CBSE Class 12 Biology Set 2 - (57/5/2) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here. CBSE conducted Class 12 Biology exam on March 27, 2026 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Biology theory paper is of 70 marks, and the internal assessment is of 30 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2026 (All Subjects)

The Biology question paper includes the following types of questions, which make up the total of 70 marks:

  • MCQs: 1 mark each
  • Short-answer type questions: 2 & 3 marks each
  • Case-study based questions: 4 marks each
  • Long-answer type questions: 5 marks each

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper 2026 Set 2 - (57/5/2) with Solution PDF

CBSE Class 12 Biology 2026 Set 2 (57/5/2) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

In a human female, menstrual cycle of 28 days is represented by the diagram given below. Select the correct statement related with this diagram.

  • (A) Primary follicle of ovary matures into Graafian follicle in phase II.
  • (B) The hormone secreted in large amounts in phase III is also responsible for maintaining pregnancy in human females.
  • (C) Corpus luteum secretes progesterone in phase I, however it degenerates completely in phase III.
  • (D) Both (A) and (B).

Question 2:

The cells of endosperm have 24 chromosomes. What will be the number of chromosomes in the gametes?

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 16
  • (C) 23
  • (D) 32

Question 3:

During different phases of menstrual cycle, hormones are secreted. Choose the option showing the correct sequence of hormones.

  • (A) FSH, Progesterone, Estrogen
  • (B) Estrogen, FSH, Progesterone
  • (C) FSH, Estrogen, Progesterone
  • (D) Estrogen, Progesterone, FSH

Question 4:

A DNA molecule is 160 base pairs long. It has 30% Guanine. How many Adenine bases are present in this DNA molecule?

  • (A) 48
  • (B) 64
  • (C) 96
  • (D) 192

Question 5:

Arrange the following in the correct sequence of their evolution and select the correct option:
• [(i)] Seaweed
• [(ii)] Invertebrates
• [(iii)] Jawless fish

  • (A) (i), (ii), (iii)
  • (B) (i), (iii), (ii)
  • (C) (ii), (iii), (i)
  • (D) (ii), (i), (iii)

Question 6:

S is the stimulant of central nervous system and interferes with the transport of T, a neurotransmitter. Identify S and T and choose the correct option.

  • (A) S – Cocaine, T – Dopamine
  • (B) S – Heroin, T – Acetylcholine
  • (C) S – Heroin, T – Dopamine
  • (D) S – Cocaine, T – Acetylcholine

Question 7:

Select the odd option in the context of convergent evolution.

  • (A) Eyes of Octopus and Mammals
  • (B) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins
  • (C) Flying Squirrel and Flying Phalanger
  • (D) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita

Question 8:

Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of which one of the following?

  • (A) Ethanol
  • (B) Streptokinase
  • (C) Citric acid
  • (D) Statins

Question 9:

Given below is the restriction site of a restriction endonuclease Pst I and the cleavage sites on a DNA molecule.

Choose the option that gives the correct resultant fragments.

  • (A) 5' C – T – G C – A – G 3' and 3' G – A – C – G – T C 5'
  • (B) 5' C – T G – C – A – G 3' and 3' G – A – C – G T – C 5'
  • (C) 5' C – T – G – C A – G 3' and 3' G – A – C – G T – C 5'
  • (D) 5' C – T – G – C – A G 3' and 3' G A – C – G – T – C 5'

Question 10:

Which of the following ecosystems is most productive in terms of net primary productivity?

  • (A) Desert
  • (B) Tropical rainforests
  • (C) Oceans
  • (D) Estuaries

Question 11:

Bt-toxin genes have been expressed in plants in order to provide resistance against:
• [(i)] lepidopterans and fungi
• [(ii)] animals and bacteria
• [(iii)] coleopterans and dipterans
• [(iv)] lepidopterans

  • (A) (ii) and (iii)
  • (B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
  • (C) (iii) and (iv)
  • (D) (ii) and (iv)

Question 12:

According to IUCN, some of the extinctions include:
• [(i)] Dodo
• [(ii)] Indian gazelle
• [(iii)] Thylacine
• [(iv)] Steller’s Sea Cow

  • (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
  • (B) (ii) and (iv)
  • (C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
  • (D) (iii) and (iv)

Question 13:

Assertion (A): Genetically modified microbes help in crop protection.
Reason (R): Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) bacteria control insects by producing prototoxins.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 14:

Assertion (A): Trichoderma species are free living fungi that are very common in the root ecosystems.
Reason (R): They are effective bio-control agents of several plant pathogens.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 15:

Assertion (A): The endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle.
Reason (R): Perimetrium contracts strongly during delivery of the baby.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 16:

Assertion (A): Repetitive sequences make up a very large portion of human genome.
Reason (R): Repetitive sequences do not have direct coding functions in the genome.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 17:

Draw a labelled diagram of the embryonic stage that gets implanted in the human uterus. State the functions of two labelled parts.


