TS PGECET 2026 Metallurgical Engineering (MT) Question Paper: Download Answer Key with Solutions PDF

Collegedunia Team

Content Curator | Updated on - Jul 9, 2026

TS PGECET 2026 Metallurgical Engineering (MT) Question Paper is available for download here. JNTU Hyderabad on behalf of Telangana Council of Higher Education (TGCHE) conducted TS PGECET 2026 MT exam on May 30 in Shift 2 from 2 PM to 4 PM. TS PGECET MT Question Paper consists of 120 questions for 120 marks to be attempted in 2 hours.

TS PGECET MT Question Paper 2026 is divided into 2 sections- Engineering Mathematics with 10 questions and Metallurgical Engineering domain with 110 questions.
Each questions carries 1 mark each and there is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Candidates can download TS PGECET 2026 MT Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from links provided below.

TS PGECET 2026 MT Question Paper with Solution PDF

TS PGECET MT Question Paper 2026	Download PDF	Check Solutions

Question 1:

If

\[ \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} \] is an eigenvector of the matrix \[ \begin{bmatrix} m & 3 \\ 3 & m \end{bmatrix} \] then the corresponding eigenvalue is:

(A) \(m-3\)
(B) \(m+3\)
(C) \(m\)
(D) \(3m\)

Detailed Solution

Question 2:

The system of equations \[ x-2y+3z=6,\quad 3x+y-4z=-7,\quad 5x-3y+2z=5 \]
has:

(A) No solution
(B) Unique solution
(C) Infinite number of solutions
(D) Zero solution

Detailed Solution

Question 3:

Which of the following series is divergent?

(A) \(\sum \sin\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\)
(B) \(\sum \left(1+\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}\right)^{-n^{1/2}}\)
(C) \(\sum \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{-n^{2}}\)
(D) \(\sum \frac{1}{(\log n)^n}\)

Detailed Solution

Question 4:

If \(f(x)=e^{-x}\) in \((-1,1)\) and the Fourier series of \(f(x)\) is given by \[ f(x)=\frac{a_0}{2}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(a_n\cos nx+b_n\sin nx), \]
then the Fourier coefficient \(a_0\) is:

(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) \(2\cosh 1\)
(D) \(2\sinh 1\)

Detailed Solution

Question 5:

If \[ \vec{F}=(x+2y+az)\hat{i}+(bx-3y-z)\hat{j}+(4x+cy+2z)\hat{k} \]
is irrotational, then \((a,b,c)\) is:

(A) (1,4,2)
(B) (4,2,1)
(C) (4,2,-1)
(D) (2,4,-1)

Detailed Solution

Question 6:

If \(e^{\sin x}\) is an integrating factor of \[ \frac{dy}{dx}+(y-1)\cos x=e^{-\sin x}\cos x, \]
then the general solution is:

(A) \((e^{\sin x}+c)e^{-\sin x}\)
(B) \((\sin x+e^{\sin x}+c)e^{-\sin x}\)
(C) \((\cos x+e^{\sin x}+c)e^{-\sin x}\)
(D) \((\cos x+e^{\cos x}+c)e^{-\sin x}\)

Detailed Solution

Question 7:

Find \(L\{t\,u(t-2)\}\).

(A) \(\frac{e^{-2s}}{s}\)
(B) \(\frac{e^{-2s}(2s+1)}{s}\)
(C) \(\frac{e^{-2s}(2s+1)}{s^2}\)
(D) \(\frac{e^{-2s}(2s+1)}{s^3}\)

Detailed Solution

Question 8:

Using Runge-Kutta method, when \(\frac{dy}{dx}=xy+y^{2}\), \(y(0)=1\) is solved by taking \(h=0.1\), then in the usual notation the value of \(k_{1}\) is:

(A) 0.001
(B) 0.0001
(C) 0.01
(D) 0.1

Detailed Solution

Question 9:

If \(X \sim N(\mu,\sigma^2)\) then:

(A) \(P(X<\mu)=1\)
(B) \(P(X=\mu)=0\)
(C) \(P(X>\mu)=0\)
(D) \(P(X=\mu)=0.5\)

Detailed Solution

Question 10:

Assertion (A): Spearman rank correlation coefficient is used for ordinal data.

