MHT CET 2026 April 11 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on April 11 in Shift 2 from 2 PM to 5 PM in CBT mode.

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Download MHT CET 2026 April 11 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper with Solutions PDF from the links provided below.

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MHT CET 2026 April 11 Shift 2 PCM Questions with Solutions

Physics Section (Questions 1 to 50)

Question 1:

A quantity P is related as \(X^{-2}Y^{-3/2}Z^{2/5}\) where X,Y,Z are independent parameters which have fractional errors of \(0.1,0.2\) and \(0.5\) respectively in measurement. The maximum fractional error in P is

  • (A) \(0.7\)
  • (B) \(0.1\)
  • (C) \(0.8\)
  • (D) \(0.6\)

Question 2:

The vectors \((\overset{⃗}{A}+\overset{⃗}{B})\) and \((\overset{⃗}{A}-\overset{⃗}{B})\) are perpendicular to each other. This is possible under the condition

  • (A) \(|\overset{⃗}{A}| = |\overset{⃗}{B}|\)
  • (B) \(\overset{⃗}{A}\cdot \overset{⃗}{B} = 0\)
  • (C) \(\overset{⃗}{A}\times \overset{⃗}{B} = 0\)
  • (D) \(\overset{⃗}{A}\cdot \overset{⃗}{B} = 1\)

Question 3:

The angular speed of the minute hand of a clock in degrees per second is

  • (A) \(0.6\)
  • (B) \(0.1\)
  • (C) \(0.12\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 4:

In non uniform circular motion, the ratio of radial acceleration to tangential acceleration is (V is the velocity, r is the radius and \(α\) is the angular acceleration)

  • (A) \(\frac{αr}{V}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{V^2}{r^2α}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{r^2α}{V^2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{rα^2}{V^2}\)

Question 5:

A mass M moving with velocity V along X-axis collides and sticks to another mass 2M which is moving along Y-axis with velocity 3V. The velocity of the combination, after the collision is

  • (A) \(V\hat{i}+2V\hat{j}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{V}{3}\hat{i}+2V\hat{j}\)
  • (C) \(V\hat{i}+3V\hat{j}\)
  • (D) \(2V\hat{i}+4V\hat{j}\)

Question 6:

The moment of inertia of a ring about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is I. It is rotating with angular velocity \(ω\). Another identical ring is gently placed on it so that their centres coincide. If both rings are rotating about the same axis then loss in kinetic energy is

  • (A) \(Iω^2\)
  • (B) \(\frac{Iω^2}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{Iω^2}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{Iω^2}{8}\)

Question 7:

Let M and L be the mass and length of thin uniform rod respectively. In first case, axis of rotation is passing through centre and perpendicular to length of rod. In second case axis of rotation is passing through one end and perpendicular to length of rod. The ratio of radius of gyration in first case to second case is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Question 8:

The density of a planet is three times that of earth and radius \(2.5\) times that of earth. If \(g_p\) and \(g_e\) represents acceleration due to gravity on planet and earth respectively then ratio \(g_p\) to \(g_e\) is

  • (A) \(7.5\)
  • (B) \(3.5\)
  • (C) \(6.5\)
  • (D) \(9.5\)

Question 9:

A liquid drop having surface energy E is sprayed into \(512\) droplets of the same size. Then the final surface energy is

  • (A) \(4E\)
  • (B) \(8E\)
  • (C) \(2E\)
  • (D) \(E\)

Question 10:

In a capillary tube of radius 'R', a straight thin metal wire of radius 'r' is inserted symmetrically and one end of the combination is dipped vertically in water such that lower end of the capillary and thin wire are at same level. If 'T' is the surface tension of water and '\(ρ\)' is the density of water then the rise of water in the capillary is

  • (A) \(\frac{T}{(R-r)ρg}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2T}{(R-r)ρg}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4T}{(R+r)ρg}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{T}{(R+r)ρg}\)

Question 11:

Due to surface tension, the excess pressure inside a smaller drop is \(9\) units. If \(27\) smaller drops combine then excess pressure inside the bigger drop is

  • (A) \(3\) units
  • (B) \(9\) units
  • (C) \(18\) units
  • (D) \(6\) units

Question 12:

A body cools in \(7\) minutes from \(60^{\circ}\)C to \(40^{\circ}\)C. What time (in minutes) does it take to cool from \(40^{\circ}\)C to \(28^{\circ}\)C, if its surrounding temperature is \(10^{\circ}\)C ? (Newton's law of cooling holds good)

  • (A) \(3.5\)
  • (B) \(10\)
  • (C) \(11\)
  • (D) \(7\)

Question 13:

A rigid diatomic gas undergoes adiabatic change. Its pressure P and temperature T are related as \(P\propto T^x\) where x is

  • (A) \(1.5\)
  • (B) \(2.5\)
  • (C) \(3.5\)
  • (D) \(4.5\)

Question 14:

If \(\Delta Q\) is the amount of heat supplied to 'n' moles of a rigid diatomic gas at constant pressure, \(\Delta U\) is the change in internal energy and \(\Delta W\) is the work done then \(\Delta W:\Delta U:\Delta Q\) is

  • (A) \(2:5:7\)
  • (B) \(1:4:7\)
  • (C) \(2:3:4\)
  • (D) \(3:5:9\)

Question 15:

An insulated container contains a monoatomic gas of molar mass 'm'. The container is moving with velocity 'V'. If it is stopped suddenly, the change in temperature of the gas is (R-gas constant)

  • (A) \(\frac{mv^2}{R}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{mv^2}{2R}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{mv^2}{3R}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{mv^2}{5R}\)

Question 16:

Carnot engine operating between temperatures \(T_1\) and \(T_2\) has efficiency \(0.2\). When \(T_2\) is lowered by \(45\) K, its efficiency becomes \(0.5\). Temperatures \(T_1\) and \(T_2\) are respectively

  • (A) \(150\) K, \(120\) K
  • (B) \(120\) K, \(150\) K
  • (C) \(60\) K, \(80\) K
  • (D) \(80\) K, \(60\) K

Question 17:

For a gas, \(\frac{R}{C_v} = 0.4\) where R is the universal gas constant and \(C_v\) is the molar specific heat at constant volume. The gas is made up of molecules which are

  • (A) monoatomic
  • (B) polyatomic
  • (C) non rigid diatomic
  • (D) rigid diatomic

Question 18:

