CBSE Class 12 Biology Set 1 - (57/1/1) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here. CBSE conducted Class 12 Biology exam on March 27, 2026 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Biology theory paper is of 70 marks, and the internal assessment is of 30 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2026 (All Subjects)

Biology question paper includes the following types of questions:

  • MCQs: 1 mark each
  • Short-answer type questions: 2 & 3 marks each
  • Case-study based questions: 4 marks each
  • Long-answer type questions: 5 marks each
  • Total: 70 marks

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper 2026 (Set 1 - 57/1/1) with Solution PDF

CBSE Class 12 Biology 2026 Set 1 (57/1/1) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Identify the plant in which emasculation is not required for artificial hybridization.

  • (A) Rice
  • (B) Wheat
  • (C) Pea
  • (D) Papaya

Question 2:

Which of the following is not a component of immune system?

  • (A) Lymphocytes
  • (B) Plasma Proteins
  • (C) Red Blood Cells
  • (D) Bone Marrow

Question 3:

Select the option that shows correct statements :
(i) Corpus luteum secretes progesterone.
(ii) Only FSH attains a peak level in middle of cycle.
(iii) LH surge induces rupture of graafian follicle.
(iv) Luteal phase of menstrual cycle is also called proliferative phase.

  • (A) Only (ii) is correct.
  • (B) (i) and (iii) are correct.
  • (C) Only (iv) is correct.
  • (D) (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Question 4:

Select the mismatched pair :

  • (A) Mega diversity countries in the world - 12
  • (B) Genetically different strains of rice in India - Less than 1000
  • (C) Robert Mays estimation on global species diversity - 7 million species worldwide
  • (D) Zoological parks - Ex-situ conservation

Question 5:

Pomato was produced by fusing protoplasts of

  • (A) Tomato and Potato
  • (B) Pomegranate and Tomato
  • (C) Pomegranate and Potato
  • (D) Pomegranate, Potato and Tomato

Question 6:

In an ecosystem, different species occupy different levels and vertical distribution of species is found. This is called ______. 
 

  • (A) Stratification
  • (B) Layering
  • (C) Fragmentation
  • (D) Population

Question 7:

Which of the following sacred groves is found in Meghalaya?

  • (A) Jaintia hills
  • (B) Bastar
  • (C) Chanda
  • (D) Sarguja

Question 8:

In the following figure, two ways of pairing of two homologous pairs of chromosomes are shown. Which of the following phenomena is expressed?

  • (A) Linkage of genes
  • (B) Independent assortment of genes
  • (C) Multiple alleles
  • (D) Incomplete dominance

Question 9:

Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option:

  • (A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  • (B) a-ii, b-v, c-i, d-iii
  • (C) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
  • (D) a-v, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

Question 10:

The idea of use and disuse of organs for evolution of organism was proposed by

  • (A) Charles Darwin
  • (B) Thomas Malthus
  • (C) Hugo De Vries
  • (D) Lamarck

Question 11:

Which of the following statements about plasmids is incorrect?

  • (A) Plasmids have the ability to replicate within the bacterial cell.
  • (B) Their replication is controlled by chromosomal DNA.
  • (C) They are autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA.
  • (D) They often carry antibiotic resistant genes.

Question 12:

Which connective tissue connects ovary to pelvic wall and uterus?

  • (A) Tendons
  • (B) Ligaments
  • (C) Cartilage
  • (D) Bone

Question 13:

Assertion (A) : The population of melanized moths increased in industrial areas after Industrial Revolution.
Reason (R) : In Industrial environment lichen covered trees were replaced by soot-covered trees offering better camouflage to dark coloured moths.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 14:

Assertion (A) : The milk produced by transgenic cow 'Rosie' was nutritionally more balanced product for human babies than natural cow milk.
Reason (R) : It was human protein enriched milk containing human alpha lactaglobulin.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 15:

Assertion (A) : Flocs are masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments in secondary treatment of sewage.

Reason (R) : Flocs help in digestion of solid waste by anaerobic respiration.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 16:

Assertion (A) : In terrestrial ecosystem much larger fraction of energy flows through grazing food chain.
Reason (R) : Grazing food chain may be connected to Detritus food chain at some levels.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 17:

Name any two types of antibodies found to give humoral immune response in humans.


