AP PGECET 2026 Pharmacy Question Paper is available for download here. Andhra University, Visakhapatnam on behalf of APSCHE conducted AP PGECET 2026 Pharmacy exam on April 28 in Shift 1. AP PGECET is a state-level entrance exam conducted online for admission into M.Tech./M.Pharm./Pharm.D (PB) courses.

  • AP PGECET Question Paper consists of 120 questions for a total of 120 marks.
  • Each correct answer answer carries 1 mark and there is no negative marking for incorrect answer.

Candidates can download AP PGECET 2026 Pharmacy Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below.

AP PGECET 2026 Pharmacy Question Paper with Solutions

AP PGECET 2026 Pharmacy Question Paper Download PDF Check Solution


Question 1:

Which of the following pathways is used in the biosynthesis of carotenoids?

  • (A) Acetate-mevalonate pathway
  • (B) Isoprenoid pathway
  • (C) Phenylpropanoid pathway
  • (D) Shikimic acid pathway

Question 2:

Pyrethrum is a natural insecticide derived from .

  • (A) Azadirachta indica
  • (B) Chrysanthemum cinerariifolium
  • (C) Citronella silvatica
  • (D) Nepeta cataria

Question 3:

Lycopodium spore method of analysis is used for determining of herbal drugs.

  • (A) Moisture content
  • (B) Ash content
  • (C) Purity
  • (D) Metabolites

Question 4:

All are specific identification tests for glycosides except test.

  • (A) Baljet
  • (B) Borntrager's
  • (C) Hager's test
  • (D) Legal

Question 5:

Stas--Otto method is used for extraction of .

  • (A) Steroids
  • (B) Alkaloids
  • (C) Carbohydrates
  • (D) Flavonoids

Question 6:

The most useful evaluation parameter for detecting adulteration in powdered leaf drugs is .

  • (A) Ash value
  • (B) Inorganic impurities
  • (C) Microscopic evaluation
  • (D) Organoleptic evaluation

Question 7:

Papaverine is a alkaloid.

  • (A) Isoquinoline
  • (B) Tropane
  • (C) Pseudo
  • (D) Purine

Question 8:

Which of the following adulterants are added in powdered capsicum for increasing bulk?

  • (A) Dextrin
  • (B) Red sanders wood
  • (C) Powdered olive stones
  • (D) Starch

Question 9:

A manufacturer wishes to cultivate aromatic plants for isolating volatile oils. Which factor that most significantly influences the biosynthesis of volatile oils should be controlled?

  • (A) Altitude and temperature
  • (B) Irrigation schedule
  • (C) Plant spacing
  • (D) Soil moisture

Question 10:

Choose the correct combination.

  • (A) Arachis oil -- rich in MUFA/PUFA, hypoallergenic
  • (B) Croton oil -- alcohol insoluble, purgative
  • (C) Chaulmoogra oil -- anti-psoriatic, Hydnocarpus genus
  • (D) Sunflower oil -- Source of vitamin A, lowers LDL

Question 11:

Which herbal drug enzymes are used for aiding digestion?

  • (A) Rauwolfia
  • (B) Papaya
  • (C) Cinchona
  • (D) Cinnamon

Question 12:

Which test is used to determine the purity of honey?

  • (A) Barfoed's test
  • (B) Fiehe's test
  • (C) Kedde test
  • (D) Salkowski's test

Question 13:

Which test is used to detect anthraquinone glycosides and produces a pink colour in the ammoniacal layer?

  • (A) Salkowski test
  • (B) Hager test
  • (C) Legal test
  • (D) Modified Borntrager's test

Question 14:

Choose the correct option to justify the requirement: ``Absorbent Cotton Wool IP (Indian Pharmacopoeia) should exhibit rapid sinking time.''

  • (A) Within 3--6 seconds
  • (B) Within 7--10 seconds
  • (C) Within 11--15 seconds
  • (D) Within 15--20 seconds

Question 15:

Protein fibroin is a chemical constituent of fibre.

  • (A) Cotton
  • (B) Wool
  • (C) Silk
  • (D) Nylon

Question 16:

Which of the following is NOT an anthranilic acid derivative?

  • (A) Betrixaban
  • (B) Furosemide
  • (C) Mefenamic acid
  • (D) Naproxen

Question 17:

Which of the following is the molecular formula of cisplatin?

  • (A) \(C_{12}H_6N_2Pt\)
  • (B) \(C_6H_{12}N_2O_4Pt\)
  • (C) \(C_2H_8N_2O_3Pt\)
  • (D) \((C_{12}H_{14}N_2O_4)_2 \cdot (Pt^{2+})\)

Question 18:

Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about antianginal organic nitrates?