An oscillating pendulum suspended from the roof of a lift which is at rest has time period \(T_1\). When lift moves up with acceleration 'a' its time period is \(T_2\). When lift moves down with acceleration 'a' its time period is \(T_3\). The relation between \(T_1\), \(T_2\) and \(T_3\) is

  • (A) \(T_1 = \frac{2T_2T_3}{\sqrt{T_2^2+T_3^2}}\)
  • (B) \(T_1 = \frac{\sqrt{2}T_2T_3}{\sqrt{T_2^2+T_3^2}}\)
  • (C) \(T_1 = \frac{2T_2^2T_3^2}{\sqrt{T_2+T_3}}\)
  • (D) \(T_1 = \frac{\sqrt{2}T_2^2T_3^2}{\sqrt{T_2+T_3}}\)

Question 19:

A mass \(0.4\) kg performs S.H.M. with a frequency \(\frac{16}{π}\) Hz. At a certain displacement it has kinetic energy \(2\) J and potential energy \(1.2\) J. The amplitude of oscillation is

  • (A) \(0.125\) m
  • (B) \(0.1\) m
  • (C) \(0.05\) m
  • (D) \(0.15\) m

Question 20:

A mass attached to a spring performs S.H.M. whose displacement is \(x = 3\times 10^{-3}cos2πt\) m. The time taken to obtain maximum speed for the first time is (in s)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{8}\)

Question 21:

The closed and open organ pipe have same length and when they are vibrating simultaneously in first overtone produce \(3\) beats. The length of open pipe is made \((\frac{1}{3})^{rd}\) and closed pipe is made \(3\) times the original, the number of beats produced will be {neglect end correction}

  • (A) \(8\)
  • (B) \(10\)
  • (C) \(17\)
  • (D) \(33\)

Question 22:

Two uniform wires of same material are vibrating under the same tension. If the first overtone of the first wire is equal to the second overtone of the second wire and radius of first wire is twice the radius of second wire then the ratio of length of first to second wire is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 23:

The equation of a progressive wave is \(Y = 3sin[π(\frac{t}{3}-\frac{x}{5})+\frac{π}{4}]\) where X and Y are in metre and time in second. Which of the following is correct?

  • (A) Velocity = \(1.5\) m/s
  • (B) Amplitude = \(30\) cm
  • (C) Wavelength = \(10\) m
  • (D) Frequency = \(0.2\) Hz

Question 24:

A source of sound is moving towards a stationary observer with velocity '\(V_S\)' and then moves away with velocity '\(V_S\)'. Assume that medium through which the sound waves travel is at rest. If 'V' is the velocity of sound and 'n' is the frequency emitted by the source then the difference between the apparent frequencies heard by the observer is

  • (A) \(\frac{2nVV_s}{V^2-V_s^2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{nVV_s}{V^2-V_s^2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{nVV_s}{V_s^2+V^2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2nVV_s}{V_s^2+V^2}\)

Question 25:

If the radius of the spherical Gaussian surface is increased then the electric flux due to a point charge enclosed by the surface

  • (A) increases
  • (B) remains unchanged
  • (C) is zero
  • (D) decreases

Question 26:

The earth is assumed to be a charged conducting sphere having volume 'V' and surface area 'A'. The capacitance of the earth in free space is (\(ε_0\) = permittivity of free space)

  • (A) \(2πε_0V/A\)
  • (B) \(4πε_0V/A\)
  • (C) \(8πε_0V/A\)
  • (D) \(12πε_0V/A\)

Question 27:

Initially, 'n' identical capacitors are joined in parallel, are charged to potential 'V'. Now they are separated and joined in series. Then

  • (A) potential difference and total energy of the combination remain the same
  • (B) potential difference remains the same and energy increases 'n' times
  • (C) potential difference becomes 'nv' and energy remains the same
  • (D) potential difference is 'nv' and energy increases 'n' times.

Question 28:

Three parallel plate air capacitors are connected in parallel. Each capacitor has plate area A/3 and separation between the plates is d, 2d and 3d respectively. The equivalent capacity of the combination is (\(ε_0\)-permittivity of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{9ε_0A}{17d}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{11ε_0A}{17d}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{11ε_0A}{18d}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{9ε_0A}{14d}\)

Question 29:

In potentiometer experiment, null point is obtained at a particular point for a cell on potentiometer wire 'x' cm long. If length of potentiometer wire is increased by few cm without changing the cell, the balancing length will (Driving source is not changed)

  • (A) decrease
  • (B) increase
  • (C) not change
  • (D) become zero

Question 30:

In the following network, the current flowing through \(15 \Omega\) resistance is

  • (A) \(2.1\) A
  • (B) \(0.9\) A
  • (C) \(1.2\) A
  • (D) \(1.5\) A

Question 31:

A circular coil of N turns and diameter D carries current I. It is unwound and rewound to make another coil of diameter 2D, current I remaining the same. The ratio of magnetic moments of the original coil to the new coil is

  • (A) \(2:1\)
  • (B) \(4:1\)
  • (C) \(1:2\)
  • (D) \(1:4\)

Question 32:

A wire AB is carrying steady current \(I_1\) and is kept on the table. Another wire CD carrying current \(I_2\) is held directly above as shown in figure. When the wire CD is left free and it remains suspended at its position, its mass per unit length is (g=acceleration due to gravity, \(μ_0\) = permeability of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{μ_0I_1I_2}{2πrg}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{μ_0I_1I_2}{4πrg}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{μ_0I_1I_2}{πrg}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{μ_0I_1I_2}{πr^2g}\)

Question 33:

Two parallel wires of equal lengths are separated by a distance of \(3\) m from each other. The currents flowing through first and second wire is \(3\) A and \(4.5\) A respectively in opposite directions. The resultant magnetic field at mid point of both the wires is (\(μ_0\)=permeability of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{μ_0}{2π}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{5μ_0}{2π}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{7μ_0}{2π}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{9μ_0}{2π}\)

Question 34:

A coil having 'n' turns and resistance 'R' is connected with a galvanometer of resistance '2R'. This combination is moved in time 't' from flux \(φ_1\) to \(φ_2\) Wb. The induced current in the circuit is

  • (A) \(\frac{n(φ_1-φ_2)}{Rt}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{n(φ_2-φ_1)}{Rt}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{n(φ_2-φ_1)}{3Rt}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{n(φ_2-φ_1)}{2Rt}\)

Question 35:

A light bulb connected in series with a capacitor and an a.c.source is glowing with certain brightness. On reducing the value of capacitance and frequency respectively, the brightness of the bulb

  • (A) is reduced, is reduced
  • (B) is more, is more
  • (C) is more, is reduced
  • (D) is reduced, is more

