MHT CET 2026 April 13 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on April 13 in Shift 2 from 2 PM to 5 PM in CBT mode.

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Download MHT CET 2026 April 13 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper with Solutions PDF from the links provided below.

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MHT CET 2026 April 13 Shift 2 PCM Questions with Solutions

Physics Section (Questions 1 to 50)

Question 1:

The length of a cylinder is measured with a meter rod having least count \(0.1\) cm. Its diameter is measured with vernier calipers having least count \(0.01\) cm. Length of cylinder is \(8.0\) cm and radius is \(4.0\) cm. Find the percentage error in the calculated value of the volume.

  • (A) \(1.25\%\)
  • (B) \(1.75\%\)
  • (C) \(1.5\%\)
  • (D) \(2.75\%\)

Question 2:

Calculate the values of \(a\) and \(b\) if vectors \(a\hat{i}+b\hat{j} = \hat{n}\) and \((\hat{i}+\hat{j})\) are perpendicular to each other

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (B) \(0,0\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{2},-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (D) \((\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}),(-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})\)

Question 3:

The velocity time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in a figure. The ratio of displacement to distance travelled by the body in time \(0\) to \(10\) s is

  • (A) \(1:1\)
  • (B) \(1:4\)
  • (C) \(1:2\)
  • (D) \(1:3\)

Question 4:

Spherical insulating ball and a spherical metallic ball of same size and mass are dropped from the same height. Choose the correct statement out of the following {Assume negligible air friction}

  • (A) Time taken by them to reach the earth's surface will be independent of the properties of their materials.
  • (B) Insulating ball will reach the earth's surface earlier than the metal ball.
  • (C) Both will reach the earth's surface simultaneously.
  • (D) Metal ball will reach the earth's surface earlier than the insulating ball.

Question 5:

\(100\) balls each of mass \(m\) moving with speed \(v\) simultaneously strike a wall normally and reflected back with same speed, in time \(t\) s. The total magnitude of force exerted by the balls on the wall is

  • (A) \(100mv/t\)
  • (B) \(200mv/t\)
  • (C) \(200mvt\)
  • (D) \(mv/100t\)

Question 6:

A solid sphere of mass \(1\) kg rolls without slipping on a plane surface. Its kinetic energy is \(7\times 10^{-3}\) J. The speed of the center of mass of the sphere in cm s\(^{-1}\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(10\)
  • (C) \(100\)
  • (D) \(1000\)

Question 7:

Moment of inertia of a disc of mass \(M\) and radius 'R' about any of its diameter is \(MR^2/4\). The moment of inertia of this disc about an axis normal to the disc and passing through a point on its edge will be, \((x/2)MR^2\). The value of \(x\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) \(7\)

Question 8:

A thin uniform rod of length \(2\) m cross-sectional area 'A' and density 'd' is rotated about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to its length with angular velocity \(ω\). If the value of \(ω\) in terms of its rotational kinetic energy \(E\) is \((αE/Ad)^{1/2}\), then the value of \(α\) is

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 9:

If earth has a mass nine times and radius twice to the planet P. Then \(\frac{v_e}{3}\sqrt{x}\) ms\(^{-1}\) will be the minimum velocity required by a rocket to pull out of gravitational force of P, where \(v_e\) is escape velocity on earth. The value of \(x\) is

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(18\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 10:

Determine the ratio of surface energy of \(1\) large drop to \(1\) small drop, if \(1000\) small drops combined to form \(1\) large drop.

  • (A) \(100:1\)
  • (B) \(10:1\)
  • (C) \(1000:1\)
  • (D) \(1:1\)

Question 11:

A spherical drop of liquid splits into \(1000\) identical spherical drops. If \(u_i\) is the surface energy of the original drop and \(u_f\) is the total surface energy of the resulting drops, the (ignoring evaporation). \(u_f/u_i = (10/x)\). Then value of \(x\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(7\)
  • (D) \(9\)

Question 12:

The surface of water in a water tank of cross-section area \(750\) cm\(^2\) on the top of a house is \(h\) m above the tap level. The speed of water coming out through the tap of cross-section area \(500\) mm\(^2\) is \(30\) cm/s. At that instant, \(dh/dt\) is \(y\times 10^{-3}\) m/s. The value of \(y\) will be

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 13:

What will be the ratio of rate of radiation of metal sphere at two different temperatures \(T_1 = 527^{\circ}\)C and \(T_2 = 127^{\circ}\)C

  • (A) \(4:1\)
  • (B) \(16:1\)
  • (C) \(8:1\)
  • (D) \(64:1\)

Question 14:

The coefficient of thermal conductivity of a metal rod depends on its

  • (A) area of cross section
  • (B) mass
  • (C) material of the rod
  • (D) length used

Question 15:

A sample of gas at temperature \(T\) is adiabatically expanded to double its volume. The work done by the gas in the process is (given, \(γ = \frac{3}{2}\)):

  • (A) \(W = TR[\sqrt{2}-2]\)
  • (B) \(W = \frac{T}{R}[\sqrt{2}-2]\)
  • (C) \(W = \frac{R}{T}[2-\sqrt{2}]\)
  • (D) \(W = RT[2-\sqrt{2}]\)

Question 16:

Energy of a gas/litre is \(600\) joule, then what will be its pressure?