  • (A) Ester prodrugs of nitric acid and polyols
  • (B) Release nitric oxide to show therapeutic effect
  • (C) Alkyl Nitrates with hydrocarbon chains
  • (D) Lipophilic compounds and rapidly absorbed through bio-membranes

Question 19:

4-(2-Aminoethyl)benzene-1,2-diol is commonly known as ________.

  • (A) catechol
  • (B) dopamine
  • (C) hydroquinone
  • (D) resorcinol

Question 20:

The anti-cancer drug which acts through aziridine-mediated DNA-alkylation is ________.

  • (A) cytarabine
  • (B) cisplatin
  • (C) cyclophosphamide
  • (D) bleomycin

Question 21:

The following pharmacophore is required for the sedative-hypnotic activity of ________ drug.



The image shows a pyrimidine-2,4,6-trione core with two alkyl/aryl substitutions (\(R, R\)) at the C-5 position.

  • (A) zolpidem
  • (B) estazolam
  • (C) quazepam
  • (D) Pentobarbital
Correct Answer: (D) Pentobarbital
Detailed Solution



Concept:
The chemical structure illustrated in the question represents the foundational nucleus of the **Barbiturate** chemical class. Structurally, barbiturates are cyclic derivatives of malonylurea, commonly referred to as barbituric acid (\(2,4,6\)-trioxohexahydropyrimidine). Barbituric acid itself lacks central nervous system (CNS) depressant activity because it is highly ionized at physiological pH and cannot effectively cross the lipophilic blood-brain barrier (BBB). To confer sedative-hypnotic activity, substitutions must be introduced at the C-5 position.

Let us evaluate the structural features and chemical classes of each given option:

Option (A) zolpidem: Zolpidem is a non-benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic drug belonging to the imidazopyridine chemical class. Its core consists of a fused imidazole and pyridine ring system. It lacks the six-membered tri-carbonyl pyrimidine ring entirely.
Option (B) estazolam: Estazolam is a classic benzodiazepine derivative, specifically a triazolobenzodiazepine. Its structure features a benzene ring fused to a seven-membered diazepine ring, which is further fused to a five-membered triazole ring.
Option (C) quazepam: Quazepam is also a member of the benzodiazepine class. It contains a trifluoroethyl group and a thiol/thione modification on the seven-membered ring system, distinctly separating it from the barbiturate family.
Option (D) Pentobarbital: Pentobarbital is a classic barbiturate derivative. Its chemical structure features the exact pyrimidine-2,4,6-trione pharmacophore shown in the question. Specifically, it has an ethyl group and a 1-methylbutyl group substituted at the C-5 position. These hydrocarbon substitutions provide the ideal lipophilicity needed to penetrate the CNS and exert sedative-hypnotic actions via positive allosteric modulation of the \(GABA_A\) receptor complex.


Conclusion: Because the given structure is the defining skeleton of barbiturates, Pentobarbital is the only option that matches this pharmacophore. Quick Tip: For sedative-hypnotic Structure-Activity Relationships (SAR): - Fused rings with a diazepine core = Benzodiazepines. - Imidazopyridine core = Zolpidem. - Pyrimidine-2,4,6-trione ring with C-5 substitutions = Barbiturates (e.g., Phenobarbital, Pentobarbital, Secobarbital).


Question 22:

Which anti-malarial agent is an 8-aminoquinoline derivative?

  • (A) Chloroquine
  • (B) Primaquine
  • (C) Mefloquine
  • (D) Halofantrine

Question 23:

Albuterol basically differs from sympathomimetic in that the hydroxyl group at C-3 of the aromatic ring is replaced with ________ group.

  • (A) hydroxymethyl
  • (B) hydroxyethyl
  • (C) hydroxypropyl
  • (D) hydroxybutyl

Question 24:

Activity of cardiac glycoside depends to a great extent on ________.

  • (A) \(23^{rd}\) carbonyl oxygen
  • (B) C-3 OH
  • (C) side chain at C-14
  • (D) side chain at C-17

Question 25:

Tricyclic antidepressants have how many rings in core structure?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5

Question 26:

Which of the functional group in the given drug is responsible for photosensitivity?



The image displays the core scaffold of a sulfonamide antibacterial (specifically, a sulfanilamide derivative showcasing a para-amino group and a sulfonamide moiety linked to a benzene ring).

