CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2025 Code 59/6/1 is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Political Science exam on March 22, 2025 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Political Science theory paper is of 80 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2025 (All Subjects)

The Political Science question paper includes the following types of questions:

  • The question paper has 30 questions, all compulsory, for 80 marks in 3 hours, with 15 minutes of extra reading time
  • Section A (Q1 to Q12) has 12 multiple choice questions of 1 mark each (12 marks)
  • Section B (Q13 to Q18) has 6 short answer questions of 2 marks each, to be answered in 50 to 60 words (12 marks)
  • Section C (Q19 to Q23) has 5 long answer type-I questions of 4 marks each, to be answered in 100 to 120 words (20 marks)
  • Section D (Q24 to Q26) has 3 passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions of 4 marks each (12 marks)
  • Section E (Q27 to Q30) has 4 long answer type-II questions of 6 marks each, to be answered in 170 to 180 words (24 marks)
  • There is no overall choice, but internal choice (OR) is given in some questions of Sections C and E

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2025 Code 59/6/1 PDF

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CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 Set 59/6/1 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Arrange the following events in chronological order :

  • (i) Mikhail Gorbachev became General Secretary of the Communist Party
  • (ii) Socialist Revolution in Russia
  • (iii) The Berlin Wall was broken by the people
  • (iv) Disintegration of the USSR

Choose the correct option :

  • (A) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
  • (B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
  • (C) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
  • (D) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

Question 2:

Choose the group of three Republics of the USSR which declared that the Soviet Union was disbanded.

  • (A) Russia, Tajikistan, Belarus
  • (B) Ukraine, Kazakhstan, Georgia
  • (C) Russia, Ukraine, Belarus
  • (D) Armenia, Georgia, Belarus

Question 3:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : United Nations was established in 1945.

Statement II : United Nations was founded as a successor to the League of Nations.

In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
  • (D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

Question 4:

Which of the following is not considered as an agency of the UNO ?

  • (A) World Health Organisation (WHO)
  • (B) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO)
  • (C) United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR)
  • (D) World Trade Organisation (WTO)

Question 5:

Who among the following Prime Ministers radically changed the direction of the Indian economy ?

  • (A) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  • (B) Chandra Shekhar
  • (C) V.P. Singh
  • (D) P.V. Narsimha Rao

Question 8:

On the basis of which language was Andhra Pradesh formed ?

  • (A) Telugu
  • (B) Malayalam
  • (C) Tamil
  • (D) Kannada

Question 9:

On which date was the Constitution of India adopted ?

  • (A) 24th November, 1949
  • (B) 26th November, 1949
  • (C) 24th January, 1950
  • (D) 26th January, 1950

Question 10:

Which one of the following statements is not true about the Bharatiya Jana Sangh ?

  • (A) Reunion of India and Pakistan in Akhand Bharat.
  • (B) Hindi should be the official language of India.
  • (C) It advocated that India should develop nuclear weapons.
  • (D) It advocated limited cooperation with the Congress.

Question 11:

Choose the name of the Prime Minister who led the National Front Government in 1989.

  • (A) Chandra Shekhar
  • (B) V.P. Singh
  • (C) P.V. Narsimha Rao
  • (D) H.D. Deve Gowda

Question 12:

Which one among the following is not an example of Arms Control ?

  • (A) Anti-Ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty
  • (B) Strategic Arms Limitations Treaty II (SALT II)
  • (C) Military Alliance
  • (D) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START)

Question 13:

Did the First Five Year Plan help in the development of India ? Support your opinion with the help of two examples.


Question 14:

Why is the European Union considered an effective regional organisation ? Write any two reasons.


Question 15:

Suggest any two measures to deal with health epidemics as a new threat to security.


Question 16:

Explain the traditional notion of security.


Question 17:

Describe any two features of India's foreign policy.


Question 18:

Explain any two reasons for the dominance of the Congress Party in the first three general elections.


Question 19:

Explain any two reasons that led to the mid-term elections to the Lok Sabha in 1980.


Question 20:

Explain the role of Mahatma Gandhi in reducing communal tension and violence which erupted in some parts of the country at the time of partition.


Question 21:

Explain any two major causes of globalisation.


Question 22(a):

Explain the contribution of any two Non-Governmental Organisations working for the protection of human rights in the world.


Question 22(b) (OR):

Explain the contribution of any two international organisations working for human development and international trade.


Question 23(a):

"After the disintegration of the Soviet Union, Indo-Russian relations are gaining new heights." Support the statement with any four examples.


Question 23(b) (OR):

"After the Second World War, the Soviet Union was considered a superpower of the world." Support the statement with any four arguments.