  • (A) \(4\times 10^5\) N/m\(^2\)
  • (B) \(10^5\) N/m\(^2\)
  • (C) \(6\times 10^5\) N/m\(^2\)
  • (D) \(3\times 10^5\) N/m\(^2\)

Question 17:

According to law of equipartition of energy the molar specific heat of a non rigid diatomic gas at constant volume is

  • (A) \((9/2)R\)
  • (B) \((5/2)R\)
  • (C) \((3/2)R\)
  • (D) \((7/2)R\)

Question 18:

Let \(γ_1\) be the ratio of molar specific heat at constant pressure and molar specific heat at constant volume of a mono-atomic gas and \(γ_2\) be the similar ratio of diatomic gas. Considering the diatomic gas molecule as a rigid rotator, the ratio, \(γ_1/γ_2\) is

  • (A) \(27/35\)
  • (B) \(35/27\)
  • (C) \(25/21\)
  • (D) \(21/25\)

Question 19:

A block is fastened to a horizontal spring. The block is pulled to a distance \(x = 10\) cm from its equilibrium position (at \(x = 0\)) on a frictionless surface from rest. The kinetic energy of the block at \(x = 5\) cm is \(0.25\) J. The spring constant of the spring is nearly (in \(\text{Nm}^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(63\)
  • (B) \(65\)
  • (C) \(67\)
  • (D) \(50\)

Question 20:

The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is \(3\) cm. The displacement at which its kinetic energy will be \(25\%\) more than the potential energy is (in cm)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 21:

The velocity of a particle executing SHM varies with displacement (\(x\)) as \(4v^2 = 50-x^2\).
The time period of oscillations is \(x/7\) s.
The value of \(x\) is (Take \(π = 22/7\))

  • (A) \(82\)
  • (B) \(84\)
  • (C) \(88\)
  • (D) \(90\)

Question 22:

Two waves are represented by the equations, \(y_1 = asin(ωt+kx+0.57)\) m and \(y_2 = acos(ωt+kx)\) m, where \(x\) is in metre and \(t\) is in second. What is the phase difference between them? (\(π = 3.14\))

  • (A) \(0.57\) radian
  • (B) \(1.57\) radian
  • (C) \(1.25\) radian
  • (D) \(1.0\) radian

Question 23:

Sound waves travel at \(350\) m/s through a warm air and at \(3500\) m/s through brass. Which of the following is correct about the wavelength of a \(700\) Hz accoustic wave as it enters brass from warm air?

  • (A) It increase by a factor \(20\)
  • (B) It decrease by a factor \(10\)
  • (C) It increase by a factor \(10\)
  • (D) It decrease by a factor \(20\)

Question 24:

The distance between two consecutive points with phase difference of \(60^{\circ}\) in a wave of frequency \(n\) is \(x\) meter. The velocity with which wave is traveling is

  • (A) \(nx\)
  • (B) \(2nx\)
  • (C) \(3nx\)
  • (D) \(6nx\)

Question 25:

A traveling wave is described by the equation \(y(x,t) = [0.05sin(8x-4t)]\) m
The velocity of the wave is [All the quantities are in SI unit]

  • (A) \(4\text{ ms}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(2\text{ ms}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(0.5\text{ ms}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(8\text{ ms}^{-1}\)

Question 26:

The electric potential at the center of two concentric half rings of radii \(R_1\) and \(R_2\), having same linear charge density \(λ\) is (\(ε_0\) = permittivity of free space)

  • (A) \(2λ/ε_0\)
  • (B) \(λ/2ε_0\)
  • (C) \(λ/4ε_0\)
  • (D) \(λ/ε_0\)

Question 27:

If two charges \(q_1\) and \(q_2\) are separated with distance 'd' and placed in a medium of dielectric constant \(K\). What will be the equivalent distance between charges in air for the same electrostatic force?

  • (A) \(d[k]^{1/2}\)
  • (B) \(k[d]^{1/2}\)
  • (C) \(1.5d[k]^{1/2}\)
  • (D) \(2d[k]^{1/2}\)

Question 28:

Two isolated metallic spheres of radii \(R\) and \(2R\) are charged such that both have the same charge density \(σ\). The spheres are then connected by a thin conducting wire. If the new charge density of the larger sphere is \(σ_1\). The ratio \(σ_1\) to \(σ\) is

  • (A) \(9:4\)
  • (B) \(4:3\)
  • (C) \(5:3\)
  • (D) \(5:6\)

Question 29:

A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plate has a capacitance of \(15\) pF. The separation between the plates becomes twice and the space between them is filled with a medium of dielectric constant \(3.5\). Then the capacitance becomes \(x/4\) pF.
The value of \(x\) is

  • (A) \(105\)
  • (B) \(109\)
  • (C) \(111\)
  • (D) \(115\)

Question 30:

Resistances are joint as shown in the figure. In the balanced condition, the current \(I\) drawn from the battery is

  • (A) \(0.1\) A
  • (B) \(0.15\) A
  • (C) \(0.2\) A
  • (D) \(0.25\) A

Question 31:

In an experiment to find emf of a cell using potentiometer, the length of null point for a cell of emf \(1.5\) V is found to be \(60\) cm. If this cell is replaced by another cell of emf \(E\), the length of null point increases by \(40\) cm. The value of \(E\) is \(x/10\) V.
The value of \(x\) is

  • (A) \(20\)
  • (B) \(25\)
  • (C) \(28\)
  • (D) \(30\)

Question 32:

A charged particle \(q\) is accelerated by a potential difference of \(V\) enters a region of uniform magnetic field of induction \(B\) at right angles to the direction of the field. The charged particle completes semi circle of the radius \(r\) inside the magnetic field. The mass of the charged particle is (all quantities are in SI units)

