CBSE Class 12 Sociology Set 4 - (62) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Sociology examination on April 4, 2026, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Sociology theory paper is of 80 marks and the time allowed is 3 hours. The question paper was handed out at 10:15 AM, and the first 15 minutes were given for reading it.

The paper has 35 questions, all compulsory, divided into four sections:

  • Section A has Q1 - Q16, objective type questions of 1 mark each,
  • Section B has Q17 - Q25, very short answer type questions of 2 marks each,
  • Section C has Q26 - Q32, short answer type questions of 4 marks each,
  • Section D has Q33 - Q35, long answer type questions of 6 marks each. Q33 is based on the given data table.

Internal choice is given in Q18, Q22 and Q31. A separate question is also provided for visually impaired candidates in place of Q33.

CBSE Class 12 Sociology Set 4 - (62) Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF

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CBSE Class 12 Sociology 2026 Set 4 (62) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Assertion (A): Female literacy has been rising faster than male literacy.
Reason (R): Literacy varies considerably across genders, across regions, and across social groups.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 2:

Assertion (A): Some communities were characterised as 'martial races', some others as effeminate or cowardly, yet others as untrustworthy.
Reason (R): Stereotypes are fixed and inflexible characterisations of a group of people.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 3:

_________ is a characteristic of the second/transitional stage in population growth of society.
(I) High death rate and population explosion
(II) Population explosion
(III) Low sex ratio
(IV) High maternal mortality rate

  • (A) Only (I)
  • (B) Only (II)
  • (C) (II) and (III)
  • (D) Only (IV)

Question 4:

Assertion (A): The government sells its shares in several public sector companies as part of the process of disinvestment.
Reason (R): Many government workers are scared that they will lose their job after disinvestment.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 5:

Which of the following are not the changes brought about by colonialism to the caste system?

  • (A) Numbering and recording of castes through census.
  • (B) Hundreds of petitions were addressed to the Census Commissioner by representatives of different castes claiming a higher position in the social scale.
  • (C) Linking castes to traditional occupations.
  • (D) Making 'Schedules' of castes for special treatment by the State.

Question 6:

Which of the following institutional incentives helps to build a feeling of unity in diversity?

  • (A) Citizens can find the institutional and political space to identify with both their country and cultural identities.
  • (B) Citizens cannot build trust in common institutions.
  • (C) Citizens do not participate in and support democratic politics.
  • (D) Explicit efforts are not required to end the cultural exclusion of diverse groups.

Question 7:

An authoritarian state is the opposite of a democratic state because:

  • (A) It is a state in which people have no voice.
  • (B) Those in power are accountable to everyone.
  • (C) The state responds well to the needs of the people.
  • (D) Authoritarian state does not abolish civil liberties.

Question 8:

Assertion (A): Sanskritisation operated similarly in different parts of the country.
Reason (R): In regions where the non-Sanskritic were dominant, it was their influence that was stronger.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 9:

Which of the following is a public perception of disability?

  • (A) Disabilities are not understood as biologically given.
  • (B) The disabled person is not seen as a victim.
  • (C) Disability is not linked with an individual's self-perception.
  • (D) The idea of disability suggests that they are in need of help.

Question 10:

Assertion (A): India is still largely an agricultural country.
Reason (R): Very few people in India have access to secure jobs.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 11:

How have social movements shaped the world we live in?

  • (A) In the 19th century, reform movements did not influence caste and gender.
  • (B) Asia and Africa had nationalist movements, which ended colonialism.
  • (C) The Civil Rights Movement in the USA did not bring equal rights.
  • (D) Anti-apartheid struggle did not change society in South Africa.

Question 12:

Which of the following is not true about Karl Marx's view on violent collective action?

  • (A) 'Crowds' and 'mobs' were not made up of anarchic hooligans out to destroy society.
  • (B) Poor people in urban areas had a good reason for protesting.
  • (C) They often resorted to public protest because they had no other way of expressing their anger against deprivation.
  • (D) 'Crowds' and 'mobs' have no shared understanding of right and wrong.