Reason (R): It is based on ranks rather than actual values.

(A) A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A
(B) A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

Detailed Solution

Question 11:

The figure shows variation of heat capacity with temperature for Nickel (0–800 K). If the curve shows discontinuity at point P, then this is due to:

(A) Magnetic transformation of Nickel bar
(B) Change due to inclusions in Nickel bar
(C) Change due to porosity in Nickel bar
(D) Change in dimensions of Nickel bar

Detailed Solution

Question 12:

Match the following in Ellingham diagram:

(A) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Detailed Solution

Question 13:

Which of the following is correct for entropy change in a reversible process?

(A) \(\Delta S_{system}+\Delta S_{surroundings}>0\)
(B) \(\Delta S_{system}<0\)
(C) \(\Delta S_{system}+\Delta S_{surroundings}=0\)
(D) \(\Delta S_{surroundings}=0\)

Detailed Solution

Question 14:

From Clausius-Clapeyron equation, assuming constant \(\Delta H_v\), the slope of \(\ln P\) vs \(1/T\) is:

(A) \(\frac{\Delta H_v}{R}\)
(B) \(-\frac{\Delta H_v}{R}\)
(C) \(\frac{R}{\Delta H_v}\)
(D) \(-\frac{R}{\Delta H_v}\)

Detailed Solution

Question 15:

The quantity that balances the chemical driving force of a reversible electrochemical reaction is:

(A) Entropy change
(B) Electric current
(C) Electromotive force
(D) Internal energy

Detailed Solution

Question 16:

The cell having identical electrodes with different concentrations of electrolytes is:

(A) Battery cell
(B) Galvanic cell
(C) Electrolytic cell
(D) Concentration cell

Detailed Solution

Question 17:

Consider the Daniell cell: \[ Zn|Zn^{2+} \;||\; Cu^{2+}|Cu \]
and identify the incorrect statement:

(A) Zinc acts as the anode
(B) Copper undergoes oxidation
(C) Sulphate ions migrate to maintain charge balance
(D) EMF depends on electrolyte concentration

Detailed Solution

Question 18:

Pitting corrosion is dangerous in thin sections mainly because:

(A) Uniform metal thinning
(B) Formation of protective corrosion products
(C) Pits detection is difficult due to small size
(D) High cathodic overpotential

Detailed Solution

Question 19:

Match the following:

(A) A-I, B-II, C-IV
(B) A-III, B-I, C-II
(C) A-IV, B-III, C-I
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-II

Detailed Solution

Question 20:

In transient heat conduction, the lumped capacitance method is valid only when:

(A) Internal conduction resistance is greater than surface convection resistance
(B) Biot number is less than 0.1
(C) Fourier number is less than 1
(D) Thermal diffusivity is very high

Detailed Solution

Question 21:

Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) Thermal conductivity of gases decreases with temperature
(B) In good conductors, thermal conductivity increases with temperature
(C) In insulators, thermal conductivity decreases with temperature
(D) Liquids (water) have higher thermal conductivity than metals and alloys

Detailed Solution

Question 22:

The negative sign in Fick's first law indicates that diffusion flux occurs:

(A) Along increasing concentration
(B) Independent of concentration gradient
(C) Opposite to the concentration gradient
(D) Only at equilibrium

Detailed Solution

Question 23:

Match the following:

(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Detailed Solution

Question 24:

At composition \(C_a\), the free energy curve has a minimum. Which statement is correct?

(A) Unstable equilibrium state
(B) Metastable state
(C) Phase boundary composition
(D) Stable composition of \(\alpha\) phase

Detailed Solution

Question 25:

Given statements:

I. An isolated system exchanges matter and energy with surroundings

II. A closed system exchanges only energy with surroundings

III. An open system does not exchange matter or energy

(A) Both I and II are correct
(B) Both II and III are correct
(C) Only II is correct
(D) Only III is correct

Detailed Solution

Question 26:

The ratio of any two extensive properties is independent of:

(A) Total mass
(B) Total heat
(C) Total system
(D) Total time

Detailed Solution

Question 27:

Which of the following is true for an adiabatic process?