  • (A) \(NH_2\)
  • (B) \(SO_2\)
  • (C) \(NH\)
  • (D) \(S\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\text{NH}_2\)
Detailed Solution



Concept:
Photosensitivity is a common cutaneous adverse drug reaction where systemic medications react with incident ultraviolet (UV) radiation from sunlight, leading to cellular damage, phototoxic responses, or photoallergic dermatitis. Sulfonamide antimicrobials (such as Sulfamethoxazole) are classic causes of drug-induced photosensitivity. To identify the responsible functional group, we must look at the photochemical properties of the sulfanilamide nucleus.

Step 1: Analyzing the functional groups on the sulfonamide scaffold.

The basic chemical architecture of a systemically active antibacterial sulfonamide contains:

A core benzene ring.
A sulfonamide group (\(-SO_2NH-\)) at the C-1 position.
A free primary aromatic amine group (\(-NH_2\)) attached at the para position (C-4).


Step 2: Understanding the mechanism of phototoxicity.

When a patient takes a sulfonamide drug, it distributes to cutaneous tissues. Exposure to solar UV light (especially UVA radiation) triggers chemical changes in the molecule:

The para-amino group (\(-NH_2\)) attached to the aromatic ring absorbs photon energy readily due to its high electron density and resonance interaction with the ring.
This absorption leads to photo-oxidation of the primary amine group, transforming it into highly reactive hydroxylamine (\(-NHOH\)) intermediates or free radical species.
These reactive photoproducts can directly damage skin cell membranes (phototoxicity) or bind covalently to cutaneous proteins to form haptens. This induces an immune response that manifests as severe photoallergic dermatitis.

Modifying or acylating this para-amino group eliminates both its antibacterial efficacy and its photosensitizing properties, confirming that the free \(-NH_2\) group is responsible for these photodynamic reactions.

Conclusion: The primary aromatic amino group (\(-NH_2\)) at the para position of sulfonamides is the chemical functional group responsible for triggering photosensitivity reactions. Quick Tip: In medicinal chemistry and toxicology, an unhindered, free **aromatic primary amine group (\(-NH_2\))** is a frequent cause of free-radical generation, hapten formation, photosensitivity, and drug-induced blood dyscrasias (like methemoglobinemia).


Question 27:

Which of the following is not a primary factor that affects the rate of an \(S_{N}1\) Reaction?

  • (A) Concentration of the nucleophile
  • (B) Nature of the leaving group
  • (C) Stability of the carbocation
  • (D) Steric hindrance

Question 28:

Given structure is ________.



The image displays a benzene ring with an ethyl-methyl carbamate moiety attached at the meta position relative to a dimethylaminoethyl branch featuring a single chiral center.

  • (A) edrophonium
  • (B) rivastigmine
  • (C) neostigmine
  • (D) tabun
Correct Answer: (B) rivastigmine
Detailed Solution



Concept:
The chemical structure shown belongs to the class of anticholinesterase agents used to manage neurodegenerative disorders. Specifically, this structural configuration is the identity map of **Rivastigmine**, a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to treat mild-to-moderate dementia associated with Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease.

Let us break down the specific components of the illustrated molecular structure:

The Carbamate Moiety: The structure contains an ester linkage coupled directly to an amine group via a carbonyl spacer (\(-O-C(=O)-N-\)). This specific group is an ethyl(methyl)carbamoyl function, where the carbamate nitrogen is substituted with one methyl group and one ethyl group.
The Aromatic Core: A central benzene ring serves as the base platform, providing a meta-substitution pattern.
The Aliphatic Amine Branch: Meta to the carbamate function, there is an ethyl chain branched with a chiral methyl group and terminated by a dimethylamino group (\(-CH(CH_3)N(CH_3)_2\)).


Let us evaluate the other options to rule them out based on structure:

Option (A) edrophonium: Edrophonium is a simple quaternary ammonium compound. It lacks a carbamate functional group entirely, consisting of a phenol ring substituted with an ethyl and two methyl groups on a charged nitrogen.
Option (C) neostigmine: Neostigmine is also a carbamate-based cholinesterase inhibitor, but it contains a dimethylcarbamoyl group and a permanently charged **quaternary ammonium group** attached to the ring. The structure in the question features a tertiary amine and lacks a permanent positive charge, distinguishing it as rivastigmine.
Option (D) tabun: Tabun is an organophosphorus compound used as a nerve agent. Its structure features a central phosphorus atom linked to a cyano group, a dimethylamino group, and an ethoxy group, which does not resemble this carbamate structure.


Conclusion: The presence of the uncharged tertiary amine side chain and the unsymmetrical ethyl-methyl carbamate group confirms the molecule is Rivastigmine. Quick Tip: To distinguish carbamate acetylcholinesterase inhibitors: - {Neostigmine / Pyridostigmine:} Contain a quaternary ammonium group (permanently charged, cannot cross the blood-brain barrier). - {Rivastigmine:} Contains a tertiary amine (uncharged at physiological pH, crosses the blood-brain barrier into the CNS to treat Alzheimer's disease).