Question 13:

Which of the following is not true about Adivasis?

  • (A) Their economic conditions were better than the non-Adivasis.
  • (B) They are found mainly in the north-eastern parts of India.
  • (C) They were believed to be the people of the forest.
  • (D) They had practised shifting cultivation.

Question 14:

Write the following statements in the correct order :
(I) The resource extraction in areas inhabited by tribes can be traced to the British Government.
(II) Since the 1990s, when economic liberalisation policies were officially adopted by the Indian Government, the process of resource extraction in Adivasi areas has become even more powerful.
(III) The term ‘Adivasi’ was coined in the 1930s as part of the struggle against intrusion by the colonial government and outside settlers.
(IV) The most significant achievement of Adivasi movements includes attainment of statehood for Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh in the year 2000.

  • (A) (III), (I), (II), (IV)
  • (B) (I), (II), (III), (IV)
  • (C) (IV), (I), (III), (II)
  • (D) (III), (II), (IV), (I)

Question 15:

Which statement is true regarding the many-sided and paradoxical impact of the English language in India?

  • (A) English is not widely used in India.
  • (B) We do not have an impressive body of literary writings by Indians in English.
  • (C) The knowledge of English has given Indians an edge in the global market.
  • (D) For those who were traditionally deprived of access to formal education, such as Dalits, knowledge of English did not open doors of opportunities.

Question 16:

Assertion (A): Constitutional provisions define the powers of the States and the Centre.
Reason (R): Respecting regional sentiments is not just a matter of creating States but it has to be backed up with an institutional structure.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 17:

“Malthus argued that human populations tend to grow at a much faster rate than the rate at which the means of human subsistence (specially food, but also clothing and other agriculture-based products) can grow. Therefore, humanity is condemned to live in poverty forever because the growth of agricultural production will always be overtaken by population growth.”

What are the methods that Malthus suggests to check the rise in population?


Question 18:

“Social exclusion is not accidental but systematic - it is the result of structural features of society.”

In the context of the above statement, highlight the meaning of social exclusion.


Question 19:

“Untouchability is an extreme and vicious aspect of the caste system.”

Explain any two dimensions of untouchability.


Question 20:

“Many of our cultural practices and patterns can be traced to our agricultural background. There is a close relationship between agriculture and culture.”

Give one reason to support the given statement and name any two agriculture-related festivals.


Question 21:

“Our community provides us the language (our mother tongue) and the cultural values through which we comprehend the world. It also anchors our self-identity. Community identity is what we 'are' rather than what we have 'become.”

How can you say that community identity is ascriptive?


Question 22:

The 'Schedules' listing the castes and tribes recognised as deserving of special treatment because of the massive discrimination practiced against them were drawn up in 1935, by the British Indian government.

Post-independence, which was the most important initiative taken by the government to compensate for this discrimination? Write briefly about it.


Question 23:

The notion of minority groups usually involves some sort of a relative disadvantage. Exemplify the statement.


Question 24:

Highlight the meaning of Secularism in both, the Western and Indian context.


Question 25:

“In a country where half the children in the age group of 5-14 years are out of school, how can there be space for children with disabilities, especially if a segregated schooling is being advocated for them?”

State two ways by which a disabled child can achieve autonomy.


Question 26:

“In India, over 90% of the work, whether it is in agriculture, industry or services is in the unorganised or informal sector.”

What are the social implications of this small size of the organised sector?


Question 27:

“In our current information age, social movements around the globe are able to join together in huge regional and international networks.”

Give suitable examples to support the statement.


Question 28:

“Globalisation of agriculture or the incorporation of agriculture into the larger global market --- a process that has had direct effects on farmers and rural society.”

Discuss the role of 'contract farming' in this process of globalisation.


Question 29:

“The post-independent Indian state inherited and reflected the contradictions of the pre-independent period.”

Comment on the given statement with respect to the role of caste in the public sphere.


Question 30:

“In Indian nationalism, the dominant trend was marked by an inclusive and democratic vision.”

