altitude reconnaissance and surveillance training via Drones
  • (D) To build drone manufacturing factories in rural areas

Question 6:

Which state hosted the National Conference of Women Thinkers on the theme “Bharti-Nari Se Narayani” in 2026?

  • (A) Maharashtra
  • (B) Uttarakhand
  • (C) Tamil Nadu
  • (D) New Delhi

Question 7:

Which of the following statements is true regarding India’s stance on the BRICS Plus naval exercise “Will for Peace 2026”?

  • (A) India hosted the exercise.
  • (B) India participated as a lead observer.
  • (C) India skipped the exercise, citing it as an ad-hoc initiative rather than an institutionalized activity.
  • (D) India sent its newest aircraft carrier to participate.

Question 8:

SPREE 2025 (Scheme for Promotion of Registration of Employers and Employees) was launched by which organization?

  • (A) Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC)
  • (B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • (C) National Institution for Transforming India Aayog (NITI Aayog)
  • (D) Security Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

Question 9:

What is the name of the operation under which Delhi Police traced 1,303 missing persons in the southwest district in 2025?

  • (A) Operation Milan
  • (B) Operation Suraksha
  • (C) Operation Milap
  • (D) Operation Raksha

Question 10:

Where were the Unmanned Systems Exhibition (UMEX) and Simulation and Training Exhibition (Sim TEX) held in January 2026?

  • (A) ADNEC Centre, Abu Dhabi
  • (B) Qatar National Convention Centre, Doha
  • (C) King Abdulaziz International Conference Centre, Riyadh
  • (D) Dubai World Trade Centre, Dubai

Question 11:

What is the theme of World Homeopathy Day 2026 to commemorate the birth anniversary of Dr. Sammuel Hahnemann which is observed every year on 10th April?

  • (A) Homeopathy for Sustainable Health
  • (B) Homeopathy for Community Wellness
  • (C) Homeopathy for Universal Health
  • (D) Homeopathy for Holistic Health

Question 12:

Which organisation launched a new Virtual Museum of Stolen Cultural Objects during MONDIACULT 2025?

  • (A) UNESCO
  • (B) IUCN
  • (C) WTO
  • (D) UNICEF

Question 13:

The primary objective of PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is to:

  • (A) Provide subsidised solar pumps to farmers for irrigation
  • (B) Provide free electricity through a rooftop Solar System
  • (C) Installing solar panels on all government buildings by 2030
  • (D) Promote solar-based EV charging stations in urban areas

Question 14:

Who is the current Chief of the Army Staff (COAS) in India as of February 2026?

  • (A) General Upendra Dwivedi
  • (B) General Manoj Pande
  • (C) General S.H.F.J. Manekshaw
  • (D) General Bipin Rawat

Question 15:

Which Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) mission involves uncrewed test flights planned for 2026 to validate critical systems, including the humanoid robot Vyom Mitra, ahead of its first human spaceflight?

  • (A) Chandrayaan-4 Mission
  • (B) Mangalyaan-2 Mission
  • (C) Gaganyaan-1 Mission
  • (D) Venus Orbiter Mission

Question 16:

The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the ______.

  • (A) Red Sea
  • (B) Gulf of Oman
  • (C) Arabian Sea
  • (D) Mediterranean Sea

Question 17:

In which of the following Olympics did India win the highest number of medals?

  • (A) London 2012 Olympics
  • (B) Rio 2016 Olympics
  • (C) Tokyo 2020 Olympics
  • (D) Paris 2024 Olympics

Question 18:

Which of the following is not a full-time member of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?

  • (A) Myanmar
  • (B) Maldives
  • (C) Nepal
  • (D) Bhutan

Question 19:

The Komagata Maru incident took place in which year?

  • (A) 1905
  • (B) 1914
  • (C) 1919
  • (D) 1930

Question 20:

Which Five-Year Plan in India was based on the Harrod-Domar Model?

  • (A) First Five-Year Plan
  • (B) Second Five-Year Plan
  • (C) Third Five-Year Plan
  • (D) Fourth Five-Year Plan

Question 21:

In the context of elections conducted by the Election Commission of India, what is the full form of SIR?