Question 18:

Mention the functions of each of the following:
(i) Tassels of Corn Cob:
(ii) Scutellum:


Question 19:

Farmers prefer apomictic seeds over hybrid seeds. Give any two reasons.


Question 20:

Suggest how a virus-free healthy plant can be obtained from a diseased sugarcane plant.


Question 21:

In order to force bacteria to take up the recombinant DNA, they must be made competent. Explain how it can be achieved.


Question 22:

Differentiate between grazing food chain and detritus food chain.


Question 23:

Ecological pyramids are widely accepted but they still have some limitations. Write any two limitations.


Question 24:

One of the salient features of the genetic code is that it is nearly universal from bacteria to humans. Mention two exceptions to this rule. Why are some codes said to be degenerates?


Question 25:

(a) Draw a sectional view of seminiferous tubule of a human. Label the following cells in the seminiferous tubule: (i) Cells that divide by mitosis to increase their number, (ii) Cells that undergo meiosis I, (iii) Cells that undergo meiosis II, (iv) Cells that help in the process of spermiogenesis.
(b) Mention the role of Leydig cells.


Question 26:

Explain the polygenic inheritance pattern with the help of a suitable example.


Question 27:

Mention a product of human welfare obtained with the help of each one of the following:
(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(b) Propionibacterium shermanii
(c) Aspergillus niger
(d) Trichoderma polysporum
(e) Acetobacter aceti
(f) Streptococcus


Question 28:

Study the given chart showing the evolution of plants. Answer the following questions:

(a) Identify the plant which acts as an immediate ancestor of both ferns and conifers.
(b) Name the nearest ancestors of flowering plants.
(c) Name the most primitive group of plants.
(d) Psilophyton provides common ancestry to which classes?
(e) Name the common ancestor of Psilophyton and seed ferns.
(f) Name the common ancestor of mosses and tracheophytes.


Question 29:

Write the scientific name of the nematode that infects tobacco plants and identify the specific part of the plant that it targets and infects.


Question 30:

Explain how Agrobacterium vectors are used to protect tobacco plants from attacks by the root-knot nematode parasite.


Question 31:

Explain the level of biodiversity at genetic, species, and ecological levels with the help of one example each.


Question 32:

Explain Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle' with the help of a suitable example.


Question 33:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

We know that plasmids and bacteriophages are the most commonly used vectors in biotechnology experiments. If we can link an alien piece of DNA to the plasmid DNA, the alien DNA can be multiplied equal to the copy number of the plasmid. Engineered vectors are used these days. Study the diagram of the E. coli cloning vector pBR322 and answer the questions that follow : 


Question 34:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

We know that plasmids and bacteriophages are the most commonly used vectors in biotechnology experiments. If we can link an alien piece of DNA to the plasmid DNA, the alien DNA can be multiplied equal to the copy number of the plasmid. Engineered vectors are used these days. Study the diagram of the E. coli cloning vector pBR322 and answer the questions that follow :

(a) Why are plasmids and bacteriophages used as cloning vectors ?




Question 35:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

We know that plasmids and bacteriophages are the most commonly used vectors in biotechnology experiments. If we can link an alien piece of DNA to the plasmid DNA, the alien DNA can be multiplied equal to the copy number of the plasmid. Engineered vectors are used these days. Study the diagram of the E. coli cloning vector pBR322 and answer the questions that follow :

(b) (i) Identify :

(I) The gene in the cloning vector that controls the copy number of the vector.

(II) The restriction site - C in the rop gene.




Question 36:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

We know that plasmids and bacteriophages are the most commonly used vectors in biotechnology experiments. If we can link an alien piece of DNA to the plasmid DNA, the alien DNA can be multiplied equal to the copy number of the plasmid. Engineered vectors are used these days. Study the diagram of the E. coli cloning vector pBR322 and answer the questions that follow :

(b) (ii) Identify and name two selectable markers shown in the diagram.