Question 18:

Define Humoral immune response.


Question 19:

Identify the stage of follicle where primary oocyte undergoes first meiotic division. Also mention the products of this division.


Question 20:

(i) How does a farmer use dormancy of seed to his advantage ?

(ii) Differentiate between pea seed and castor seed.


Question 21:

Study the sequence of bases in a DNA molecule that is shown below and answer the questions.

\( 5^{\prime} - \mathrm{GAATTC} - 3^{\prime} \)
\( 3^{\prime} - \mathrm{CTTAAG} - 5^{\prime} \)

(a) What are such sequences called? Name the enzyme used that recognises such nucleotide sequences.


Question 22:

Study the sequence of bases in a DNA molecule that is shown below and answer the question.

\( 5^{\prime} \) - GAATTC - \( 3^{\prime} \)

\( 3^{\prime} \) - CTTAAG - \( 5^{\prime} \)

How do these enzymes function ?


Question 23:

Analyse the following two cases of sex determination in different organisms:
Case I: Males have (XO) sex chromosomes and females have two copies of same sex chromosome (XX).
Case II: Females have two different sex chromosomes (ZW) and males have two copies of same sex chromosome (ZZ).
Identify the type of heterogamety in each case, giving one example of each.


Question 24:

(i) Differentiate between a DNA and RNA nucleotide.

(ii) Name the two types of bonds present within a single nucleotide.


Question 25:

Given below is a pyramid found in an ecosystem, where each bar represents the standing crop available in the trophic level.


Question 26:

In an ecosystem there was loss of biodiversity due to some project in that area.
(i) How will biodiversity be affected? (2 points)


Question 27:

List two major causes of loss of biodiversity.


Question 28:

Given below is a pyramid found in an ecosystem, where each bar represents the standing crop available in the trophic level.

(i) Identify the kind of pyramid and with the help of an example explain the conditions where this kind of pyramid is possible in nature.

(ii) Write any two limitations of ecological pyramids.




Question 29:

Do all pollen grains remain viable for the same length of time? Support your answer with two suitable examples.


Question 30:

How are pollen grains stored in pollen banks?


Question 31:

What is pedigree analysis? Mention its importance in human genetics. (2 pts.)


Question 32:

Analyse the following pedigree and write the (i) Pattern of inheritance. (ii) Give one example of disease showing such an inheritance pattern.


Question 33:

List any two factors that disturb the genetic equilibrium.


Question 34:

How is Hardy-Weinberg expression (\(p^{2} + 2pq + q^{2} = 1\)) derived?


Question 35:

Draw a neat diagram of megasporangium of an angiosperm and label any six parts.


Question 36:

Mention the scientific name of the source plant and the part from which opioids are extracted.


Question 37:

How are morphine and heroin related? Mention the effect each of them has on human body.


Question 38:

A farmer grew two varieties of corn crop in field A and B. He grew normal corn crops in field A and GM corn crops in field B.

He observed that corn borers attacked only in field A. To control it, spores of Bt were sprayed on field A.

(a) Name the gene in the spores responsible for control of pest.

(b) What effect will the spores of Bt have on insect pest ?

(c) How has corn plants of field B developed resistance against this pest ? Explain.


Question 39:

Observe the given picture carefully. A mixture of DNA with fragments ranging from 100 base pairs to 1800 base pairs were separated by electrophoresis on agarose gel with the following arrangement:


Question 40:

Observe the given picture carefully. A mixture of DNA with fragments ranging from 100 base pairs to 1800 base pairs were separated by electrophoresis on agarose gel with the following arrangement :

(a) What result will be obtained in staining with ethidium bromide ? Explain with reasons.




Question 41:

Observe the given picture carefully. A mixture of DNA with fragments ranging from 100 base pairs to 1800 base pairs were separated by electrophoresis on agarose gel with the following arrangement :

(b) The above setup was modified as shown below and a band with 100 base pairs was obtained at X.

What changes were made to the previous design to get a band at ‘X’ ? Why did the band appear at ‘X’ ?


Question 42:

Identify and define the ecological phenomenon demonstrated by this observation.


Question 43:

State the principle that explains the elimination of one species.


Question 44:

Two different species can compete for the same resource. Give another example of it.


Question 45:

How do species avoid competition in nature? Explain with an example.