  • (A) Summary Internal Register
  • (B) Special Intensive Revision
  • (C) Systematic Information Record
  • (D) State Inspection Report

Question 22:

Which organization publishes the Economic Survey of India?

  • (A) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • (B) NITI Aayog
  • (C) Ministry of Finance
  • (D) Planning Commission

Question 23:

Who amongst the following is known as the Father of Modern Forensic Science?

  • (A) Dr. Edmond Locard
  • (B) Alphonse Bertillon
  • (C) Cesare Lombroso
  • (D) Hans Gross

Question 24:

On which date is International Human Rights Day observed every year to celebrate the adoption of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights by the UN General Assembly?

  • (A) 24th October
  • (B) 10th December
  • (C) 10th November
  • (D) 11th December

Question 25:

Which of the following present-day countries did not emerge from the breakup of the USSR?

  • (A) Russia
  • (B) Ukraine
  • (C) Poland
  • (D) Kazakhstan

Question 26:

The Book titled ‘Letters to a Law Student’ is written by:

  • (A) Lord Denning
  • (B) Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer
  • (C) Nani Palkhivala
  • (D) Nicholas J. McBride

Question 27:

The characteristic smell of LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) is due to the addition of which of the following compounds?

  • (A) Hydrogen sulphide
  • (B) Sulphur dioxide
  • (C) Ethyl mercaptan
  • (D) Methanethiol

Question 28:

Vantara, a major wildlife rescue and rehabilitation initiative, is located in:

  • (A) Jaipur
  • (B) Jamnagar
  • (C) Hyderabad
  • (D) Bhopal

Question 29:

The terms Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna are associated with:

  • (A) Public sector banks classification
  • (B) Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSUs)
  • (C) State-wise economic ranking
  • (D) Types of financial institutions

Question 30:

The High-Level Committee constituted by the Government of India to examine the feasibility of “One Nation, One Election” is chaired by:

  • (A) Justice Ranjan Gogoi
  • (B) Shri Ram Nath Kovind
  • (C) Justice N. V. Ramana
  • (D) Shri Amit Shah

Question 31:

Consider the following statements and mark the correct option:

1. Precedents help in the progressive development of law.

2. Copyright is a corporeal right.

3. In the process of interpretation, judges do make the law.

  • (A) All are correct
  • (B) 1 and 2 are correct
  • (C) 1 and 3 are correct
  • (D) Only 1 is correct

Question 32:

Right in rem is right available against which one of the following?

  • (A) A specific class or community of persons
  • (B) An individual or ascertained person
  • (C) The whole world at large
  • (D) The state/government only

Question 33:

The term "persona" from which the legal term "person" is derived, originally meant:

  • (A) A living human
  • (B) A mask
  • (C) A legal entity
  • (D) A rights-holder

Question 34:

What is the primary source of law in modern times?

  • (A) Precedent
  • (B) Custom
  • (C) Legislation
  • (D) Equity

Question 35:

What is the relationship between right and duty?

  • (A) Independent
  • (B) Mutually exclusive
  • (C) Correlative
  • (D) Contradictory

Question 36:

From which country have the provisions relating to the office of Comptroller and Auditor General been borrowed?

  • (A) Russia
  • (B) Canada
  • (C) United States of America
  • (D) Britain

Question 37:

By which constitutional amendment were the privy purses and privileges of the former rulers of Indian states abolished?

  • (A) 26th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971
  • (B) 28th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1972
  • (C) 31st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1973
  • (D) 38th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975

Question 38:

To whom shall the President of India communicate his resignation?

  • (A) Vice-President of India
  • (B) Chief Justice of India
  • (C) Speaker of the House of People
  • (D) Prime Minister of India

Question 39:

What is the duration of the notice period required to prefer a charge for impeachment of the President of India under Article 61 of the Constitution of India?

