MHT CET 2026 April 13 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on April 13 in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 12 PM in CBT mode.

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Download MHT CET 2026 April 13 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper with Solutions PDF from the links provided below.

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MHT CET 2026 April 13 Shift 1 Question Paper

MHT CET 2026 April 13 Shift 1 PCM Questions with Solutions

Physics Section (Questions 1 to 50)

Question 1:

The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is \(T = 2π(L/g)^{1/2}\). Measured value of 'L' is 10 cm known to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations is 50 second, using a watch of 1 second resolution. The percentage error in the measurement of 'g' is

  • (A) \(2\%\)
  • (B) \(4\%\)
  • (C) \(5\%\)
  • (D) \(8\%\)

Question 2:

The vector sum of the two forces \(\overset{⃗}{A}\) and \(\overset{⃗}{B}\) is perpendicular to their vector difference. Hence forces \(\overset{⃗}{A}\) and \(\overset{⃗}{B}\) are

  • (A) perpendicular to each other
  • (B) unequal in magnitude
  • (C) parallel to each other
  • (D) equal in magnitude

Question 3:

According to Boyle's law, the product PV remains constant. The SI unit of PV is same as that of

  • (A) momentum
  • (B) energy
  • (C) force
  • (D) impulse

Question 4:

A string of length 'L' fixed at one end carries a mass 'm' at the other end. The string makes \(\frac{3}{π}\) r.p.s. around the vertical axis through fixed end. The tension in the string is

  • (A) \(72mL\)
  • (B) \(36mL\)
  • (C) \(18mL\)
  • (D) \(9mL\)

Question 5:

A stationary body explodes into two parts of masses \(M_1\) and \(M_2\). They move in opposite directions with velocities \(V_1\) and \(V_2\). The ratio of their kinetic energies is

  • (A) \(\frac{M_1}{M_2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{M_2}{M_1}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{M_1^2}{M_2^2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{M_2^2}{M_1^2}\)

Question 6:

A body slides down a smooth inclined plane of inclination \(θ\) and reaches the bottom with velocity 'V'. If the same body is a ring which rolls down the same inclined plane then linear velocity at the bottom of the plane is

  • (A) \(\frac{V}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{V}{2}\)
  • (C) \(V\)
  • (D) \(2V\)

Question 7:

The relative angular speed of hour hand and minute hand of clock is

  • (A) \(\frac{2π}{60}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{11π}{360}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{11π}{21600}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2π}{3600}\)

Question 8:

A disc of radius 0.4 m and mass 1 kg rotates about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. The angular acceleration is 10 rad/s\(^2\). The tangential force applied to the rim of the disc is

  • (A) \(1\) N
  • (B) \(2\) N
  • (C) \(3\) N
  • (D) \(4\) N

Question 9:

A body is projected vertically from earth's surface of radius R with velocity equal to half the escape velocity. The maximum height reached by the body is

  • (A) \(\frac{R}{3}\)
  • (B) \(R\)
  • (C) \(\frac{R}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{R}{4}\)

Question 10:

Two small drops of liquid of same radius coalesce to form a big drop. The ratio of the total surface energies after and before the change is

  • (A) \(2:1\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2}:1\)
  • (C) \(2^{-1/3}:1\)
  • (D) \(1:2\)

Question 11:

Three liquids have same surface tension and have densities \(ρ_1,ρ_2\) and \(ρ_3\) \((ρ_1 > ρ_2 > ρ_3)\). In three identical capillaries rise of liquid is same. The corresponding angles of contact \(θ_1,θ_2\) and \(θ_3\) are related as

  • (A) \(θ_1 > θ_2 > θ_3\)
  • (B) \(θ_1 < θ_2 < θ_3\)
  • (C) \(θ_1 = θ_2 = θ_3\)
  • (D) \(θ_1 > θ_2 < θ_3\)

Question 12:

The work done in splitting a water drop of radius 'R' into 64 droplets is (T is the surface tension of water)

  • (A) \(8πR^2T\)
  • (B) \(12πR^2T\)
  • (C) \(4πR^2T\)
  • (D) \(16πR^2T\)

Question 13:

A celsius and a Fahrenheit thermometer are dipped in boiling water. The temperature of water is lowered until the Farenheit thermometer shows \(140^{\circ}\). What is the fall in temperature on the Celsius thermometer?

  • (A) \(60^{\circ}\) C
  • (B) \(40^{\circ}\) C
  • (C) \(50^{\circ}\) C
  • (D) \(80^{\circ}\) C

Question 14:

Rate of radiation by a black body is 'R' at temperature 'T'. Another body has same area but emissivity is 0.2 and temperature 3T. Its rate of radiation is

  • (A) \(R\)
  • (B) \(2R\)
  • (C) \(16.2R\)
  • (D) \(0.2R\)

Question 15:

A black rectangular surface of area A emits energy E per unit time at \(27^{\circ}\) C. If length and breadth is reduced to \((\frac{1}{4})^{th}\) of initial value and temperature is raised to \(327^{\circ}\) C, then energy emitted per unit time becomes

  • (A) \(E\)
  • (B) \(2E\)
  • (C) \(\frac{E}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{E}{4}\)

Question 16:

The change in internal energy of the mass of gas, when the volume changes from V to 2V at constant pressure P is (\(γ\) is the ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to that of volume) (\(γ = \frac{C_p}{C_v}\))

  • (A) \(\frac{PV}{γ-1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{PV}{γ+1}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{(γ-1)}{PV}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{(γ+1)}{PV}\)

Question 17:

An ideal gas expands adiabatically (\(γ = 1.5\)). To reduce the r.m.s. velocity of the molecules 3 times the gas has to be expanded

  • (A) 9 times
  • (B) 81 times
  • (C) 3 times
  • (D) 27 times

Question 18:

A simple pendulum oscillates with an angular amplitude \(θ\). If the maximum tension in the string is twice the minimum tension then \(θ\) is

  • (A) \(cos^{-1}(0.75)\)
  • (B) \(cos^{-1}(0.5)\)
  • (C) \(sin^{-1}(0.5)\)
  • (D) \(sin^{-1}(0.75)\)

Question 19:

A spring executes S.H.M. with mass 10 kg attached to it. The force constant of spring is 10 N/m. If at any instant its velocity is 40 cm/s, the displacement at that instant is
(Amplitude of S.H.M. is 0.5 m)

  • (A) \(0.1\) m
  • (B) \(0.3\) m
  • (C) \(0.5\) m
  • (D) \(0.6\) m

Question 20:

Waves having a velocity 10m/s, strike a stationary boat near the sea shore. The distance between two consecutive crests of the waves is 40m. After how many second, the consecutive waves strike the boat?

