AP PGECET 2026 Electronics and Communication Engineering Question Paper is available for download here. Andhra University, Visakhapatnam on behalf of APSCHE conducted AP PGECET 2026 Electronics and Communication Engineering exam on April 29 in Shift 1. AP PGECET is a state-level entrance exam conducted online for admission into M.Tech./M.Pharm./Pharm.D (PB) courses.

  • AP PGECET Question Paper consists of 120 questions divided into two sections- Mathematics and Engineering Domain Specific.
  • Each correct answer answer carries 1 mark and there is no negative marking for incorrect answer.

Candidates can download AP PGECET 2026 Electronics and Communication Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below.

AP PGECET 2026 Electronics and Communication Engineering Question Paper with Solutions

AP PGECET 2026 Electronics and Communication Engineering Question Paper Download PDF Check Solution


Question 1:

The number of nodes in a graph having 5 branches and 2 independent loops is

  • (A) \(3 \)
  • (B) \(4 \)
  • (C) \(5 \)
  • (D) \(6 \)

Question 2:

For the given circuit, the values of \(R_{th}\) across the terminal AB and \(V_{th}\) are and , respectively.

  • (A) \(4.34 \ \Omega, \ 5.54 V \)
  • (B) \(3.67 \ \Omega, \ 3.33 V \)
  • (C) \(3.43 \ \Omega, \ 6.67 V \)
  • (D) \(3.67 \ \Omega, \ 6.67 V \)

Question 3:

If a Delta circuit has branches \(R_{ab} = 10\ \Omega\), \(R_{bc} = 20\ \Omega\), and \(R_{ca} = 30\ \Omega\), what is the equivalent Wye resistor \(R_a\) connected to node?

  • (A) \(10\ \Omega \)
  • (B) \(20\ \Omega \)
  • (C) \(5\ \Omega \)
  • (D) \(6\ \Omega \)

Question 4:

In sinusoidal steady-state analysis, which of the following best describes the use of phasors?

  • (A) Phasors are used to simplify time-domain analysis of RLC circuits by representing sinusoidal signals as complex numbers
  • (B) Phasors are only used for DC analysis
  • (C) Phasors convert differential equations into algebraic equations in the time domain
  • (D) Phasors are used to compute the time derivative of voltage or current

Question 5:

What does the Laplace transform do the differential equation of an RLC circuit?

  • (A) It simplifies the equation by transforming it from the frequency domain to the time domain
  • (B) It retains the differential equation as it is
  • (C) It converts the circuit parameters into phasor form
  • (D) It converts a time-domain differential equation into an algebraic equation in the s-domain

Question 6:

For a symmetrical two-port network, which of the following is NOT necessarily true?

  • (A) \(z_{11} = z_{22} \)
  • (B) \(y_{11} = y_{22} \)
  • (C) \(A = D \)
  • (D) \(AD - BC = 1 \)

Question 7:

Which of the following best describes the band structure of intrinsic silicon?

  • (A) Single energy band
  • (B) Completely overlapping conduction and valence bands
  • (C) A wide band gap between the conduction and the valence bands
  • (D) No conduction band

Question 8:

The primary characteristic of a tunnel diode is its {1cm}.

  • (A) very high forward resistance
  • (B) negative resistance
  • (C) low breakdown resistance
  • (D) high capacitance

Question 9:

At very high electric fields in silicon, the drift velocity of electrons becomes independent of the electric field. This phenomenon is known as:

  • (A) Velocity Saturation
  • (B) Avalanche Breakdown
  • (C) Negative Differential Resistance
  • (D) High-field Ionization

Question 10:

In an n-channel JFET, if the gate voltage is made more negative than the pinch-off voltage, what happens to the drain current?

  • (A) Drain current increases linearly
  • (B) Drain current saturates
  • (C) Drain current drops to near zero
  • (D) Drain current reverses direction

Question 11:

Which of the following is a characteristic of the MOS capacitor?

  • (A) The capacitance is zero when there is no applied voltage
  • (B) The capacitance increases with increasing voltage applied to the gate
  • (C) The capacitance is independent of the gate voltage
  • (D) The MOS capacitor can only store holes

Question 12:

What distinguishes the light emitted by a LASER diode from an LED?