Question 29:

Another name of diphenhydramine is :

  • (A) Benzhydramine
  • (B) Dimenhydrinate
  • (C) Mecloprodin
  • (D) Neohetramine

Question 30:

Due to the presence of a ________, charged ________ group, acetylcholine does not penetrate lipid membranes.

  • (A) highly polar, acetyl
  • (B) weakly polar, acetyl
  • (C) weakly polar, ammonium
  • (D) highly polar, ammonium

Question 31:

Which of the following does not specifically target VEGF receptors?

  • (A) Bevacizumab
  • (B) Everolimus
  • (C) Linalidomide
  • (D) Neuropilin

Question 32:

Which of the following anticoagulant is a sulfated polysachharide?

  • (A) Heparin
  • (B) Warfarin
  • (C) phenindione
  • (D) Dicoumarol

Question 33:

Which of the following statement is NOT CORRECT?

  • (A) Fluoroquinolones absorption is reduced with polyvalent metal ions
  • (B) Sulfamethaxazole is a competitive inhibitor of enzyme dihydropteroate synthase
  • (C) 1,3-Diaminoinositol is the pharmacophore moiety in aminoglycosides
  • (D) Macrocyclic lactone ring is present in tetracycline antibacterials

Question 34:

All statements are true for natural estrogens except:

  • (A) Contain aromatic A-ring
  • (B) Contain C-18 steroid nucleus
  • (C) Have hydroxyl groups at the C-5 and/or C-18 positions
  • (D) Are synthesized from cholesterol through steroidogenesis.

Question 35:

The basic structural moiety of buspirone is ________.

  • (A) azaspirodecanedione
  • (B) benzodiazepine
  • (C) dibenzoxepin
  • (D) Indole

Question 36:

In the given reaction, x will be ________.



The chemical reaction shows **4-hydroxycoumarin** reacting with an \(\alpha,\beta\)-unsaturated ketone, **benzylideneacetone** (\(4\)-phenylbut-\(3\)-en-\(2\)-one), to form product X.

  • (A) warfarin
  • (B) menadione
  • (C) acetomenadione
  • (D) clopidogrel

Question 37:

A compound mainly containing a benzothiadiazine ring is most likely to have ________ activity.

  • (A) antipsychotic
  • (B) anti-histaminic
  • (C) diuretic
  • (D) muscle relaxant

Question 38:

Identify the most commonly used reaction to convert aldehydes and ketones to alkenes

  • (A) Reimer–Tiemann reaction
  • (B) Wittig reaction
  • (C) Wolff reaction
  • (D) Wolff-Kishner reaction

Question 39:

Silver nitrate is used in the limit test of ________.

  • (A) lead
  • (B) sulphate
  • (C) chloride
  • (D) iron

Question 40:

Which of the following is the limit for metals in drugs, expressed in terms of ppm of lead as per the Indian Pharmacopoeia (IP)?

  • (A) \(10 ppm\)
  • (B) \(20 ppm\)
  • (C) \(50 ppm\)
  • (D) \(100 ppm\)

Question 41:

What is the working principle of Hoeppler viscometer?

  • (A) Flow rate of fluid is inversely proportional to its viscosity
  • (B) Rise of liquid in Capillary correlates with its viscosity
  • (C) Time of Fall of a ball in a fluid filled tube correlates with viscosity
  • (D) Torque required to shear a cone against the fluid lined plate correlates with viscosity

Question 42:

Which process causes phase inversion in emulsions?

  • (A) Increase in emulsifier concentration
  • (C) Increased droplet size
  • (D) Increased viscosity

Question 43:

Which form of a drug has greatest solubility?

  • (A) Anhydrous
  • (B) Amorphous
  • (C) Crystalline
  • (D) Monohydrate

Question 44:

Which of the following equations defines the surface excess?

  • (A) BET equation
  • (B) Gibbs equation
  • (C) Langmuir equation
  • (D) Young-Laplace equation

Question 45:

What is the usual range of aggregation number of surfactant molecules to form spherical micelles?

  • (A) 25 to 50
  • (B) 50 to 100
  • (C) 100 to 200
  • (D) 200 to 500

Question 46:

Which of the following solvent is most suitable to determinee partition coefficient of drug?

  • (A) n-Hexane
  • (B) Chloroform
  • (C) Amyl acetate
  • (D) n-Octanol

Question 47:

Which of the following is not a plasticizer?