(A) Temperature remains constant throughout the process
(B) All heat absorbed is equal to work done on the system
(C) Energy change is equal to work done on the system
(D) Energy is static variable and dependent on the path

Detailed Solution

Question 28:

Identify the incorrect statement:

(A) Activity of an ideal gas is equal to its partial pressure and is unity
(B) Activity of non-ideal gas is equal to its fugacity and is unity
(C) Activity of pure solid and liquid in standard state is unity
(D) Activity is ratio of fugacity in actual state to standard state fugacity

Detailed Solution

Question 29:

According to Trouton's rule, the entropy of vaporization is primarily related to:

(A) Heat of fusion
(B) Fusion temperature
(C) Boiling temperature
(D) Crystal structure

Detailed Solution

Question 30:

The quantity representing change in temperature of a gas with pressure at constant enthalpy is called:

(A) Thermal expansion coefficient
(B) Joule-Thomson coefficient
(C) Compressibility factor
(D) Isothermal pressure

Detailed Solution

Question 31:

Which factor mainly controls permeability in the bosh region of a blast furnace?

(A) Slag basicity
(B) Coke strength and size
(C) Iron ore reducibility
(D) Blast temperature

Detailed Solution

Question 32:

The dead-man zone in a blast furnace mainly consists of:

(A) Molten slag
(B) Molten iron
(C) Undissolved solid coke particles
(D) Reduced iron fines

Detailed Solution

Question 33:

Which condition is not essential for desulphurization in an LD converter?

(A) High temperature
(B) Basic slag
(C) High viscosity and low fluidity of slag
(D) Good slag-metal contact

Detailed Solution

Question 34:

The primary reason for tapering of blast furnace walls in the bosh region is to:

(A) Compensate for decrease in apparent burden volume
(B) Improve slag foaming
(C) Increase heat losses
(D) Increase raceway depth

Detailed Solution

Question 35:

Match the following:

(A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(C) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(D) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Detailed Solution

Question 36:

The slag with V-ratio \(=\frac{%CaO}{%SiO_2}\) less than unity is classified as:

(A) Basic
(B) Neutral
(C) Amphoteric
(D) Acidic

Detailed Solution

Question 37:

The concept of vacuum degassing was initially introduced primarily for removal of:

(A) Hydrogen in liquid steel
(B) Sulphur in liquid steel
(C) Carbon in liquid steel
(D) Manganese in liquid steel

Detailed Solution

Question 38:

Uranium extraction involves preparation of uranium tetrafluoride by hydrofluorination from:

(A) Uranium dioxide
(B) Uranyl nitrate
(C) Uranium trioxide
(D) Uranium phosphate

Detailed Solution

Question 39:

In extraction of thorium, \(ThCl_4\) is prepared from:

(A) Thorium oxalate
(B) Thorium hydroxide
(C) Thorium sulphate
(D) Thorium carbonate

Detailed Solution

Question 40:

Roasting is not necessary for:

(A) Low Cu, high FeS concentrates
(B) High grade Cu concentrates (>30% Cu)
(C) Loss of copper from concentrate
(D) Elimination of sulphur from FeS-rich concentrates

Detailed Solution

Question 41:

In a three-layer refining of Aluminium, the impure Aluminium is alloyed with which of the metals to form a bottom layer?

(A) Titanium
(B) Manganese
(C) Nickel
(D) Copper

Detailed Solution

Question 42:

Blue powder is the byproduct of Zinc extractions and it contains mainly:

(A) Mixture of zinc and zinc oxide
(B) Mixture of zinc and zinc sulphide
(C) Mixture of zinc oxide and zinc hydride
(D) Mixture of zinc sulphide and zinc oxide

Detailed Solution

Question 43:

Beach marks are observed in:

(A) Impact failure
(B) Tensile failure
(C) Shear failure
(D) Fatigue failure

Detailed Solution

Question 44:

Magnesium cannot be obtained by electrolysis of aqueous MgCl\(_2\) or MgSO\(_4\) because:

(A) Hydrogen is evolved before Mg is deposited
(B) Reduction potential of Mg\(^{2+}\) is higher than water
(C) Mg is dissolved in solution
(D) Use of amalgam cathode increases deposition potential

Detailed Solution

Question 45:

The kinetics of the Pidgeon process is controlled by:

(A) H\(_2\)O vapour
(B) SiO vapour
(C) MgO vapour
(D) H\(_2\) vapour

Detailed Solution

Question 46:

In the Mond process, nickel reacts with carbon monoxide to form:

(A) NiO
(B) Ni\(_2\)O
(C) NiCO
(D) Ni(CO)\(_4\)

Detailed Solution

Question 47:

Which of the following metals does NOT have face-centered cubic (fcc) structure?