Question 24(i):

Who among the following leaders had played a crucial role in the formulation and implementation of India's foreign policy ?

  • (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (B) Sardar Patel
  • (C) Mahatma Gandhi
  • (D) Subhas Chandra Bose

Question 24(ii):

In which city was the first summit of NAM held in September 1961 ?

  • (A) New Delhi
  • (B) Belgrade
  • (C) Cairo (Kahira)
  • (D) Bombay (Mumbai)

Question 24(iii):

Identify the two blocs from whom India wanted to keep a distance.

  • (A) USA and France
  • (B) USSR and France
  • (C) USA and USSR
  • (D) USA and China

Question 24(iv):

Which one of the following countries was a supporter of the Non-Aligned Movement ?

  • (A) Pakistan
  • (B) China
  • (C) Japan
  • (D) Egypt

Question 25:

In the given political outline map of India (on page 15), four States have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these States on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer-book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets given in the map as per the following format :

Serial number of the information usedConcerned alphabet given in the mapName of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
  • (i) The state where K. Kamaraj was Chief Minister and introduced Mid-day Meal Scheme for school children.
  • (ii) The state associated with Karpoori Thakur who introduced reservations for the Backward Classes.
  • (iii) The state where V.V. Giri was a renowned labour leader.
  • (iv) The state related to Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri.


Question 26(i):

Which one of the following is the valid reason to choose 'cycle' to represent China ?

  • (A) China is the largest user of cycles in the world.
  • (B) It is the symbol of Communist Party of China.
  • (C) It shows poverty in China.
  • (D) Popularity of cycling as a sport in China.

Question 26(ii):

What does the dollar in the rear wheel of the cycle depict ?

  • (A) The influence of the US economy on China
  • (B) Fifty percent partnership of the two
  • (C) Dependence of China on US economy
  • (D) Economic aid to China by US

Question 26(iii):

Which form of economy was popular initially in China ?

  • (A) Capitalist
  • (B) Liberal
  • (C) Socialist
  • (D) Mixed

Question 26(iv):

Which one of the following option is the most appropriate message given by the cartoon ?

  • (A) China is open only to US economy.
  • (B) China has established trade relations with US.
  • (C) China works only with European countries.
  • (D) China has adopted dollar as its currency.

Question 27(a):

Describe any two areas of cooperation and any two areas of conflict among the member countries of the SAARC.


Question 27(b) (OR):

Describe any three events that show that people of all the South Asian countries want to have democracy in their country.


Question 28(a):

"Despite common but differentiated responsibilities, the environmental problems are increasing day-by-day challenging human existence." Analyse any four reasons responsible for this situation.


Question 28(b) (OR):

Assess India's role to protect the global environment on the basis of any four steps taken by it.


Question 29(a):

Analyse any three reasons for the movement against outsiders in Assam from 1979 to 1985.


Question 29(b) (OR):

Analyse any three reasons for the unrest and violence in Punjab from 1967 to 1985.


Question 30(a):

Describe any four new trends of Indian politics that can be noticed during the decade of 1990s.


Question 30(b) (OR):

Describe any four developments after 1989 that had a long lasting impact on Indian politics.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 Question Paper Details

Exam CBSE Class 12 Board Examination 2025
Subject Political Science
Paper code 59/6/1
Exam date March 22, 2025
Time allowed 3 hours (plus 15 minutes of reading time, 10:15 AM to 10:30 AM)
Maximum marks 80
Total questions 30 (attempt 30)

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 question paper is of 80 marks and has 30 questions, of which 30 are to be attempted. The tables below give the section-wise paper pattern and the split of marks, as printed in the official question paper.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper Pattern 2025

Section Questions Question Type Choice Marks per Question Marks
Section A Q1-Q12 Multiple choice questions (MCQs) All 12 1 12
Section B Q13-Q18 Short answer questions (50 to 60 words) All 6 2 12
Section C Q19-Q23 Long answer type-I questions (100 to 120 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions All 5 4 20
Section D Q24-Q26 Passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions All 3 4 12
Section E Q27-Q30 Long answer type-II questions (170 to 180 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions All 4 6 24
Total 30 questions Attempt 30 80

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Marks Distribution 2025

Question Type Questions to Attempt Marks per Question Total Marks
Multiple choice questions (MCQs) (Section A) 12 1 12
Short answer questions (50 to 60 words) (Section B) 6 2 12
Long answer type-I questions (100 to 120 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions (Section C) 5 4 20
Passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions (Section D) 3 4 12
Long answer type-II questions (170 to 180 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions (Section E) 4 6 24
Total 30 80