CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2025 Code 59/S/2 (Compartment) is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Political Science exam on July 15, 2025 from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Political Science theory paper is of 80 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2025 (All Subjects)

The Political Science question paper includes the following types of questions:

  • The question paper has 30 questions, all compulsory, for 80 marks in 3 hours, with 15 minutes of extra reading time
  • Section A (Q1 to Q12) has 12 multiple choice questions of 1 mark each (12 marks)
  • Section B (Q13 to Q18) has 6 short answer questions of 2 marks each, to be answered in 50 to 60 words (12 marks)
  • Section C (Q19 to Q23) has 5 long answer type-I questions of 4 marks each, to be answered in 100 to 120 words (20 marks)
  • Section D (Q24 to Q26) has 3 passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions of 4 marks each (12 marks)
  • Section E (Q27 to Q30) has 4 long answer type-II questions of 6 marks each, to be answered in 170 to 180 words (24 marks)
  • There is no overall choice, but internal choice (OR) is given in some questions of Sections C and E

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper 2025 Code 59/S/2 (Compartment) PDF

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CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 Set 59/S/2 (Compartment) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Which one of the following statements about 'NITI Aayog' is correct ?

  • (A) It is a constitutional body.
  • (B) It is an international organisation.
  • (C) It was established on 1st January, 2015.
  • (D) It has been formed to frame education policy.

Question 2:

Complete the sentence with the correct option.

The First Five Year Plan focused on ___________.

  • (A) Agriculture
  • (B) Technology
  • (C) Industries
  • (D) Education

Question 3:

Match the given Leaders in Column 'A' with the Political Parties listed in Column 'B' and choose the correct option :

Column 'A'Column 'B'
(a)Deendayal Upadhyay(i)Communist Party of India
(b)Ashok Mehta(ii)Congress Party
(c)Sardar Patel(iii)Socialist Party
(d)A.K. Gopalan(iv)Bharatiya Jana Sangh

  • (A) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
  • (B) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)
  • (C) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
  • (D) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)

Question 4:

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly ?

  • (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  • (B) Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar
  • (C) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (D) C. Rajagopalachari

Question 5:

Assertion (A) : The Central Government appointed the States Reorganisation Commission in 1953 to look into the question of redrawing the boundaries of states.

Reason (R) : Many people were struggling for the formation of states on linguistic basis.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 6:

Identify the state which was created in 1952.

  • (A) Gujarat
  • (B) Andhra Pradesh
  • (C) Goa
  • (D) Orissa

Question 7:

Which one of the following statements is true about globalisation ?

  • (A) Globalisation was promoted by the United Nations.
  • (B) Globalisation is an economic phenomenon only.
  • (C) Globalisation is against the rich people.
  • (D) Globalisation is caused by advanced technology.

Question 8:

Assertion (A) : The cultural consequences of globalisation are always negative.

Reason (R) : Sometimes globalisation enlarges our choice, and sometimes modifies our culture.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 9:

Which one of the following statements in not true about the 'World Bank' ?

  • (A) It was created in 1944.
  • (B) It works for human development.
  • (C) It provides loans and grants to its member states.
  • (D) It encourages socialist economies.

Question 10:

Which one of the following is not an agency of the United Nations ?

  • (A) UNICEF
  • (B) World Health Organisation
  • (C) Security Council
  • (D) UNESCO

Question 11:

Arrange the following in chronological order :

  • (i) Breaking down of the Berlin Wall
  • (ii) The Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
  • (iii) Indo-Russian Strategic Agreement
  • (iv) Disintegration of the Soviet Union

Choose the correct option :

  • (A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
  • (B) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
  • (C) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  • (D) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

Question 12:

Which one of the following countries is in Central Asia ?

  • (A) Tajikistan
  • (B) Chechnya
  • (C) Yugoslavia
  • (D) Turkiye

Question 13:

Name any two Prime Ministers of India who were appointed as Prime Minister three times after 1989.


Question 14:

Why was Congress known as a rainbow-like social coalition ? Explain.


Question 15:

Explain any two causes of globalisation.


Question 16:

Analyse the need of 'balance of power' as a component of traditional security.


Question 17:

Explain the term 'ASEAN Way'.


Question 18:

Explain any two effects of the Chinese invasion on India in 1962.


Question 19(a):

Explain any two features of the 'Policy of Non-alignment'.


Question 19(b) (OR):

Explain the Nuclear Policy of India.


