CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2025 Code 59/5/1 is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Political Science exam on March 22, 2025 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Political Science theory paper is of 80 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2025 (All Subjects)

The Political Science question paper includes the following types of questions:

  • The question paper has 30 questions, all compulsory, for 80 marks in 3 hours, with 15 minutes of extra reading time
  • Section A (Q1 to Q12) has 12 multiple choice questions of 1 mark each (12 marks)
  • Section B (Q13 to Q18) has 6 short answer questions of 2 marks each, to be answered in 50 to 60 words (12 marks)
  • Section C (Q19 to Q23) has 5 long answer type-I questions of 4 marks each, to be answered in 100 to 120 words (20 marks)
  • Section D (Q24 to Q26) has 3 passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions of 4 marks each (12 marks)
  • Section E (Q27 to Q30) has 4 long answer type-II questions of 6 marks each, to be answered in 170 to 180 words (24 marks)
  • There is no overall choice, but internal choice (OR) is given in some questions of Sections C and E

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2025 Code 59/5/1 PDF

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CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 Set 59/5/1 Questions with Solutions

Question 2:

Which one of the following was the third largest economy of the world in 2017 ?

  • (A) Germany
  • (B) France
  • (C) South Korea
  • (D) Japan

Question 3:

Match the terms with their meaning :

(a)Terrorism:(i)Coalition of countries
(b)Disarmament:(ii)Political violence
(c)Alliance:(iii)Absence of threats
(d)Security:(iv)Giving up certain kind of weapons

Options :

  • (A) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
  • (B) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
  • (C) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)
  • (D) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)

Question 4:

For Question number 4, two statements are given - one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read these statements carefully and choose the correct option as the answer from the options (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below.

Assertion (A) : Health epidemics such as HIV-AIDS, Bird Flu and Coronavirus are the new threats to security.

Reason (R) : Security goes beyond military threats to include a wide range of threats affecting the human life.

Options :

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 5:

Which one of the following options is not a cause of globalisation ?

  • (A) Flow of capital
  • (B) Technological advancement
  • (C) Poverty of the underdeveloped countries
  • (D) Flow of ideas

Question 6:

In which country was the first meeting of the World Social Forum (WSF) held in 2001 ?

  • (A) Brazil
  • (B) South Africa
  • (C) Japan
  • (D) Italy

Question 7:

Choose the name of the political party that ruled Jammu and Kashmir from 1952 to 1957.

  • (A) Indian National Congress
  • (B) National Conference
  • (C) Swatantra Party
  • (D) People's Democratic Front

Question 8:

Who was the founder of Bharatiya Jana Sangh ?

  • (A) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  • (B) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
  • (C) Balraj Madhok
  • (D) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

Question 9:

Which one of the following is the correct full form of NITI Aayog ?

  • (A) National Institute of Technological Innovation
  • (B) National Institution for Transforming India
  • (C) New Institution of Technology and Information
  • (D) National Institute of Training India

Question 10:

Who among the following was the Chairperson of the Planning Commission ?

  • (A) President of India
  • (B) Prime Minister of India
  • (C) Minister of Planning
  • (D) Home Minister

Question 11:

Choose the correct name of the alliance made by the Indian National Congress in the elections of 2004.

  • (A) National Democratic Alliance
  • (B) United Progressive Alliance
  • (C) National Front
  • (D) United Front

Question 12:

Which one of the following political parties embraced 'Gandhian Socialism' as its ideology ?

  • (A) Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (B) Communist Party of India
  • (C) National Conference
  • (D) Socialist Party

Question 13:

Highlight any one basic difference between the democracy in Sri Lanka and the democracy in India.


Question 14:

Name any four elements of Global Commons.


Question 15:

How has globalisation impacted the markets near you ? Show with the help of any two examples.


Question 16:

Explain the 'Two-Nation theory' as advanced by the Muslim League.


Question 17:

Explain any two differences between the Jana Sangh and other parties in terms of ideology.


Question 18:

Assess the democratic approach adopted in India in view of the regional aspirations.


Question 19(a):

Analyse the relations between India and Bangladesh.


Question 19(b) (OR):

Analyse the process of transition from monarchy to democracy in Nepal.


Question 20:

Explain India's strategy to strengthen its security.


Question 21:

Explain the geo-politics of resources with the help of the example of 'water' as a crucial resource.


Question 22(a):

Describe any two events that led to the split in the Congress Party in 1969.