Question 36:

In an a.c. circuit containing L, C and R in series, the ratio of apparent power to the true power is
(Z= impedance of the circuit and R= resistance )

  • (A) \(RZ\)
  • (B) \(cosφ\)
  • (C) \(cotφ\)
  • (D) \(\frac{Z}{R}\)

Question 37:

In series LCR circuit, resistance is \(18 \Omega\) and impedance \(33 \Omega\). An r.m.s. Voltage of \(220\) V is applied across the circuit. The true power consumed in a c. circuit is

  • (A) \(400\) W
  • (B) \(600\) W
  • (C) \(200\) W
  • (D) \(800\) W

Question 38:

An ideal transformer converts \(220\)V a.c. to \(3.3\) KV a.c. to transmit a power of \(4.4\) KW. If primary coil has \(600\) turns then alternating current in the secondary coil is

  • (A) \(\frac{4}{3}\) A
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{4}\) A
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{3}\) A
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{3}\) A

Question 39:

Alternating current of peak value \((\frac{2}{π})\) A flows through the primary coil of a transformer. The coefficient of mutual inductance between primary and secondary coils is \(1\) H. The peak em.f. induced in secondary coil is (Frequency of a. c. is \(50\) Hz)

  • (A) \(25\) V
  • (B) \(50\) V
  • (C) \(100\) V
  • (D) \(200\) V

Question 40:

A thin prism in air produces the angle of minimum deviation \(δ\). If the prism is immersed in water, the angle of minimum deviation for the same ray is (refractive index of water is \(4/3\) and that of glass prism is \(3/2\))

  • (A) \(δ\)
  • (B) \(\frac{δ}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{δ}{4}\)
  • (D) \(2δ\)

Question 41:

In biprism experiment, the \(4^{th}\) dark band is formed opposite to one of the slits. The wavelength of light used is (D=distance between source and screen, d= the distance between the slits)

  • (A) \(\frac{d^2}{9D}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{d^2}{11D}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{d^2}{14D}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{d^2}{7D}\)

Question 42:

In Young's double slit experiment, in an interference pattern, a minimum is observed exactly in front of one slit. The distance between the two coherent sources is 'd' and 'D' is the distance between source and screen. The possible wavelengths used are inversely proportional to

  • (A) \(D,2D,3D,\ldots\)
  • (B) \(D,3D,5D,\ldots\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{D},\frac{2}{D},\frac{3}{D},\ldots\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{D^2},\frac{2}{D^2},\frac{3}{D^2},\ldots\)

Question 43:

Converging lens of telescope \(5\) cm in diameter has focal length \(25\) cm. In the focal plane of the lens the distance between the centres of the Fraunhofer diffraction pattern is (wavelength of light used = \(5000\) Å, Rayleigh's criterion is satisfied)

  • (A) \(25000\) Å
  • (B) \(28000\) Å
  • (C) \(30500\) Å
  • (D) \(32000\) Å

Question 44:

Photoelectrons are emitted from two similar metal plates when wavelengths \(λ_1\) and \(λ_2\) are incident on them (\(λ_1 = 1.5λ_2\)). If maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons is \(E_1\) and \(E_2\) respectively then

  • (A) \(E_1 < 2E_2/3\)
  • (B) \(E_1 = 2E_2/3\)
  • (C) \(E_1 = E_2/3\)
  • (D) \(E_1 = 2E_2\)

Question 45:

According to de-Broglie hypothesis, the ratio of the wave-length of a photon and that of an electron having same energy 'E' is (m = mass of electron, c = velocity of light)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{C}\sqrt{\frac{E}{2m}}\)
  • (B) \(C\sqrt{\frac{E}{2m}}\)
  • (C) \(C\sqrt{\frac{2m}{E}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{2mC}{E}}\)

Question 46:

Bohr model is applied to a particle of mass 'm' and charge 'q' moving in a plane under the influence of a transverse magnetic field B. The energy of the charged particle in the \(n^{th}\) level will be (h=Planck's constant)

  • (A) \(\frac{2nhqB}{πm}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{nhqB}{πm}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{nhqB}{2πm}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{nhqB}{4πm}\)

Question 47:

In Bohr's theory of hydrogen atom, 'r' is the radius of the orbit, 'V' is the speed of electron and E is the total energy of the electron. Out of the following which physical quantity is inversely proportional to principal quantum number?

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{Vr}\)
  • (B) \(Vr\)
  • (C) \(V^2r\)
  • (D) \(Vr^2\)

Question 48:

In common emitter mode of transistor, the d.c. current gain is \(20\), the emitter current is \(7\) mA. The collector current is

  • (A) \(\frac{14}{3}\) mA
  • (B) \(\frac{20}{3}\) mA
  • (C) \(\frac{7}{3}\) mA
  • (D) \(\frac{8}{3}\) mA

Question 49:

In the case of NAND gate, if A and B are inputs and Y is the output then

  • (A) \(Y = \overline{A+B}\)
  • (B) \(Y = A\cdot B\)
  • (C) \(Y = \overline{A\cdot B}\)
  • (D) \(Y = A+B\)

Question 50:

In energy band diagram of insulators, a band gap and the conduction band is respectively

  • (A) very high, empty
  • (B) very low, empty
  • (C) very high, completely filed
  • (D) very low, partially filled

Chemistry Section (Questions 51 to 100)


Question 51:

Calculate the volume of \(99\) g of \(\text{CO}_2\) at STP ?

  • (A) \(22.4\) L
  • (B) \(50.4\) L
  • (C) \(67.2\) L
  • (D) \(89.6\) L

Question 52:

What are the total number of electrons present in s and p orbitals respectively in the argon?

  • (A) \(12\) and \(6\)
  • (B) \(8\) and \(12\)
  • (C) \(6\) and \(12\)
  • (D) \(18\) and \(6\)

Question 53:

Which of the following compounds is most acidic in nature?

  • (A) \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\)
  • (B) \(\text{H}_2\text{S}\)
  • (C) \(\text{H}_2\text{Se}\)
  • (D) \(\text{H}_2\text{Te}\)

Question 54:

Identify the different types of bonds present in quaternary ammonium salts.

  • (A) Covalent
  • (B) Ionic
  • (C) Covalent and co-ordinate
  • (D) covalent, co-ordinate and ionic

Question 55:

A syringe has a volume of \(10.0 \text{cm}^3\) at a pressure of \(1\) atm. If the end is sealed and the plunger is pushed down (constant temperature), what will be the final volume when the pressure becomes \(3.5\) atm?