  • (A) \(q^2r^2B^2/2V\)
  • (B) \(qr^2B^2/2V\)
  • (C) \(qBr/V\)
  • (D) \(q^2r^2B/2V\)

Question 33:

Two long straight wires are arranged parallel to each other and are kept \(20\) cm apart in vacuum. They carry currents of \(2\) A and \(4\) A respectively in the same direction. What will be the magnetic force on a length of \(10\) cm of either wire?
(\(μ_0 = 4π\times 10^{-7}\) SI units)

  • (A) \(10^{-7}\) N
  • (B) \(2\times 10^{-7}\) N
  • (C) \(4\times 10^{-7}\) N
  • (D) \(8\times 10^{-7}\) N

Question 34:

A rod with a circular cross-section area \(2\) cm\(^2\) and length \(40\) cm is wound uniformly with \(400\) turns of an insulated wire. If a current \(0.4\) A flows in the wire winding, the total magnetic flux produced inside the winding is \(4π\times 10^{-6}\) Wb. The relative permeability of the rod is
(Given permeability of vacuum \(μ_0 = 4π\times 10^{-7}\) N m A\(^{-2}\))

  • (A) \(12.5\)
  • (B) \(32/5\)
  • (C) \(125\)
  • (D) \(5/16\)

Question 35:

The magnetic moments associated with two closely wound circular coils a and b of radius \(r\) and \(2r\) respectively are equal if (where \(N_a\), \(I_a\) and \(N_b\), \(I_b\) are number of turns and current in A and B respectively)

  • (A) \(2N_aI_a = N_bI_b\)
  • (B) \(N_a = 2N_b\)
  • (C) \(N_aI_a = 4N_bI_b\)
  • (D) \(4N_aI_a = N_bI_b\)

Question 36:

A conducting loop of radius \(10/[π]^{1/2}\) cm is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field \(0.5\) T. The magnetic field is decreased to zero in \(0.5\) s at a steady rate. The induced emf in the circular loop at \(0.25\) s is

  • (A) \(1\text{ mV}\)
  • (B) \(10\text{ mV}\)
  • (C) \(100\text{ mV}\)
  • (D) \(5\text{ mV}\)

Question 37:

In the circuit shown, the ratio of the quality factor and the band width is
(Given: band width = R/L)

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{LC}}\frac{L^2}{R^2}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{LC}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{LC}}\frac{L}{R}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{LC}}\frac{R}{L}\)

Question 38:

An inductor of \(0.5\) mH, a capacitor of \(20\) \(μ\)F and resistance \(20\,\Omega\) are connected in series with a \(220\) V ac source. If the current is in phase with the emf, the amplitude of current of the circuit is \([x]^{1/2}\) A. The value of \(x\) is

  • (A) \(61\)
  • (B) \(121\)
  • (C) \(242\)
  • (D) \(442\)

Question 39:

In a series LR circuit with \(X_L = R\). Power factor is \(P_1\). If a capacitor of capacitance \(C\) with \(X_c = X_L\) is added to the circuit the power factor becomes \(P_2\). The ratio of \(P_1\) to \(P_2\) will be :

  • (A) \(1:3\)
  • (B) \(1:\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(1:1\)
  • (D) \(1:2\)

Question 40:

When a beam of white light is allowed to pass through convex lens parallel to principle axis, the different colors of light converge at different point on the principle axis after refraction. This is called

  • (A) scattering
  • (B) chromatic aberration
  • (C) spherical aberration
  • (D) polarisation

Question 41:

In Young's double slit experiment, following figure shows that \(Q\) is the position of second bright fringe on the right side of point \(O\). \(P\) is the eleventh bright fringe on the other side measured from point \(Q\). If the wavelength of light used is \(6000\) Å, then what will be the value of \(S_1B\)?

  • (A) \(3.142\times 10^{-7}\) m
  • (B) \(3.138\times 10^{-7}\) m
  • (C) \(6.6\times 10^{-6}\) m
  • (D) \(5.4\times 10^{-6}\) m

Question 42:

'n' polarizing sheets are arranged such that each makes an angle \(45^{\circ}\) with the preceding sheet. An unpolarized light of intensity \(I\) is incident into this arrangement. The output intensity is found to be \(I/64\). The value of \(n\) will be

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 43:

In Young's double slit experiment, two slits \(S_1\) and \(S_2\) are 'd' distance apart and the separation from slits to screen is \(D\). Now if two transparent slabs of equal thickness \(0.1\) mm but refractive index \(1.51\) and \(1.55\) are introduced in the path of beam (\(λ = 4000\) Å) from \(S_1\) and \(S_2\) respectively. The central bright fringe spot will shift by ___ number of fringes.

  • (A) \(5\)
  • (B) \(10\)
  • (C) \(15\)
  • (D) \(20\)

Question 44:

The threshold frequency of metal is \(f_0\). When the light of frequency \(2f_0\) is incident on the metal plate, the maximum velocity of photoelectron is \(v_1\). When the frequency of incident radiation is increased to \(5f_0\) the maximum velocity of photoelectrons emitted is \(v_2\). The ratio \(v_1\) to \(v_2\) is

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(1:8\)
  • (C) \(1:16\)
  • (D) \(1:4\)

Question 45:

An electron accelerated through a potential difference \(V_1\) has a de-Broglie wavelength of \(λ\). When the potential is changed to \(V_2\), its de-Broglie wavelength increases to \(2λ\). The value of \((V_1/V_2)\) is equal to

  • (A) \(3:1\)
  • (B) \(9:4\)
  • (C) \(3:2\)
  • (D) \(4:1\)