  • (A) 7 days
  • (B) 14 days
  • (C) 21 days
  • (D) 30 days

Question 40:

In the light of Article 68 of the Constitution of India, within how much time is the vacancy in the office of the Vice President of India occurring by reason of death, resignation or removal or otherwise is required to be filled?

  • (A) Within 3 months
  • (B) Within 6 months
  • (C) As soon as possible
  • (D) At any time

Question 41:

As per the mandate of Article 80 of the Constitution of India, 1/ 3rd members of the Council of State shall retire every ________ years?

  • (A) 2 years
  • (B) 3 years
  • (C) 4 years
  • (D) 5 years

Question 42:

Which of the following powers is not vested in the President of India under Article 85 of the Constitution of India?

  • (A) He may summon either House of Parliament;
  • (B) He may prorogue either House of Parliament;
  • (C) He may dissolve the House of People;
  • (D) He may adjourn either House of Parliament;

Question 43:

A Hindu Marriage can be dissolved by whom validly?

  • (A) Panchayat
  • (B) Court of law
  • (C) Police
  • (D) Family members

Question 44:

Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India?

  • (A) Article 141
  • (B) Article 142
  • (C) Article 143
  • (D) Article 144

Question 45:

Which of the following statements correctly reflects Article 75 of the Constitution of India regarding the tenure of the Council of Ministers?

  • (A) The Council of Ministers holds office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister
  • (B) The Council of Ministers holds office during the pleasure of the President
  • (C) The Council of Ministers holds office during the pleasure of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  • (D) The Council of Ministers holds office for a fixed term of five years

Question 46:

In which recent judgement did the Honourable Supreme Court of India allow for the first time a plea for Passive Euthanasia?

  • (A) Harish Rana Vs. Union of India 2026 INSC 222
  • (B) Balaji Jaiswal Vs. State of Chhattisgarh 2026 INSC 375
  • (C) Mahendra Awase Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh 2025 INSC 76
  • (D) Dr. Rajinder Rajan Vs. Union of India & Anr, 2026 LIVELAW (SC) 327

Question 47:

Which of the following cases laid down the “rarest of rare” doctrine for awarding the death penalty in India?

  • (A) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) AIR 597
  • (B) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1982) 3 SCC 24
  • (C) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala AIR 1973 SC 1461
  • (D) Selvi v. State of Karnataka AIR 2010 SC 1974

Question 48:

The Indian Contract Act, 1872, came into force on?

  • (A) 1st August, 1872
  • (B) 1st September, 1872
  • (C) 1st October, 1872
  • (D) 1st November, 1872

Question 49:

The idol of Ram Lalla at the Ram temple in Ayodhya is?

  • (A) A natural person
  • (B) A legal person
  • (C) Not a person in the eyes of the law because only the priest of the temple will be a person
  • (D) A person, because no personality can be conferred to God

Question 50:

An agreement that is enforceable by law is called?

  • (A) Contract
  • (B) Promise
  • (C) Agreement
  • (D) Invitation to treat

Question 51:

Goods displayed in a shop with a price tag are an?

  • (A) Offer
  • (B) Invitation to offer
  • (C) Counteroffer
  • (D) Promise

Question 52:

Which among the below mentioned option is correct as per the Indian Contract Act?

  • (A) Consideration can be present only
  • (B) Consideration can only be present or future
  • (C) Consideration can be past, present, or future
  • (D) Past consideration is no consideration

Question 53:

Marriage between two Hindus can be solemnized under?

  • (A) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
  • (B) Special Marriage Act, 1954
  • (C) Either (A) or (B)
  • (D) Only (A) and not (B)

Question 54:

A has filed a suit for breach of contract against ‘B’. The District Court at Chandigarh decided in A’s favour. B, however, appealed to the Punjab and Haryana High Court. The legal terminology for B is appellant, while A would be called?

  • (A) Accused
  • (B) Plaintiff
  • (C) Defendant
  • (D) Respondent

Question 55:

A Hindu married woman, who has a Hindu husband living and marries a Muslim man, is guilty for the offence of ____?

