CBSE Class 12 Biology Set 3 - (57/1/3) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here. CBSE conducted Class 12 Biology exam on March 27, 2026 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Biology theory paper is of 70 marks, and the internal assessment is of 30 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2026 (All Subjects)

Biology question paper includes the following types of questions:

  • MCQs: 1 mark each
  • Short-answer type questions: 2 & 3 marks each
  • Case-study based questions: 4 marks each
  • Long-answer type questions: 5 marks each
  • Total: 70 marks

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper 2026 (Set 3 - 57/1/3) with Solution PDF

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CBSE Class 12 Biology 2026 Set 3 (57/1/3) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Perisperm present in seed of black pepper is remnant of

  • (A) Ovary
  • (B) Nucellus
  • (C) Anther
  • (D) Megaspore

Question 2:

Interferons are most effective in making non-infected cells resistant against the spread of which of the following diseases ?

  • (A) Malaria
  • (B) Ascariasis
  • (C) Pneumonia
  • (D) Cancer

Question 3:

Which of the following sacred groves is found in Meghalaya?

  • (A) Jaintia hills
  • (B) Bastar
  • (C) Chanda
  • (D) Sarguja

Question 4:

In an ecosystem, different species occupy different levels and vertical distribution of species is found. This is called ______. 
 

  • (A) Stratification
  • (B) Layering
  • (C) Fragmentation
  • (D) Population

Question 5:

Which of the following statements about plasmids is incorrect?

  • (A) Plasmids have the ability to replicate within the bacterial cell.
  • (B) Their replication is controlled by chromosomal DNA.
  • (C) They are autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA.
  • (D) They often carry antibiotic resistant genes.

Question 6:

Which connective tissue connects ovary to pelvic wall and uterus?

  • (A) Tendons
  • (B) Ligaments
  • (C) Cartilage
  • (D) Bone

Question 7:

Select the option that shows correct statements :
(i) Corpus luteum secretes progesterone.
(ii) Only FSH attains a peak level in middle of cycle.
(iii) LH surge induces rupture of graafian follicle.
(iv) Luteal phase of menstrual cycle is also called proliferative phase.

  • (A) Only (ii) is correct.
  • (B) (i) and (iii) are correct.
  • (C) Only (iv) is correct.
  • (D) (ii) and (iv) are correct.

Question 8:

Which one of the following evidences does not support Darwin's theory of natural selection ?

  • (A) Branching Descent
  • (B) Small & directional variations
  • (C) Appearance of new traits by mutations
  • (D) Survival of the fittest

Question 9:

Expression of a particular gene helps to identify transformants. What is this gene known as ?

  • (A) Plasmid
  • (B) Structural gene
  • (C) Selectable marker
  • (D) Intron

Question 10:

A DNA molecule is 140 base pairs long. It has 20% thymine. How many guanine bases are present in the molecule ?

  • (A) 64
  • (B) 84
  • (C) 32
  • (D) 56

Question 11:

Select the mismatched pair :

  • (A) Mega diversity countries in the world - 12
  • (B) Genetically different strains of rice in India - Less than 1000
  • (C) Robert Mays estimation on global species diversity - 7 million species worldwide
  • (D) Zoological parks - Ex-situ conservation

Question 12:

Pomato was produced by fusing protoplasts of

  • (A) Tomato and Potato
  • (B) Pomegranate and Tomato
  • (C) Pomegranate and Potato
  • (D) Pomegranate, Potato and Tomato

Question 13:

Assertion (A): Fossils provide direct evidence for evolution.

Reason (R): Fossils help to trace evolutionary relationships among organisms over time.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 14:

Assertion (A) : In terrestrial ecosystem much larger fraction of energy flows through grazing food chain.
Reason (R) : Grazing food chain may be connected to Detritus food chain at some levels.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 15:

Assertion (A) : The milk produced by transgenic cow 'Rosie' was nutritionally more balanced product for human babies than natural cow milk.
Reason (R) : It was human protein enriched milk containing human alpha lactaglobulin.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 16:

Assertion (A) : Flocs are masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments in secondary treatment of sewage.

Reason (R) : Flocs help in digestion of solid waste by anaerobic respiration.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 17:

A health officer visiting two different regions reported the following symptoms in patients :

Region A - Sustained high fever with stomach pain, constipation and loss of appetite.

Region B - Inflammation in the lower limbs and genital organs.

Name the diseases likely affecting the patients in regions A and B. Write the scientific name of the causative organisms in both the cases.


Question 18:

Identify the stage of follicle where primary oocyte undergoes first meiotic division. Also mention the products of this division.


Question 19:

(i) How does a farmer use dormancy of seed to his advantage ?

(ii) Differentiate between pea seed and castor seed.


Question 20:

Write any two advantages of producing plants by micro-propagation.


Question 21:

Mendel published his work on inheritance in 1865, but it remained unnoticed for over three decades.

State the reasons why his work was not recognised during his life time. (4 points)


Question 22:

What is adaptive radiation ? Give one example from any habitat.


Question 23:

(i) What is primary productivity of an ecosystem and how is it expressed ?

(ii) Explain the equation given below :

NPP = GPP - R


Question 24:

Biodiversity conservation is crucial for maintaining ecological balance and ensuring the survival of future generations.

Describe four advanced ex-situ methods used for conservation of biodiversity.


Question 25:

Observe the given picture carefully. A mixture of DNA with fragments ranging from 100 base pairs to 1800 base pairs were separated by electrophoresis on agarose gel with the following arrangement:


Question 26:

Observe the given picture carefully. A mixture of DNA with fragments ranging from 100 base pairs to 1800 base pairs were separated by electrophoresis on agarose gel with the following arrangement :

(a) What result will be obtained in staining with ethidium bromide ? Explain with reasons.