  • (A) \(8\) s
  • (B) \(6\) s
  • (C) \(4\) s
  • (D) \(2\) s

Question 21:

A musical instrument P produces sound waves of frequency 'n' and amplitude 'A'. Another musical instrument Q produces sound waves of frequency n/4. The waves produced by P and Q have equal energies. The amplitude of waves produced by Q will be

  • (A) \(A\)
  • (B) \(2A\)
  • (C) \(4A\)
  • (D) \(8A\)

Question 22:

In a stationary wave, all the particles

  • (A) except at node vibrate in S.H.M. of same period but of different amplitudes
  • (B) vibrate in S.H.M. of same period and amplitude
  • (C) except at nodes vibrate in S.H.M. of same period and same amplitude
  • (D) vibrate in S.H.M. of different periods and different amplitudes

Question 23:

In fundamental mode, the time required for the sound wave to reach upto the closed end of a pipe filled with air is \(t\) second. The frequency of vibration of air column is
(\(λ\) = wavelength of the wave)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{t}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{0.25}{t}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{λ}{4t}\)
  • (D) \(t\)

Question 24:

A sonometer wire is vibrating in third overtone. There are

  • (A) 5 nodes and 4 antinodes
  • (B) 4 nodes and 5 antinodes
  • (C) 4 nodes and 4 antinodes
  • (D) 5 nodes and 5 antinodes

Question 25:

A charge 'Q' C is placed at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through two opposite faces of the cube is
(\(ε_0\) = permittivity of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{Q}{6ε_0}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{Q}{3ε_0}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{Q}{ε_0}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{Q}{2ε_0}\)

Question 26:

The capacitance of a capacitor becomes \(\frac{7}{6}\) times the original value if dielectric slab of thickness \(t = \frac{2d}{3}\) is introduced between the plates, where 'd' is the distance of separation between the plates. The dielectric constant of the slab is

  • (A) \(\frac{9}{11}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{14}{11}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{8}{11}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{12}{11}\)

Question 27:

Two identical parallel plate air capacitors are connected in series to a battery of e.m.f. 'V'. If one of the capacitor is inserted in liquid of dielectric constant 'K' then potential difference of the other capacitor will become

  • (A) \(\frac{KV}{K+1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{KV}{K-1}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{K+1}{KV}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{K-1}{KV}\)

Question 28:

A condenser of capacity \(C_1\) is charged to potential \(V_1\) and then disconnected. Uncharged capacitor of capacity \(C_2\) is connected in parallel with \(C_1\). The resultant potential \(V_2\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{C_1V_1}{C_2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{C_1V_1}{C_1+C_2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{C_2V_1}{C_1}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{C_2V_1}{C_1+C_2}\)

Question 29:

A potentiometer wire is 4 m long and potential difference of 3V is maintained between the ends. The e.m.f. of the cell which balances against a length of 100 cm of the poteniometer wire is

  • (A) \(0.25\) V
  • (B) \(0.50\) V
  • (C) \(0.75\) V
  • (D) \(1.0\) V

Question 30:

Two wires A and B of equal lengths are connected in left and right gap respectively of a metre bridge, null point is obtained at 40 cm from left end. Diameters of the wires A and B are in the ratio 3:1 respectively, the ratio of specific resistance of A to that of B is

  • (A) \(2:1\)
  • (B) \(3:1\)
  • (C) \(6:1\)
  • (D) \(12:1\)

Question 31:

An iron rod is placed parallel to magnetic field intensity 2000 A/m. The magnetic flux through rod is \(6\times 10^{-4}\) wb and its cross sectional area is 3 cm\(^2\). The magnetic permeability of the rod in wb/A-m is

  • (A) \(10^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(10^{-2}\)
  • (C) \(10^{-3}\)
  • (D) \(10^{-4}\)

Question 32:

The magnetic flux near the axis and inside the air core solenoid of length 60 cm carrying current I is \(\frac{π}{2}\times 10^{-6}\) Wb. Its magnetic moment will be (cross-sectional area is very small as compared to length of solenoid, \(μ_0\) = Permeability of free space = \(4π\times 10^{-7}\) SI unit)

  • (A) \(0.75\text{ Am}^2\)
  • (B) \(0.25\text{ Am}^2\)
  • (C) \(0.50\text{ Am}^2\)
  • (D) \(1.0\text{ Am}^2\)

Question 33:

If the number of turns in the coil of a moving coil galvanometer decreases, the resistance of the galvanometer,

  • (A) decreases
  • (B) increases
  • (C) remains the same
  • (D) may increase or decrease

Question 34:

The current flowing through the inductor of self inductance 'L' is continuously increasing at constant rate. The variation of induced e.m.f. (e) versus \(\frac{dI}{dt}\) is shown graphically by figure

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 35:

Two coils P and Q have mutual inductance 'M' H. If the current in the coil P is \(I = I_0sinωt\), then the maximum value of e.m.f. induced in coil Q is

  • (A) \(\frac{ω}{MI_0}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{Mω}{I_0}\)
  • (C) \(MωI_0\)
  • (D) \(\frac{MI_0}{ω}\)

Question 36:

In series LCR circuit C = 2 uF, L=1 mH and R= 10 \(\Omega\). What is the ratio of energies stored in the capacitor and inductor when maximum current flows through circuit?