  • (A) \(35.0 \text{cm}^3\)
  • (B) \(2.86 \text{cm}^3\)
  • (C) \(0.286 \text{cm}^3\)
  • (D) \(3.50 \text{cm}^3\)

Question 56:

The equilibrium constant for a reaction is \(100\). What will be the value of standard Gibbs energy change at \(298\) K ? (\(R = 8.314\) J \(\text{K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(-11.411\) KJ/mol
  • (B) \(-5.744\) KJ/mol
  • (C) \(-570.584\) KJ/mol
  • (D) \(-57.058\) KJ/mol

Question 57:

The bond dissociation enthalpy of \(\text{H}_2\), \(\text{Cl}_2\) and HCl are \(434\), \(242\) and \(431\) kJ \(\text{mol}^{-1}\) respectively. Calculate the enthalpy of formation of HCl.

  • (A) \(-93\) kJ \(\text{mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(245\) kJ \(\text{mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(93\) kJ \(\text{mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(-245\) kJ \(\text{mol}^{-1}\)

Question 58:

\(2.8\) g of KOH is dissolved in a \(500\) mL solution at \(298\) K. What is the \(p^H\) of solution ? (molar mass of KOH = \(56\) g/mol)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(8\)
  • (C) \(11\)
  • (D) \(13\)

Question 59:

What is the solubility of \(\text{BaSO}_4\) in g /\(\text{dm}^3\) if its solubility product is \(1.0\times 10^{-10}\) at \(25^{\circ}\)C. [Molar mass of \(\text{BaSO}_4 = 233\) g/mol]

  • (A) \(2.33\times 10^{-3}\) g/\(\text{dm}^3\)
  • (B) \(4.66\times 10^{-3}\) g/\(\text{dm}^3\)
  • (C) \(3.48\) g/\(\text{dm}^3\)
  • (D) \(1.16\times 10^{-3}\) g/\(\text{dm}^3\)

Question 60:

What is the normal pH of human blood?

  • (A) \(7.0\)
  • (B) \(6.9\)
  • (C) \(7.4\)
  • (D) \(8.1\)

Question 61:

Find the oxidation number of Cl in \(\text{ClO}_4^{-1}\)

  • (A) \(-9\)
  • (B) \(+7\)
  • (C) \(-7\)
  • (D) \(+9\)

Question 62:

Which alkaline earth metal carbonate decomposes most easily?

  • (A) \(\text{MgCO}_3\)
  • (B) \(\text{CaCO}_3\)
  • (C) \(\text{SrCO}_3\)
  • (D) \(\text{BaCO}_3\)

Question 63:

What is the difference in terms of molar masses of second and fourth members of homologous series?

  • (A) \(12\)
  • (B) \(24\)
  • (C) \(28\)
  • (D) \(36\)

Question 64:

Cyclohexene on oxidation by \(\text{KMnO}_4\) in dilute \(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\) produces

  • (A) benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid
  • (B) pent-2-enoic acid
  • (C) hexane-1,6-dioic acid
  • (D) benzene-1,2-dicarboxylic acid

Question 65:

Which of the following types of reactions is used to prepare Alkyl benzene?

  • (A) Swartz reaction
  • (B) Sandmeyer reaction
  • (C) Finkelstein reaction
  • (D) Wurtz Fittig reaction

Question 66:

\(200\) mL of ethylene gas and \(150\) mL of HCl gas were allowed to react at \(1\) bar. Pressure to form gaseous ethyl chloride. What is the work done during the reaction?

  • (A) \(15\) J
  • (B) \(30\) J
  • (C) \(150\) J
  • (D) \(300\) J

Question 67:

Which of the following compounds does not decolourise \(\text{Br}_2\) water?

  • (A) Ethene
  • (B) Ethyne
  • (C) Benzene
  • (D) Cyclohexene

Question 68:

In a fcc arrangement of A and B atoms in which 'A' atoms are at the corners of the unit cell and 'B' atoms are at the face centers. One of the 'A' atoms is missing from one corner in unit cell. What is the simplest formula of a compound ?

  • (A) \(\text{A}_7\text{B}_8\)
  • (B) \(\text{A}_7\text{B}_3\)
  • (C) \(\text{AB}_3\)
  • (D) \(\text{A}_7\text{B}_{24}\)

Question 69:

A compound forms bcc unit cell with edge length \(400\) pm. Determine the molar mass of the compound if the density of compound is \(3.5 \text{g cm}^{-3}\) [\(N_A = 6.022\times 10^{23}\)]

  • (A) \(65.2 \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(67.4 \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(69.8 \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(71.6 \text{g mol}^{-1}\)

Question 70:

What is the number of neighbouring spheres for any particle in the fcc crystal lattice ?

  • (A) \(6\)
  • (B) \(8\)
  • (C) \(10\)
  • (D) \(12\)

Question 71:

Identify a solution which contains solid as solute and liquid as solvent.

  • (A) Hydrogen in Palladium
  • (B) Sea water
  • (C) Gels
  • (D) Amalgum of mercury with metals

Question 72:

A solution of \(50\)g of solute 'X' is dissolved in \(150\) g of 'Y' solvent boils at \(357.27\) K. What is the molar mass of solute?
(Given \(K_b\) and boiling point pure solvent is \(2.77\) K kg/mol and \(350.06\) K respectively.)

  • (A) \(132\) g/mol
  • (B) \(128\) g/mol
  • (C) \(150\) g/mol
  • (D) \(15\) g/mol

Question 73:

The partial pressure of a gas at \(25^{\circ}\)C is \(0.18\) atm, calculate the concentration of the gas dissolved at the same temperature,
If \(K_H\) is \(0.15 \text{mol dm}^{-3} \text{atm}^{-1}\)

  • (A) \(0.027\) M
  • (B) \(1.8\) M
  • (C) \(4.5\) M
  • (D) \(0.45\) M

Question 74:

The standard potential of \(\text{Cu}^{+2}/\text{Cu}\) is \(0.34\) V at \(298\) K. Calculate its potential at the same temperature when the \(\text{Cu}^{+2}\) ion concentration is \(0.1\) M.

  • (A) \(0.64\) V
  • (B) \(0.34\) V
  • (C) \(0.31\) V
  • (D) \(0.37\) V

Question 75:

Which from following options is true when an electrolyte solution is diluted ?