Question 46:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions: 


Question 47:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions :

What can you infer about the genotype of parents in crosses I and II ?




Question 48:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions :

Which genetic cross is represented by these crosses ?




Question 49:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions :

Looking at bar graph of cross III, identify the type of cross performed and its importance in genetics.




Question 50:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions :

(c) What conclusion can you draw from the results of bar graphs of crosses I and II ? Name the genetic principle illustrated.


Question 51:

Trace the events from fertilization till implantation of blastocyst in human female. Also mention the site where fertilization takes place.


Question 52:

Case studies of some couples are given below. They were not able to have kids even though the parents were not taking any precautions. They also do not wish to adopt a child or take the help of donors. Study these cases and suggest an appropriate Assisted Reproductive Technology that could help them.
Case I -- Female -- Normal Reports; Male -- Normal sperms but no connection between epididymis and vas deferens.
Case II -- Female -- Normal eggs but Fallopian tube blocked. Male -- Normal sperms. Male reports are normal.
Case III -- Female -- Normal Reports. Male -- Low sperm count with less motility.


Question 53:

Copper releasing intrauterine devices are very effective and popular contraceptive devices. Name any two copper releasing IUDs. Write two reasons that make them effective contraceptives.


Question 54:

Given below is a stretch of DNA showing the coding strand of structural gene of transcription unit.
5' - ATG ACC GTA TTT TCT GTA GTG CCC GTA CTT CAG GCA TTA 3'
(i) Write the corresponding template strand and m-RNA strand that will be transcribed along with its polarity.
(ii) If GUA of transcribed mRNA is an intron, then depict the sequence involved in formation of mRNA / mature / processed hnRNA strand :
(1) In a bacterium
(2) In humans
(iii) How many amino acids the resulting polypeptide will have after the process of translation in humans?


Question 55:

(i) Watson and Crick's discovery of double helical structure was based on which two findings. Also mention the name of the scientists associated with these findings.

(ii) Write down the salient features of double helix structure of DNA (any three points).


Question 56:

Name the different types of microorganisms used as bio-fertilizers in organic farming and explain how each contributes to soil fertility.


Question 57:

What are bio-fertilizers?


Question 58:

Write two advantages of using bio-fertilizers over chemical fertilizers.


Question 59:

(i) Name the protozoan species that is responsible for causing the most serious and even fatal malarial disease.

(ii) Name the host in which the parasite completes its sexual stages and explain the changes taking place.

(iii) How does the parasite damage the human body after entering the blood stream ?

(iv) Suggest two effective preventive measures to control the spread of this disease in endemic regions.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Biology 2026 question paper is of 70 marks and has 33 questions in five sections, A to E, all compulsory. The tables below give the section-wise paper pattern and the marking rules from the official CBSE marking scheme.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper Pattern 2026

Section Questions Question Type Marks per Question Marks
A Q1 - Q16 Multiple choice questions 1 16
B Q17 - Q21 Very short answer type 2 10
C Q22 - Q28 Short answer type 3 21
D Q29 - Q30 Case-based questions 4 8
E Q31 - Q33 Long answer type 5 15
Total 33 questions 70

CBSE Class 12 Biology Marking Scheme 2026

Marking point How it is applied
Value-point marking Marks are awarded against the value points (steps) given in the official marking scheme; the marks of an answer are split across its steps.
Own expression The marking scheme carries suggested value points only. A correct answer in the student's own words is awarded due marks.
Competency-based questions If a competency-based answer is not from the marking scheme but shows the correct competency, due marks are awarded.
Errors An error is penalised only once; no marks are deducted for its cumulative effect.
Incorrect answer A totally incorrect answer is awarded zero (0) marks.
Choice (OR) questions If both options of a question with internal choice are attempted, marks are awarded for both and the higher score is taken; if only one option is attempted, the other is marked NA (not attempted).
Scale of marks The full scale of 0 to 70 marks is used and full marks are awarded whenever the answer deserves them.


CBSE Class 12 Biology Unit-Wise Weightage

Unit No. Unit Name Marks
VI Reproduction 16
VII Genetics and Evolution 20
VIII Biology and Human Welfare 12
IX Biotechnology and Its Applications 12
X Ecology and Environment 10
Total — 70

CBSE Class 12 Biology Paper Analysis