  • (A) LED light is monochromatic
  • (B) LASER light is coherent
  • (C) LED light is directional
  • (D) LASER light is non-directional

Question 13:

In silicon IC fabrication, 'Dry Oxidation' is generally preferred over 'Wet Oxidation' for growing:

  • (A) Thick field oxides
  • (B) Gate oxides
  • (C) Isolation layers
  • (D) Passivation layers

Question 14:

In a MOSFET small-signal model, if the drain current is doubled while maintaining the same device dimensions, the trans-conductance will:

  • (A) Remain the same
  • (B) Increase by a factor of 2
  • (C) Increase by a factor of \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) Decrease by a factor of \(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 15:

A positive clamper circuit with a 10V DC source is fed with a 20V p-p sinusoidal input. What is the minimum DC voltage level at the output?

  • (A) \(0 V \)
  • (B) \(10 V \)
  • (C) \(20 V \)
  • (D) \(-10 V \)

Question 16:

A negative feedback amplifier has an open-loop gain of 100 and a feedback factor \(\beta = 0.09\). If the open-loop gain changes by 10% due to aging, what is the percentage change in the closed-loop gain of the amplifier?

  • (A) \(1 \ % \)
  • (B) \(10 \ % \)
  • (C) \(0.1 \ % \)
  • (D) \(0.9 \ % \)

Question 17:

In an op-amp, which of the following best describes the ‘virtual short’ concept?

  • (A) The op-amp behaves like a short circuit in feedback configuration
  • (B) The op-amp input terminals are shorted together for operation
  • (C) The output voltage of the op-amp is always zero
  • (D) The voltage difference between the inverting and non-inverting inputs is close to zero in an ideal op-amp

Question 18:

A two-stage RC-coupled amplifier has stage-1 lower cutoff frequency \(f_{L1} = 100 Hz\) and stage-2 lower cutoff frequency \(f_{L2} = 1 kHz\). The overall lower cutoff frequency of the amplifier is approximately:

  • (A) \(50 Hz \)
  • (B) \(100 Hz \)
  • (C) \(1 kHz \)
  • (D) \(1.1 kHz \)

Question 19:

Which of the following is a common application of a 555 timer in monostable mode?

  • (A) To generate a constant output signal
  • (B) To generate a fixed pulse with output signal
  • (C) To oscillate continuously
  • (D) To provide a frequency response

Question 20:

A full-wave rectifier has a load resistor of \(1 k\Omega\) and a capacitor of \(100\ muF\). Doubling the load resistor will .

  • (A) double ripple voltage
  • (B) halve ripple voltage
  • (C) no change
  • (D) quadruple ripple voltage

Question 21:

The minimal SOP expression for a 3-variable function having \(m\) in terms of \(\sum m(1,3,5,7)\) is

  • (A) \(C \)
  • (B) \(A+C \)
  • (C) \(B \)
  • (D) \(AB+C \)

Question 22:

The logic family which is least affected by temperature variations, is

  • (A) DTL
  • (B) TTL
  • (C) CMOS
  • (D) ECL

Question 23:

In a positive edge-triggered \(JK\) flip-flop, the \(J\) input is connected to \(\bar{Q}\) (inverted output) and the \(K\) input is connected to \(Q\) (normal output). If the flip-flop is initially in the RESET state (\(Q=0, \bar{Q}=1\)) and is subjected to 4 consecutive positive clock pulses, what will be the final state of \(Q\)?

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(0101\) (oscillates)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) Indeterminate

Question 24:

If a sample and hold circuit is not used with an ADC, the result may be _______.

  • (A) more accurate
  • (B) completely error-free
  • (C) corrupted/inaccurate due to aperture error
  • (D) faster with high resolution

Question 25:

A ring counter (with 4 flip-flops) has how many unique states?

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(8\)
  • (D) \(16\)

Question 26:

Signal distortionless transmission through an LTI system requires:

  • (A) Constant magnitude response only
  • (B) Linear phase only
  • (C) Constant magnitude and linear phase
  • (D) Zero group delay

Question 27:

The frequency response magnitude of a DT-LTI system tends to infinity when

  • (A) Input is zero
  • (B) Poles lie on the unit circle
  • (C) Zeros lie on the unit circle
  • (D) System is causal and stable

Question 28:

What is the primary difference between CTFT and DTFT?

  • (A) CTFT is periodic and DTFT is non-periodic
  • (B) CTFT transforms a discrete-time signal and DTFT transforms a continuous-time signal
  • (C) CTFT is non-periodic and DTFT is periodic
  • (D) CTFT is defined for periodic signals and DTFT is for non-periodic signals

Question 29:

In a causal and stable LTI system, the impulse response \(h(t)\) must satisfy which condition ?