Explain.


Question 31:

“A considerable part of ritual in India has a direct reference to the pursuit of secular ends. Rituals have secular dimensions as distinct from secular goals.”

Justify with the help of suitable examples.


Question 32:

“Jan Breman identified the change in the nature of relationship between landlords and agricultural workers.”

Explain the meaning of the phrase 'from patronage to exploitation' stated by him.


Question 33:

“Cities played a key role in the economic system of empires.”

Elucidate the statement with the help of suitable examples.


Question 34:

“The laws of a colonised country did not have to stick to the democratic norms that the British back home had to follow.”

In what ways did the colonial laws favour the owners and managers of the tea industry?


Question 35:

“Because the tribal areas were located in mineral-rich and forest-covered parts of the country, tribals have paid a disproportionate price for the development of the rest of Indian society.”

How has national development been a challenge for the tribal population of India, post-Independence?


Comprehension:

The Rural and Urban population in India (1901 – 2011) is given below:

Based on the above data, answer the following questions.


Question 36:

“Rural-urban migration is preferred for 'social reasons'.” Mention any two reasons.


Question 37:

“It is not a question of numbers alone, processes of modern development ensure that the economic and social significance of the agrarian-rural way of life declines relative to the significance of the industrial way of life.”

Highlight the reasons for the decline in the agrarian-rural way of life.


Comprehension:

The urban population has been increasing its share steadily, from about 11% at the beginning of the twentieth century to about 28% at the beginning of the twenty-first century, an increase of about two-and-a-half times. It is not a question of numbers alone; processes of modern development ensure that the economic and social significance of the agrarian-rural way of life declines relative to the significance of the industrial urban way of life. This has been broadly true all over the world, and it is true in India as well.

Read More Based on the above passage, answer the following questions. 

Question 38:

Rural-urban migration is preferred for social reasons. Mention any two reasons.


Question 39:

Highlight the reasons for the decline in the agrarian-rural way of life.


Question 40:

“Home-based work is an important part of the economy.” Elaborate on the functioning of any one 'Home-based' Industry.


Question 41:

How have the women's movements evolved over the period of history?

CBSE Class 12 Sociology 2026 Set 4 - (62) Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Section Questions Question Type Marks Each Total Marks
A Q1 - Q16 Objective type (MCQ, assertion-reason) 1 16
B Q17 - Q25 Very Short Answer (up to 30 words) 2 18
C Q26 - Q32 Short Answer (up to 80 words) 4 28
D Q33 - Q35 Long Answer (up to 200 words) 6 18
Total 35 questions 80

CBSE Class 12 Sociology 2026 Set 4 - (62) Question Paper FAQs

Ques. How many questions are there in the CBSE Class 12 Sociology 2026 question paper (Set 4 - 62)?

Ans. The paper has 35 questions in four sections (A to D) for 80 marks: 16 objective questions of 1 mark, 9 questions of 2 marks, 7 questions of 4 marks and 3 questions of 6 marks. All questions are compulsory.

Ques. Is there any internal choice in the CBSE Class 12 Sociology 2026 paper?

Ans. Yes. An internal choice (OR) is given in Q18, Q22 and Q31. You have to attempt only one of the two options in these questions.

Ques. How much time is given for the CBSE Class 12 Sociology 2026 paper?

Ans. The paper is of 3 hours (10:30 AM to 1:30 PM). The question paper is distributed at 10:15 AM and candidates get 15 minutes to read it before they start writing.

Ques. What is the word limit for the answers in the Sociology 2026 paper?

Ans. Section B answers should not exceed 30 words, Section C answers 80 words and Section D answers 200 words each.

Ques. What does the Q.P. code 62 and Set 4 mean?

Ans. 62 is the paper code of Sociology, and Set 4 is the series of the question paper printed on the cover page. The Q.P. code has to be written on the title page of the answer book.

Ques. Where can I get the official CBSE Class 12 Sociology question paper?

Ans. The official question papers are published on the CBSE website, cbse.gov.in. You can also download the official PDF from the table above.