Question 46:

The wavelength of the radiation emitted is \(λ_0\) when an electron jumps from the second excited state to the first excited state of hydrogen atom. If the electron jumps from the third excited state to the second orbit of the hydrogen atom, the wavelength of the radiation emitted will be \((20λ_0/x)\). The value of \(x\) is

  • (A) \(17\)
  • (B) \(21\)
  • (C) \(27\)
  • (D) \(29\)

Question 47:

For hydrogen atom, \(λ_1\) and \(λ_2\) are the wavelengths corresponding to the transitions \(1\) and \(2\) respectively as shown in figure. The ratio of \(λ_1\) and \(λ_2\) is \(x/32\). The value of \(x\) is

  • (A) \(13\)
  • (B) \(27\)
  • (C) \(29\)
  • (D) \(35\)

Question 48:

A pure silicon crystal at temperature \(300\) K has electron and hole concentration (\(n_i\)) \(10^{16}\) per m\(^3\) each and \(10^{21}\) phosphorus atoms (\(n_e\)) are added per cubic metre. The new hole concentration in silicon crystal is

  • (A) \(10^{19}\) per m\(^3\)
  • (B) \(10^{21}\) per m\(^3\)
  • (C) \(10^5\) per m\(^3\)
  • (D) \(10^{11}\) per m\(^3\)

Question 49:

If transistor having \(α = 0.9\), is used in CE configuration, then for a change of \(0.4\) mA in base current, what will be the change in collector current?

  • (A) \(3.6\) mA
  • (B) \(4\) mA
  • (C) \(0.9\) mA
  • (D) \(36\) mA

Question 50:

Choose the correct statement about Zener diode:

  • (A) It works as a voltage regulator in reverse bias and behaves like simple pn junction diode in forward bias.
  • (B) It works as a voltage regulator in both forward and reverse bias.
  • (C) It works a voltage regulator only in forward bias.
  • (D) It works as a voltage regulator in forward bias and behaves like simple pn junction diode in reverse bias.

Chemistry Section (Questions 51 to 100)


Question 51:

\(1\) g of \(\text{H}_2\) contains the same number of molecules as in

  • (A) \(14\) g of \(\text{N}_2\)
  • (B) \(18\) g of \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\)
  • (C) \(16\) g of \(\text{CO}\)
  • (D) \(28\) g of \(\text{N}_2\)

Question 52:

If the energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of the H-atom is \(-2.18\times 10^{-18}\) J then the energy of the electron in the second orbit will be

  • (A) \(-2.18\times 10^{-18}\) J
  • (B) \(-4.36\times 10^{-18}\) J
  • (C) \(-0.545\times 10^{-18}\) J
  • (D) \(-0.273\times 10^{-18}\) J

Question 53:

In the compound \(^1\text{CH}_2 = ^2\text{CH}-^3\text{CH}_2-^4\text{CH}_2-^5\text{C}\equiv ^6\text{CH}\), The \(C_2-C_3\) bond is of type

  • (A) \(sp-sp^2\)
  • (B) \(sp^3-sp^3\)
  • (C) \(sp-sp^3\)
  • (D) \(sp^2-sp^3\)

Question 54:

A gas occupies a volume of \(0.35\) dm\(^3\) at \(290\) K and \(2\) atm. Pressure. Calculate the volume of gas at STP.

  • (A) \(3.11\) dm\(^3\)
  • (B) \(0.66\) dm\(^3\)
  • (C) \(0.11\) dm\(^3\)
  • (D) \(3.5\) dm\(^3\)

Question 55:

The enthalpy of combustion of cyclohexane, cyclohexene and \(\text{H}_2\) are respectively \(-3920,-3800\) and \(-241\) KJ mol\(^{-1}\). The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is

  • (A) \(-121\) KJ mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(+121\) KJ mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(-242\) KJ mol\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(+242\) KJ mol\(^{-1}\)

Question 56:

A gas expands from a volume of \(1\) dm\(^3\) to \(1.25\) dm\(^3\) under a pressure of \(1\) bar. Find the change in internal energy if \(150\) J of heat is supplied to the system.

  • (A) \(125\) J
  • (B) \(175\) J
  • (C) \(-125\) J
  • (D) \(-175\) J

Question 57:

In which of the following processes the internal energy of system remain constant?

  • (A) Isobaric Process
  • (B) Isochoric Process
  • (C) Isothermal Process
  • (D) Adiabatic Process

Question 58:

Match List I with List II

List I
(Buffers)
List II
(Applications)
(A) \(\text{HCO}_3^{-1}+\text{H}_2\text{CO}_3\)(I) Maintain the pH of blood forms \(7.36\) to \(7.42\)
(B) Phosphates(II) In Medicine
(C) Sodium Citrate(III) In Qualitative analysis of basic radicals
(D) \(\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}+\text{NH}_4\text{OH}\)(IV) In fertilizers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 59:

Find the pH of a solution formed by mixing equal volume of solution of \(0.1\) M sodium propionate and \(0.1\) molar propionic acid.
(Given The dissociation constant of propionic acid is \(1.3\times 10^{-5}\))

  • (A) \(2.45\)
  • (B) \(4.89\)
  • (C) \(5.98\)
  • (D) \(6.89\)

Question 60:

What is the concentration of hydrogen ion in the solution when the concentration of hydroxyl ion is \(0.08\) mol / dm\(^3\) at \(298\) K ?