  • (A) \(h(t)\) is always positive
  • (B) \(h(t)\) is periodic
  • (C) \(h(t)\) must be absolutely integrable
  • (D) \(h(t)\) must be bounded

Question 30:

What is the Fourier Transform of a Gaussian function \(e^{-t^2}\) ?

  • (A) A delta function
  • (B) A sinc function
  • (C) Another Gaussian function
  • (D) A step function

Question 31:

In FFT computation, reducing complexity from \(O(N^2)\) to \(O(N \log_2 N)\) relies fundamentally on _______.

  • (A) periodicity of time-domain signal
  • (B) symmetry and periodicity of twiddle factors
  • (C) linearity of DFT
  • (D) convolution theorem

Question 32:

If the impulse response of a discrete-time LTI system is finite in length, which property is always guaranteed?

  • (A) Causality
  • (B) Stability
  • (C) Linearity
  • (D) Time invariance

Question 33:

For a discrete-time periodic signal with period \(N\), how many distinct Fourier coefficients exist?

  • (A) Infinite
  • (B) \(N/2\)
  • (C) \(N\)
  • (D) \(2N\)

Question 34:

The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is \(G(s) = \frac{10}{s(s+2)}\), what is the steady state error for a unit step input?

  • (A) Infinite
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(0.1\)
  • (D) \(0.2\)

Question 35:

A second order system has \(\omega_n = 4 rad/sec\) and \(\zeta = 0.5\). What is the damped natural frequency \(\omega_d\) ?

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(1.73\)
  • (D) \(3.46\)

Question 36:

The characteristic equation of a system is \(s^3 + 3s^2 + 3s + 1 = 0\). How many poles lie in the right half plane?

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 37:

If the open-loop transfer function \(G(s)H(s)\) has one pole in the right-half of the \(s\)-plane, for the closed-loop system to be stable, the Nyquist plot must encircle the \((-1, j0)\) point _______.

  • (A) once in the clockwise direction
  • (B) twice in the counter-clockwise direction
  • (C) once in the counter-clockwise direction
  • (D) zero times

Question 38:

A phase-lead compensator is primarily used to _______.

  • (A) decrease the steady-state error
  • (B) increase the damping and improve transient response
  • (C) reduce the bandwidth of the system
  • (D) increase the rise time

Question 39:

Which part of a PID controller is specifically responsible for eliminating the steady-state error?

  • (A) Proportional term
  • (B) Feedforward term
  • (C) Integral term
  • (D) Derivative term

Question 40:

For the state equation \(\dot{x} = 3x\) , the system is _______.

  • (A) stable
  • (B) marginally stable
  • (C) unstable
  • (D) oscillatory

Question 41:

Gain cross over frequency is the frequency at which _______.

  • (A) Phase is zero
  • (B) Magnitude is \(0 dB\)
  • (C) Phase is \(-180^\circ\)
  • (D) Gain is maximum

Question 42:

What is the primary advantage of using a super-heterodyne receiver?

  • (A) Simplicity in construction
  • (B) High frequency response
  • (C) Improved signal selectivity and sensitivity
  • (D) Direct conversion of the received signal

Question 43:

Which of the following digital modulation schemes has the lowest probability of error at a given SNR?

  • (A) ASK
  • (B) FSK
  • (C) PSK
  • (D) DPSK

Question 44:

Which of the following is a salient feature of GSM _____.

  • (A) frequency modulation for voice transmission
  • (B) advanced multi-carrier transmission
  • (C) digital system using TDMA/FDMA
  • (D) low user capacity compared to analog

Question 45:

In a coherent BPSK modulation scheme, if the input bit rate is doubled while keeping the symbol energy as constant, what is the effect on the transmission bandwidth (\(BW\)) and the probability of bit error (\(P_e\))?

  • (A) \(BW\) doubles, \(P_e\) increases
  • (B) \(BW\) doubles, \(P_e\) remains same
  • (C) \(BW\) remains same, \(P_e\) increases
  • (D) \(BW\) doubles, \(P_e\) decreases

Question 46:

A Gaussian noise channel has a bandwidth of \(4 kHz\) and a signal-to-noise power ratio (SNR) of \(15\). According to the Shannon-Hartley theorem, what is the maximum capacity of this channel?