  • (A) \(0.1:1\)
  • (B) \(0.4:1\)
  • (C) \(0.2:1\)
  • (D) \(1:1\)

Question 37:

In series LCR resonant circuit, R=800 \(\Omega\), C = 2 \(μ\)F and voltage across resistance is 200 V. The angular frequency is 250 rad/s. At resonance the voltage across the capacitance is

  • (A) \(250\) V
  • (B) \(500\) V
  • (C) \(1000\) V
  • (D) \(750\) V

Question 38:

An alternating e.m.f. is given by \(e = e_0sinωt\). In what time the e.m.f. will have half its maximum value, if 'e' starts from zero? (\(sin30^{\circ} = 0.5\))

  • (A) \(\frac{T}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{T}{8}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{T}{12}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{T}{16}\)

Question 39:

A resistor of 100 \(\Omega\), inductor of self inductance \((\frac{4}{π^2})\) H and a capacitor of unknown capacity are connected in series to an a.c. source of 200 V and 50 Hz. When the current and voltage are in phase, the value of capacity is

  • (A) \(40 μF\)
  • (B) \(50 μF\)
  • (C) \(20 μF\)
  • (D) \(25 μF\)

Question 40:

If a parallel beam of light is incident on spherical mirrors then after reflection they pass through focal point. If F is the focal length and R is the radius of curvature of mirror then

  • (A) \(R = F\)
  • (B) \(R = 2F\)
  • (C) \(R = F/2\)
  • (D) \(R = F/4\)

Question 41:

Choose the correct statement from the following.
Brewster's angle for a transparent medium is

  • (A) different for light of different colours
  • (B) same for lights of different colours
  • (C) independent of refractive index of the medium
  • (D) different for lights of same colour

Question 42:

In Young's double slit experiment, the angular width of a fringe is found to be \(0.2^{\circ}\) on a screen placed 1m away. The wavelength of light used in 600 nm. If the entire apparatus is immersed in water of refractive index 4/3. the angular width of the fringe will be

  • (A) \(0.10^{\circ}\)
  • (B) \(0.15^{\circ}\)
  • (C) \(0.20^{\circ}\)
  • (D) \(0.25^{\circ}\)

Question 43:

According to corpuscular theory of light, Which is NOT the property of light?

  • (A) The velocity of light does not change after reflection
  • (B) Light travels in a straight line
  • (C) The velocity of light in air is greater than in glass
  • (D) The velocity of light changes after refraction

Question 44:

Energy of the incident photons on the photosensitive metal surface is 3W and then 5W where 'W' is the work function of that metal. The ratio of velocities of the emitted photoelectrons is

  • (A) \(1:1\)
  • (B) \(1:\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(1:2\)
  • (D) \(1:4\)

Question 45:

Which one of the four graphs showing lines P, Q, R and S between maximum kinetic energy (E) and intensity of incident radiation (I) is correct?

  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) S

Question 46:

The ratio of centripetal acceleration for an electron revolving in 3rd and 5th Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is

  • (A) \(25:9\)
  • (B) \(125:27\)
  • (C) \(625:81\)
  • (D) \(5:3\)

Question 47:

An electron is revolving in a circular orbit of radius 'r' in hydrogen atom. Using Bohr's theory, the angular momentum of the electron is
(M = magnetic dipole moment, m = mass of electron)

  • (A) \(\frac{mM}{e}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{e}{mM}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2mM}{e}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{e}{2mM}\)

Question 48:

Which of the following graph represents the temperature (T) dependence of resistivity (\(ρ\)) of a semiconductor?

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 49:

In common emitter mode of transistor, the d.c. current gain is 20, the emitter current is 7 mA. The collector current is

  • (A) \(\frac{20}{3}\) mA
  • (B) \(\frac{14}{5}\) mA
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{3}\) mA
  • (D) \(\frac{8}{13}\) mA

Question 50:

In transistor amplifier, base emitter junction is forward biased and collector base junction is reversed biased. The current gain is

  • (A) \(\frac{\Delta I_C}{\Delta I_B}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\Delta I_B}{\Delta I_C}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\Delta I_E}{\Delta I_B}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\Delta I_B}{\Delta I_E}\)

Chemistry Section (Questions 51 to 100)


Question 51:

Which of the following contains maximum number of molecules?

  • (A) \(0.4\) g \(\text{H}_2\) gas
  • (B) \(3.2\) g of \(\text{O}_2\) gas
  • (C) \(16.8\text{ dm}^3\) of \(\text{H}_2\) gas at STP
  • (D) \(11.2\text{ dm}^3\) of \(\text{O}_2\) gas at STP

Question 52:

What is the atomic number of an element having \(ns^1\) electronic configuration and belonging to 3d transition series?

  • (A) Only 24
  • (B) Only 25
  • (C) Only 29
  • (D) 24 and 29

Question 53:

The electronic configurations of elements are as-
\(A = 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^6 4s^2\)
\(B = 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6 3s^2 3p^5\)
Which of the following is formula of ionic compound that could be formed between these two elements A and B?

  • (A) \(\text{A}_2\text{B}\)
  • (B) \(\text{AB}_2\)
  • (C) \(\text{AB}_5\)
  • (D) \(\text{A}_5\text{B}_2\)

Question 54:

Which of the following pairs represents isobars?

  • (A) \(^3\text{He}_2\) and \(^4\text{He}_2\)
  • (B) \(^{24}\text{Mg}_{12}\) and \(^{25}\text{Mg}_{12}\)
  • (C) \(^{40}\text{K}_{19}\) and \(^{40}\text{Ca}_{20}\)
  • (D) \(^{40}\text{K}_{19}\) and \(^{39}\text{K}_{19}\)

Question 55:

Identify the type of hybridization of carbon that is attached to the OH group, in benzylic alcohol?

  • (A) \(sp\)
  • (B) \(sp^2\)
  • (C) \(sp^3\)
  • (D) \(dsp2\)

Question 56:

Calculate the temperature of 2 moles of gas occupying a volume of 5.0 liters at 24.6 atmospheres?
(\(R = 0.0821\) L atm K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(476^{\circ}\)C
  • (B) \(480^{\circ}\)C
  • (C) \(440^{\circ}\)C
  • (D) \(450^{\circ}\)C

Question 57:

For a certain reaction \(\Delta H = -50\) kJ and \(\Delta S = -100\) J/K find the temperature so that the reaction is spontaneous.

  • (A) \(650\) K
  • (B) \(600\) K
  • (C) \(550\) K
  • (D) \(450\) K

Question 58:

Calculate the enthalpy change of the reaction,
\(\text{H}_2\text{(g)}+\text{Cl}_2\text{(g)}\rightarrow 2\text{HCl(g)}\)
if bond energies (kJ mol\(^{-1}\)):
H–H = 436, Cl–Cl = 242, H–Cl = 431

  • (A) \(-184\) kJ/mol
  • (B) \(-246\) kJ/mol
  • (C) \(-242\) kJ/mol
  • (D) \(-431\) kJ/mol

Question 59:

A weak monobasic acid is 0.04 % dissociated in 0.25 M solution. What is pH of the solution?