(A) Copper
(B) Nickel
(C) Silver
(D) Sodium

Detailed Solution

Question 48:

Match the following:

(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Detailed Solution

Question 49:

Jigging operation depends on the difference in:

(A) Surface chemistry
(B) Electrical conductivity
(C) Specific gravity
(D) Magnetic susceptibility

Detailed Solution

Question 50:

Which industrial process uses heavy suspension?

(A) Lessing process
(B) Bertrand process
(C) DuPont process
(D) Chance sand-flotation process

Detailed Solution

Question 51:

The stress at which the stress-strain curve deviates from linearity is:

(A) Endurance limit
(B) Proportionality limit
(C) Elastic limit
(D) No limit

Detailed Solution

Question 52:

Which of the following is not related to Mohr's circle in three dimensions?

(A) Determining principal stresses
(B) Calculating maximum shear stress
(C) Visualizing stress on any plane
(D) Determining elastic modulus

Detailed Solution

Question 53:

The basis on which the Von Mises criterion is preferred compared to maximum shear stress criterion theoretically is:

(A) It has lower accuracy
(B) It considers all three principal stresses
(C) It considers maximum shear stress
(D) Its energy is associated with change of volume of material

Detailed Solution

Question 54:

An example of a liquid metal mixture which produces near ideal solutions is:

(A) Copper - Magnesium
(B) Bismuth - Cadmium
(C) Iron - Silver
(D) Bismuth - Tin

Detailed Solution

Question 55:

The effect of ferrite stabilizers on Fe–Fe\(_3\)C phase diagram is:

(A) Lowers A1 point and raises A4 point
(B) Increases the austenite region
(C) Decreases the amount of carbon in gamma iron
(D) Raises the eutectoid temperature

Detailed Solution

Question 56:

Nitrogen pickup by liquid steel is low in:

(A) LD process
(B) Bessemer process
(C) Open-hearth process
(D) Twin hearth process

Detailed Solution

Question 57:

Which of the following metal has low stacking fault energy?

(A) Gold
(B) Silver
(C) Copper
(D) Nickel

Detailed Solution

Question 58:

Dislocations with burgers vectors b₁ and b2, combine to produce a resultant dislocation b3. The vector b3 is given by the vector sum of b₁ and b2, the dissociation reaction \(b_{1}\rightarrow b_{2}+b_{3}\) will occur when

(A) \(b_{1}^{2} > b_{2}^{2} + b_{3}^{2}\)
(B) \(b_{1}^{2} < b_{2}^{2} + b_{3}^{2}\)
(C) \(b_{1}^{2} = b_{2}^{2} + b_{3}^{2}\)
(D) \(b_{1}^{2} \div b_{2}^{2} + b_{3}^{2}\)

Detailed Solution

Question 59:

"Dislocation lines are not straight but rather dislocation lines are flexible" is given by

(A) Mott and Nabarro
(B) Taylor and Quinney
(C) Frank and Read
(D) Cottrell and Bilby

Detailed Solution

Question 60:

The shear stress required to move a dislocation through a crystal lattice is called:

(A) Critical resolved shear stress
(B) Flow stress
(C) Hoop stress
(D) Peierls stress

Detailed Solution

Question 61:

Which of the following is not a mechanism by which solute atoms interact with dislocations?

