CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Question Paper 2025 (Set 2 - 56/2/2) with Solutions is now available here for download. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Chemistry examination on February 27, 2025, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM.

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry paper is of total 100 marks out of which 70 marks are allocated to the theory paper and 30 marks are for practical examination.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2025 (All Subjects)

The theory paper consists of 33 questions divided into five sections:

  • Section A contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs),
  • Section B contains Very Short Answer Type (VSA) Questions,
  • Section C contains Short Answer Type (SA) Questions,
  • Section D contains Case-Study based Questions,
  • Section E contains Long Answer (LA) Type Questions.

All sections are compulsory.

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Question Paper 2025 (Set 2 - 56/2/2) with Solution PDF

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry 2025 Set 2 (56/2/2) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Assertion (A): Vitamin D cannot be stored in our body.

Reason (R): Vitamin D is fat soluble vitamin and is not excreted from the body in urine.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 2:

Assertion (A): Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis.

Reason (R): Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction with the anion formed by phthalimide.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 3:

Assertion (A): Cu cannot liberate H2 on reaction with dilute mineral acids.

Reason (R): Cu has positive electrode potential.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 4:

Assertion (A): In a first order reaction, if the concentration of the reactant is doubled, its half-life is also doubled.

Reason (R): The half-life of a reaction does not depend upon the initial concentration of the reactant in a first order reaction.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 5:

Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of

  • (A) Vitamin B1
  • (B) Vitamin B2
  • (C) Ascorbic acid
  • (D) Glutamic acid

Question 6:

Nucleotides are joined together by

  • (A) Glycosidic linkage
  • (B) Peptide linkage
  • (C) Hydrogen bonding
  • (D) Phosphodiester linkage

Question 7:

Which of the following is/are examples of denaturation of protein?

  • (A) Coagulation of egg white
  • (B) Curdling of milk
  • (C) Clotting of blood
  • (D) Both (A) and (B)

Question 8:

The conversion of phenol to salicylic acid can be accomplished by

  • (A) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
  • (B) Friedel-Crafts reaction
  • (C) Kolbe reaction
  • (D) Coupling reaction

Question 9:

What will be formed after oxidation reaction of secondary alcohol with chromic anhydride (CrO3)?

  • (A) Aldehyde
  • (B) Ketone
  • (C) Carboxylic acid
  • (D) Ester

Question 10:

Which is the correct IUPAC name for
 

  • (A) Methylchlorobenzene
  • (B) Toluene
  • (C) 1-Chloro-4-Methylbenzene
  • (D) 1-Methyl-4-Chlorobenzene

Question 11:

The diamagnetic species is: [At. No. Co = 27, Fe = 26, Ni = 28]

  • (A) [Ni(CN)4]2-
  • (B) [NiCl4]2-
  • (C) [Fe(CN)6]3-
  • (D) [CoF6]3-

Question 12:

The complex ions [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]2+ and [Co(NH3)5(ONO)]2+ are called

  • (A) Ionization isomers
  • (B) Linkage isomers
  • (C) Co-ordination isomers
  • (D) Geometrical isomers

Question 13:

The element having [Ar]3d104s1 electronic configuration is

  • (A) Cu
  • (B) Zn
  • (C) Cr
  • (D) Mn

Question 14:

The number of molecules that react with each other in an elementary reaction is a measure of the:

  • (A) activation energy of the reaction
  • (B) stoichiometry of the reaction
  • (C) molecularity of the reaction
  • (D) order of the reaction

Question 15:

Which among the following is a false statement?

  • (A) Rate of zero order reaction is independent of initial concentration of reactant.
  • (B) Half-life of a zero order reaction is inversely proportional to the rate constant.
  • (C) Molecularity of a reaction may be zero.
  • (D) For a first order reaction, t1/2 = 0.693/k.

Question 16:

The charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of MnO4- to MnO2 is

  • (A) 1F
  • (B) 3F
  • (C) 5F
  • (D) 6F

Question 17(a):

In the following pair of halogen compounds, which compound undergoes SN1 reaction faster and why?


Question 17(b):

Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their reactivity towards SN2 displacement:

2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane, 2-Bromopentane.


Question 18:

A reaction is of second order with respect to a reactant. How is the rate of reaction affected if the concentration of the reactant is (i) doubled (ii) reduced to half?


Question 19:

When FeCr2O4 is fused with Na2CO3 in the presence of air it gives a yellow solution of compound (A). Compound (A) on acidification gives compound (B). Compound (B) on reaction with KCl forms an orange coloured (C). An acidified solution of compound (C) oxidises Na2SO3 to (D). Identify (A), (B), (C) and (D).


