CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2025 Code 59/1/2 is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Political Science exam on March 22, 2025 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Political Science theory paper is of 80 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2025 (All Subjects)

The Political Science question paper includes the following types of questions:

  • The question paper has 30 questions, all compulsory, for 80 marks in 3 hours, with 15 minutes of extra reading time
  • Section A (Q1 to Q12) has 12 multiple choice questions of 1 mark each (12 marks)
  • Section B (Q13 to Q18) has 6 short answer questions of 2 marks each, to be answered in 50 to 60 words (12 marks)
  • Section C (Q19 to Q23) has 5 long answer type-I questions of 4 marks each, to be answered in 100 to 120 words (20 marks)
  • Section D (Q24 to Q26) has 3 passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions of 4 marks each (12 marks)
  • Section E (Q27 to Q30) has 4 long answer type-II questions of 6 marks each, to be answered in 170 to 180 words (24 marks)
  • There is no overall choice, but internal choice (OR) is given in some questions of Sections C and E

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2025 Code 59/1/2 PDF

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CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 Set 59/1/2 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Pakistan formed an elected government under the leadership of Zulfikar Ali Bhutto which lasted from 1971 to 1977.

Statement-II : The Zulfikar Ali Bhutto government was removed by General Pervez Musharraf in 1977.

  • (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
  • (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
  • (C) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
  • (D) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.

Question 2:

Arrange the following in chronological order of their formation :

I. The World Trade Organisation
II. World Bank
III. The International Atomic Energy Agency
IV. United Nations Organisation

Choose the correct option :

  • (A) I, II, III, IV
  • (B) II, IV, III, I
  • (C) IV, I, III, II
  • (D) III, I, II, IV

Question 3:

Institutional safeguards to minimize the negative effects of globalization on those who are economically weak are known as __________.

  • (A) Welfare measures
  • (B) Social safety nets
  • (C) Economic liberalization
  • (D) Voluntary services

Question 4:

In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option as answer.

Assertion (A) : The entry and the increased role of multinational companies all over the world leads to a reduction in the capacity of governments to take decisions on their own.

Reason (R) : The state continues to discharge its essential functions and consciously withdraws from certain domains from which it wishes to.

  • (A) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct and the Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are correct, but the Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) The Assertion (A) is incorrect, but the Reason (R) is correct.
  • (D) The Assertion (A) is correct, but the Reason (R) is incorrect.

Question 5:

Match the terms given in Column-'A' correctly with Column-'B' and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Column-'A'Column-'B'
I.Human Rights Watchi.An organ of the United Nations
II.International Monetary Fundii.An agency of the United Nations
III.World Health Organisationiii.An international organisation that oversees financial institutions
IV.General Assemblyiv.An international NGO

  • (A) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
  • (B) I-iv, II-i, III-iii, IV-ii
  • (C) I-iv, II-iii, III-ii, IV-i
  • (D) I-ii, II-iv, III-iii, IV-i

Question 6:

Which of the following events made the South Asian region a sudden focus of global attention after the cold war period ?

  • (A) Bangladesh War of 1971
  • (B) Ethnic conflict of Sri Lanka
  • (C) India and Pakistan both became nuclear power
  • (D) Kargil conflict between India and Pakistan

Question 7:

Which one among the following is NOT the function of NITI Aayog ?

  • (A) Promote Co-operative federalism.
  • (B) Developing a strategy for national development.
  • (C) Arrange funds for the implementation of development programs.
  • (D) Creating a system that develops entrepreneurship.

Question 8:

Identify and choose the incorrect pair :

  • (A) Lal Bahadur Shastri - Jai Jawan Jai Kisan
  • (B) Indira Gandhi - Garibi Hatao
  • (C) Syndicate - A group of powerful opposition leaders against Indira Gandhi
  • (D) Grand Alliance - Formed by all Non-Congress Parties

Question 9:

Which statement among the following is correct about the planning ideology of left wing ?

  • (A) The Left supports a free-market economy.
  • (B) They support government policies which are for the benefit of poor sections.
  • (C) They do not want unnecessary intervention of government in the economy.
  • (D) They advocate for progressive policies.

Question 10:

Identify the main reason for the split in Congress Party in 1969.

  • (A) Change in the ideology of Congress Party
  • (B) Dominance of the Congress Syndicate
  • (C) Difference of opinion among the opposition parties
  • (D) Opposition parties came together

Question 11:

The recommendations of Mandal Commission were implemented in which one of the following year ?

  • (A) 1989
  • (B) 1990
  • (C) 1991
  • (D) 1992

Question 12:

New Economic Policy was adopted in India under the Prime Ministership of ________.

  • (A) V.P. Singh
  • (B) Manmohan Singh
  • (C) Narasimha Rao
  • (D) H.D. Deve Gauda

Question 13:

Explain the two commonly agreed upon goals of the national movement which were achieved after independence.


Question 14:

Explain any two arguments given in favour of economic globalization.