  • (A) \(2.5\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) \(10\)

Question 60:

What is the relationship between the degree of dissociation of a weak base and its concentration?

  • (A) The degree of dissociation of a weak base is directly proportional to square root of its concentration.
  • (B) The degree of dissociation of a weak base is inversely proportional to square root of its concentration.
  • (C) The degree of dissociation of a weak base doesn't depend on concentration.
  • (D) The degree of dissociation of a weak base is directly proportional to its concentration

Question 61:

Which of the following sentences is true for a basic solution?

  • (A) For basic solution, \([\text{H}_3\text{O}^+] = [\text{OH}^-]\)
  • (B) In basic solution, the excess of \(\text{OH}^-\) ions are present.
  • (C) In the basic solution, there is excess of \(\text{H}_3\text{O}^+\) ions.
  • (D) The pOH of a basic solution can be calculated by pOH = \(-log[\text{H}^+]\)

Question 62:

Which of the following is NOT a redox reaction?

  • (A) \(\text{Zn}+\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\rightarrow \text{ZnSO}_4+\text{H}_2\)
  • (B) \(\text{Al(OH)}_3+3\text{HCl}\rightarrow \text{AlCl}_3+3\text{H}_2\text{O}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Mg}+1/2\text{O}_2\rightarrow \text{Mg}^{2+}+\text{O}^{2-}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Fe}_{(s)}+\text{Cu}_{(aq)}^{2+}\rightarrow \text{Fe}_{(aq)}^{2+}+\text{Cu}_{(s)}\)

Question 63:

Identify the false statement regarding chirality from the following.

  • (A) \(SN^1\) reaction yields 1:1 mixture of both enantiomers
  • (B) A recemic mixture shows zero dipole rotation
  • (C) Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images of each other
  • (D) The product obtained by \(SN^2\) reaction of haloalkane having chirality at the reactive site shows inversion of configuration

Question 64:

Which of the following statements are TRUE?
(I) Inductive effect operates through the sigma bond
(II) Resonance effect operates through the pi bond
(III) Inductive effects operate through the pi bond
(IV) Resonance effect operates through the sigma bond

  • (A) (I) and (II)
  • (B) (II) and (III)
  • (C) (III) and (IV)
  • (D) (I) and (IV)

Question 65:

The cyclic \(π\)-molecular orbital formed by overlap of p-orbitals must contain,

  • (A) \((4n+2)\) p electrons.
  • (B) \((2n+2)\) p electrons.
  • (C) \((4n-2)\) p electrons.
  • (D) \((2n-2)\) p electrons.

Question 66:

Identify the reagent used in Etard reaction

  • (A) Acetic anhydride
  • (B) Anhydrous aluminum chloride
  • (C) DIBAL-H
  • (D) Chromyl chloride

Question 67:

An element with a molar mass 27g mol\(^{-1}\) forms a cubic unit cell. Calculate the number of atoms present in a unit cell if the density of metal is 2.7g cm\(^{-3}\).
\([a^3\times N_A = 40\) cm\(^3\) mol\(^{-1}]\)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(6\)

Question 68:

A compound formed by elements A and B crystallizes in a cubic structure where A atoms are at the corner of the cube and B atoms are at the center of the cube. What is the formula of the compound?

  • (A) \(\text{AB}\)
  • (B) \(\text{A}_2\text{B}\)
  • (C) \(\text{AB}_2\)
  • (D) \(\text{A}_2\text{B}_2\)

Question 69:

Which of the following dopant is NOT used in Ge to obtain n-type semiconductor?

  • (A) P
  • (B) As
  • (C) Sb
  • (D) B

Question 70:

2 g nonelectrolyte solute when dissolved in 50 g water increases its boiling point by 0.13 K.
Calculate the molar mass of solute if molal elevation constant of water is 0.52 K kg mol\(^{-1}\)

  • (A) \(140\) g/mol
  • (B) \(150\) g/mol
  • (C) \(160\) g/mol
  • (D) \(170\) g/mol

Question 71:

Which of the following aqueous solutions will show maximum vapour pressure at 300K?

  • (A) \(1\) M NaCl
  • (B) \(1\) M \(\text{CaCl}_2\)
  • (C) \(1\) M \(\text{AlCl}_3\)
  • (D) \(1\) M \(\text{C}_{12}\text{H}_{22}\text{O}_{11}\)

Question 72:

Identify a pair of gases from following that does not obey Henry's law.

  • (A) \(\text{NH}_3\) and \(\text{CO}_2\)
  • (B) \(\text{CO}_2\) and \(\text{O}_2\)
  • (C) \(\text{NH}_3\) and \(\text{N}_2\)
  • (D) \(\text{N}_2\) and \(\text{CH}_4\)

Question 73:

Calculate the molar conductivity of 0.2 M KCl solution at 298 K (\(k = 0.0248 \Omega ^{-1}\)cm\(^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(143 \Omega ^{-1}\) cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(98 \Omega ^{-1}\) cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(124 \Omega ^{-1}\) cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(87 \Omega ^{-1}\) cm\(^2\) mol\(^{-1}\)

Question 74:

Identify from following cell reactions that is spontaneous under standard state of conditions.

  • (A) \(\text{Ca(s)}+\text{Cd}^{2+}\text{(aq)}\rightarrow \text{Ca}^{2+}\text{(aq)}+\text{Cd(s)}\), \([E_{\text{Ca}}^0 = -2.866\) V & \(E_{\text{Cd}}^0 = -0.403\) V\(]\)
  • (B) \(2\text{Br}^-\text{(s)}+\text{Sn}^{2+}\text{(aq)}\rightarrow \text{Br}_2\text{(l)}+\text{Sn(s)}\), \([E_{\text{Br}}^0 = 1.08\) V & \(E_{\text{Sn}}^0 = -0.136\) V\(]\)
  • (C) \(2\text{Ag(s)}+\text{Ni}^{2+}\text{(aq)}\rightarrow 2\text{Ag}^+\text{(aq)}+\text{Ni(s)}\), \([E_{\text{Ag}}^0 = 0.799\) V & \(E_{\text{Ni}}^0 = -0.257\) V\(]\)
  • (D) \(2\text{Au(s)}+\text{Zn}^{2+}\text{(aq)}\rightarrow 2\text{Au}^+\text{(aq)}+\text{Zn(s)}\), \([E_{\text{Au}}^0 = 1.68\) V & \(E_{\text{Zn}}^0 = -0.763\) V\(]\)

Question 75:

Identify the correct name of law.
"At infinite dilution each ion migrates independent of co-ion and contributes to total molar conductivity of an elctrolyte irrespective of the nature of other ion to which it is associated."