Question 27:

Observe the given picture carefully. A mixture of DNA with fragments ranging from 100 base pairs to 1800 base pairs were separated by electrophoresis on agarose gel with the following arrangement :

(b) The above setup was modified as shown below and a band with 100 base pairs was obtained at X.

What changes were made to the previous design to get a band at ‘X’ ? Why did the band appear at ‘X’ ?


Question 28:

Mention the scientific name of the source plant and the part from which opioids are extracted.


Question 29:

How are morphine and heroin related? Mention the effect each of them has on human body.


Question 30:

Do all pollen grains remain viable for the same length of time? Support your answer with two suitable examples.


Question 31:

How are pollen grains stored in pollen banks?


Question 32:

What is pedigree analysis? Mention its importance in human genetics. (2 pts.)


Question 33:

Analyse the following pedigree and write the (i) Pattern of inheritance. (ii) Give one example of disease showing such an inheritance pattern.


Question 34:

List any two factors that disturb the genetic equilibrium.


Question 35:

How is Hardy-Weinberg expression (\(p^{2} + 2pq + q^{2} = 1\)) derived?


Question 36:

Suggest and describe a technique through which a healthy sugarcane plant can be obtained from virus infected sugarcane plant.


Question 37:

Draw a neat diagram of megasporangium of an angiosperm and label any six parts.


Question 38:

Identify and define the ecological phenomenon demonstrated by this observation.


Question 39:

State the principle that explains the elimination of one species.


Question 40:

Two different species can compete for the same resource. Give another example of it.


Question 41:

How do species avoid competition in nature? Explain with an example.


Question 42:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions: 


Question 43:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions :

What can you infer about the genotype of parents in crosses I and II ?




Question 44:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions :

Which genetic cross is represented by these crosses ?




Question 45:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions :

Looking at bar graph of cross III, identify the type of cross performed and its importance in genetics.




Question 46:

A student performed some crosses in plants and represented the result in the form of bar graphs as shown below. Each graph displays the phenotypic proportion of the progeny. Study the graphs and answer the questions :

(c) What conclusion can you draw from the results of bar graphs of crosses I and II ? Name the genetic principle illustrated.


Question 47:

Name the different types of microorganisms used as bio-fertilizers in organic farming and explain how each contributes to soil fertility.


Question 48:

What are bio-fertilizers?


Question 49:

Write two advantages of using bio-fertilizers over chemical fertilizers.


Question 50:

(i) Name the protozoan species that is responsible for causing the most serious and even fatal malarial disease.

(ii) Name the host in which the parasite completes its sexual stages and explain the changes taking place.

(iii) How does the parasite damage the human body after entering the blood stream ?

(iv) Suggest two effective preventive measures to control the spread of this disease in endemic regions.


Question 51:

Describe how the lac operon operates both in the presence and absence of an inducer in E.coli.


Question 52:

(i) Differentiate between Mendelian and Chromosomal disorders.

(ii) Which disorder is known as "Inborn Error of Metabolism" ? Mention its cause and any one symptom. Name the harmful compounds formed.


Question 53:

Trace the events from fertilization till implantation of blastocyst in human female. Also mention the site where fertilization takes place.


Question 54:

Case studies of some couples are given below. They were not able to have kids even though the parents were not taking any precautions. They also do not wish to adopt a child or take the help of donors. Study these cases and suggest an appropriate Assisted Reproductive Technology that could help them.
Case I -- Female -- Normal Reports; Male -- Normal sperms but no connection between epididymis and vas deferens.
Case II -- Female -- Normal eggs but Fallopian tube blocked. Male -- Normal sperms. Male reports are normal.
Case III -- Female -- Normal Reports. Male -- Low sperm count with less motility.


Question 55:

Copper releasing intrauterine devices are very effective and popular contraceptive devices. Name any two copper releasing IUDs. Write two reasons that make them effective contraceptives.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Biology 2026 question paper is of 70 marks and has 33 questions in five sections, A to E, all compulsory. The tables below give the section-wise paper pattern and the marking rules from the official CBSE marking scheme.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Question Paper Pattern 2026

Section Questions Question Type Marks per Question Marks
A Q1 - Q16 Multiple choice questions 1 16
B Q17 - Q21 Very short answer type 2 10
C Q22 - Q28 Short answer type 3 21
D Q29 - Q30 Case-based questions 4 8
E Q31 - Q33 Long answer type 5 15
Total 33 questions 70

CBSE Class 12 Biology Marking Scheme 2026

Marking point How it is applied
Value-point marking Marks are awarded against the value points (steps) given in the official marking scheme; the marks of an answer are split across its steps.
Own expression The marking scheme carries suggested value points only. A correct answer in the student's own words is awarded due marks.
Competency-based questions If a competency-based answer is not from the marking scheme but shows the correct competency, due marks are awarded.
Errors An error is penalised only once; no marks are deducted for its cumulative effect.
Incorrect answer A totally incorrect answer is awarded zero (0) marks.
Choice (OR) questions If both options of a question with internal choice are attempted, marks are awarded for both and the higher score is taken; if only one option is attempted, the other is marked NA (not attempted).
Scale of marks The full scale of 0 to 70 marks is used and full marks are awarded whenever the answer deserves them.


CBSE Class 12 Biology Unit-Wise Weightage

Unit No. Unit Name Marks
VI Reproduction 16
VII Genetics and Evolution 20
VIII Biology and Human Welfare 12
IX Biotechnology and Its Applications 12
X Ecology and Environment 10
Total — 70

CBSE Class 12 Biology Paper Analysis