  • (A) \(0.125\) mol/L
  • (B) \(0.125\times 10^{-12}\) mol/L
  • (C) \(0.0125\) mol/L
  • (D) \(0.125\times 10^{-10}\) mol/L

Question 61:

What is oxidation state of oxygen in \(\text{OF}_2\) and in \(\text{KO}_2\) respectively?

  • (A) \(+2\) and \(+1\)
  • (B) \(+2\) and \(-1/2\)
  • (C) \(+1\) and \(-1/2\)
  • (D) \(-2\) and \(-1\)

Question 62:

Which of the following ions are responsible for hardness of water?

  • (A) \(\text{Ag}^+,\text{Au}^{3+}\) ions
  • (B) \(\text{Hg}^{2+},\text{Pb}^{2+}\) ions
  • (C) \(\text{Ca}^{2+}\) and \(\text{Mg}^{2+}\) ions.
  • (D) \(\text{As}^{3+},\text{CN}^-\)

Question 63:

Identify the elements of alkali metals and alkaline earth metals respectively having highest 1st ionization enthalpy.

  • (A) \(\text{K}\) and \(\text{Ca}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Li}\) and \(\text{Be}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Rb}\) and \(\text{Ba}\)
  • (D) \(\text{K}\) and \(\text{Sr}\)

Question 64:

What is the nature of \(\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3\)?

  • (A) Acidic
  • (B) Basic
  • (C) Amphoteric
  • (D) Neutral

Question 65:

Which of the following is correct decreasing order of acidic strength for the compounds listed below?
I: p-chlorophenol, II: p-Cresol, III: p-nitrophenol, IV: p-methoxyphenol.

  • (A) II \(>\) IV \(>\) I \(>\) III
  • (B) I \(>\) II \(>\) III \(>\) IV
  • (C) III \(>\) I \(>\) II \(>\) IV
  • (D) IV \(>\) III \(>\) I \(>\) II

Question 66:

Among the following, the most stable carbocation is

  • (A) \(\text{CH}_3^+\)
  • (B) \((\text{CH}_3)_2\text{CH}^+\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_3\text{-CH}_2^+\)
  • (D) \((\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C}^+\)

Question 67:

What is the product of decarboxylation of anhydrous sodium benzoate?

  • (A) Benzene
  • (B) Cyclohexane
  • (C) Benzene hexachloride
  • (D) Chlorobenzene

Question 68:

An ionic compound is formed by elements X and Y. Element Y forms a face-centered cubic (FCC) lattice, and element X occupies one-third of the tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?

  • (A) \(X_2Y_3\)
  • (B) \(XY\)
  • (C) \(XY_3\)
  • (D) \(X_2Y\)

Question 69:

A metal crystallizes to form simple cubic unit cell. Calculate the void volume of unit cell. [\(a = 3.36\times 10^{-8}\) cm]

  • (A) \(1.807\times 10^{-23}\) cm\(^3\).
  • (B) \(1.214\times 10^{-23}\) cm\(^3\).
  • (C) \(3.662\times 10^{-23}\) cm\(^3\).
  • (D) \(1.986\times 10^{-23}\) cm\(^3\).

Question 70:

Which from following ionic crystals exhibits Frenkel defect?

  • (A) \(\text{ZnS}\)
  • (B) \(\text{NaCl}\)
  • (C) \(\text{KCl}\)
  • (D) \(\text{KBr}\)

Question 71:

An aqueous solution has an osmotic pressure of \(4.92\) atm at \(300\) K.
Calculate the molarity of the solution.
(\(R = 0.082\) L atm mol\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(0.1\) M
  • (B) \(0.2\) M
  • (C) \(0.25\) M
  • (D) \(0.4\) M

Question 72:

A solution is prepared by dissolving \(68\) g sucrose in \(1\) kg water. Calculate the vapour pressure of solution at \(298\) K. [vapour pressure of water at \(298\) K = \(18\) mm of Hg & mole fraction of solvent = \(0.9964\)]

  • (A) \(17.93\) mm Hg
  • (B) \(17.80\) mm Hg
  • (C) \(17.76\) mm Hg
  • (D) \(17.68\) mm Hg

Question 73:

Which of the following statements is NOT true about solubility?

  • (A) The solubility of gases in water usually decreases with increase of temperature.
  • (B) The solubility of gases in water usually increases with increase in pressure.
  • (C) The substances having similar inter-molecular forces are likely to be soluble in each other.
  • (D) Gases like \(\text{NH}_3\) and \(\text{CO}_2\) obey Henry's law

Question 74:

Which of the following reaction is possible at anode?

  • (A) \(\text{F}_2+2e^-\rightarrow 2\text{F}^-\)
  • (B) \(2\text{H}^++\frac{1}{2}\text{O}_2+2e^-\rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{O}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Fe}^{2+}\rightarrow \text{Fe}^{3+}+1e^-\)
  • (D) \(\text{Cu}^{2+}+2e^-\rightarrow \text{Cu}(s)\)

Question 75:

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cathode of electrochemical cell ?

  • (A) Oxidation occurs at the cathode
  • (B) Reduction occurs at cathode
  • (C) Usually denoted by a negative sign
  • (D) Is usually made up of non conducting material.

Question 76:

Which of the following solutions will have the highest electrical conductivity?

  • (A) Distilled water
  • (B) Sugar solution
  • (C) Salt solution
  • (D) Alcohol solution

Question 77:

A first order reaction takes \(16\) minutes for it's \(50\%\) completion. What fraction that would react in \(32\) minutes from the beginning?