  • (A) both \(\Lambda\) and \(k\) increases
  • (B) both \(\Lambda\) and \(k\) decreases
  • (C) \(\Lambda\) increases and \(k\) decreases
  • (D) \(\Lambda\) decreases and \(k\) increases

Question 76:

Match List I with List II.

List I (Conversion)List II (Number of Faraday required)
A. \(1\) mole of \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\) to \(\text{O}_2\)I. \(3F\)
B. \(1\) mol of \(\text{MnO}_4^-\) to \(\text{Mn}^{2+}\)II. \(2F\)
C. \(1.5\) mol of Ca from molten \(\text{CaCl}_2\)III. \(1F\)
D. \(1\) mol of FeO to \(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3\)IV. \(5F\)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (C) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Question 77:

The half life of first order reaction is \(850\) s. The initial concentration of the reactant is \(0.06\) mol \(\text{dm}^{-3}\). What concentration would remain after \(1200\) s ?

  • (A) \(0.023\) mol \(\text{dm}^{-3}\)
  • (B) \(0.035\) mol \(\text{dm}^{-3}\)
  • (C) \(5.25\) mol \(\text{dm}^{-3}\)
  • (D) \(6.25\) mol \(\text{dm}^{-3}\)

Question 78:

Half life period of a first order reaction is \(1386\) seconds. The rate constant of the reaction is

  • (A) \(5.5\times 10^{-2}\times s^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(0.5\times 10^{-3}\times s^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(5\times 10^{-2}\times s^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(5\times 10^{-3}\times s^{-1}\)

Question 79:

What is the order of the following reaction ?
\(2\text{H}_2\text{O}_2(l)\rightarrow 2\text{H}_2\text{O}(l)+\text{O}_2(g)\), if rate = \(k[\text{H}_2\text{O}_2]\)

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 80:

Which of the following nanomaterial has all the three dimensions \(< 100\) nm?

  • (A) Nanotubes
  • (B) Nanowires
  • (C) Nanoshells
  • (D) Thin films

Question 81:

Identify the gas adsorbed by solid to the largest extent at their respective critical temperature.

  • (A) \(\text{N}_{2(g)}\)
  • (B) \(\text{O}_{2(g)}\)
  • (C) \(\text{H}_{2(g)}\)
  • (D) \(\text{SO}_{2(g)}\)

Question 82:

Match the Xenon compounds in Column-1 with its structure in Column-II.

Column – IColumn – II
(a) \(\text{XeF}_4\)(i) pyramidal
(b) \(\text{XeF}_6\)(ii) square planar
(c) \(\text{XeOF}_4\)(iii) distorted octahedral
(d) \(\text{XeO}_3\)(iv) square pyramidal

  • (A) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
  • (B) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
  • (C) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
  • (D) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

Question 83:

Which of the following lanthanoids is radioactive?

  • (A) Tm
  • (B) Dy
  • (C) Eu
  • (D) Pm

Question 84:

Which transition series includes elements Co and Mo respectively?

  • (A) 4d and 5d
  • (B) 5d and 6d
  • (C) 3d and 4d
  • (D) 3d and 6d

Question 85:

Which of the following is an ambident ligand ?

  • (A) Ethylene diamine
  • (B) \(\text{Cl}^-\)
  • (C) EDTA
  • (D) SCN

Question 86:

Which of the following sets of ligands does NOT contain ambident ligand in it?

  • (A) Oxalate ion, \(\text{NO}_2^-\), \(\text{NCS}^-\)
  • (B) \(\text{C}_2\text{O}_4^{2-}\), Ethylene diamine, \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\)
  • (C) \(\text{NO}_2^-\), \(\text{C}_2\text{O}_4^{2-}\), \(\text{EDTA}^{4-}\)
  • (D) \(\text{EDTA}^{4-}\), \(\text{NCS}^-\), Oxalate ion

Question 87:

What type of color is observed when a compound absorbs red coloured light?

  • (A) Red
  • (B) Blue
  • (C) Green
  • (D) Yellow

Question 88:

Which of the following compounds is formed when chloroform is exposed to air and light?

  • (A) Phosgene.
  • (B) Phosphine.
  • (C) Carbon dioxide
  • (D) Carbon tetrachloride

Question 89:

Identify the major product of dehydrohalogenation of \(\text{CH}_3\text{-CH}_2\text{-CH(Br)-CH}_3\).

  • (A) \(\text{CH}_3\text{-CH}_2\text{-CH=CH}_2\)
  • (B) \(\text{H}_3\text{C-CH=CH-CH}_3\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_3\text{-(CH}_2)_2\text{CH}_3\)
  • (D) \(\text{CH}_3\text{-(CH}_2)_2\text{CHO}\)

Question 90:

An organic compound with the molecular formula \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_6\text{O}\) dissolves in NaOH, gives a characteristic colour with neutral \(\text{FeCl}_3\) and on treatment with bromine water gives a tri bromo derivative. Which is that compound among the following?

  • (A) Alcohol
  • (B) Ether
  • (C) Ketone
  • (D) Phenol

Question 91:

What type of mechanism is followed by dehydration of alcohol to form ether?

  • (A) Nucleophilic substitution unimolecular reaction
  • (B) Nucleophilic substitution bimolecular reaction
  • (C) Electrophilic substitution reaction
  • (D) Electrophilic addition reaction

Question 92:

The number of primary isomeric alcohols of the molecular formula \(\text{C}_4\text{H}_{10}\text{O}\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 93:

In Gatterman reaction, which of the following catalyst is used?

  • (A) CO, HCl and anhyd. \(\text{AlCl}_3\)
  • (B) Copper powder and HBr
  • (C) Cu + Aq. \(\text{NaNO}_2\)
  • (D) KOH + \(\text{Br}_2\)

Question 94:

When ethanal and propanal undergo aldol condensation with dilute NaOH, the pair of products obtained by cross condensation reaction is

  • (A) but-2-enal and 2-methylpent-2-enal
  • (B) but-2-enal and pent-2-enal
  • (C) 2-methylbut-2-enal and pent-2-enal
  • (D) 2-methylbut-2-enal and 2-methylpent-2-enal

Question 95:

Which of the following species is used in Friedel - Craft reaction?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 96:

What type of saccharide the maltose is?

  • (A) Polysaccharide
  • (B) Disaccharide
  • (C) Trisaccharide
  • (D) Monosaccharide

Question 97:

Buna - S is an example of ,

  • (A) elastomer
  • (B) fibre
  • (C) thermoplastic polymer
  • (D) thermosetting polymer

Question 98:

Which of the following is the monomer of Teflon polymer?

