CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2025 Code 59/4/3 is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Political Science exam on March 22, 2025 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Political Science theory paper is of 80 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2025 (All Subjects)

The Political Science question paper includes the following types of questions:

  • The question paper has 30 questions, all compulsory, for 80 marks in 3 hours, with 15 minutes of extra reading time
  • Section A (Q1 to Q12) has 12 multiple choice questions of 1 mark each (12 marks)
  • Section B (Q13 to Q18) has 6 short answer questions of 2 marks each, to be answered in 50 to 60 words (12 marks)
  • Section C (Q19 to Q23) has 5 long answer type-I questions of 4 marks each, to be answered in 100 to 120 words (20 marks)
  • Section D (Q24 to Q26) has 3 passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions of 4 marks each (12 marks)
  • Section E (Q27 to Q30) has 4 long answer type-II questions of 6 marks each, to be answered in 170 to 180 words (24 marks)
  • There is no overall choice, but internal choice (OR) is given in some questions of Sections C and E

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2025 Code 59/4/3 PDF

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CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 Set 59/4/3 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Globalisation is related to the flow of which of the following ?

  • (A) Rivers
  • (B) Ideas
  • (C) Air
  • (D) Pollution

Question 2:

For Question number 2, two statements are given - one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A) : Resistance to globalisation in India has come from Trade Unions and workforce representing farmers' interests.

Reason (R) : Multinational Corporations have damaged the interests of small scale industries and agriculture.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 3:

Choose the country which is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council.

  • (A) China
  • (B) Russia
  • (C) Japan
  • (D) United Kingdom

Question 4:

Which one of the following is not an organ of the United Nations Organization ?

  • (A) Security Council
  • (B) General Assembly
  • (C) Secretariat
  • (D) UNESCO

Question 5:

Arrange the following events in chronological order :

  • (i) Russia, Ukraine and Belarus declared that Soviet Union was disbanded
  • (ii) Mikhail Gorbachev became the General Secretary of the Communist Party of Soviet Union
  • (iii) Soviet Revolution in Russia
  • (iv) Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement was made

Choose the correct option :

  • (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  • (B) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
  • (C) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
  • (D) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)

Question 6:

Which one of the following statements about the 'Soviet System' is not true ?

  • (A) A minimum standard of living ensured for all citizens
  • (B) Subsidised health services
  • (C) Private ownership of industries and land
  • (D) Provision of welfare schemes

Question 7:

Choose the correct name of the alliance made by the Indian National Congress in the elections of 2004.

  • (A) National Democratic Alliance
  • (B) United Progressive Alliance
  • (C) National Front
  • (D) United Front

Question 9:

One of the basic aims of the planners in the initial years was to _______ .

  • (A) Raise the level of national income
  • (B) Raise the military power of the country
  • (C) Raise the political awareness
  • (D) Raise the standard of education

Question 10:

Choose the correct statement about 'Planning Commission' :

  • (A) It had a constitutional status.
  • (B) Planning Commission was set up in 1952.
  • (C) Its recommendations were binding on the State Governments.
  • (D) It had an advisory role to make recommendations.

Question 11:

Which one of the following political leaders belonged to the Communist Party of India ?

  • (A) C. Rajagopalachari
  • (B) A.K. Gopalan
  • (C) Acharya Narendra Dev
  • (D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 12:

In which year were the first General Elections held in India ?

  • (A) 1948
  • (B) 1949
  • (C) 1950
  • (D) 1952

Question 13:

Name any four countries of South Asia.


Question 14:

Explain any two political consequences of Globalisation.


Question 15:

Define the Indigenous people.


Question 16:

What change did the Communist Party of India (CPI) make in its position in 1951 just before the first General Elections and what was the result of this change ?


Question 17:

Assess the result of Secessionist Movement in Mizoram.


Question 18:

Analyse the impact of Chinese invasion on India in 1962.


Question 19(a):

State any four steps that the heads of all the member countries had decided to take in September 2005 to make the United Nations more relevant in the changing context.


Question 19(b) (OR):

State any four changes that have occurred in the world after the end of the Cold War.


Question 20:

Was Shock therapy necessary for making a transition from Socialist economy to Capitalist economy ? Support your answer with two arguments.


Question 21:

Explain any four steps taken by the Indian government for the protection of the environment.


Question 22:

Analyse any two reasons for considering the fourth General Elections, 1967, as a landmark year in India's political and electoral history.