  • (A) \(1/2\)
  • (B) \(1/4\)
  • (C) \(1/8\)
  • (D) \(3/4\)

Question 78:

The half-life of a first-order reaction is \(20\) minutes. What is the rate constant (in min\(^{-1}\)) for this reaction?

  • (A) \(0.0347\)
  • (B) \(0.5\)
  • (C) \(13.86\)
  • (D) \(34.67\)

Question 79:

The rate constant of a reaction is \(k = 3.28\times 10^{-4}\) s\(^{-1}\). Find the order of the reaction.

  • (A) Zero order
  • (B) First order
  • (C) Second order
  • (D) Third order

Question 80:

Which of the following is a water-in-oil type of emulsion?

  • (A) Milk
  • (B) Vanishing Cream
  • (C) Paint
  • (D) Butter

Question 81:

What is O-O bond length in ozone ?

  • (A) \(178\) pm
  • (B) \(128\) pm
  • (C) \(256\) pm
  • (D) \(483\) pm

Question 82:

Which of the following ions exhibit same value of spin only magnetic moment?
(A). \(\text{Ti}^{3+}\)
(B). \(\text{Cr}^{3+}\)
(C). \(\text{Mn}^{2+}\)
(D). \(\text{Fe}^{3+}\)
(E). \(\text{Sc}^{3+}\)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (A) (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A) and (E) only
  • (C) (C) and (D) only
  • (D) (A) and (D) only

Question 83:

Which of the following cations in their oxidation states forms colored compounds ?

  • (A) \(\text{Sc}^{3+}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Ti}^{4+}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Cu}^+\)
  • (D) \(\text{V}^{3+}\)

Question 84:

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to \([\text{Mn(CN)}_6]^{3-}\) ?

  • (A) It is \(sp^3d^2\) hybridised and tetrahedral.
  • (B) It is \(d^2sp^3\) hybridised and octahedral.
  • (C) It is \(dsp^2\) hybridised and square planar
  • (D) It is \(sp^3d^2\) hybridised and octahedral.

Question 85:

What is the importance of Sandmeyer's reaction?

  • (A) To obtain R-I from R-Cl
  • (B) To obtain Ar-X by replacing diazo group of \(\text{AR-N}_2^+\text{-X}^-\) using \(\text{CuCl}\) / \(\text{HCl}\)
  • (C) To obtain R-F from R-Cl using AgF
  • (D) To obtain \(\text{R-CH}_2\text{-R}\) from R-CO-R using Zn-Hg / HCl

Question 86:

Which of the following favors \(\text{SN}^1\) reaction?

  • (A) Strong nucleophile
  • (B) Non - Polar solvent
  • (C) Bulky alkyl groups on the carbon atom attached to halogen atom
  • (D) Small alkyl groups on the carbon atom attached to halogen atom

Question 87:

How many moles of hydrogen are liberated when \(6\) moles of ethyl alcohol reacts with sodium metal?

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(6\)

Question 88:

Find the order of formation of alcohol from alkene from the following.

  • (A) \(3^{\circ} > 1^{\circ} > 2^{\circ}\)
  • (B) \(3^{\circ} > 2^{\circ} > 1^{\circ}\)
  • (C) \(1^{\circ} > 2^{\circ} > 3^{\circ}\)
  • (D) \(1^{\circ} > 3^{\circ} > 2^{\circ}\)

Question 89:

Which of the following compounds dose NOT respond positively to the iodoform test ?

  • (A) Acetaldehyde
  • (B) Propan-2-ol
  • (C) Propanone
  • (D) Pentan-3-one

Question 90:

Which of the following compounds can not form iodoform?

  • (A) Ethyl methyl ketone
  • (B) Isopropyl alcohol
  • (C) 3-Methyl - 2- butanone
  • (D) Isobutyl alcohol

Question 91:

Which is a weakest acid among the following ?

  • (A) \((\text{CH}_3)_2\text{CHCOOH}\)
  • (B) \(\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}\)
  • (C) \(\text{ClCH}_2\text{COOH}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Cl}_3\text{CCOOH}\)

Question 92:

Which of the following amines is not obtained by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?

  • (A) Aniline
  • (B) Benzyl amine
  • (C) Methyl amine
  • (D) Isobutyl amine

Question 93:

What type of amine is Iso propyl amine ?

  • (A) primary amine
  • (B) secondary amine
  • (C) tertiary amine
  • (D) quaternary ammonium salt

Question 94:

What is the correct sequence of the complementary strand for the given portion of a DNA molecule:- 5' - G A C G T A C -3' ?

  • (A) 3' - T T G C A T G - 5'
  • (B) 3' - C T G C A T C - 5'
  • (C) 3' - C T G C A T G - 5'
  • (D) 3' - C T G T A T G - 5'

Question 95:

Which of the following compounds forms starch on polymerization?

  • (A) \(α\)-D-glucose.
  • (B) \(β\)-D-glucose.
  • (C) \(α\)-L-glucose
  • (D) \(β\)-L-glucose

Question 96:

Name the catalyst used in the manufacture of HDPE polymer.

  • (A) Triethyl aluminum with titanium tetrachloride
  • (B) Triethyl aluminum with zinc chloride
  • (C) Triethyl aluminum with nickel chloride
  • (D) Triethyl aluminum with stannic chloride

Question 97:

Identify the polymer obtained by addition polymerization method from following.

  • (A) Nylon 6
  • (B) Dacron
  • (C) Polythene
  • (D) Nylon 6,6

Question 98:

Which of the following is chain growth polymer?

  • (A) Nylon-6
  • (B) Teflon
  • (C) Nylon-66
  • (D) Terylene

Question 99:

Identify the use of Formalin from the followings.