  • (A) Dioctyl phthalate
  • (B) Glucaric acid
  • (C) Triacetin
  • (D) Triethyl citrate

Question 48:

The time required for the complete degradation of a drug in solution is a finite value. The order of that reaction is:

  • (A) Zero
  • (B) Pseudo First
  • (C) Second
  • (D) First

Question 49:

Which material answers the description of being ``a clay formed from volcanic ash, primarily composed of montmorillonite''?

  • (A) Bentonite
  • (B) Diatomaceous earth
  • (C) Kaolin
  • (D) Veegum

Question 50:

A researcher wishes to formulate a transdermal patch for which a bio adhesive polymer is required. Which of the following is NOT suitable?

  • (A) Hydroxyethyl cellulose
  • (B) Polycarbophil
  • (C) Polyvinylpyrrolidone
  • (D) Polyvinylalcohol

Question 51:

A manufacturer wishes to formulate a cough syrup complying to Indian Pharmacopeial standards. What should be the concentration of sugar in the syrup?

  • (A) \(66.7% w/v\)
  • (B) \(66.7% w/w\)
  • (C) \(85% w/v\)
  • (D) \(85% w/w\)

Question 52:

In which of the following USP dissolution apparatus reciprocating motion is used?

  • (A) Apparatus III
  • (B) Apparatus IV
  • (C) Apparatus V
  • (D) Apparatus VI

Question 53:

The component of pharmaceutical aerosols which ensures that the product is delivered in proper and desired form is called

  • (A) Propellant
  • (B) Valve
  • (C) Actuator
  • (D) Dip Tube

Question 54:

Select the correct combination of tablet defect and one of its formulation related causes

  • (A) Capping – too much binder
  • (B) Lamination - granules with low content of fines
  • (C) Picking - too much lubricant
  • (D) Sticking – improper drying of granules before compression

Question 55:

According to the FDA, the guidelines for stability testing are outlined in:

  • (A) 1 CFR \(\S\) 11.16
  • (B) 11 CFR \(\S\) 21.61
  • (C) 21 CFR \(\S\) 211.166
  • (D) 31 CFR \(\S\) 321.196

Question 56:

In parenterals, Water attack test is used for which type of glass?

  • (A) Type I
  • (B) Type II
  • (C) Type III
  • (D) Non Parentral

Question 57:

Progesterone injection BP is a sterile solution of progesterone in a suitable vegetable oil. Which oil is used in its formulation?

  • (A) Cottonseed oil
  • (B) Ethyl oleate
  • (C) Fractionated coconut oil
  • (D) Soyabean oil

Question 58:

Which of the following combination of properties in a drug makes it suitable for once a day sustained release tablet?

  • (A) Absorbed from the stomach, plasma half-life is 8 hours
  • (B) Administered thrice a day, plasma half-life is 6 hours
  • (C) Dose – 400 mg, administered thrice a day
  • (D) Dose 500 mg, shows extensive first pass metabolism

Question 59:

Which of the following statements are correct :

1. Zein is an alcohol soluble protein derivative from corn

2. Eudragit L and S are soluble in intestinal fluid at pH 6 and pH 7

  • (A) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  • (B) Only 1 is correct
  • (C) Only 2 is correct
  • (D) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect

Question 60:

Which of the following is the recommended storage condition for cyanocobalamin injection USP?

  • (A) Ambient storage
  • (B) Cool place
  • (C) Controlled cold temperature
  • (D) Controlled room temperature

Question 61:

Which of the following methods of sterilization should be chosen for sterilization of disposable plastic syringes?

  • (A) Autoclaving
  • (B) Dry heat sterilization
  • (C) Ethylene oxide sterilization
  • (D) Ultraviolet light sterilization

Question 62:

Which of the following is the least preferred propellant in aerosols due to its highest ozone depleting effect?

  • (A) Butane
  • (B) Freon
  • (C) Propane
  • (D) Tetrafluoropropene

Question 63:

A researcher wants to improve the spreadability of a cleansing cream product. Which of the following ingredients should be added?

  • (A) Isopropyl myristate
  • (B) Ozokerite
  • (C) Stearic acid
  • (D) Xanthan gum

Question 64:

A cosmetologist is preparing a mouth wash. What should be added to ensure hydration of dry mouth?

  • (A) Carbopol
  • (B) Carboxy methyl cellulose
  • (C) Triclosan
  • (D) Xylitol

Question 65:

A drug with \(pK_a\) value of 4.7 is more likely to be less ionized and more absorbed from:

  • (A) Stomach
  • (B) Small Intestine
  • (C) Large Intestine
  • (D) Oesophagus

Question 66:

Which of the following is applicable to Wagner Nelson method?