  • (A) Adultery
  • (B) Polygamy
  • (C) Bigamy
  • (D) Mischief

Question 56:

Sapinda relationship rule is based on?

  • (A) Principle of endogamy
  • (B) Principle of exogamy
  • (C) Principle of monogamy
  • (D) Principle of polygamy

Question 57:

Under the Mitakshara school, the joint family property devolves by?

  • (A) Succession
  • (B) Survivorship
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) Either (A) or (B)

Question 58:

The amount paid by the husband to the wife at the time of marriage in Muslim Law is known as?

  • (A) Dowry
  • (B) Mehr
  • (C) Nafaqah
  • (D) Hiba

Question 59:

A Muslim can marry any number of wives not exceeding four. If a Muslim marries a fifth wife, the nature of such a marriage shall be?

  • (A) Valid
  • (B) Irregular
  • (C) Void
  • (D) None of these

Question 60:

“Tort” as a legal term, derived from the Latin word tortum, belongs to which of the following linguistic origins?

  • (A) French word
  • (B) English word
  • (C) Latin word
  • (D) Greek word

Question 61:

A person who, without having any interest in the subject matter of a civil proceeding, provides pecuniary assistance or support to a party under an agreement that he shall receive a share in the proceeds of the litigation, is guilty of?

  • (A) Maintenance
  • (B) Barratry
  • (C) Champerty
  • (D) Malicious prosecution

Question 62:

X and Y are on a morning walk with their dogs. Y’s dog is ferocious. Z is also on a morning walk. The dogs of X and Y suddenly start fighting and approach Z. Frightened by the dogs, Z tries to step aside and is injured in the process. In this situation, Z can file a suit against whom?

  • (A) Z can file a suit either against Y or X
  • (B) Z can file a suit against X alone, as his dog started the fight
  • (C) Z can file a suit only against Y, as his dog was more ferocious
  • (D) Z cannot file a suit against either X or Y

Question 63:

What is the correct meaning of the legal maxim “Ex turpi causa non oritur actio”?

  • (A) From an immoral cause, no action arises
  • (B) No action lies against the State
  • (C) Where there is a right, there is a remedy
  • (D) Law does not concern itself with trifles

Question 64:

The maxim “Res Ipsa Loquitor” means?

  • (A) The thing speaks for itself
  • (B) The burden of proof lies on the plaintiff
  • (C) An action dies with the person
  • (D) To a willing person, no injury is done

Question 65:

Which among the following is not a punishment under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

  • (A) Death
  • (B) Transportation for life
  • (C) Life imprisonment
  • (D) Community service

Question 66:

Husband and Wife have a right to each other’s company. Is this right?

  • (A) Matrimonial right
  • (B) Conjugal right
  • (C) Legal right
  • (D) Consortium right

Question 67:

With reference to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which among the following is not a newly introduced offence under the new criminal law framework?

  • (A) Organised Crime
  • (B) Petty organised crime
  • (C) Terrorist Act
  • (D) Stalking

Question 68:

“A” and his girlfriend “P”, both adults, engage in consensual sexual intercourse in the privacy of the bedroom of the latter, and “A” with her consent, prepares a video clip on his mobile camera and later shows it in total privacy to his friend “X”. This amounts to?

  • (A) No offence
  • (B) Molestation
  • (C) Voyeurism
  • (D) Sexual harassment

Question 69:

The Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, came into force on which date?

  • (A) 1st June, 2024
  • (B) 1st June, 2025
  • (C) 1st July, 2023
  • (D) 1st July, 2024

Question 70:

For an offence of Affray, the minimum number of persons required is?

  • (A) one
  • (B) two
  • (C) three
  • (D) four

Question 71:

Some people decided to go to a movie and spend Rs. 192 on the snacks. While going for a movie, they found that 4 people had not shown up. Therefore, the amount to be spent on snacks was recalculated, and an extra burden of Rs. 8 per person was imposed on the friends present. How many friends had planned to go to the movie initially?