  • (A) Henry's law
  • (B) Raoult's law
  • (C) Nernst derivative law
  • (D) Kohlrausch's law of independent migration of ions

Question 76:

For the reaction, \(A+B\rightarrow P\), the rate law is rate \(= k[A][B]^2\). The rate of reaction is \(0.25\text{ Ms}^{-1}\) when \([A] = 1\) M, \([B] = 0.2\) M at \(25^{\circ}\)C. Calculate the rate constant of the reaction at the same temperature.

  • (A) \(6.25\text{ M}^{-2}\text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(6.0\text{ M}^{-2}\text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(6.5\text{ M}^{-2}\text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(6.75\text{ M}^{-2}\text{s}^{-1}\)

Question 77:

In first order reaction, 20 % concentration remains after 10 min. What would be the rate constant of reaction if \(log_{10}(5) = 0.6989\)?

  • (A) \(1.609\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(6.989\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(16.09\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(0.1609\) min\(^{-1}\)

Question 78:

Identify a type of order of reaction that its unit of rate constant is mol dm\(^{-3}\)s\(^{-1}\) from the following.

  • (A) Zero-order reaction
  • (B) First-order reaction
  • (C) Second-order reaction
  • (D) Third-order reaction

Question 79:

Identify the dimensional nature of nanoparticles by the following.

  • (A) one dimensional
  • (B) two dimensional
  • (C) four dimensional
  • (D) zero dimensional

Question 80:

Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas?

  • (A) \(\Delta S\) is negative and, therefore \(\Delta H\) should be highly positive
  • (B) \(\Delta S\) is negative and therefore, \(\Delta H\) should be highly negative.
  • (C) \(\Delta S\) is positive and therefore, \(\Delta H\) should be negative.
  • (D) \(\Delta S\) is positive and therefore, \(\Delta H\) should also be highly positive.

Question 81:

Identify the correct statement regarding lyophilic colloid from the following.

  • (A) It is irreversible.
  • (B) It is solvent hating colloid.
  • (C) It is formed only by special methods.
  • (D) It is solvent loving colloid.

Question 82:

In the Charring process, concentrated sulfuric acid reacts with sugar to give sugar charcoal. What is the role of conc. \(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\) in this reaction?

  • (A) An oxidizing agent
  • (B) A sulfonating agent
  • (C) A dehydrating agent
  • (D) A decomposing agent

Question 83:

Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of oxidizing power of perhalate ions?

  • (A) \(\text{BrO}_4^- < \text{IO}_4^- < \text{ClO}_4^-\)
  • (B) \(\text{IO}_4^- > \text{BrO}_4^- > \text{ClO}_4^-\)
  • (C) \(\text{IO}_4^- < \text{BrO}_4^- < \text{ClO}_4^-\)
  • (D) \(\text{BrO}_4^- > \text{IO}_4^- > \text{ClO}_4^-\)

Question 84:

Which of the following elements is doped to a fiber amplifier in an optical fiber communication system?

  • (A) Tm
  • (B) Yb
  • (C) Er
  • (D) Nd

Question 85:

Which of the following comparisons is correct for \(\Delta _0\) of the following complexes?
I- \([\text{Co(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{2+}\)
II- \([\text{Co(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{3+}\)
III- \([\text{Fe(H}_2\text{O)}_6]^{3+}\)
IV- \([\text{Fe(CN)}_6]^{3-}\)

  • (A) \(\text{I} < \text{II}\)
  • (B) \(\text{I} < \text{III}\)
  • (C) \(\text{IV} < \text{II}\)
  • (D) \(\text{II} < \text{I}\)

Question 86:

Among the given ligands, the negative ligand is

  • (A) Ammonia
  • (B) Methylamine
  • (C) Hydrazinium
  • (D) Nitrate

Question 87:

Which of the following compounds is obtained when Bromoethane is reacted with silver acetate?

  • (A) propanal
  • (B) acetic acid
  • (C) ethyl acetate
  • (D) methyl acetate

Question 88:

Find the structure of A in following reaction

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 89:

Identify the alcohol obtained when aldehyde other than formaldehyde is treated with Grignard's reagent followed by hydrolysis.

  • (A) Primary alcohol
  • (B) Secondary alcohol
  • (C) Tertiary alcohol
  • (D) Ketone

Question 90:

Identify the reagent used in the transformation of Ketone into semicarbazone.

  • (A) \(\text{NH}_2-\text{OH}\)
  • (B) \(\text{NH}_2-\text{NH}_2\)
  • (C) \(\text{NH}_2-\text{NH}-\text{CONH}_2\)
  • (D) \(\text{NH}_2-\text{NH}-\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\)

Question 91:

Identify the product obtained when ketone reacts with \(\text{NH}_2\)-\(\text{NH}_2\).

  • (A) Aniline
  • (B) Hydrazone
  • (C) Phenyl hydrazone
  • (D) Anisole

Question 92:

Which of the following reagents is used to convert -CN group to -\(\text{CH}_2\text{NH}_2\) group?

  • (A) \(\text{CrO}_3\)
  • (B) \(\text{Na}+\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH}\)
  • (C) \(\text{H}_3\text{PO}_4\)
  • (D) \(\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3\)

Question 93:

Which of the following reactions is exhibited only by primary amines?

  • (A) acetylation
  • (B) alkylation
  • (C) reaction with nitrous acid
  • (D) carbyl amine test

Question 94:

Which from following reagents is used to prepare alkyl isocyanides from RX?

  • (A) AgCN (alco)
  • (B) \(\text{NH}_3\) (alco)
  • (C) \(\text{KNO}_2\)
  • (D) \(\text{AgNO}_2\)

Question 95:

Which carbon atoms of glucose, numbered from 1 to 6 forms a hemiacetal structure between -CHO and -OH groups.?

  • (A) C-2
  • (B) C-3
  • (C) C-4
  • (D) C-5

Question 96:

Which one of the following is a globular protein?

  • (A) Insulin
  • (B) Myosin
  • (C) Keratin in hair
  • (D) Keratin in wool

Question 97:

Identify the cation present in chlorophyll in green plants.