  • (A) It applies to drugs showing absorption by saturable kinetics
  • (B) It applies to orally administered drugs following a one-compartment model
  • (C) It provides absorption rate constant for drugs following multi-compartment model
  • (D) It characterizes drug absorption kinetics following non-oral administration

Question 67:

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE for Flip-flop phenomenon?

  • (A) Absorption rate constant is significantly higher than the elimination rate constant
  • (B) Apparent elimination rate is influenced more by the absorption process than by the actual elimination process
  • (C) Drugs exhibiting flip-flop kinetics may show prolonged effects due to slower absorption
  • (D) Terminal slope of the plasma concentration-time curve reflects the elimination rate

Question 68:

In non-compartmental analysis, which statement DOES NOT APPLY to Area under the first moment curve [AUMC]?

  • (A) It is the area under the plot of the product of concentration and time vs. time
  • (B) It is used to calculate the mean residence time (MRT) of the drug
  • (C) It is used to calculate the bioavailability and clearance rate
  • (D) It is sensitive to the terminal phase of drug elimination

Question 69:

The excretion rate constant can be determined from

  • (A) Salivary secretion studies
  • (B) Plasma drug concentrations
  • (C) Urinary sample analysis
  • (D) Lung expiration studies

Question 70:

The unit of zero order elimination rate constant is:

  • (A) \(mg/ml*hour\)
  • (B) \(1/hour\)
  • (C) \(mg/hour\)
  • (D) \(1/ml*hour\)

Question 71:

Chapter _______ of the Pharmacy Act, 1948 deals with State Pharmacy Councils.

  • (A) I
  • (B) II
  • (C) III
  • (D) IV

Question 72:

The First Schedule to the Drugs and Cosmetic Act, 1940 prescribes:

  • (A) Standards for cosmetics
  • (B) Standards for medical devices
  • (C) Authoritative books of Ayurvedic, Sidda and Unani systems
  • (D) Standards for drugs

Question 73:

Which of the following description defines a misbranded drug?

  • (A) If it has been substituted wholly or in part by another drug or substances
  • (B) If it is not labelled in the prescribed manner
  • (C) If it purports to be the product of a manufacturer of whom it is not truly a product
  • (D) If it is has been prepared, packed or stored under insanitary conditions where it may be rendered injurious to health

Question 74:

How many maximum members can be there in the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Committee formed under the provisions of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act and Rules?

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 20

Question 75:

Identify the correct pair

  • (A) Essential Commodities Act + DPCO
  • (B) NPPA + CDSCO
  • (C) NPPA + August 2007
  • (D) CDSCO + Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers

Question 76:

Which of the following words fulfils the definition of therapeutic index?
"The therapeutic index is a quantitative measure of a drug's ________".

  • (A) Efficacy
  • (B) Safety
  • (C) Toxicity
  • (D) Therapeutic value

Question 77:

Lithium is used for the treatment of ________.

  • (A) convulsions
  • (B) bipolar disorder
  • (C) parkinson disease
  • (D) alzheimer's disease

Question 78:

Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of Alzheimer's disease?

  • (A) Aducanumab
  • (B) Carbamazepine
  • (C) Donepezil
  • (D) Galantamine

Question 79:

If a patient is suffering from severe fluid accumulation in the body due to kidney dysfunction, the drug used to treat this condition is ________.

  • (A) amlodipine
  • (B) vasopressin
  • (C) spironolactone
  • (D) glimepiride

Question 80:

Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is contraindicated for absence seizures in children?

  • (A) Ethosuximide
  • (B) Lamotrigine
  • (C) Phenytoin
  • (D) Valproic acid

Question 81:

Drug interaction with grapefruit juice involves ________.

  • (A) CYP450 inhibition
  • (B) renal excretion
  • (C) increased metabolism
  • (D) enzyme induction

Question 82:

Proton pump inhibitors act by inhibiting:

  • (A) \(H^+ / K^+ ATPase enzyme\)
  • (B) \(H^+ / Na^+ pump\)
  • (C) \(H^+ / K^+ pump\)
  • (D) \(H^+ / ATPase enzyme\)

Question 83:

Antidote for paracetamol poisoning is ________.

  • (A) N-acetylcysteine
  • (B) naloxone
  • (C) atropine
  • (D) protamine

Question 84:

Which of the following is not an aminoglycoside?

  • (A) Gentamycin
  • (B) Streptomycin
  • (C) Kanamycin
  • (D) Azithromycin

Question 85:

_______ is NOT a serious side effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy.

  • (A) Cushing's syndrome
  • (B) Dyslipidaemia
  • (C) Immune-stimulation
  • (D) Osteoporosis

Question 86:

Metoclopramide produces its pharmacological effects through ________.