Question 23(a):

Explain any two lessons learnt from the emergency imposed in 1975.


Question 23(b) (OR):

Explain any two reasons that the government gave for imposing national emergency in 1975.


Question 24(i):

Where is the plateau of Tibet situated ?

  • (A) Central Asia
  • (B) East Asia
  • (C) In the East of China
  • (D) In the West of India

Question 24(ii):

Choose the name of the Chinese leader that came to India in 1956 as the Chinese Premier.

  • (A) Mao
  • (B) Dalai Lama
  • (C) Zhou Enlai
  • (D) Hu-Zintao

Question 24(iii):

In which year was the 'Panchsheel agreement' signed between India and China ?

  • (A) 1952
  • (B) 1953
  • (C) 1954
  • (D) 1955

Question 24(iv):

From which country did Dalai Lama ask for asylum ?

  • (A) Nepal
  • (B) Bhutan
  • (C) India
  • (D) China

Question 25(i):

The State related to Rajiv Gandhi - Longowal Accord


Question 25(ii):

The State which merged with India in May 1975


Question 25(iii):

The State to which social reformer E.V. Ramasami belonged


Question 25(iv):

The State to which Chief Minister Laldenga belonged


Question 26(i):

Which community is being represented by the 'Lion' sitting on the one end of the stick ?

  • (A) Buddhists
  • (B) Christians
  • (C) Sinhalas
  • (D) Tamils

Question 26(ii):

What is the meaning of 'LTTE' written on the Tiger shown in the cartoon ?

  • (A) Liberation Tigers of the Eelam
  • (B) Liberation Tamils of the Eelam
  • (C) Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam
  • (D) Liberty Tigers of Tamil Eelam

Question 26(iii):

Which community in Sri Lanka had felt discriminated ?

  • (A) Tamils
  • (B) Sinhalas
  • (C) Buddhists
  • (D) Christians

Question 26(iv):

Which problem is being depicted by the cartoon ?

  • (A) Economic imbalance
  • (B) Political instability
  • (C) Regional conflict
  • (D) Ethnic conflict

Question 27(a):

State any four reasons for considering Japan as an alternate centre of power.


Question 27(b) (OR):

State any four issues of dispute between India and China.


Question 28(a):

"On many crucial issues, a broad agreement has emerged among most political parties in India." Support the statement with any three examples.


Question 28(b) (OR):

"The decision of the National Front government to implement the recommendations of the Mandal Commission helped in shaping the politics of Other Backward Classes (OBCs)." Support the statement with three examples or arguments.


Question 29(a):

Describe the process of reorganisation of states in India after 1952.


Question 29(b) (OR):

Describe the process that was adopted to make the partition of British India in 1947 as per the Two-Nation theory.


Question 30(a):

Explain any three new sources of threats to non-traditional security.


Question 30(b) (OR):

Explain any three components of traditional security policy.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 Question Paper Details

Exam CBSE Class 12 Board Examination 2025
Subject Political Science
Paper code 59/4/3
Exam date March 22, 2025
Time allowed 3 hours (plus 15 minutes of reading time, 10:15 AM to 10:30 AM)
Maximum marks 80
Total questions 30 (attempt 30)

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 question paper is of 80 marks and has 30 questions, of which 30 are to be attempted. The tables below give the section-wise paper pattern and the split of marks, as printed in the official question paper.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper Pattern 2025

Section Questions Question Type Choice Marks per Question Marks
Section A Q1-Q12 Multiple choice questions (MCQs) All 12 1 12
Section B Q13-Q18 Short answer questions (50 to 60 words) All 6 2 12
Section C Q19-Q23 Long answer type-I questions (100 to 120 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions All 5 4 20
Section D Q24-Q26 Passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions All 3 4 12
Section E Q27-Q30 Long answer type-II questions (170 to 180 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions All 4 6 24
Total 30 questions Attempt 30 80

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Marks Distribution 2025

Question Type Questions to Attempt Marks per Question Total Marks
Multiple choice questions (MCQs) (Section A) 12 1 12
Short answer questions (50 to 60 words) (Section B) 6 2 12
Long answer type-I questions (100 to 120 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions (Section C) 5 4 20
Passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions (Section D) 3 4 12
Long answer type-II questions (170 to 180 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions (Section E) 4 6 24
Total 30 80