  • (A) \(\text{FCH} = \text{CH}_2\)
  • (B) \(\text{FCH} = \text{CHF}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CF}_3 = \text{CF}_3\)
  • (D) \(\text{CF}_2 = \text{CF}_2\)

Question 99:

Which of the following statement about enzyme is correct ?

  • (A) They alter the equilibrium constant of reactions
  • (B) They increase the activation energy of reactions
  • (C) They are specific in their action
  • (D) They are consumed in the reaction

Question 100:

What is the result when soap is used in hard water?

  • (A) Micelles
  • (B) Scum
  • (C) Emulsion
  • (D) Gel

Mathematics Section (Questions 101 to 150)


Question 101:

If \(α\) and \(β\) are the roots of the equation \(x^2+x+1 = 0\) then \(α^{2026}+β^{2026} =\)

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 102:

The number of ways that 8 beads of different colours can be strung to form a necklace is

  • (A) \(5040\)
  • (B) \(2520\)
  • (C) \(2840\)
  • (D) \(5080\)

Question 103:

In \(\Delta ABC\), if \(\angle A = 90^{\circ}\), then \(sin(B-C) =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{a^2-c^2}{a^2+c^2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{c^2-a^2}{c^2+a^2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{b^2-c^2}{b^2+c^2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{c^2-b^2}{c^2+b^2}\)

Question 104:

The value of \(cos^210^{\circ}-cos10^{\circ}cos50^{\circ}+cos^250^{\circ}\) is equal to....

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 105:

The general solution of \(cos4θ = cos3θ\) is \(θ =\).....

  • (A) \(\frac{2nπ}{7},n\in Z\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2nπ}{5},n\in Z\)
  • (C) \(nπ,n\in Z\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4nπ}{3},n\in Z\)

Question 106:

The line \(2x+y = 4\) intersects X and Y axes at points A and B respectively. Let \(C(p,q)\) be the point such that the lines AC and BC are perpendicular. The distance of point C from the midpoint of segment AB is...

  • (A) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{5}\)
  • (C) \(2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(2\sqrt{5}\)

Question 107:

If the distance between the lines represented by \((x-2y)^2+k(x-2y) = 0\) is \(3\) units and \(k > 0\) then the equations of the lines are

  • (A) \(x-2y = 0\) and \(x-2y+\sqrt{3} = 0\).
  • (B) \(x-2y = 0\) and \(x-2y+\sqrt{5} = 0\).
  • (C) \(x-2y = 0\) and \(x-2y+3\sqrt{3} = 0\).
  • (D) \(x-2y = 0\) and \(x-2y+3\sqrt{5} = 0\).

Question 108:

If the slope of one of the two lines given by \(\frac{x^2}{a}+\frac{2xy}{h}+\frac{y^2}{b} = 0\) is twice that of the other, then \(h^2:ab =\) ...

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(2:1\)
  • (C) \(8:9\)
  • (D) \(9:8\)

Question 109:

If the equation \(3x^2+(3-p)xy+qy^2-2px = 8pq\) represents a circle, then the area (in sq. units) of this circle is

  • (A) \(5π\)
  • (B) \(9π\)
  • (C) \(25π\)
  • (D) \(81π\)

Question 110:

The ellipse \(4x^2+9y^2 = 1\) intersects positive Y-axis at point A. If S and S' are its foci, then the area (in sq. units) of \(\Delta SAS^'\) is _____

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{12}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{18}\)
  • (C) \(2\sqrt{5}\)
  • (D) \(3\sqrt{5}\)

Question 111:

\(\underset{x\rightarrow 1}{lim}[\frac{x-2}{x^2-x}-\frac{1}{x^3-3x^2+2x}] =\)

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 112:

If \(A = \{1,2,3,4,5,6\}\) then which of the following is not true?

  • (A) \(\exists x\in A\) such that \(x+3 = 9\).
  • (B) \(\exists x\in A\) such that \(x+2 < 9\).
  • (C) \(\forall x\in A,x+6\geq 10\).
  • (D) \(\exists x\in A\) such that \(x+6 < 10\).

Question 113:

Consider the following statements
\(r\): If \(p\rightarrow q\) is false then \(p∨q\) is false.
\(s\): If \(p\leftrightarrow q\) is false then \(p∨q\) is false.
The truth values of \(r\rightarrow s\) and \(s\rightarrow r\) are respectively ____

  • (A) T, T
  • (B) T, F
  • (C) F, T
  • (D) F, F

Question 114:

In triangle ABC, with usual notations, if the angles are in Arithmetic Progression and \(3c^2 = 2b^2\), then the measure of angle A is

  • (A) \(\frac{5π}{12}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{7π}{12}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5π}{6}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{7π}{6}\)

Question 115:

If \(A = \left[ \begin{array}{ccc}0 & 0 & -1 \\ 0 & -1 & 0 \\ -1 & 0 & 0\end{array} \right]\) then which of the following is true ?

  • (A) \(A^2 = A^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(A = -(\text{adj}A)\)
  • (C) \(A^{-1} = A\)
  • (D) \(A^{-1} = -A\)

Question 116:

If \(\left[ \begin{array}{ccc}2 & 1 & -1 \\ -1 & 2 & 1 \\ 1 & -1 & 2\end{array} \right]\left[ \begin{array}{c}a \\ b \\ c\end{array} \right] = \left[ \begin{array}{c}4 \\ 0 \\ -2\end{array} \right]\) then the distance of point \(P(a,b,c)\) from the plane \(2x+y+2z = 10\) is

  • (A) \(2\) units.
  • (B) \(3\) units.
  • (C) \(4\) units.
  • (D) \(5\) units.