  • (A) \(32 kbps\)
  • (B) \(16 kbps\)
  • (C) \(60 kbps\)
  • (D) \(64 kbps\)

Question 47:

The total average power of a signal equals:

  • (A) Peak value of PSD
  • (B) Area under the PSD curve
  • (C) Value of PSD at zero frequency
  • (D) Average of PSD over the bandwidth

Question 48:

For a WSS random process, the autocorrelation \(R_x(\tau)\) as \(\tau \rightarrow \infty\) approaches:

  • (A) Zero always
  • (B) Mean square value
  • (C) Square of the mean
  • (D) Signal power

Question 49:

The skin depth in a conductor is:

  • (A) Inversely proportional to conductivity
  • (B) Directly proportional to square root of conductivity
  • (C) Inversely proportional to square root of conductivity
  • (D) Independent of material properties

Question 50:

Which of the following statements is NOT true about Maxwell's equations in differential form?

  • (A) Gauss's Law states that the electric flux density is proportional to the charge density.
  • (B) Faraday's Law implies that a time-varying magnetic field produces an electric field.
  • (C) Ampere's Law in differential form shows that magnetic fields have sources and sinks.
  • (D) Gauss's Law for magnetism states that magnetic monopoles do not exist.

Question 51:

The radiation pattern of a dipole antenna is characterized by,

  • (A) A constant radiation intensity in all directions
  • (B) A doughnut-shaped distribution with maximum radiation perpendicular to the axis
  • (C) Maximum radiation along the axis of the dipole
  • (D) A uniform radiation pattern in the far field

Question 52:

The Poynting vector in electromagnetic theory represents,

  • (A) The electric field strength at a point
  • (B) The rate at which energy is transported by the electromagnetic wave
  • (C) The potential energy in the electric field
  • (D) The time-averaged power dissipated in a resistor

Question 53:

Which of the following is the primary condition that must be satisfied at the boundary of a perfect electric conductor (PEC) for an electromagnetic wave?

  • (A) The tangential component of the magnetic field is zero
  • (B) The tangential component of the electric field is zero
  • (C) The normal component of the electric field is zero
  • (D) The normal component of the magnetic field is continuous and non-zero

Question 54:

Find current \(i_2\) in the shown network

  • (A) \(0 A\)
  • (B) \(3 A\)
  • (C) \(1 A\)
  • (D) \(2 A\)

Question 55:

For every tree there will be ______ number of cut set matrices.

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 56:

In the circuit shown, find the current through \(4\Omega\) resistor using Superposition theorem.

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(5\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(7\)

Question 57:

Find the voltage at node P, shown in the figure.

  • (A) \(9V\)
  • (B) \(3.6V\)
  • (C) \(10V\)
  • (D) \(4.3V\)

Question 58:

In an R-C circuit, when the switch is closed, the response _______.

  • (A) do not vary with time
  • (B) decays with time
  • (C) rises with time
  • (D) first increases and then decreases

Question 59:

What type of semiconductor is used in LED ?

  • (A) Intrinsic semiconductor
  • (B) Compound semiconductor
  • (C) Degenerated semiconductor
  • (D) Compensated semiconductor

Question 60:

The voltage equivalent of temperature (\(V_T\)) in a \(p-n\) junctions is given by

  • (A) T/1000 volts
  • (B) T/300 volts
  • (C) T/1600 volts
  • (D) T/11600 volts

Question 61:

The application of a CC configured transistor is _________.

  • (A) voltage multiplier
  • (B) level shifter
  • (C) rectification
  • (D) impedance matching

Question 62:

What is the behaviour of a PIN diode under reverse bias?

  • (A) It conducts high current.
  • (B) It acts as a variable resistor.
  • (C) It acts as a variable capacitor.
  • (D) It acts as a closed switch.

Question 63:

What is the role of input capacitance in the transistor amplifying circuit?

  • (A) To prevent input variation from reaching output
  • (B) To prevent DC content in the input from reaching transistor
  • (C) There isn't any role for input capacitance
  • (D) To bypass AC signal to ground

Question 64:

Given that \(R1=20k\Omega\), \(C1=2nF\), \(R2=20k\Omega\), \(C2=2nF\), find the approximate resonant frequency of a Wein bridge oscillator.

  • (A) \(4kHz\)
  • (B) \(3kHz\)
  • (C) \(25kHz\)
  • (D) \(15kHz\)

Question 65:

Which among the following can be used to detect the missing heart beat?