  • (A) \(12 \)
  • (B) \(4 \)
  • (C) \(16 \)
  • (D) \(10 \)

Question 72:

Pointing to a photograph, Mrs. Riya said, “He is the son of the only daughter of my grandfather’s only son.” How is the boy in the photograph related to Mrs. Riya?

  • (A) Brother
  • (B) Cousin
  • (C) Nephew
  • (D) Son

Question 73:

Sakshi starts from her college and walks 12 km towards the North. She then turns right and walks 5 km. After that, she turns right again and walks 4 km. She then turns left and walks 7 km. Finally, she turns left and walks 1 km. How far is Sakshi from her college and in which direction?

  • (A) 13 km, North-East
  • (B) 12 km, South-East
  • (C) 10 km, North-West
  • (D) 15 km, North-East

Question 74:

The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 70 years. Ten years ago, the father’s age was thrice the age of the son. Now the son’s age will be:

  • (A) 22.5 years
  • (B) 18 years
  • (C) 15 years
  • (D) 20.5 years

Question 75:

Arjun correctly remembers that the moot court competition is after 12th September but before 22nd September. Naina correctly remembers that the competition is not on a prime-numbered date and is after 15th September. Kabir correctly remembers that the competition is before 20th September and falls on an even date. Riya correctly remembers that the date is a multiple of 3. On which date in September is the moot court competition definitely scheduled?

  • (A) 16th September
  • (B) 18th September
  • (C) 21st September
  • (D) Data Inadequate

Question 76:

A watch, which gains uniformly, is 2 minutes slow at noon on Monday and is 4 minutes 48 seconds fast at 2 PM on the following Monday. When was it correct?

  • (A) 2 PM on Tuesday
  • (B) 2 PM on Wednesday
  • (C) 3 PM on Thursday
  • (D) 1 PM on Friday

Question 77:

Statements:

1. All advocates are readers.

2. Some readers are writers.

3. No writer is careless.

Conclusions:

I. Some advocates are writers.

II. No advocate is careless.

III. Some readers are not careless.

  • (A) Only I follows
  • (B) Only III follows
  • (C) Only II and III follow
  • (D) Only I and III follow

Question 78:

Neha appeared for her judiciary preliminary examination on 12th November 2009, which was a Thursday. On which of the following dates did 12th November again fall on a Thursday?

  • (A) 12th November 2014
  • (B) 12th November 2015
  • (C) 12th November 2016
  • (D) 12th November 2017

Question 79:

In a certain code language: LEGAL is written as PWUAP; COURT is written as YMGJH. How will JUDGE be written in that code language?

  • (A) RGXUW
  • (B) SHYVX
  • (C) SGYVW
  • (D) RHZVX

Question 80:

Ritika and Sneha are standing in a row of girls. Ritika is 18th from the left end of the row, and Sneha is 24th from the right end. If they interchange their positions, Ritika becomes 31st from the left end. What will be the new position of Sneha from the right end?

  • (A) 35th
  • (B) 36th
  • (C) 37th
  • (D) 38th

Question 81:

Choose the option that best completes the analogy:
Ornithologist : Birds :: Entomologist : ?

  • (A) Animals
  • (B) Reptiles
  • (C) Insects
  • (D) Plants

Question 82:

Choose the word that does NOT belong with the others:

  • (A) Habeas Corpus
  • (B) Mandamus
  • (C) Certiorari
  • (D) Affidavit

Question 83:

Read the passage carefully and choose the statement that is definitely true.
Passage: Aarav is fourteen years old. For the past two years, he has been asking his parents for a rabbit. His parents have told him that they believe a rabbit would not be comfortable in a small house, but they have allowed him to keep a fish instead. Aarav has not yet decided which kind of fish he would like to buy.

  • (A) Aarav’s parents like fish better than rabbits.
  • (B) Aarav dislikes fish.
  • (C) Aarav and his parents live in a small house.
  • (D) Aarav and his parents plan to move soon.

Question 84:

Which letter will be fourth from the last if all the letters of the word PRODUCTION are reversed and then each letter is replaced by the letter which is next to it in alphabetical order?