Question 117:

If \(cot(cos^{-1}x) = sec(tan^{-1}\frac{a}{\sqrt{b^2-a^2}})\), then the value of \(x\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{b}{\sqrt{2b^2+a^2}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{2b^2-a^2}}{b}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{2b^2+a^2}}{b}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{b}{\sqrt{2b^2-a^2}}\)

Question 118:

If \(g(x) = x^2+x-2\) and \(\frac{1}{2}(g\circ f)(x) = 2x^2-5x+2\) then \(f(x)\) is equal to

  • (A) \(2x+3\)
  • (B) \(2x-3\)
  • (C) \(2x^2+3x+2\)
  • (D) \(2x^2-3x-2\)

Question 119:

Let the function f be defined by \(f(x) = \frac{x-|x|}{x}\), for \(x\neq 0\) and \(f(0) = 2\) then f is

  • (A) continuous nowhere
  • (B) continuous for all \(x\) except at \(x = 0\)
  • (C) continuous everywhere
  • (D) continuous for all \(x\) except at \(x = 1\)

Question 120:

The derivative of \(tan^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{1+x^2}-1}{x})\) with respect to \(sin^{-1}(\frac{2x}{1+x^2})\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 121:

If the derivative of \(tan^{-1}(a+bx)\) with respect to x at \(x = 0\) is \(1\), then \(a^6-b^3 =\)

  • (A) \(3a^2b-1\)
  • (B) \(-3ab^2+1\)
  • (C) \(-1-3a^2b\)
  • (D) \(1+3ab^2\)

Question 122:

If \(x^3+y^3 = 6\) and \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\cdot \frac{d^2x}{dy^2} = \frac{m}{(xy)^n}\), where \(m,n\in R\) then \(\frac{m}{n} =\)

  • (A) \(36\)
  • (B) \(9\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 123:

If \(x = sin(t),y = cos(pt)\), then \((1-x^2)\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}-x\frac{dy}{dx} =\)

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(-p^2y\)
  • (C) \(p^2y\)
  • (D) \(p\)

Question 124:

If the function \(f(x) = ax^3+bx^2+11x-6\), defined on \([1,3]\), satisfies all the conditions of Rolle's theorem for \(c = 2+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\), then

  • (A) \(a = -1,b = \frac{1}{2}\)
  • (B) \(a = 1,b = -6\)
  • (C) \(a = -1,b = 6\)
  • (D) \(a = -2,b = 1\)

Question 125:

The tangent to the curve \(y^2-xy+9 = 0\) is vertical when

  • (A) \(y = 0\)
  • (B) \(y = \pm \sqrt{3}\)
  • (C) \(y = \frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(y = \pm 3\)

Question 126:

The value of \(k\) such that the function \(f(x) = sinx-cosx-kx+b\) is strictly decreasing for all real \(x\) is

  • (A) \(k < 1\)
  • (B) \(k > 1\)
  • (C) \(k < \sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(k > \sqrt{2}\)

Question 127:

\(\int \frac{sinx}{sin4x}dx =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4\sqrt{2}}log\frac{1+\sqrt{2}sinx}{1-\sqrt{2}sinx}+\frac{1}{4}log|secx+tanx|+c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{4\sqrt{2}}log\frac{1+\sqrt{2}sinx}{1-\sqrt{2}sinx}-\frac{1}{4}log|secx+tanx|+c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{4\sqrt{2}}log\frac{1-\sqrt{2}sinx}{1+\sqrt{2}sinx}+\frac{1}{4}log|secx+tanx|+c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4\sqrt{2}}log\frac{1-\sqrt{2}sinx}{1+\sqrt{2}sinx}-\frac{1}{4}log|secx+tanx|+c\)

Question 128:

\(\int \sqrt{4^x(4^x+4)}\,dx = \cdots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{log2}[\frac{2^x}{2}\sqrt{4^x+4}+2log|2^x+\sqrt{4^x+4}|]+c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2^x}{2}\sqrt{4^x+4}+2log|2^x+\sqrt{4^x+4}|+c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{log2}[\frac{2^x}{2}\sqrt{4^x+4}+log|2^x+\sqrt{4^x+4}|]+c\)
  • (D) \([\frac{2^x}{log4}\sqrt{4^x+4}+log|2^x+\sqrt{4^x+4}|]+c\)

Question 129:

The value of \(\int \frac{1}{x^2-5x+8}dx\) is equal to...

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{7}}tan^{-1}(\frac{2x+5}{\sqrt{7}})+c\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{2}{\sqrt{7}}tan^{-1}(\frac{2x-5}{\sqrt{7}})+c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{7}}tan^{-1}(\frac{2x-5}{\sqrt{7}})+c\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{2}{\sqrt{7}}tan^{-1}(\frac{2x+5}{\sqrt{7}})+c\)

Question 130:

\(\int \frac{2x}{4-3x-x^2}dx = \cdots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{8}{5}log|4+x|-\frac{2}{5}log|1-x|+c\)
  • (B) \(2log|4+x|+\frac{2}{5}log|1-x|+c\)
  • (C) \(-log|4+x|+\frac{2}{5}log|1-x|+c\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{8}{5}log|4+x|-\frac{2}{5}log|1-x|+c\)

Question 131:

If \(\int _2^e[\frac{1}{logx}-\frac{1}{(logx)^2}]dx = a+\frac{b}{log2}\), then values of \(a\) and \(b\) are

  • (A) \(a = e,b = 2\)
  • (B) \(a = -e,b = 2\)
  • (C) \(a = e,b = -2\)
  • (D) \(a = -e,b = -2\)

Question 132:

If \(\int _0^k\frac{1}{1+4^x}dx = log_2(\frac{4}{3})\), then \(k =\) _____

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 133:

The area bounded by the curve \(y = xsin(\frac{x}{2})\) and the X-axis between the lines \(x = 0\) and \(x = 4π\) (in square units), is....

  • (A) \(4π\)
  • (B) \(8π\)
  • (C) \(12π\)
  • (D) \(16π\)

Question 134:

If the area enclosed between the curves \(y^2 = 4kx\) and \(y = kx,k > 0\) is \(\frac{2k}{3}\) sq. units then \(k =\)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(1.5\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 135:

The solution of the differential equation \(2x\frac{dy}{dx}-y = 3\) represents a family of

  • (A) straight lines
  • (B) circles
  • (C) parabola
  • (D) ellipse

Question 136:

The solution of the differential equation \(x\frac{dy}{dx}+y = x^3y^6\), is...