(A) Elastic interaction
(B) Magnetic interaction
(C) Stacking-fault interaction
(D) Electrical interaction

Detailed Solution

Question 62:

The sensitivity of fracture of brittle solids to surface conditions is termed as the

(A) Hall-Petch effect
(B) Joffe effect
(C) Bauschinger effect
(D) Portevin-Le Chatelier effect

Detailed Solution

Question 63:

The law which states that fracture occurs when the resolved normal stress on a plane reaches a critical value is

(A) Griffith law
(B) Nabbaro's law
(C) Sohncke's law
(D) Tresca criterion

Detailed Solution

Question 64:

Brittle fractures occur in a trans granular manner. If the grain boundaries contain a film of brittle constituent, the fracture will occur

(A) In an intergranular manner along grain boundaries
(B) By ductile rupture through the grains
(C) With significant plastic deformation at grain boundaries
(D) By cleavage independent of grain boundary condition

Detailed Solution

Question 65:

The analytical treatment of ductile fracture using a model of cylindrical holes with initial radius (b) and average spacing (L) was proposed by

(A) Griffith
(B) Orowan
(C) Hall-Petch
(D) McClintock

Detailed Solution

Question 66:

Consider the following Assertion (A): A notch increases the tendency for brittle fracture in a material. Reason (R): A notch produces high local stresses, introduces a triaxial tensile state of stress, causes local strain hardening, cracking and magnifies the local strain rate.

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true

Detailed Solution

Question 67:

Consider the following Assertion (A): The shape and magnitude of the stress-strain curve of a metal depend on its composition, heat treatment, prior plastic deformation, strain rate, temperature and state of stress during testing. Reason (R): Tensile strength and yield strength are strength parameters, whereas percent elongation and reduction of area are measures of ductility.

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true

Detailed Solution

Question 68:

The fundamental assumption behind Barba's law in tensile testing is that

(A) Plastic deformation remains uniform up to fracture
(B) The elastic strain contribution is negligible
(C) Specimens that are geometrically similar develop similar necked regions
(D) Necking is governed only by material composition

Detailed Solution

Question 69:

In Dynamic hardness testing, the hardness is measured by

(A) Size of the permanent indentation produced under a static load
(B) Resistance to plastic deformation
(C) Energy of impact
(D) Diagonal length of the indentation by a pyramidal indenter

Detailed Solution

Question 70:

The correct statement for a cold-worked material is

(A) Both Meyer and Brinell hardness increase with load
(B) Meyer hardness is constant and independent of load
(C) Brinell hardness remains constant with load
(D) Meyer hardness decreases with increasing load

Detailed Solution

Question 71:

According to Irwin, the local stresses near a crack depend on the product of

(A) Nominal stress and square root of crack length
(B) Nominal stress and crack length
(C) Nominal strain and crack length
(D) Yield stress and crack width

Detailed Solution

Question 72:

Fatigue data are commonly presented using

(A) Maximum stress only
(B) Mean stress and strain
(C) Minimum stress only
(D) Stress ratio and amplitude ratio

Detailed Solution

Question 73:

The two statistical methods used for making a statistical estimate of the fatigue limit are

(A) Miner rule and Cumulative damage theory
(B) Probit analysis and Staircase method
(C) Goodman relation and Soderberg criterion
(D) Basquin equation and Coffin-Manson relation

Detailed Solution

Question 74:

In Andrade's analysis of creep, the two components that together form the creep curve are

(A) Elastic strain and plastic flow
(B) Dislocation creep and diffusion creep
(C) Primary creep and tertiary creep
(D) Transient creep and constant-rate viscous creep

Detailed Solution

Question 75:

The creep mechanism observed at very low stresses with stress exponent \(n=1\) is given by

(A) Harper-Dorn creep
(B) Nabarro-Herring creep
(C) Coble creep
(D) Power-law breakdown creep

Detailed Solution

Question 76:

With respect to mechanical behavior, ceramic materials are generally

(A) Soft and highly ductile
(B) Weak but very flexible
(C) Stiff and strong compared to metals
(D) Elastic with low stiffness

Detailed Solution

Question 77:

The incorrect statement about polymers is

(A) Most polymers exhibit high electrical conductivity
(B) Polymers are generally chemically inert in many environments
(C) Many polymers are ductile and can be easily shaped into complex forms
(D) Polymers are usually nonmagnetic in nature

Detailed Solution

Question 78:

Which of the following statement is incorrect based on covalent bond characteristics?