  • (A) \(5-HT agonist\)
  • (B) \(dopamine D_2 antagonist\)
  • (C) \(H_1 antagonist\)
  • (D) \(muscarinic antagonist\)

Question 87:

Which of the following is a recently preferred combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from Hepatitis C.?

  • (A) Interferon and ribavirin
  • (B) Interferon and zidovudine
  • (C) Glecaprevir and pibrentasvir
  • (D) Sofosbuvir and Stavudine

Question 88:

In a 3-point bioassay, the main purpose is to:

  • (A) Determine \(LD_{50}\)
  • (B) Compare potency of test and standard drug
  • (C) Determine \(ED_{50}\)
  • (D) Measure toxicity

Question 89:

Antithroid drug inhibiting hormone synthesis is ________.

  • (A) propranolol
  • (B) methimazole
  • (C) levothyroxine
  • (D) iodothyronine

Question 90:

The full form of CAR T- cell therapy used in cancer treatment is:

  • (A) Cancer antibody release Targeted – cell therapy
  • (B) Cancer antigen receptor Targeted – cell therapy
  • (C) Chimeric antigen receptor T- cell therapy
  • (D) Chimeric antibody release T- cell therapy

Question 91:

Which of the following is/are not true about Parkinson's disease?

[A.] Parkinson's disease is caused by the degeneration of the substantia nigra in the midbrain.
[B.] Parkinson's disease is caused by the degenerative loss of nigrostriatal dopaminergic neurons.
[C.] Bradykinesia, rigidity and tremor are the main symptoms in Parkinson's disease.
[D.] Parkinson's disease is caused by the degenerative loss of nigrostriatal cholinergic neurons.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) C only
  • (D) D only

Question 92:

Which of the following is essential for DNA synthesis in RBC maturation?

  • (A) Iron
  • (B) Vitamin B12
  • (C) Vitamin C
  • (D) Calcium

Question 93:

Which of the following prostaglandin is used in the treatment of pulmonary arterial hypertension?

  • (A) Thromboxane A2
  • (B) Prostacyclin
  • (C) Misoprostol
  • (D) Fasudil

Question 94:

Organophosphate poisoning typically presents with __________.

  • (A) dry mouth
  • (B) mydriasis
  • (C) bronchospasm
  • (D) tachycardia

Question 95:

Which drug is commonly used as an emergency oral contraceptive?

  • (A) Ethinyl estradiol
  • (B) Oxytocin
  • (C) Progesterone
  • (D) Levonorgestrel

Question 96:

A Quality Assurance manager conducts tests to determine the ability of a developed analytical method to accurately detect and respond to changes in various parameters. The tested parameter is called as __________.

  • (A) accuracy
  • (B) precision
  • (C) sensitivity
  • (D) specificity

Question 97:

An indicator changes colour over pH 3 to 4 is suitable for __________ titration.

  • (A) strong acid–strong base
  • (B) weak acid–strong base
  • (C) strong base–weak acid
  • (D) weak base–strong acid

Question 98:

Which of the following is NOT used as primary standard for acid-base titration in volumetric analysis?

  • (A) Anhydrous sodium carbonate
  • (B) Potassium dichromate
  • (C) Potassium permanganate
  • (D) Sodium oxalate

Question 99:

Equivalent weight of \(KMnO_4\) in acidic medium is __________.

  • (A) molecular weight of \(KMnO_4/1\)
  • (B) molecular weight of \(KMnO_4/2\)
  • (C) molecular weight of \(KMnO_4/3\)
  • (D) molecular weight of \(KMnO_4/5\)

Question 100:

In (A=A_{1%}^{1,cm} cdot b cdot c), (A_{1%}^{1,cm}) is defined as __________.

  • (A) Absorbance of a 1 mol/L solution in a 1 cm path length cell
  • (B) Absorbance of a 0.1% w/v solution in a cell of 1 cm path length
  • (C) Absorbance of a 1% w/v solution in a cell of 10 cm path length
  • (D) Absorbance of a 1% w/v solution in a cell of 1 cm path length

Question 101:

20 gm \(NaOH\) in 500 ml =

  • (A) 0.1 N
  • (B) 1 N
  • (C) 0.5 M
  • (D) 0.05 N

Question 102:

Which of the following bonds will show the strongest absorption in their IR spectra?

  • (A) Carbon–hydrogen
  • (B) Oxygen–hydrogen
  • (C) Nitrogen–hydrogen
  • (D) Sulfur–hydrogen

Question 103:

In polarography, when limiting current is achieved, which of the following processes takes place?