  • (A) Mono-stable multivibrator
  • (B) Astable multivibrator
  • (C) Schmitt trigger
  • (D) Filter

Question 66:

In a low pass filter as below, find the cut-off frequency for the following circuit. Given that \(R1=20k\Omega\), \(R2=25k\Omega\), \(C1=10muF\).

  • (A) \(640 kHz\)
  • (B) \(637 Hz\)
  • (C) \(5.5 kHz\)
  • (D) \(200 Hz\)

Question 67:

Which component is used to reduce ripples in a DC power supply?

  • (A) Resistor
  • (B) Filter
  • (C) Transformer
  • (D) Diode

Question 68:

Which of the following options comes under the non-saturated logic family?

  • (A) Emitter -- coupled Logic
  • (B) High-Threshold Logic
  • (C) Integrated -- injection Logic
  • (D) Diode-Transistor Logic

Question 69:

The result ``\(X + XY = X\)'' follows which of these laws?

  • (A) Consensus law
  • (B) Distributive law
  • (C) Duality law
  • (D) Absorption law

Question 70:

The device shown here is most likely a _________.

  • (A) Comparator
  • (B) Multiplexer
  • (C) Inverter
  • (D) Demultiplexer

Question 71:

How many select lines would be required for an 8-line-to-1-line multiplexer?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 3

Question 72:

Which of the following is a register-indirect addressing mode instruction set?

  • (A) LDA 2700H
  • (B) ADI 36H
  • (C) DAA
  • (D) LDAX B

Question 73:

Find the ROC of \(x(t) = e^{-2t} u(t) + e^{-3t} u(t)\).

  • (A) \(\sigma > 2\)
  • (B) \(\sigma > 3\)
  • (C) \(\sigma > -2\)
  • (D) \(\sigma > -3\)

Question 74:

Which of the following systems is memoryless?

  • (A) \(y(t) = x(2t) + x(t)\)
  • (B) \(y(t) = x(t) + 2x(t)\)
  • (C) \(y(t) = -x(t) + x(1-t)\)
  • (D) \(y(t) = x(t) + 2x(t+2)\)

Question 75:

Find the convolution sum of sequences \(x_1[n]=\{1,2,3\}\) and \(x_2[n]=\{2,1,4\}\).

  • (A) \(\{2,5,12,11,12\}\)
  • (B) \(\{2,12,5,11,12\}\)
  • (C) \(\{2,11,5,12,12\}\)
  • (D) \(\{-2,5,-12,11,12\}\)

Question 76:

The total number of complex multiplications required to compute an \(N\)-point DFT using the Radix-2 FFT algorithm is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{N}{2}\log_2N\)
  • (B) \(N\log_2N\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{N}{2}\log N\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{N}{2}\log\left(\dfrac{N}{2}\right)\)

Question 77:

The transfer function from D(s) to C(s) is _________. Given \(G(s) = \frac{2}{3s+1}\) and \(H(s) = 3\)

  • (A) \(2 / (3s+7)\)
  • (B) \(2 / (3s+1)\)
  • (C) \(6 / (3s+7)\)
  • (D) \(3 / (3s+1)\)

Question 78:

The greater the Gain Margin in the control system, the greater is its _________.

  • (A) stability
  • (B) response
  • (C) profit
  • (D) delay

Question 79:

The system with the open loop transfer function \(\frac{1}{s(1+s)}\) is:

  • (A) Type 2 and order 1
  • (B) Type 1 and order 1
  • (C) Type 0 and order 0
  • (D) Type 1 and order 2

Question 80:

{}PD controller:

  • (A) Decreases steady state error and improves stability
  • (B) Rise time decreases
  • (C) Transient response becomes poorer
  • (D) Increases steady state error

Question 81:

Calculate power in each sideband, if power of carrier wave is 176W and there is 60% modulation in amplitude modulated signal?

  • (A) 13.36W
  • (B) 52W
  • (C) 67W
  • (D) 15.84W

Question 82:

In flat top sampling scheme, _______ is kept constant after sampling.

  • (A) amplitude
  • (B) phase
  • (C) frequency
  • (D) time period

Question 83:

The matched filter is equivalent to which of the following?

  • (A) A correlator
  • (B) An envelope detector
  • (C) A PLL
  • (D) An equalizer

Question 84:

Which access technique is primarily used in the Global System for Mobile communications (GSM)?