Question 37:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

We know that plasmids and bacteriophages are the most commonly used vectors in biotechnology experiments. If we can link an alien piece of DNA to the plasmid DNA, the alien DNA can be multiplied equal to the copy number of the plasmid. Engineered vectors are used these days. Study the diagram of the E. coli cloning vector pBR322 and answer the questions that follow :

(c) Name the two restriction sites each in the two genes you have identified as selectable markers.




Question 38:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
The process of copying genetic information from template strand of DNA into RNA is called transcription. It is mediated by RNA polymerase. Transcription takes place in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA.


Question 39:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

The process of copying genetic information from template strand of DNA into RNA is called transcription. It is mediated by RNA polymerase. Transcription takes place in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA.

(a) Why is the strand of DNA with \( 3^{\prime} \rightarrow 5^{\prime} \) polarity transcribed and not the other strand of \( 5^{\prime} \rightarrow 3^{\prime} \) polarity ?


Question 40:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

The process of copying genetic information from template strand of DNA into RNA is called transcription. It is mediated by RNA polymerase. Transcription takes place in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA.

(b) (i) Why is hnRNA required to undergo splicing ?


Question 41:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

The process of copying genetic information from template strand of DNA into RNA is called transcription. It is mediated by RNA polymerase. Transcription takes place in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA.

(b) (ii) Mention the two additional processes which hnRNA needs to undergo after splicing to become functional.


Question 42:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

The process of copying genetic information from template strand of DNA into RNA is called transcription. It is mediated by RNA polymerase. Transcription takes place in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is copied into RNA.

(c) Why is only one strand of the DNA transcribed ? Give two reasons.


Question 43:

Work out separate monohybrid crosses up to \(F_2\) generation between two pea plants and two Antirrhinum plants, both having contrasting traits with respect to the colour of the flower. Comment on the patterns of inheritance in the crosses carried out in such two cases.


Question 44:

Name the phenomenon that leads to situations like ‘XO’ abnormality in humans. Also name this genetic disorder. How are individuals with an XO chromosomal abnormality affected ? Write its symptoms as well as karyotype.


Question 45:

How does a chromosomal disorder differ from a Mendelian disorder ? Write one example for each.


Question 46:

Mention the source and the role of the following in providing defence against infection in the human body : (I) Histamine (II) Interferons


Question 47:

Draw the structure of an antibody molecule and label any four of its parts.


Question 48:

Differentiate between active and passive immunity. Write any three differences.


Question 49:

(I) Write the scientific names of the two species of filarial worms causing filariasis.
(II) How do they affect the body of infected persons ?
(III) How does the disease spread ?


Question 50:

Arrange the following hormones in sequence of their secretion in a pregnant woman : hCG; LH; FSH; Relaxin.


Question 51:

Briefly explain the events of fertilisation and implantation in an adult human female.


Question 52:

Mention the source and the functions of the following hormones :

hCG; LH; FSH; Relaxin.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Biology 2026 question paper is of 70 marks and has 33 questions in five sections, A to E, all compulsory. The tables below give the section-wise paper pattern and the marking rules from the official CBSE marking scheme.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper Pattern 2026

Section Questions Question Type Marks per Question Marks
A Q1 - Q16 Multiple choice questions 1 16
B Q17 - Q21 Very short answer type 2 10
C Q22 - Q28 Short answer type 3 21
D Q29 - Q30 Case-based questions 4 8
E Q31 - Q33 Long answer type 5 15
Total 33 questions 70

CBSE Class 12 Biology Marking Scheme 2026

Marking point How it is applied
Value-point marking Marks are awarded against the value points (steps) given in the official marking scheme; the marks of an answer are split across its steps.
Own expression The marking scheme carries suggested value points only. A correct answer in the student's own words is awarded due marks.
Competency-based questions If a competency-based answer is not from the marking scheme but shows the correct competency, due marks are awarded.
Errors An error is penalised only once; no marks are deducted for its cumulative effect.
Incorrect answer A totally incorrect answer is awarded zero (0) marks.
Choice (OR) questions If both options of a question with internal choice are attempted, marks are awarded for both and the higher score is taken; if only one option is attempted, the other is marked NA (not attempted).
Scale of marks The full scale of 0 to 70 marks is used and full marks are awarded whenever the answer deserves them.


CBSE Class 12 Biology Unit-Wise Weightage

Unit No. Unit Name Marks
VI Reproduction 16
VII Genetics and Evolution 20
VIII Biology and Human Welfare 12
IX Biotechnology and Its Applications 12
X Ecology and Environment 10
Total — 70

CBSE Class 12 Biology Paper Analysis