  • (A) E
  • (B) V
  • (C) Q
  • (D) O

Question 85:

A cuboid-shaped wooden block has dimensions 6 cm \(\times\) 4 cm \(\times\) 1 cm.
\(\bullet\) The two 4 cm \(\times\) 1 cm faces are coloured black.
\(\bullet\) The two 6 cm \(\times\) 1 cm faces are coloured red.
\(\bullet\) The two 6 cm \(\times\) 4 cm faces are coloured green.

The block is cut into small cubes of side 1 cm.

Question: How many cubes having red, green, and black colours on at least one side of the cube will be formed?

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 4

Question 86:

Choose the correct meaning of the below-mentioned idiom?
“Alpha and Omega”

  • (A) Something divine
  • (B) A beautiful object
  • (C) The least important point
  • (D) The beginning and the end

Question 87:

Choose the correct meaning of the below-mentioned idiom?
“Extempore speech”

  • (A) A speech made without preparation
  • (B) A speech made with preparation
  • (C) A speech read directly from a prepared script
  • (D) A speech made with moderate preparation

Question 88:

Choose the correct meaning of the below-mentioned idiom?
“Yeoman’s service”

  • (A) Efficient or useful help
  • (B) Minimal or insignificant assistance
  • (C) Work done only for personal gain without benefit to others
  • (D) Service performed reluctantly and without dedication

Question 89:

Choose the most appropriate option, which correctly describes the meaning of the word below mentioned: -
“Altar”

  • (A) To change
  • (B) Place of offering
  • (C) A legal agreement between two parties
  • (D) A structure used as a boundary marker between properties

Question 90:

Choose the most appropriate option, which correctly describes the meaning of below mentioned word?
“Voracity”

  • (A) Truthfulness
  • (B) Greed
  • (C) Kindness
  • (D) Calmness

Question 91:

Choose the most appropriate option, which correctly describes the meaning of below mentioned word: -
“Stationary”

  • (A) Writing material
  • (B) Not moving
  • (C) Temporary
  • (D) Continuously changing positions

Question 92:

If I ______ rich, I would travel the world.

  • (A) am
  • (B) was
  • (C) were
  • (D) be

Question 93:

She ______ to the market every day.

  • (A) go
  • (B) goes
  • (C) is going
  • (D) has gone

Question 94:

A person who speaks many languages is called?

  • (A) Linguist
  • (B) Polyglot
  • (C) Orator
  • (D) Translator

Question 95:

A person who hates mankind is called?

  • (A) Philanthropist
  • (B) Misanthrope
  • (C) Misogynist
  • (D) Cynic

Question 96:

A government by a single person with absolute power is called?

  • (A) Democracy
  • (B) Republic
  • (C) Dictatorship
  • (D) Federalism

Question 97:

Choose the word which is closest in meaning to the word mentioned below-
“Vast”

  • (A) Tiny
  • (B) Huge
  • (C) Narrow
  • (D) Short

Question 98:

Choose the word which is closest in meaning to the word mentioned below-
“Obfuscate”

  • (A) Clarify
  • (B) Confuse
  • (C) Reveal
  • (D) Simplify

Question 99:

Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to below mentioned word-
“Benevolent”

  • (A) Kind
  • (B) Generous
  • (C) Cruel
  • (D) Helpful

Question 100:

Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the word mentioned below-
“Lucid”

  • (A) Clear
  • (B) Transparent
  • (C) Obscure
  • (D) Bright

PU LLB 2026 Exam Pattern

Particulars Details
Exam Name PU LL.B. (3 Years) Entrance Test 2026
Conducting Body Department of Laws, Panjab University, Chandigarh
Exam Level State-Level (Punjab)
Programme 3-Year LL.B.
Mode of Exam Offline (Pen and Paper)
Language of Paper English, Hindi, Punjabi
Total Questions 100 (Objective Type)
Total Marks 100
Duration 90 Minutes
Negative Marking Yes (−0.25 marks per wrong answer)
Available Seats Around 480 (across four centres)
Selection Basis 100% entrance test score

PU LLB 2026 Revision