  • (A) CDMA
  • (B) TDMA
  • (C) FDMA
  • (D) WDMA

Question 85:

The cut off frequency of the dominant mode in a TE wave in the line having a and b as 2.5 cm and 1 cm respectively is,

  • (A) 4.5 GHz
  • (B) 5 GHz
  • (C) 5.5 GHz
  • (D) 6 GHz

Question 86:

Fresnel zone is also called as _________.

  • (A) near Field
  • (B) far Field
  • (C) electrostatic Field
  • (D) reactive Field

Question 87:

What does the parameter \( S_{11} \) represent in a two-port network?

  • (A) Forward transmission coefficient
  • (B) Reverse transmission coefficient.
  • (C) Input reflection coefficient
  • (D) Output reflection coefficient

Question 88:

An amplifier without feedback has a voltage gain of 50, input resistance of 1 k\(\Omega\) and output resistance of 2.5 k\(\Omega\). The input resistance of the current-shunt negative feedback amplifier using the above amplifier with a feedback factor of 0.2, is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{11} k\Omega\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{5} k\Omega\)
  • (C) \(5 k\Omega\)
  • (D) \(11 k\Omega\)

Question 89:

To double the drain current of an N-channel enhancement mode MOSFET biased in saturation {1cm}.

  • (A) channel length should be doubled
  • (B) channel width should be halved
  • (C) channel length should be halved
  • (D) gate oxide thickness should be doubled

Question 90:

The MUX shown in fig is \( 4 \times 1 \) multiplexer. The output Z is \[ \]

  • (A) \(ABC\)
  • (B) \(A \oplus B \oplus C\)
  • (C) \(A \cup B \cup C\)
  • (D) \(A + B + C\)

Question 91:

The initial contents of the 4-bit serial-in-parallel out right-shift register shown in figure is 0110. After three clock pulse applied, the contents of the shift register will be \[ \]

  • (A) 0000
  • (B) 0101
  • (C) 1010
  • (D) 1111

Question 92:

The contents of accumulator after the execution of following instruction will be

MVI A, B7H
ORA A
RAL

  • (A) 6EH
  • (B) 6FH
  • (C) EEH
  • (D) EFH

Question 93:

Consider the circuit, the next state \( Q^+ \) is \[ \]

  • (A) \(PQ\)
  • (B) \(P\overline{Q}\)
  • (C) \(P \oplus Q\)
  • (D) \(P \odot \overline{Q}\)

Question 94:

A system is described by the differential equation \( \frac{d^2y(t)}{dt^2} + 6\frac{dy(t)}{dt} + 5y(t) = x(t) \). Impulse response of the system is

  • (A) \(h(t) = \frac{1}{4}[e^{-2t} - e^{-3t}]u(t)\)
  • (B) \(h(t) = [e^{-t} - e^{-5t}]u(t)\)
  • (C) \(h(t) = \frac{1}{4}[e^{-t} - e^{-5t}]u(t)\)
  • (D) \(h(t) = \frac{1}{4}[e^{-3t} - e^{-2t}]u(t)\)

Question 95:

The Fourier transform of a real valued time signal has {1cm}.

  • (A) odd symmetry
  • (B) even symmetry
  • (C) conjugate symmetry
  • (D) no symmetry

Question 96:

Consider a causal LTI system with frequency response \( H(j\omega) = \frac{1}{j\omega + 3} \). This system produces the output to an input \( x(t) \) as \( y(t) = e^{-3t}u(t) - e^{-4t}u(t) \). The input \( x(t) \) is

  • (A) \((2e^{-4t} - 3e^{-3t})u(t)\)
  • (B) \(e^{-4t}u(t)\)
  • (C) \((e^{-3t} - e^{-4t})u(t)\)
  • (D) \((e^{-4t} - e^{-3t})u(t)\)

Question 97:

The convolution of two DT sequence is,
\( x(n) = \{1 \uparrow, 2, 0, 1\} \)
\( h(n) = \{2, 2, 3\} \)

  • (A) \(\{2 \uparrow, 4, 0, 2, 3, 6\}\)
  • (B) \(\{2 \uparrow, 6, 7, 8, 2, 3\}\)
  • (C) \(\{2, 6, 7, 8 \uparrow, 2, 3\}\)
  • (D) \(\{2, 4, 0 \uparrow, 2, 3, 6\}\)

Question 98:

The value of K for which the unity feedback system \( G(s) = \frac{K}{S(S+2)(S+4)} \) crosses the imaginary axis is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 48

Question 99:

A unity feedback second order system has \( G(s) = \frac{100}{S^2+10S+100} \). The 2% settling time is in second.