Question 22(b) (OR):

Describe any four steps taken by Indira Gandhi to eradicate poverty (Garibi Hatao) in India.


Question 23:

Suggest any two steps to strengthen the national integration and unity of India.


Question 24(i):

The above passage refers to which general elections to the Lok Sabha ?

  • (A) 4th
  • (B) 5th
  • (C) 6th
  • (D) 7th

Question 24(ii):

For how many total seats of the Lok Sabha are the elections held ?

  • (A) 540
  • (B) 541
  • (C) 542
  • (D) 543

Question 24(iii):

Who among the following was the Deputy Prime Minister of India after the victory of the Janata Party ?

  • (A) Ch. Charan Singh
  • (B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  • (C) L.K. Advani
  • (D) Chandra Shekhar

Question 24(iv):

Name the state from where the Congress Party could win only one seat in the above said elections.

  • (A) Gujarat
  • (B) West Bengal
  • (C) Rajasthan
  • (D) Jammu and Kashmir

Question 25:

In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

(i) The State to which Maharaja Bodhchandra Singh belonged
(ii) The State which was created in 1966
(iii) The State which earlier was a part of Madhya Pradesh
(iv) The State which was created in June 2014


Question 26(i):

Which one of the following is the valid reason to choose 'cycle' to represent China ?

  • (A) China is the largest user of cycles in the world.
  • (B) It is the symbol of Communist Party of China.
  • (C) It shows poverty in China.
  • (D) Popularity of cycling as a sport in China.

Question 26(ii):

What does the dollar in the rear wheel of the cycle depict ?

  • (A) The influence of the US economy on China
  • (B) Fifty percent partnership of the two
  • (C) Dependence of China on US economy
  • (D) Economic aid to China by US

Question 26(iii):

Which form of economy was popular initially in China ?

  • (A) Capitalist
  • (B) Liberal
  • (C) Socialist
  • (D) Mixed

Question 26(iv):

Which one of the following option is the most appropriate message given by the cartoon ?

  • (A) China is open only to US economy.
  • (B) China has established trade relations with US.
  • (C) China works only with European countries.
  • (D) China has adopted dollar as its currency.

Question 27(a):

Examine any three reasons responsible for the disintegration of the Soviet Union.


Question 27(b) (OR):

Examine any three reasons for the friendly and cooperative relations between India and Russia after the disintegration of the Soviet Union.


Question 28(a):

Explain the importance of the United Nations in the present day world with the help of any three arguments.


Question 28(b) (OR):

Explain the composition and functions of the UN Security Council.


Question 29(a):

Describe any three important features of India's Foreign Policy.


Question 29(b) (OR):

Describe any three important events just before and after the India-Pakistan war in 1971.


Question 30(a):

Describe any four political developments in India that took place between 1988 to 1993.


Question 30(b) (OR):

Describe any four consequences of the 'Era of Coalition governments' starting from 1989 to 2004.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 Question Paper Details

Exam CBSE Class 12 Board Examination 2025
Subject Political Science
Paper code 59/5/1
Exam date March 22, 2025
Time allowed 3 hours (plus 15 minutes of reading time, 10:15 AM to 10:30 AM)
Maximum marks 80
Total questions 30 (attempt 30)

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 question paper is of 80 marks and has 30 questions, of which 30 are to be attempted. The tables below give the section-wise paper pattern and the split of marks, as printed in the official question paper.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper Pattern 2025

Section Questions Question Type Choice Marks per Question Marks
Section A Q1-Q12 Multiple choice questions (MCQs) All 12 1 12
Section B Q13-Q18 Short answer questions (50 to 60 words) All 6 2 12
Section C Q19-Q23 Long answer type-I questions (100 to 120 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions All 5 4 20
Section D Q24-Q26 Passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions All 3 4 12
Section E Q27-Q30 Long answer type-II questions (170 to 180 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions All 4 6 24
Total 30 questions Attempt 30 80

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Marks Distribution 2025

Question Type Questions to Attempt Marks per Question Total Marks
Multiple choice questions (MCQs) (Section A) 12 1 12
Short answer questions (50 to 60 words) (Section B) 6 2 12
Long answer type-I questions (100 to 120 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions (Section C) 5 4 20
Passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions (Section D) 3 4 12
Long answer type-II questions (170 to 180 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions (Section E) 4 6 24
Total 30 80