  • (A) Preservation of biological and anatomical specimens
  • (B) Disinfectant
  • (C) Beverage
  • (D) Antiseptic

Question 100:

Identify the term used for drugs that reduce or relieve pain without causing loss of consciousness.

  • (A) Analgesic
  • (B) Antipyretic
  • (C) Antibiotic
  • (D) Antimicrobial

Mathematics Section (Questions 101 to 150)


Question 101:

The quadratic polynomial \(p(x)\) has roots \(1\) and \(α\), while quadratic polynomial \(q(x)\) has roots \(1\) and \(β\). Let \(α\) and \(β\) be the roots of \(r(x) = p(x)+q(x)\). Then \(\underset{x\rightarrow \infty }{lim}[\sqrt{p(x)}-\sqrt{q(x)}] =\)

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 102:

If \(x = \sqrt{-1-\sqrt{-1-\sqrt{-1-\ldots \infty }}}\), where \(ω\) is a non-real complex cube root of unity, then the value of \(x\) is...

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(-ω\)
  • (D) \(ω^2\)

Question 103:

If \(sin3α = 4sinα\cdot sin(x+α)\cdot sin(x-α)\) where \(α\neq nπ,n\in Z\), then all possible values of \(x\) are given as

  • (A) \(x = nπ\pm \frac{π}{3},n\in Z\)
  • (B) \(x = nπ\pm \frac{π}{4},n\in Z\)
  • (C) \(x = nπ\pm \frac{π}{6},n\in Z\)
  • (D) \(x = nπ\pm \frac{π}{2},n\in Z\)

Question 104:

If \(cos(θ-α) = a\) and \(sin(θ-β) = b\), then the value of \(cos^2(α-β)+2absin(α-β)+cos^2(θ-α)\) is...

  • (A) \(a^2-2b^2\)
  • (B) \(a^2+2b^2\)
  • (C) \(2a^2-b^2\)
  • (D) \(2a^2+b^2\)

Question 105:

The general solution of \(cosθ-sinθ = 1\) is

  • (A) \(θ = 2nπ-\frac{π}{2}\) or \(θ = 2nπ,n\in Z\)
  • (B) \(θ = nπ-\frac{π}{2}\) or \(θ = nπ,n\in Z\)
  • (C) \(θ = n\frac{π}{2}-π\) or \(θ = n\frac{π}{2},n\in Z\)
  • (D) \(θ = 2nπ+\frac{π}{2}\) or \(θ = nπ,n\in Z\)

Question 106:

The equation of the straight line passing through the point \((-5,3)\) such that the portion of the line intercepted between the axes is divided by the point in the ratio \(4:3\) (from the X-axis to the Y-axis) is...

  • (A) \(9x+20y+105 = 0\)
  • (B) \(9x-20y-105 = 0\)
  • (C) \(9x-20y+105 = 0\)
  • (D) \(9x+20y-105 = 0\)

Question 107:

If the equation \(kx^2-5xy+6y^2+x-3y = 0\) represents a pair of straight lines, then the co-ordinates of their point of intersection are

  • (A) \((-3,-1)\)
  • (B) \((-3,1)\)
  • (C) \((3,-1)\)
  • (D) \((3,1)\)

Question 108:

The pair of straight lines represented by the equation \(\sqrt{3}x^2-4xy+\sqrt{3}y^2 = 0\) are

  • (A) coincident.
  • (B) perpendicular.
  • (C) inclined at \(30^{\circ}\) to each other.
  • (D) inclined at \(60^{\circ}\) to each other.

Question 109:

The equation of the circle concentric with circle \(x^2+y^2-6x+7 = 0\) and which touches the line \(x+y+3 = 0\) is ....

  • (A) \(x^2+y^2-6x+9 = 0\)
  • (B) \(x^2+y^2-6x-9 = 0\)
  • (C) \(x^2+y^2-6x+3 = 0\)
  • (D) \(x^2+y^2-6x-3 = 0\)

Question 110:

The distance of the focus of the parabola \(y^2 = 16x\) from its directrix is...

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(8\)
  • (C) \(12\)
  • (D) \(16\)

Question 111:

The value of \(\underset{n\rightarrow \infty }{lim}\frac{(n+2)!+(n+1)!}{(n+2)!-(n+1)!}\) is ____

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 112:

If the truth value of the compound statement
\([(p∨q)∧(q\rightarrow r)∧(\sim r)]\rightarrow (p∧q)\) is false, then the truth values of \(p\rightarrow q\) and \(q\rightarrow p\) are respectively...

  • (A) \((F,T)\)
  • (B) \((T,F)\)
  • (C) \((T,T)\)
  • (D) \((F,F)\)

Question 113:

Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to \(\sim (p\leftrightarrow q)\) ?

  • (A) \(\sim p\rightarrow q\)
  • (B) \(\sim p\leftrightarrow \sim q\)
  • (C) \(\sim (q\rightarrow \sim p)\)
  • (D) \(p\leftrightarrow \sim q\)

Question 114:

If \(A = [\begin{array}{cc}secθ & -tanθ \\ -tanθ & secθ\end{array}]\), \(θ\in (0,\frac{π}{2})\) such that \(A+adj\,A = 4I\), then \(θ =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{12}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{6}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{4}\)

Question 115:

The element in 1st row and 2nd column of the inverse of the matrix \(\left[ \begin{array}{ccc}1 & 3 & -2 \\ -3 & 0 & -5 \\ 2 & 5 & 0\end{array} \right]\) is ...