  • (A) 0.4
  • (B) 0.8
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 2

Question 100:

What is the transfer function for given bode plot shown in the figure? \[ \]

  • (A) \(\frac{4(S + 0.5)^2}{(S + 10)^3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4000(S + 0.5)^2}{(S + 10)^3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{160(S + 0.5)^2}{(S + 10)^3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1600(S + 0.5)^2}{(S + 10)^3}\)

Question 101:

Consider the unity feedback system with \( G(s) = \frac{2}{S(S+1)(2S+1)} \). what is the phase margin?

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{3}\)

Question 102:

Overall gain of the system shown in the figure is:

  • (A) \( \frac{G_1 + G_2}{1 + G_1G_2 + G_1H + G_2H} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{G_1G_2}{1 + G_1 + G_2 + G_1H + G_2H} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{G_1G_2}{1 + G_1G_2 + G_1H + G_2H} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{G_1 + G_2}{1 + G_1 + G_1 + G_1H + G_2H} \)

Question 103:

The carrier \( c(t) = A\cos(2\pi \times 10^6 t) \) is angle modulated (PM or FM) by the signal \( m(t) = 2\cos(4000\pi t) \). The deviation constants are \( k_p = 3\,rad/V \) & \( k_f = 3000\,Hz/V \). The value of modulation indices \( \beta_f \) & \( \beta_p \) are:

  • (A) \( 6 \& 3 \)
  • (B) \( 12 \& 6 \)
  • (C) \( 3 \& 6 \)
  • (D) Other value

Question 104:

A binary channel with bit rate of 56kbps is available for uniform PCM voice transmission having signal bandwidth of 3.4kHz. The signal-to-noise ratio in decibels is:

  • (A) \( 58.8 \)
  • (B) \( 76.9 \)
  • (C) \( 98.6 \)
  • (D) \( 108.5 \)

Question 105:

A binary signal is transmitted at 10kbps using NRZ signaling. Find the minimum channel bandwidth required in KHz:

  • (A) \( 2.5 \)
  • (B) \( 5 \)
  • (C) \( 1.5 \)
  • (D) \( 20 \)

Question 106:

In a DPSK system the input bit sequence is 1101, initial phase = 0. The transmitted phase sequence is:

  • (A) \( 180^\circ, 0^\circ, 0^\circ, 180^\circ \)
  • (B) \( 0^\circ, 180^\circ, 180^\circ, 0^\circ \)
  • (C) \( 180^\circ, 180^\circ, 0^\circ, 0^\circ \)
  • (D) \( 180^\circ, 0^\circ, 0^\circ, 180^\circ \)

Question 107:

For electrostatic fields in charge free atmosphere, which one of the following is correct?

  • (A) \( \nabla \times E = 0 and \nabla \cdot E = 0 \)
  • (B) \( \nabla \times E \neq 0 and \nabla \cdot E = 0 \)
  • (C) \( \nabla \times E = 0 and \nabla \cdot E \neq 0 \)
  • (D) \( \nabla \times E \neq 0 and \nabla \cdot E \neq 0 \)

Question 108:

In a non-magnetic medium electric field \( E = E_0\cos\omega t \) is applied. If the permittivity of the medium is \( \varepsilon \) and the conductivity is \( \sigma \) then the ratio of the amplitudes of the conduction current density and displacement current density will be:

  • (A) \( \mu_0 / \omega\varepsilon \)
  • (B) \( \sigma / \omega\varepsilon \)
  • (C) \( \sigma\mu_0 / \omega\varepsilon \)
  • (D) Other value

Question 109:

If maximum and minimum voltage on a transmission line are 2V and 5V respectively, VSWR is:

  • (A) \( 0.5 \)
  • (B) \( 2 \)
  • (C) \( 1 \)
  • (D) \( 8 \)

Question 110:

If a transmission line of characteristic impedance \( 25\,\Omega \) is to be matched to a load of \( 100\,\Omega \), then the characteristic impedance of the \(\lambda/4\) transmission line to be used is:

  • (A) \( 70.71\,\Omega \)
  • (B) \( 50\,\Omega \)
  • (C) \( 100\,\Omega \)
  • (D) \( 75\,\Omega \)