  • (A) \(\text{Mg}^{2+}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Ca}^{2+}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Fr}^+\)
  • (D) \(\text{Na}^+\)

Question 98:

Identify the monomer used to prepare orlon.

  • (A) vinyl chloride
  • (B) acrylonitrile
  • (C) styrene
  • (D) tetrafluoroethylene

Question 99:

What type of polymer the natural rubber is?

  • (A) Fibre
  • (B) Elastomer
  • (C) Thermoplastic
  • (D) Thermosetting plastic

Question 100:

Identify the use of antipyretic drugs.

  • (A) To kill microorganism.
  • (B) To relieve pain.
  • (C) To reduce fever.
  • (D) To prevent pregnancy.

Mathematics Section (Questions 101 to 150)


Question 101:

The polar form of the complex number \(z = \frac{1}{1+i}\), (where \(i = \sqrt{-1}\)) is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(cos\frac{7π}{4}+isin\frac{7π}{4})\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(cos\frac{π}{4}+isin\frac{π}{4})\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}(cos\frac{π}{4}+isin\frac{π}{4})\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}(cos\frac{7π}{4}+isin\frac{7π}{4})\)

Question 102:

The number of cubic equations that can be formed with the coefficients 0, 3, 2, 4, 5, 6 when repetition of coefficients is allowed, is....

  • (A) \(720\)
  • (B) \(1296\)
  • (C) \(864\)
  • (D) \(1080\)

Question 103:

\(tan105^{\circ} =\) ......

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}-1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}+1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1+\sqrt{3}}{1-\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{3}+1}\)

Question 104:

The number of solutions in \([0,\frac{π}{2})\) of the equation \(cos3x\cdot tan5x = sin7x\) is

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(5\)
  • (C) \(7\)
  • (D) \(6\)

Question 105:

The area of the triangle formed by the co-ordinate axes and a line \(px+qy = r\) (where p, q and r are positive real numbers) is \(\frac{1}{54}\) sq.units, then ....

  • (A) p, 3r, q are in G.P.
  • (B) \(p^2+q^2 = r^2\)
  • (C) p, \(3\sqrt{3}\) r, q are in G.P.
  • (D) p, 27 r, q are in G.P.

Question 106:

The joint equation of the pair of lines through the origin and making an angle of \(\frac{π}{4}\) with the line \(3x+y-6 = 0\) is

  • (A) \(2x^2+3xy-2y^2 = 0\)
  • (B) \(2x^2+3xy+2y^2 = 0\)
  • (C) \(x^2+3xy-y^2 = 0\)
  • (D) \(x^2-3xy+y^2 = 0\)

Question 107:

If a circle with center \((-1,1)\) touches the line \(x+2y+4 = 0\), then the co-ordinates of the point of contact are

  • (A) \((-2,-1)\)
  • (B) \((8,-2)\)
  • (C) \((2,-3)\)
  • (D) \((4,-4)\)

Question 108:

A point on the parabola \(y^2 = \frac{36}{5}x\) at which the ordinate increases at thrice the rate of the abscissa is .....

  • (A) \((\frac{6}{5},\frac{1}{5})\)
  • (B) \((\frac{1}{5},\frac{6}{5})\)
  • (C) \((5,6)\)
  • (D) \((\frac{3}{5},\frac{9}{5})\)

Question 109:

The area of the triangle formed by the lines joining the vertex of the parabola \(x^2 = 48y\) to the ends of its latus rectum, is .....

  • (A) \(144\) sq. units
  • (B) \(288\) sq. units
  • (C) \(72\) sq. units
  • (D) \(576\) sq. units

Question 110:

\(\underset{x\rightarrow 0}{lim}[\frac{log|2+x|-log|2-x|}{tanx}] =\) .......

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(-1\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 111:

Consider the statement patterns
A. \((q\rightarrow p)∨(p\rightarrow q)\)
B. \((\sim p∨\sim q)\leftrightarrow \sim (p∧q)\)
C. \([(p∨q)∧\sim p]∧\sim q\)
D. \((p∧q)∧(\sim p∨\sim q)\)
then statement patterns

  • (A) A and B are contradictions, C and D are tautologies.
  • (B) A and B are tautologies, C and D are contradictions.
  • (C) A, B, C, D all are tautologies.
  • (D) A, B, C, D all are contradictions.

Question 112:

The statement pattern \((p∧q)\rightarrow (r∨\sim s)\) is false. Then the truth values of \(p,q,r\) and \(s\) are respectively

  • (A) T, F, T, T
  • (B) T, T, F, T
  • (C) T, T, T, F
  • (D) T, T, F, F

Question 113:

In a triangle ABC, with usual notations if \(\frac{s-a}{11} = \frac{s-b}{12} = \frac{s-c}{13}\) and \(λtan^2\frac{A}{2} = 455\), then \(λ =\)

  • (A) \(1155\)
  • (B) \(1255\)
  • (C) \(1355\)
  • (D) \(1055\)

Question 114:

With usual notations, in \(△ABC\), if \(2a^2 = b^2+c^2\), then \(\frac{cos3A}{cosA}+2 =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{b^2-c^2}{2bc}\)
  • (B) \((\frac{b^2-c^2}{2bc})^2\)
  • (C) \((\frac{c^2-b^2}{bc})^2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{c^2-b^2}{bc}\)

Question 115:

With usual notations, in \(△ABC\), \((b-c)^2cos^2\frac{A}{2}+(b+c)^2sin^2\frac{A}{2} =\)

  • (A) \(a^2\)
  • (B) \(b^2-c^2\)
  • (C) \(a^2+b^2+c^2\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 116:

Let \(A = [\begin{array}{cc}-5 & -3 \\ 2 & 1\end{array}]\). The Row transformation \(R_1\rightarrow R_1+3R_2\) will transform matrix A into

  • (A) an upper triangular matrix
  • (B) a lower triangular matrix
  • (C) an identity matrix
  • (D) a singular matrix

Question 117:

If \(A = \left[ \begin{array}{ccc}2 & 0 & -1 \\ 5 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 3\end{array} \right]_{3\times 3}\), and \(A^{-1} = \left[ \begin{array}{ccc}γ & -1 & 1 \\ α & 6 & -5 \\ β & -2 & 2\end{array} \right]_{3\times 3}\), then \(|α\cdot β\cdot γ| =\) _____ (where \(|\cdot |\) denotes the absolute value)