(A) Covalent bonds are non-directional in nature
(B) Diamond has a very high hardness due to strong covalent bonding
(C) Silicon and germanium form covalently bonded crystal structures
(D) Covalent bonding involves shared electrons between atoms

Detailed Solution

Question 79:

Match the following:

(A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I, E-V
(B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-V, E-IV
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-V, D-I, E-II
(D) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I

Detailed Solution

Question 80:

The microstructure is revealed by the following surface treatment process, using an appropriate chemical reagent

(A) Polishing
(B) Grinding
(C) Buffing
(D) Etching

Detailed Solution

Question 81:

The sets of planes which can appear in an FCC diffraction pattern is

(A) (100), (110), (111)
(B) (111), (200), (220)
(C) (110), (211), (310)
(D) (100), (200), (210)

Detailed Solution

Question 82:

In an X-ray diffraction pattern, reflections from a BCC crystal will appear only when

(A) h, k, l is all odd
(B) h, k, l is all even
(C) h+k+l is an even number
(D) h+k+l is an odd number

Detailed Solution

Question 83:

Which of the following represents octahedral interstitial site in an FCC lattice?

(A) \((\frac{1}{4},\frac{1}{4},\frac{1}{4})\)
(B) \((\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2})\)
(C) \((\frac{1}{3},\frac{1}{3},\frac{1}{3})\)
(D) (0,0,0)

Detailed Solution

Question 84:

The following statements describe the procedure for determining the Miller indices of a crystallographic plane, but they are not in the correct order. Arrange them in the proper sequence.

I. The final set of integers is written within parentheses as (h k l) representing the plane indices.

II. The intercepts made by the plane on the x, y, and z axes are determined and denoted as a, b, and c.

III. If the plane passes through the origin, an equivalent parallel plane is drawn or the origin is shifted to another lattice point.

IV. The reciprocals of the intercepts are taken; an infinite intercept results in a zero index.

V. The reciprocals are multiplied by the corresponding lattice parameters a, b, and c to normalize them.

VI. The normalized values are converted into the smallest possible integers by multiplying or dividing by a common factor

(A) III, II, IV, V, VI, I
(B) III, IV, V, VI, II, I
(C) II, III, IV, V, I, VI
(D) IV, V, VI, III, II, I

Detailed Solution

Question 85:

An electron micrograph shows a scale bar labeled \(2~\mu m\). When measured on the printed image, the scale bar length is 15 mm. What is the magnification of the micrograph?

(A) \(2500\times\)
(B) \(5000\times\)
(C) \(7500\times\)
(D) \(15000\times\)

Detailed Solution

Question 86:

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) In substitutional solid solutions, impurity atoms replace host atoms in the lattice
(B) Dislocations are zero-dimensional crystalline defects
(C) Microscopy is used for observing microstructure using suitable microscopes
(D) The intercept method is used to measure grain size in a material

Detailed Solution

Question 87:

What happens in a eutectoid reaction on cooling?

(A) Liquid transforms into two solids
(B) One solid transforms into two different solids
(C) Two solids combine to form one solid
(D) Liquid transforms into one solid

Detailed Solution

Question 88:

Match the following:

(A) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Detailed Solution

Question 89:

Compared to homogeneous nucleation, the activation free energy required for heterogeneous nucleation is

(A) Lower
(B) Same
(C) Higher
(D) Independent of temperature

Detailed Solution

Question 90:

The equation that describes how the extent of phase transformation changes with time is known as

(A) Arrhenius equation
(B) Gibbs phase rule
(C) Clausius-Clapeyron equation
(D) Avrami equation

Detailed Solution

Question 91:

Which sequence correctly orders steel microstructures from highest to lowest hardness?

(A) Fine pearlite, Martensite, Bainite, Spheroidite
(B) Martensite, Tempered martensite, Bainite, Spheroidite
(C) Bainite, Martensite, Fine pearlite, Spheroidite
(D) Tempered martensite, Fine pearlite, Martensite, Spheroidite

Detailed Solution

Question 92:

An engineer needs a material for springs with minimal permanent deformation under load. Which property - alloy combination best satisfies this requirement?