Question 20:

Explain [Co(NH3)6]3+ is an inner orbital complex whereas [Ni(NH3)6]2+ is an outer orbital complex. [At. No. Co = 27, Ni = 28]


Question 21(A):

The rate constant for a zero order reaction A → P is 0.0030 mol L-1s-1. How long will it take for the initial concentration of A to fall from 0.10 M to 0.075 M?


Question 21(B) (OR):

The decomposition of NH3 on platinum surface is zero order reaction. What are the rates of production of N2 and H2 if k = 2.5 × 10-4 mol L-1 s-1?


Question 22:

A solution containing 15 g urea (molar mass = 60 g mol-1) per litre of solution in water has the same osmotic pressure (isotonic) as a solution of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol-1) in water. Calculate the mass of glucose present in one litre of its solution.


Question 23:

Calculate \( \Lambda_m^0 \) for acetic acid and its degree of dissociation (\( \alpha \)) if its molar conductivity is 48.1 \( \Omega^{-1} \, \text{cm}^2 \, \text{mol}^{-1} \).

Given that

\( \Lambda_m^0 (\text{HCl}) = 426 \, \Omega^{-1} \, \text{cm}^2 \, \text{mol}^{-1} \)

\( \Lambda_m^0 (\text{NaCl}) = 126 \, \Omega^{-1} \, \text{cm}^2 \, \text{mol}^{-1} \)

\( \Lambda_m^0 (\text{CH}_3\text{COONa}) = 91 \, \Omega^{-1} \, \text{cm}^2 \, \text{mol}^{-1} \)


Question 24:

(a) Of the 3d species, Cr2+ is strongly reducing while Mn3+ is strongly oxidising. Why?

(b) Write two consequences of lanthanoid contraction.

(c) Which element of 3d series has lowest enthalpy of atomisation and why?


Question 25:

Write IUPAC names of the following coordination entities:

(a) [Fe(en)2Cl2]+

(b) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Br]SO4

(c) [Ni(CN)4]2-


Question 26(A)(a):

Explain the following reactions and write chemical equation involved:

Wolff-Kishner reduction


Question 26(A)(b):

Explain the following reactions and write chemical equation involved:

Etard reaction


Question 26(A)(c):

Explain the following reactions and write chemical equation involved:

Cannizzaro reaction


Question 26(B) (OR):

(B) Write the structures of A, B and C in the following sequence of reactions:

(a) \( \text{CH}_3\text{COOH} \xrightarrow{\text{SOCl}_2} A \xrightarrow{\text{H}_2,\ \text{Pd-BaSO}_4} B \xrightarrow{\text{H}_2\text{N-NH}_2} C \)

(b) \( \text{CH}_3\text{CN} \xrightarrow[\text{2. H}_2\text{O}]{\text{1. DIBAL-H}} A \xrightarrow{\text{Dil. NaOH}} B \xrightarrow{\Delta} C \)


Question 27(a):

Define the following:

(i) Enantiomers

(ii) Racemic mixture


Question 27(b):

Why is chlorobenzene resistant to nucleophilic substitution reaction?


Question 28:

(a) Write the product obtained when D-glucose reacts with H2N-OH.

(b) Amino acids show amphoteric behaviour, why?

(c) Why vitamin C cannot be stored in our body?


Question 29(a):

Amines have a lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom due to which they behave as Lewis base. Greater the value of \( K_b \) or smaller the value of \( pK_b \), stronger is the base. Amines are more basic than alcohols, ethers, esters, etc. The basic character of aliphatic amines should increase with the increase of alkyl substitution. But it does not occur in a regular manner as a secondary aliphatic amine is unexpectedly more basic than a tertiary amine in aqueous solutions. Aromatic amines are weaker bases than ammonia and aliphatic amines. Electron releasing groups such as \( -CH_3 \), \( -OCH_3 \), \( -NH_2 \), etc., increase the basicity while electron-withdrawing substituents such as \( -NO_2 \), \( -CN \), halogens etc., decrease the basicity of amines. The effect of these substitute is more at p\( ^- \) than at m\( ^- \) position.

(a) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic character. Give reason: 


Question 29(b):

Why pKb of aniline is more than that of methylamine?


Question 29(c):

Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basicity in an aqueous solution:
\(\text{(CH}_3\text{)}_3\text{N}, \ \text{(CH}_3\text{)}_2\text{NH}, \ \text{NH}_3, \ \text{CH}_3\text{NH}_2\)


Question 29(c) (OR):

Why ammonolysis of alkyl halides is not a good method to prepare pure amines?


Question 30(a):

Read the passage and answer: The spontaneous flow of the solvent through a semipermeable membrane from a pure solvent to a solution or from a dilute solution to a concentrated solution is called osmosis. The phenomenon of osmosis can be demonstrated by taking two eggs of the same size. In an egg, the membrane below the shell and around the egg material is semipermeable. The outer hard shell can be removed by putting the egg in dilute hydrochloric acid. After removing the hard shell, one egg is placed in distilled water and the other in a saturated salt solution. After some time, the egg placed in distilled water swells-up while the egg placed in salt solution shrinks. The external pressure applied to stop the osmosis is termed as osmotic pressure (a colligative property). Reverse osmosis takes place when the applied external pressure becomes larger than the osmotic pressure.