  • (A) \(125\)
  • (B) \(220\)
  • (C) \(225\)
  • (D) \(-225\)

Question 118:

If \(y = tan^{-1}\{\frac{\sqrt{1+x^2}-\sqrt{1-x^2}}{\sqrt{1+x^2}+\sqrt{1-x^2}}\}\), where \(|x| < 1\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\frac{-x}{\sqrt{1-x^4}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^4}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{-2x}{\sqrt{1-x^4}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2x}{\sqrt{1-x^4}}\)

Question 119:

The value of \(tan^{-1}(\sqrt{3})+sec^{-1}(-2)-sin^{-1}(-\frac{1}{2})\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{5π}{6}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2π}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{7π}{6}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4π}{3}\)

Question 120:

The domain of the function \(f(x) = e^{\sqrt{5x-3-2x^2}}\) is

  • (A) \((1,2)\)
  • (B) \((-1,\frac{3}{2})\)
  • (C) \([1,\frac{3}{2}]\)
  • (D) \((-1,0)\)

Question 121:

If \(f(x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{cc}\frac{(8-2x)^{\frac{1}{3}}-2}{3-(243+5x)^{\frac{1}{5}}}, & \text{if }x\neq 0 \\ k, & \text{if }x = 0\end{array} \right.\) is continuous at \(x = 0\), then \(k =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{5}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{27}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-27}{2}\)

Question 122:

If \(y = x+e^x\), then \(\frac{d^2x}{dy^2}\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\frac{e^x}{(1+e^x)^2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{-e^x}{(1+e^x)^2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{e^x}{(1+e^x)^3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-e^x}{(1+e^x)^3}\)

Question 123:

Let \(f(x) = x-5\).
If \(g(x) = [f(4h(x)+3)]^2\) and \(h(1) = 4,h^'(1) = -2\), then \(g^'(1) =\) .....

  • (A) \(-242\)
  • (B) \(-224\)
  • (C) \(-112\)
  • (D) \(-640\)

Question 124:

The equation of the normal to the curve \(xy+7 = 0\) is \(Ax+By+C = 0\), then

  • (A) \(A > 0,B > 0\) or \(A < 0,B < 0\)
  • (B) \(A > 0,B < 0\)
  • (C) \(A < 0,B > 0\)
  • (D) \(C = 0\)

Question 125:

A wire 40 metre in length is to be cut into two pieces. One piece is formed into a square and the other piece into a circle. The lengths of the two pieces so that the combined area of the square and the circle is minimum, are respectively

  • (A) \(\frac{160}{π+4},\frac{40π}{π+4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π+4}{160},\frac{40π}{π+4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{160}{π+4},\frac{π+4}{40π}\)
  • (D) \(30,10\)

Question 126:

If a spherical balloon has a variable diameter \(3x+\frac{9}{2}\) units, then the rate of change of its volume with respect to \(x\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{27π}{4}(2x+3)^2\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2π}{3}(2x+3)^2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{27π}{8}(2x+3)^2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{27π}{2}(2x+3)^2\)

Question 127:

\(\int \frac{30x^{14}+15^xlog225}{x^{15}+15^x}\,dx =\)

  • (A) \(x^{15}+15x^{14}+30x^{13}+c\), where c is the constant of integration
  • (B) \(\frac{log(x^{15}+15^x)}{2}+c\), where c is the constant of integration
  • (C) \(log(x^{15}+15^x)^2+c\), where c is the constant of integration
  • (D) \(log(x^{15}+15^x)+c\), where c is the constant of integration

Question 128:

If \(\int \frac{sin2x}{sin^4x+cos^4x}\,dx = f(x)+c\) where c is constant of integration, then the value of \(tan(f(x))\) is

  • (A) \(tanx\)
  • (B) \(tan^2x\)
  • (C) \(tan^4x\)
  • (D) \(cot^4x\)

Question 129:

\(\int e^{2x}\frac{2(sin2xcos2x-1)}{2sin^22x}\,dx = A\,e^{2x}cot2x+c\)
(Where c is the constant of integration.), then \(A^3 =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
  • (B) \(64\)
  • (C) \(8\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{64}\)

Question 130:

If \(\int _0^a\frac{dx}{1+4x^2} = \frac{π}{8}\), then \(a =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 131:

The value of the integral \(\int _{-\sqrt{3}}^{\sqrt{3}}\frac{(2x^9+3x^8-5x^7+9x^6+4x^3-x+3)}{x^2+3}\,dx\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{162}{7}+\sqrt{3}\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{162\sqrt{3}}{7}+\sqrt{3}\frac{π}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{162\sqrt{3}}{7}+\frac{π}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{162\sqrt{3}}{7}-\frac{π}{2}\)

Question 132:

The area of the region (in sq.units) bounded by the curve \(y = 2\sqrt{1-x^2}\) and the X-axis is _____

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π^2}{2}\)
  • (C) \(π\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2π}{3}\)

Question 133:

If \(\frac{dy}{dx} = y+5\) and \(y(0) = 4\) then \(y(log2)\) is equal to

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(5\)
  • (C) \(7\)
  • (D) \(13\)

Question 134:

The solution of the differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{x+y}{x-y}\) is

  • (A) \(c(x^2+y^2)^{\frac{1}{2}}+e^{tan^{-1}(\frac{y^2}{x})} = 0\), where c is an arbitrary constant
  • (B) \(c(x^2+y^2)^{\frac{1}{2}} = e^{tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x})}\), where c is an arbitrary constant
  • (C) \(c(x^2-y^2) = e^{tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x})}\), where c is an arbitrary constant
  • (D) \(c(x^2+y^2) = e^{tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x})}\), where c is an arbitrary constant

Question 135:

A spherical balloon expands at a rate proportional to its surface area. Initially its radius is 2 cm and 5 minutes later it increases upto 7 cm, then surface area of spherical balloon after 12 minutes will be

  • (A) \(2480\) sq.cm.
  • (B) \(2460\) sq.cm.
  • (C) \(2464\) sq.cm.
  • (D) \(2400\) sq.cm.