(A) High ductility - electrolytic copper
(B) High yield strength - beryllium copper
(C) Moderate strength - cartridge brass
(D) Low elongation - leaded brass

Detailed Solution

Question 93:

The true strain (\(\epsilon\)) and engineering strain (e) are related by

(A) \(\epsilon=\ln(e)\)
(B) \(e=\ln(\epsilon)\)
(C) \(\epsilon=\ln(1+e)\)
(D) \(e=\ln(1+\epsilon)\)

Detailed Solution

Question 94:

Consider the following

Assertion (A): Jominy end-quench test is not suitable for evaluating maximum hardness of steel.

Reason (R): The Jominy end-quench test measures hardness variation along the length of a standard specimen

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true

Detailed Solution

Question 95:

Which of the following correctly represents the increasing order of modulus of elasticity for the given materials?

(A) Zirconia < Soda-lime glass < Aluminium oxide
(B) Aluminium oxide < Zirconia < Soda-lime glass
(C) Soda-lime glass < Aluminium oxide < Zirconia
(D) Soda-lime glass < Zirconia < Aluminium oxide

Detailed Solution

Question 96:

The hardening process normally used for the hardening of machine tool guideways is

(A) Martempering
(B) Flame hardening
(C) Austempering
(D) Induction hardening

Detailed Solution

Question 97:

Match the following:

(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(D) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Detailed Solution

Question 98:

Which of the following represents the correct decreasing order of their electrical conductivity?

(A) Silver > Gold > Aluminium > Platinum
(B) Silver > Aluminium > Gold > Platinum
(C) Gold > Silver > Aluminium > Platinum
(D) Silver > Gold > Platinum > Aluminium

Detailed Solution

Question 99:

Which of the following materials are having high thermal conductivity? I. Silver II. Gold III. Nickel IV. Brass

(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and IV only
(D) III and IV only

Detailed Solution

Question 100:

Which of the following is soft magnetic material?

(A) Alnico
(B) Cunife
(C) Tungsten steel
(D) Supermalloy

Detailed Solution

Question 101:

Complete the analogy: Avoids mould sticking: Parting sand :: Improves surface finish :

(A) Backing sand
(B) Facing sand
(C) System sand
(D) Core sand

Detailed Solution

Question 102:

Match the following:

(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(D) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

Detailed Solution

Question 103:

Identify the casting defect shown in the given figure:

(A) Porosity
(B) Hot Tears
(C) Swell
(D) Misrun

Detailed Solution

Question 104:

Liquid contraction during solidification of a casting will be taken care by

(A) Runner
(B) Sprue
(C) Riser
(D) Gate

Detailed Solution

Question 105:

Consider the following:

Assertion (A): In SAW, the welding arc is not visible during welding.
Reason (R): The arc is completely submerged under a layer of granular flux.

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true

Detailed Solution

Question 106:

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In TIG welding, electrode consumption contributes to metal deposition

Statement-II: MIG welding is preferred for automation due to continuous wire feeding

Statement-III: MMAW electrodes require controlled storage conditions

(A) Statement-I and Statement-II are true
(B) Statement-II and Statement-III are true
(C) Statement-I and Statement-III are true
(D) Statement-I, Statement-II and Statement-III are true

Detailed Solution

Question 107:

In the AWS electrode classification E6013, the number "60" indicates

(A) Type of coating
(B) Welding position
(C) Minimum tensile strength of weld metal
(D) Polarity of welding current

Detailed Solution

Question 108:

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Drawing - Direct compression
(B) Forging - Tension type
(C) Blanking - Shearing
(D) Bending - Indirect compression

Detailed Solution

Question 109:

Which method permits point-by-point calculation of stress but is limited to plane-strain conditions only?