Question 15:

"Regionalism is not as dangerous as communalism." Justify the statement.


Question 16:

State any two outcomes of the Rio Summit.


Question 17:

Highlight any two steps taken by Indira Gandhi to remove poverty.


Question 18:

Can Shock Therapy be called the best way to make transition from authoritarian socialist system to liberal capitalist system after the disintegration of Soviet Union ? Explain.


Question 19:

Explain any four conditions that helped the Soviet Union to become a super power after the Second World War.


Question 20:

"One party dominance did not affect the very essence of Indian democracy." Justify the statement with any two arguments.


Question 21:

"States have not only common, but differentiated responsibilities also." Support the statement with two suitable arguments.


Question 22(a):

Describe the role of Jaya Prakash Narayan in Indian National Politics.


Question 22(b) (OR):

Describe any two reasons for the victory of Janata Party in 1977 Lok Sabha elections.


Question 23(a):

How is the South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC) a major regional initiative by South Asian states to evolve co-operation through multilateral means ? Assess.


Question 23(b) (OR):

"Despite the mixed record of democratic experiences, the people of South Asian countries share the aspiration for democracy." Justify the statement with two suitable arguments.


Question 24:

In the given Political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer book along with the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned alphabets shown in the map as per the format that follows :

Sr. Number of the information usedAlphabet concernedName of the States
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  • (i) The Princely State whose ruler resisted its merger with India.
  • (ii) The State that was most affected by the partition of the country.
  • (iii) The State carved out from Madhya Pradesh.
  • (iv) The State that was formed in 1952.


Question 25(I):

What does the cartoon depict ?

  • (A) Influence of UNO on the World
  • (B) Influence of USA on UNO
  • (C) Relevance of UNO
  • (D) Influence of USA on the World

Question 25(II):

What message is given by the cartoon ?

  • (A) If UN fails then the US can control the world by its military power.
  • (B) Economic superiority of US
  • (C) Veto power of permanent members of UN
  • (D) US is the largest contributor to UN

Question 25(III):

Why this cartoon is not relevant today ?

  • (A) UN has become more powerful.
  • (B) Many new powerful international organisations have emerged.
  • (C) Countries are not having faith in UN.
  • (D) Now many new centres of power have emerged.

Question 25(IV):

What is the primary objective of UNO ?

  • (A) To foster economic ties of the developed nations
  • (B) To promote international peace and co-operation
  • (C) To eradicate terrorism
  • (D) To promote health care

Question 26.3:

How does democracy deal with the regional problems ?

  • (A) Through regular negotiations
  • (B) Through strong steps
  • (C) Through elections
  • (D) Through economic measures

Question 27(a):

Explain any three factors responsible for the European Union to be a highly influential regional organization.


Question 27(b) (OR):

Explain with suitable arguments that Japan is emerging as a new alternate centre of power.


Question 28(a):

Describe any three major developments that took place in Indian politics in the last decade of the 20th century.


Question 28(b) (OR):

Describe any three recommendations of the Mandal Commission to solve the problems of the other backward classes.


Question 29(a):

Explain any three security challenges faced by the newly independent countries of Asia and Africa after the Second World War.


Question 29(b) (OR):

Explain any three differences between the Non-traditional and Traditional notion of security.


Question 30(a):

"The foreign policy of Independent India has pursued the dream of a peaceful world." Support the statement with three suitable arguments.


Question 30(b) (OR):

"India played an important role in maintaining Afro-Asian Unity." Support the statement with three suitable examples.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 Question Paper Details

Exam CBSE Class 12 Board Examination 2025
Subject Political Science
Paper code 59/1/2
Exam date March 22, 2025
Time allowed 3 hours (plus 15 minutes of reading time, 10:15 AM to 10:30 AM)
Maximum marks 80
Total questions 30 (attempt 30)

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 question paper is of 80 marks and has 30 questions, of which 30 are to be attempted. The tables below give the section-wise paper pattern and the split of marks, as printed in the official question paper.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper Pattern 2025

Section Questions Question Type Choice Marks per Question Marks
Section A Q1-Q12 Multiple choice questions (MCQs) All 12 1 12
Section B Q13-Q18 Short answer questions (50 to 60 words) All 6 2 12
Section C Q19-Q23 Long answer type-I questions (100 to 120 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions All 5 4 20
Section D Q24-Q26 Passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions All 3 4 12
Section E Q27-Q30 Long answer type-II questions (170 to 180 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions All 4 6 24
Total 30 questions Attempt 30 80

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Marks Distribution 2025

Question Type Questions to Attempt Marks per Question Total Marks
Multiple choice questions (MCQs) (Section A) 12 1 12
Short answer questions (50 to 60 words) (Section B) 6 2 12
Long answer type-I questions (100 to 120 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions (Section C) 5 4 20
Passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions (Section D) 3 4 12
Long answer type-II questions (170 to 180 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions (Section E) 4 6 24
Total 30 80