(a) Define reverse osmosis. Name one SPM which can be used in the process of reverse osmosis.


Question 30(b):

What do you expect to happen when red blood corpuscles (RBC's) are placed in 0.5% NaCl solution?


Question 30(b) (OR):

Which one of the following will have higher osmotic pressure in 1M KCl or 1M urea solution. Justify your answer.


Question 30(c):

Why osmotic pressure is a colligative property?


Question 31(A):

An organic compound 'A', molecular formula C2H6O oxidises with CrO3 to form a compound 'B'. Compound 'B' on warming with iodine and aqueous solution of NaOH gives a yellow precipitate of compound 'C'. When compound 'A' is heated with conc. H2SO4 at 413 K gives a compound 'D', which on reaction with excess HI gives compound 'E'. Identify compounds 'A', 'B', 'C', 'D' and 'E' and write chemical equations involved.


Question 31(B) (OR):

(B) (a) Write chemical equations of the following reactions:

(i) Phenol is treated with conc. HNO3

(ii) Propene is treated with B2H6 followed by oxidation by H2O2/OH-.

(iii) Sodium t-butoxide is treated with CH3Cl.

(b) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between butan-1-ol and butan-2-ol.

(c) Arrange the following in increasing order of acid strength:

phenol, ethanol, water


Question 32(A)(a):

Give IUPAC name of CH3-CH=CH-CHO.


Question 32(A)(b):

Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between propanal and propanone.


Question 32(A)(c):

How will you convert the following:

(i) Toluene to benzoic acid

(ii) Ethanol to propan-2-ol

(iii) Propanal to 2-hydroxy propanoic acid


Question 32(B) (OR):

Complete each synthesis by giving missing starting material, reagent or products:


Question 33(A)(a):

Calculate the standard Gibbs energy (\( \Delta G^\circ \)) of the following reaction at 25°C: \[ \text{Au}(s) + \text{Ca}^{2+}(1M) \to \text{Au}^{3+}(1M) + \text{Ca}(s) \] \[ E^\circ_{\text{Au}^{3+}/\text{Au}} = +1.5 \, \text{V}, \quad E^\circ_{\text{Ca}^{2+}/\text{Ca}} = -2.87 \, \text{V} \] Predict whether the reaction will be spontaneous or not at 25°C. [1 F = 96500 C mol\(^{-1}\)]


Question 33(A)(b):

Tarnished silver contains \( Ag_2S \). Can this tarnish be removed by placing tarnished silverware in an aluminium pan containing an inert electrolytic solution such as NaCl? The standard electrode potential for the half reaction: \[ \text{Ag}_2\text{S}(s) + 2e^- \to 2\text{Ag}(s) + S^{2-}(aq) \, (\text{E}^\circ = -0.71 \, \text{V}) \] \[ \text{Al}^{3+}(aq) + 3e^- \to \text{Al}(s) \, (\text{E}^\circ = -1.66 \, \text{V}) \]


Question 33(B)(a) (OR):

Define the following:

(i) Cell potential

(ii) Fuel cell


Question 33(B)(b) (OR):

Calculate the emf of the following cell at 25°C: 
\[ \text{Zn(s)} | \text{Zn}^{2+}(0.1M) || \text{Cd}^{2+}(0.01M) | \text{Cd(s)} \] Given: \[ E^\circ_{\text{Cd}^{2+}/\text{Cd}} = -0.40 \, V, \, E^\circ_{\text{Zn}^{2+}/\text{Zn}} = -0.76 \, V \] \[ [\log 10 = 1] \]

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern 2025

The CBSE Class 12 Chemistry 2025 question paper is of 70 marks and has 33 questions in five sections, A to E, all compulsory, with internal choice in some questions of Sections B to E. The time allowed is 3 hours, with 15 minutes of extra reading time. The table below gives the section-wise paper pattern from the official CBSE question paper.

Section Questions Question Type Marks per Question Marks
A Q1 - Q16 Multiple choice questions 1 16
B Q17 - Q21 Very short answer questions 2 10
C Q22 - Q28 Short answer questions 3 21
D Q29 - Q30 Case study-based questions 4 8
E Q31 - Q33 Long answer questions 5 15
Total 33 questions 70

CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Unit-Wise Weightage

Unit No. Unit Name Marks
1 Solutions 7
2 Electrochemistry 9
3 Chemical Kinetics 7
4 d- and f-Block Elements 7
5 Coordination Compounds 7
6 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 6
7 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 6
8 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 8
9 Amines 6
10 Biomolecules 7
Total — 70