(A) Slip-line field theory
(B) Uniform-deformation energy method
(C) Slab method
(D) Finite element methods

Detailed Solution

Question 110:

Tomlinson and Stringer defined the coefficient of spread S in cogging as the ratio of

(A) Increase in length to decrease in width
(B) Increase in width to reduction in height
(C) Reduction in height to increase in length
(D) Reduction in width to increase in height

Detailed Solution

Question 111:

Temper rolling improves all of the following except

(A) Surface quality
(B) Flatness
(C) Yield-point elongation behaviour
(D) Grain size refinement

Detailed Solution

Question 112:

The term merchant mill refers to a rolling mill designed to roll

(A) Plates
(B) Sheets
(C) Bars
(D) Foils

Detailed Solution

Question 113:

Impact extrusion is a process used to produce

(A) Long solid bars
(B) Short lengths of hollow shapes
(C) Thin flat sheets
(D) Large solid billets

Detailed Solution

Question 114:

As per the Ugine-Sejournet process, the lubricant most commonly used for high-temperature extrusion is

(A) Molten glass
(B) Oil
(C) Soap solution
(D) Solid wax

Detailed Solution

Question 115:

In the production sequence of pipe or tubing, a rolling mill is used to remove

(A) Surface cracks
(B) Scale formation
(C) Slight oval shape
(D) Residual stresses

Detailed Solution

Question 116:

In the Hoeganaes process, which statement is not correct?

(A) Limestone acts as a flux and limits sulphur contamination
(B) Mill scale is the raw material used
(C) The final reduction stage occurs in a hydrogen atmosphere
(D) Treatment is carried out in silicon carbide containers

Detailed Solution

Question 117:

The following steps are involved in unidirectional die compaction in powder metallurgy, but they are jumbled:

I. Removal of load by retracting the punch

II. Ejection of the green compact

III. Charging the powder mix

IV. Applying load using a punch to compact the powders

Choose the correct sequence:

(A) III, IV, I, II
(B) III, I, IV, II
(C) IV, III, I, II
(D) IV, I, III, II

Detailed Solution

Question 118:

Which of the following statements regarding liquid phase sintering is/are correct?

Statement-I: An appreciable amount of liquid phase must be present

Statement-II: There must be appreciable solubility of the solid in the liquid

Statement-III: Complete wetting of the solid by the liquid is required

(A) Statement-I only
(B) Statement-I and Statement-II only
(C) Statement-II and Statement-III only
(D) Statement-I, Statement-II and Statement-III

Detailed Solution

Question 119:

The method which is related to pressure less powder shaping method is

(A) Powder extrusion
(B) Injection moulding
(C) Slurry moulding
(D) Wet compaction

Detailed Solution

Question 120:

Which of the following statement is correct based on the ultrasonic testing screen display as shown in the figure?

(A) Increase in defect size increases the backwall echo height
(B) Defect-free material shows both defect echo and backwall echo
(C) A large defect produces a large defect echo and a small backwall echo
(D) A small defect completely eliminates the backwall echo

Detailed Solution

TS PGECET 2026 Exam Pattern

Particulars	Details
Exam Mode	Computer-Based Test(CBT)
Question Type	Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs)
Total Questions	120 Questions
Total Marks	120 Marks
Exam Duration	2 Hours
Marking Scheme	+1 mark for each correct answer
Negative Marking	No Negative Marking
Language of Paper	English

TS PGECET 2026 Preparation Strategy

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TS PGECET Questions

1.
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
- Drawing - Direct compression
- Forging - Tension type
- Blanking - Shearing
- Bending - Indirect compression
View Solution
2.
Which of the following statement is correct based on the ultrasonic testing screen display as shown in the figure?
- Increase in defect size increases the backwall echo height
- Defect-free material shows both defect echo and backwall echo
- A large defect produces a large defect echo and a small backwall echo
- A small defect completely eliminates the backwall echo
View Solution
3.
In the production sequence of pipe or tubing, a rolling mill is used to remove
- Surface cracks
- Scale formation
- Slight oval shape
- Residual stresses
View Solution
4.
Temper rolling improves all of the following except
- Surface quality
- Flatness
- Yield-point elongation behaviour
- Grain size refinement
View Solution
5.
Impact extrusion is a process used to produce
- Long solid bars
- Short lengths of hollow shapes
- Thin flat sheets
- Large solid billets
View Solution
6.
The following steps are involved in unidirectional die compaction in powder metallurgy, but they are jumbled:
I. Removal of load by retracting the punch
II. Ejection of the green compact
III. Charging the powder mix
IV. Applying load using a punch to compact the powders
Choose the correct sequence:
- III, IV, I, II
- III, I, IV, II
- IV, III, I, II
- IV, I, III, II
View Solution

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