Question 111:

Let A be a \( 3 \times 3 \) matrix with real entries such that \(\det(A) = 6\) and \(trace(A) = 0\). If \(\det(A + I) = 0\), where I is the \( 3 \times 3 \) identity matrix, then the eigenvalues of A are:

  • (A) \( -1, 2, 3 \)
  • (B) \( -1, 2, -3 \)
  • (C) \( 1, 2, -3 \)
  • (D) \( -1, -2, 3 \)

Question 112:

Consider the following system of equations: \[ x - 2y + 3z = -1 \] \[ x - 3y + 4z = 1 \] \[ -2x + 4y - 6z = k \]
The value of \( k \) for which the system has infinitely many solutions is ____.

  • (A) \( 0 \)
  • (B) \( 1 \)
  • (C) \( 2 \)
  • (D) \( -1 \)

Question 113:

The value of the improper integral \( \int_{-\infty}^{0} \frac{e^x}{e^{2x} + 1} \, dx \) is equal to ____.

  • (A) \( 0 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\pi}{2} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{\pi}{4} \)
  • (D) \( -\infty \)

Question 114:

Suppose C is the closed curve defined as the circle \( x^2 + y^2 = 1 \) with C oriented anti-clockwise. The value of the line integral \( \oint_C (x \, dy - y \, dx) \) is equal to ____.

  • (A) \( 0 \)
  • (B) \( \pi \)
  • (C) \( 2\pi \)
  • (D) Other value

Question 115:

The general solution of the differential equation \( x^2 \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} - 5x \frac{d5y}{dx} + 13y = 0 \) is _____.

  • (A) \( y = e^{3x}(C_1 \cos 2x + C_2 \sin 2x) \)
  • (B) \( y = e^{3x}(C_1 \cos x + C_2 \sin x) \)
  • (C) \( y = x^3(C_1 \cos(2 \ln x) + C_2 \sin(2 \ln x)) \)
  • (D) \( y = x^3(C_1 \cos(\ln x) + C_2 \sin(\ln x)) \)

Question 116:

Let S be the surface of the cube bounded by \( x = 0, x = 1, y = 0, y = 1, z = 0, z = 1 \). The value of the surface integral \( \iint_S \vec{F} \cdot d\vec{s} \) of a vector field \( \vec{F} = 4xz\hat{i} - y^2\hat{j} + yz\hat{k} \) over the entire surface S of the cube, is _____.

  • (A) \( \frac{5}{2} \)
  • (B) \( 1 \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3}{2} \)

Question 117:

The value of the integral \( \int_C \frac{e^z}{z^3} \, dz \), where \( C : |z| = 1 \) is ____.

  • (A) \( 0 \)
  • (B) \( 1 \)
  • (C) \( \pi i \)
  • (D) Other value

Question 118:

The coefficient of \( \frac{1}{z} \) in the Laurent's series expansion of the function \( f(z) = \frac{1}{z^2(1-z)} \) about \( z = 0 \), is ____.

  • (A) \( -1 \)
  • (B) \( 0 \)
  • (C) \( 1 \)
  • (D) \( 2 \)

Question 119:

Suppose that X has the density function \( f(x) = cx^2 \) for \( 0 \le x \le 1 \) and \( f(x) = 0 \) otherwise. What is \( P(0.1 \le X \le 0.5) \)?

  • (A) \( \frac{1}{25} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{6}{25} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4}{250} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{31}{250} \)

Question 120:

Consider the function \( f(x) = x^3 - x - 1 \) for finding the root of the equation \( f(x) = 0 \). If the initial approximation is \( x_0 = 1 \), then the next approximation \( x_1 \) using the Newton--Raphson method is:

  • (A) \( 1.25 \)
  • (B) \( 1.75 \)
  • (C) \( 1.50 \)
  • (D) \( 1.33 \)

AP PGECET 2026 Electronics and Communication Engineering Topic-wise Weightage

Major Subject Approx. Number of Questions Expected % (Approx.)
Engineering Mathematics 12–18 10–15%
Analog Circuits 12–16 10–13%
Digital Circuits 12–16 10–13%
Signals & Systems 10–14 8–12%
Communication Systems 14–18 12–15%
Control Systems 10–14 8–12%
Electromagnetics 8–12 7–10%
Networks 8–12 7–10%

AP PGECET 2026 Preparation Strategy