  • (A) \(y^5 = \frac{5}{2}x^{-3}+cx^5\)
  • (B) \(y^5 = \frac{5}{2}x^3+cx^5\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{y^5} = \frac{5}{2}x^{-3}+cx^5\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{y^5} = \frac{5}{2}x^3+cx^5\)

Question 137:

If \(\overset{̄}{a} = \hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k},\overset{̄}{b} = \hat{i}-\hat{j}+2\hat{k}\) and \(\overset{̄}{c} = x\hat{i}+(x-2)\hat{j}-\hat{k}\) are three vectors in which \(\overset{̄}{c}\) lies in the plane of \(\overset{̄}{a}\) and \(\overset{̄}{b}\), then \(x = \cdots\)

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(-4\)
  • (D) \(-2\)

Question 138:

If \(|\overset{̄}{a}| = 4,|\overset{̄}{b}| = 3\) and \(\overset{̄}{a}\cdot \overset{̄}{b} = 8\) then \([\overset{̄}{a} \overset{̄}{a}+\overset{̄}{b} \overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{b}] =\)

  • (A) \(96\)
  • (B) \(80\)
  • (C) \(64\)
  • (D) \(120\)

Question 139:

Let \(\overset{̄}{a},\overset{̄}{b},\overset{̄}{c}\) be the unit vectors such that \(\overset{̄}{a}\) is perpendicular to \(\overset{̄}{b}\) and the angle between \(\overset{̄}{b}\) and \(\overset{̄}{c}\) is \(120^{\circ}\). If \(\overset{̄}{a}+\overset{̄}{c}\) is perpendicular to \(\overset{̄}{b}+\overset{̄}{c}\) then

  • (A) \((\overset{̄}{a}+\overset{̄}{c})\cdot (\overset{̄}{b}-\overset{̄}{c}) = 1\)
  • (B) \((\overset{̄}{a}-\overset{̄}{c})\cdot (\overset{̄}{b}-\overset{̄}{c}) = -2\)
  • (C) \((\overset{̄}{a}-\overset{̄}{c})\cdot (\overset{̄}{b}+\overset{̄}{c}) = 1\)
  • (D) \((\overset{̄}{a}-\overset{̄}{c})\cdot (\overset{̄}{b}-\overset{̄}{c}) = 2\)

Question 140:

Let \(x_0\) be the point of local maxima of \(f(x) = \overset{̄}{a}\cdot (\overset{̄}{b}\times \overset{̄}{c})\) where \(\overset{̄}{a} = x\hat{i}-2\hat{j}+3\hat{k},\overset{̄}{b} = -2\hat{i}+x\hat{j}-\hat{k}\) and \(\overset{̄}{c} = 7\hat{i}-2\hat{j}+x\hat{k}\) then the value of \(\overset{̄}{a}\cdot \overset{̄}{c}\) at \(x = x_0\) is

  • (A) \(26\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(-15\)
  • (D) \(-26\)

Question 141:

The parallelopiped is determined by vectors \(\overset{̄}{a} = -2\hat{i}+5\hat{j}+3\hat{k}\), \(\overset{̄}{b} = \hat{i}+3\hat{j}-2\hat{k}\), \(\overset{̄}{c} = -3\hat{i}+\hat{j}+4\hat{k}\). The altitude of parallelopiped on the parallelogram base determined by vectors \(\overset{̄}{b}\) and \(\overset{̄}{c}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{2\sqrt{3}}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (C) \(12\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5\sqrt{3}}{2}\)

Question 142:

The vector equation of the plane passing through the point \(A(-2,7,5)\) and parallel to the vectors \(4\hat{i}-\hat{j}+3\hat{k}\) and \(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}\) is ...

  • (A) \(\overset{̄}{r}\cdot (-2\hat{i}+7\hat{j}+5\hat{k}) = 26\)
  • (B) \(\overset{̄}{r}\cdot (4\hat{i}-\hat{j}+3\hat{k}) = 27\)
  • (C) \(\overset{̄}{r}\cdot (4\hat{i}-\hat{j}+5\hat{k}) = 26\)
  • (D) \(\overset{̄}{r}\cdot (-4\hat{i}-\hat{j}+5\hat{k}) = 26\)

Question 143:

The point of intersection of the two lines \(\frac{x-3}{3} = \frac{y-3}{-1},z-1 = 0\) and \(\frac{x-6}{2} = \frac{z-1}{3},y-2 = 0\) is....

  • (A) \((0,0,0)\)
  • (B) \((1,2,6)\)
  • (C) \((3,-1,0)\)
  • (D) \((6,2,1)\)

Question 144:

If the centroid of a tetrahedron \(OABC\) is \((1,2,-1)\), where O is the origin, \(A(a,2,3),B(1,b,2),C(2,1,c)\) are the other vertices, then the distance of the point \(P(a,b,c)\) from the origin is...

  • (A) \(42\) units
  • (B) \(\sqrt{107}\) units
  • (C) \(25\) units
  • (D) \(15\) units

Question 145:

If the lines \(\frac{x-1}{2} = \frac{y+1}{3} = \frac{z-1}{4}\) and \(\frac{x-3}{1} = \frac{y-c}{2} = \frac{z}{1}\) intersect, then the radius of circle \(x^2+y^2-4x+10y+c = 0\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{9}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{9}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{7}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{7}{2}\)

Question 146:

The corner points of the feasible region determined by a system of linear constraints are \((0,3),(1,1)\) and \((3,0)\). If the objective function is \(z = px+qy\), where \(p,q > 0\), then the condition on p and q such that the minimum of z occurs at both \((3,0)\) and \((1,1)\) is _____

  • (A) \(p = 3q\)
  • (B) \(3p = q\)
  • (C) \(p = \frac{q}{2}\)
  • (D) \(p = 2q\)

Question 147:

If \(X\sim B(n,p)\), then the value of \(\frac{P(X = k)}{P(X = k-1)}\) is

  • (A) \((\frac{n-k}{k})\frac{p}{q}\)
  • (B) \((\frac{n-k+1}{k})\frac{p}{q}\)
  • (C) \((\frac{n-k}{k-1})\frac{p}{q}\)
  • (D) \((\frac{n-k+1}{k-1})\frac{p}{q}\)

Question 148:

A player tosses two fair coins, he wins Rs. \(5\) if two heads appear, Rs. \(3\) if one head appears and Rs. \(2\) if no head appears, then the variance of the winning amount is

  • (A) \(1.1875\)
  • (B) \(1.8175\)
  • (C) \(1.1785\)
  • (D) \(1.8157\)

Question 149:

The probability mass function of a random variable X is given by
\(P(X = x) = \frac{^5C_x}{2^5}\), for \(x = 0,1,2,3,4,5\) and \(= 0\), otherwise.
Then which of the following is correct?

  • (A) \(p(x\leq 2) = p(x\geq 3)\)
  • (B) \(p(x\leq 2) > p(x\geq 3)\)
  • (C) \(p(x\leq 2) < p(x\geq 3)\)
  • (D) \(p(x\leq 2) = 2p(x\geq 3)\)

Question 150:

If events A and B are such that \(P(A) = \frac{1}{4}\), \(P(A\cap B) = \frac{1}{10}\) and \(P(A/B) = 2P(B/A)\) then \(P(B) =\)...........

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{5}\)

MHT CET PCM Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT-CET 2026 Exam Strategy