  • (A) The rate of electron transfer just matches the rate of mass transfer
  • (B) The rate of electron transfer is slower than the rate of mass transfer
  • (C) The rate of electron transfer becomes independent of the rate of mass transfer
  • (D) The rate of electron transfer far exceeds the rate of mass transfer

Question 104:

Back diffusion occurs mostly in __________.

  • (A) Size exclusion chromatography
  • (B) HPLC
  • (C) Gas chromatography
  • (D) HPTLC

Question 105:

__________ chromatography is the correct technique for separation of two analytes with similar chemical nature.

  • (A) Partition
  • (B) Adsorption
  • (C) Chiral
  • (D) Ion pair

Question 106:

Which of the following components does NOT form a part of monochromator in spectroscopy?

  • (A) Beam splitter
  • (B) Collimating mirror
  • (C) Diffracting grating
  • (D) Prism

Question 107:

__________ gas is NOT suitable in gas chromatography?

  • (A) Argon
  • (B) Hydrogen
  • (C) Methane
  • (D) Nitrogen

Question 108:

Bathochromic shift depends on

  • (A) isolated double bonds
  • (B) conjugated double bond
  • (C) thermal conductivity
  • (D) absorption of light

Question 109:

Flame photometry is mainly used for estimation of __________.

  • (A) Alkali and alkaline earth metals
  • (B) Transition metals
  • (C) Halogens
  • (D) Organic compounds

Question 110:

Identify the correct statement with respect to gel permeation chromatography:

  • (A) Separation is based on the difference in size
  • (B) Smaller molecules are eluted faster than larger ones
  • (C) Stationary phase in GPC is a column filled with gel made of cellulose or silica
  • (D) It is widely used for the separation of small, low molecular weight, compounds

Question 111:

Non-aqueous titrations are mainly used for determination of __________.

  • (A) strong acids
  • (B) strong bases
  • (C) weakly acidic or basic compounds
  • (D) neutral substances

Question 112:

Which error can be minimized by increasing the number of observations?

  • (A) Systematic error
  • (B) Random error
  • (C) Method error
  • (D) Personal error

Question 113:

The Q3C ICH guidelines are related to:

  • (A) Impurities in new drug products
  • (B) Impurities in new drug substances
  • (C) Elemental impurities
  • (D) Residual solvents

Question 114:

Which of the following is used as indicator electrode in acid-base titration?

  • (A) Calomel electrode
  • (B) Platinum electrode
  • (C) Silver electrode
  • (D) Glass electrode

Question 115:

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of paper chromatography?

  • (A) Can separate ionic and polar compounds
  • (B) High separation efficiency for large molecules
  • (C) Low cost and simplicity
  • (D) Requires only small sample volumes

Question 116:

Which functional group shows very strong absorption band in IR spectroscopy?

  • (A) \(C-H\)
  • (B) \(C-C\)
  • (C) \(C=O\)
  • (D) \(C=C\)

Question 117:

What is the range of the energy required to produce ions in mass spectrometry through electron ionization?

  • (A) 1 eV to 5 eV
  • (B) 5 eV to 10 eV
  • (C) 10 eV to 100 eV
  • (D) 100 eV to 200 eV

Question 118:

What is the correct order of elution in column chromatography using silica gel as the stationary phase and a non-polar solvent?

  • (A) Amines > non-polar compounds > saturated hydrocarbons > esters
  • (B) Esters > amines > non-polar compounds > saturated hydrocarbons
  • (C) Non-polar compounds > saturated hydrocarbons > esters > amines
  • (D) Saturated hydrocarbons > esters > amines > non-polar compounds

Question 119:

Identify the false statement with respect to McLafferty rearrangement in mass spectroscopy.

  • (A) It is a fragmentation reaction
  • (B) A six-membered cyclic transition state is involved
  • (C) It occurs in any compound that has a hydrogen atom on the \(\gamma\)-carbon
  • (D) A radical cation and a neutral alkene fragments are formed

Question 120:

ALCOA principle stands for:

  • (A) Accurate, Logical, Complete, Organized, Available
  • (B) Attributable, Legible, Contemporaneous, Original, Accurate
  • (C) Analytical, Logical, Certified, Original, Approved
  • (D) Attributable, Legible, Complete, Organized, Accurate

AP PGECET 2026 Pharmacy Topics

Topics
Pharmacognosy & Phytochemistry
Pharmaceutical Chemistry
Inorganic pharmaceuticals
Physical pharmacy
Pharmaceutical Technology
Biopharmaceutics & Pharmacokinetics
Pharmacology
Clinical Pharmacy
Pharmaceutical Analysis and Quality Assurance
Forensic pharmacy

AP PGECET 2026 Preparation Strategy