Question 136:

Let \(\overset{̄}{a},\overset{̄}{b},\overset{̄}{c}\) be three vectors having magnitudes 1, 1 and 2 respectively. If \(\overset{̄}{a}\times (\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{c})+\overset{̄}{b} = \overset{̄}{0}\), then the acute angle between \(\overset{̄}{a}\) and \(\overset{̄}{c}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{6}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{8}\)

Question 137:

The volume of a tetrahedron with vertices \(5\hat{i}-\hat{j}+\hat{k},7\hat{i}-4\hat{j}+p\hat{k},\hat{i}-6\hat{j}+10\hat{k}\) and \(-\hat{i}-3\hat{j}+7\hat{k}\) is 11 cubic units, then one of the values of p is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 138:

Let \(\overset{̄}{a},\overset{̄}{b},\overset{̄}{c}\) be unit vectors such that \(\overset{̄}{a}\) is perpendicular to the plane of \(\overset{̄}{b}\) and \(\overset{̄}{c}\). If the angle between \(\overset{̄}{b}\) and \(\overset{̄}{c}\) is \(\frac{π}{3}\), then \(|\overset{̄}{a}+\overset{̄}{b}+\overset{̄}{c}| =\)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(16\)

Question 139:

If a parallelogram is constructed on the vectors \(\overset{̄}{a} = 3\overset{̄}{p}-\overset{̄}{q},\overset{̄}{b} = \overset{̄}{p}+3\overset{̄}{q}\) and \(|\overset{̄}{p}| = 3,|\overset{̄}{q}| = 2\) and angle between \(\overset{̄}{p}\) and \(\overset{̄}{q}\) is \(\frac{π}{3}\), then the ratio of the lengths of adjacent sides \(\overset{̄}{a}\) and \(\overset{̄}{b}\) of the parallelogram is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{57}:\sqrt{54}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{67}:\sqrt{63}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{63}:\sqrt{47}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{57}:\sqrt{52}\)

Question 140:

A vector \(\overset{̄}{r}\) of magnitude \(3\sqrt{2}\) units which makes angles of \(\frac{π}{4}\) and \(\frac{π}{2}\) respectively with Y and Z axes is

  • (A) \(\overset{̄}{r} = \pm 3\hat{i}+3\hat{j}\)
  • (B) \(\overset{̄}{r} = \hat{i}+\hat{j}\)
  • (C) \(\overset{̄}{r} = \pm 2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}\)
  • (D) \(\overset{̄}{r} = \pm 5\hat{i}+\hat{j}\)

Question 141:

The point having position vector \(4\hat{i}-11\hat{j}+2\hat{k}\) lies on the line

  • (A) \(\overset{̄}{r} = (6\hat{i}-4\hat{j}+5\hat{k})+λ(\hat{i}+7\hat{j}+3\hat{k})\)
  • (B) \(\overset{̄}{r} = (6\hat{i}-4\hat{j}+5\hat{k})+λ(2\hat{i}+\hat{j}+3\hat{k})\)
  • (C) \(\overset{̄}{r} = (6\hat{i}-4\hat{j}+5\hat{k})+λ(2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}+\hat{k})\)
  • (D) \(\overset{̄}{r} = (6\hat{i}-4\hat{j}+5\hat{k})+λ(2\hat{i}+7\hat{j}+3\hat{k})\)

Question 142:

The shortest distance between the lines, where the first line passes through \((0,0,0)\) and \((2,0,3)\) and the second line passes through \((2,5,0)\) and \((0,4,0)\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{24}{7}\) units
  • (B) \(\frac{9}{7}\) units
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{7}\) units
  • (D) \(\frac{36}{7}\) units

Question 143:

The co-ordinates of the foot of the perpendicular from the origin to the plane \(2x-3y-6z = 49\) are...

  • (A) \((2,-3,-6)\)
  • (B) \((\frac{2}{7},\frac{-3}{7},\frac{-6}{7})\)
  • (C) \((-2,3,6)\)
  • (D) \((\frac{-2}{7},\frac{3}{7},\frac{6}{7})\)

Question 144:

Let a plane P pass through the point \((3,7,-7)\) and contain the line \(\frac{x-2}{-3} = \frac{y-3}{2} = \frac{z+2}{1}\). If the distance of the plane P from the origin is d, then \(d^2\) is

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(6\)

Question 145:

The plane \(\frac{x}{2}+\frac{y}{3}+\frac{z}{4} = 1\) cuts the co-ordinate axes at the points A, B, C respectively. Then the area of triangle ABC is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{61}\) sq. units
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{61}}{2}\) sq. units
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{61}}{4}\) sq. units
  • (D) \(\frac{\sqrt{71}}{2}\) sq. units

Question 146:

In L.P.P., the corner points of the feasible region for the constraints \(3x-y\geq 6,x\leq 3,y\leq 2,y\geq 0,x\geq 0\) are .....

  • (A) \((3,2),(3,0),(2,0)\)
  • (B) \((\frac{8}{3},2),(3,2),(3,0),(2,0)\)
  • (C) \((0,0),(2,0),(\frac{8}{3},2),(0,2)\)
  • (D) \((3,2),(0,3),(0,2)\)

Question 147:

The odds in favour of A winning a game of table tennis against B are 1:2. If 3 games are to be played, then the probability of A winning at least two games out of the three is.....

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{27}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{27}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{27}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{7}{27}\)

Question 148:

A random variable X has the following probability distribution

\(X = x\)\(1\)\(2\)\(3\)\(4\)\(5\)\(6\)\(7\)\(8\)
\(P(X = x)\)\(0.15\)\(0.23\)\(0.10\)\(0.12\)\(0.20\)\(0.08\)\(0.07\)\(0.05\)

For the events \(E = \{X\text{ is a prime number}\}\), \(F = \{X < 4\}\), \(P(E\cup F)\) is

  • (A) \(0.5\)
  • (B) \(0.77\)
  • (C) \(0.35\)
  • (D) \(0.75\)

Question 149:

A random variable X takes the values 0, 1, 2, 3 and its mean is \(1.3\). If \(P(X = 3) = 2P(X = 1)\) and \(P(X = 2) = 0.3\), then \(P(X = 0)\) is

  • (A) \(0.3\)
  • (B) \(0.4\)
  • (C) \(0.2\)
  • (D) \(0.5\)

Question 150:

Let \(X\sim B(6,\frac{1}{2})\). Then the maximum probability occurs at

  • (A) \(X = 1\)
  • (B) \(X = 2\)
  • (C) \(X = 3\)
  • (D) \(X = 4\)

MHT CET PCM Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT-CET 2026 Exam Strategy