Question 20:

Describe any two objectives of the United Nations and name any four of its agencies.


Question 21(a):

Explain the meaning and purpose of Shock Therapy.


Question 21(b) (OR):

Explain any four consequences of Shock Therapy.


Question 22:

"Non-traditional view of security is all about human security." Justify the statement with the help of two arguments.


Question 23:

Describe any two main reasons for the split in the Congress Party in 1969.


Question 24(i):

Which one of the following parties had not joined the demonstration led by Jayaprakash Narayan at Ramlila Ground on 25 June 1975 ?

  • (A) Bharatiya Jana Sangh
  • (B) Bharatiya Lok Dal
  • (C) Socialist Party
  • (D) Indian National Congress

Question 24(ii):

Why were the parties asking for the resignation of Indira Gandhi ?

  • (A) Indira Gandhi had changed her Cabinet.
  • (B) Indira Gandhi's election to the Lok Sabha was declared invalid by Allahabad High Court.
  • (C) Indira Gandhi had a conflict with Morarji Desai.
  • (D) Indira Gandhi had lost majority in the Lok Sabha.

Question 24(iii):

What happened on 26 June 1975 ?

  • (A) Internal Emergency was declared.
  • (B) The Lok Sabha was dissolved.
  • (C) The Judges of the Allahabad High Court were transferred.
  • (D) The Home Minister of India resigned.

Question 24(iv):

Why had the mood of people turned against the Congress Party in 1975 ?

  • (A) The Congress was preparing for an early election.
  • (B) The Congress could not control terrorism.
  • (C) Indira Gandhi did not resign after the decision of the Allahabad High Court.
  • (D) The Congress Syndicate had become stronger.

Question 25(i):

The state which was divided during partition and one part remained with India.


Question 25(ii):

The state which was carved out of Assam.


Question 25(iii):

The state to which Sardar Patel belonged.


Question 26(i):

What was contained in the Red Book shown in the cartoon ?


Question 26(ii):

Who was Mao as shown in the cartoon ?


Question 26(iii):

What two changes do you find in China from 'Then' to 'Now' ?


Question 27(a):

Describe any three military rules in Pakistan with one event of that period along with the name of the military ruler.


Question 27(b) (OR):

Describe any four important aspects of India's relations with Nepal.


Question 28(a):

Analyse any three reasons for the movement against outsiders in Assam.


Question 28(b) (OR):

Analyse any three issues of tension immediately after independence that posed a threat to the unity and integration of India.


Question 29(a):

Explain the principle of "Common but Differentiated Responsibilities" as an approach to environment.


Question 29(b) (OR):

Explain any three international environmental movements to protect the environment from degradation.


Question 30(a):

Explain any four important political events of Indian politics between the period 1988 to 1998.


Question 30(b) (OR):

Explain any four consequences of the implementation of Mandal Commission Report in 1990.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 Question Paper Details

Exam CBSE Class 12 Board Examination 2025
Subject Political Science
Paper code 59/S/2 (Compartment)
Exam date July 15, 2025
Time allowed 3 hours (plus 15 minutes of reading time, 10:15 AM to 10:30 AM)
Maximum marks 80
Total questions 30 (attempt 30)

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Political Science 2025 question paper is of 80 marks and has 30 questions, of which 30 are to be attempted. The tables below give the section-wise paper pattern and the split of marks, as printed in the official question paper.

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Question Paper Pattern 2025

Section Questions Question Type Choice Marks per Question Marks
Section A Q1-Q12 Multiple choice questions (MCQs) All 12 1 12
Section B Q13-Q18 Short answer questions (50 to 60 words) All 6 2 12
Section C Q19-Q23 Long answer type-I questions (100 to 120 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions All 5 4 20
Section D Q24-Q26 Passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions All 3 4 12
Section E Q27-Q30 Long answer type-II questions (170 to 180 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions All 4 6 24
Total 30 questions Attempt 30 80

CBSE Class 12 Political Science Marks Distribution 2025

Question Type Questions to Attempt Marks per Question Total Marks
Multiple choice questions (MCQs) (Section A) 12 1 12
Short answer questions (50 to 60 words) (Section B) 6 2 12
Long answer type-I questions (100 to 120 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions (Section C) 5 4 20
Passage, cartoon/picture and map-based questions (Section D) 3 4 12
Long answer type-II questions (170 to 180 words), with internal choice (OR) in some questions (Section E) 4 6 24
Total 30 80