  • (A) \(-\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{10}{3}\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{2}{25}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{25}\)

Question 116:

If \(y = tan^{-1}(\frac{1}{x^2+x+1})+tan^{-1}(\frac{1}{x^2+3x+3})+tan^{-1}(\frac{1}{x^2+5x+7})+\ldots\) upto \(n\) terms, then \(y^'(0) =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{n^2}{n^2+1}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{n^2}{n^2+1}\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{n^2+1}\)

Question 117:

Let \(f(x) = (sin^{-1}x)^2+(cos^{-1}x)^2\) be a real-valued function defined on its domain. Then the sum of the greatest and the least values of \(f(x)\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{π^2}{8}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{11π^2}{8}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3π^2}{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{7π^2}{8}\)

Question 118:

The value of \(\frac{tan^{-1}(1)+cos^{-1}(\frac{1}{2})+sin^{-1}(\frac{1}{2})}{tan^{-1}(\sqrt{3})-sec^{-1}(-2)}\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{-1}{3}\)
  • (C) \(-4\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-9}{4}\)

Question 119:

If \(g(x)\) is the inverse function of \(f(x)\), where \(f(x) = \frac{5x+3}{4x-1}\), then \(g(1) =\)

  • (A) \(-4\)
  • (B) \(\frac{-1}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3}{8}\)

Question 120:

If \(f(x)\) is continuous at \(x = 0\), where \(f(x) = \frac{8^x-2^x}{k^x-1}\), for \(x\neq 0\) and \(f(0) = 2\), then the value of \(k\) is ...

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(-2\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 121:

\(\frac{d}{dx}[sin^2\{cot^{-1}\sqrt{\frac{1-x}{1+x}}\}] =\) ...

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 122:

If \(f(x) = \sqrt{x^2+1},g(x) = \frac{x+1}{x^2+1},h(x) = 2x-3\), then \(f^'(h^'(g^'(x))) =\)

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^2+1}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2+1}}\)

Question 123:

If \(\sqrt{y+x}+\sqrt{y-x} = c\) such that \(\frac{dy}{dx} = f(x)-\sqrt{[f(x)]^2-1}\), then \(f(x) =\) ____

  • (A) \(\frac{y}{x}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{x}{y}\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{y}{x}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{x}{y}\)

Question 124:

If Rolle's theorem is applicable for the function \(f(x) = log(\frac{x^2+a}{x})\) on \([3,4]\) with \(c\in (3,4)\) such that \(f^'(c) = 0\), then the value of \(f^{''}(c)\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{48}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{36}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{24}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{12}\)

Question 125:

If the tangent to the curve \(2y^3 = x^3+ax^2\) at the point \((a,a)\) cuts off intercepts \(α\) and \(β\) on the coordinate axes such that \(α^2+β^2 = 61\), then the value of \(a\) is

  • (A) \(\pm 61\)
  • (B) \(\pm 36\)
  • (C) \(\pm 30\)
  • (D) \(\pm 25\)

Question 126:

Let \(f(x)\) be the differentiable function for all \(x\) such that \(f^'(x)\leq 5\) and \(f(1) = 4\). The maximum value of \(f(5)\) is...

  • (A) \(16\)
  • (B) \(20\)
  • (C) \(24\)
  • (D) \(25\)

Question 127:

If \(\int x^2\cdot e^xdx = e^xf(x)+c\), then the minimum value of \(f(x)\) is ...

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-1}{4}\)

Question 128:

\(\int \frac{(x+1)}{x(1+xe^x)^2}dx =\)

  • (A) \(-log(\frac{xe^x}{1+xe^x})+\frac{1}{(1+xe^x)}+c\)
  • (B) \(log(\frac{xe^x}{1+xe^x})+\frac{1}{(1+xe^x)}+c\)
  • (C) \(log(\frac{1+xe^x}{xe^x})+(1+xe^x)+c\)
  • (D) \(-log(\frac{xe^x}{1+xe^x})-\frac{1}{(1+xe^x)}+c\)

Question 129:

If \(\int \frac{x+1}{x^2+1}dx = tan^{-1}x+g(x)+c\), where \(c\) is constant of integration, then the function \(g(x)\) is monotonically increasing in the interval

  • (A) \(R^+\)
  • (B) \(R^-\)
  • (C) \(R\)
  • (D) \(R-\{0\}\)

Question 130:

\(\int \sqrt{1+sinx}\,dx\) is equal to

  • (A) \(2\sqrt{2}sin(\frac{x}{2}-\frac{π}{4})+c\)
  • (B) \(2\sqrt{2}sin(\frac{x}{2}+\frac{π}{4})+c\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{2}sin(\frac{x}{2}-\frac{π}{4})+c\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{2}sin(\frac{x}{2}+\frac{π}{4})+c\)

Question 131:

If \(\int _0^a(x^2-4x+1)dx = 6\), then the real value of \(a\) is

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(-3\)

Question 132:

If \(\int _{π/6}^{π/3}\frac{1}{1+sinx+cosx}dx = log2\), then the value of \(\int _{π/6}^{π/3}\frac{cosx}{1+sinx+cosx}dx =\) ............

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{12}-\frac{1}{2}log2\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{12}-\frac{1}{3}log2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{6}-\frac{1}{2}log2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{12}-\frac{1}{4}log2\)

Question 133:

The area of the region bounded by the curve \(y = 2^{kx}\) and \(x = 0,x = 2\), in first quadrant is \(\frac{2}{log2}\), then the value of \(k\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 134:

The area of the region bounded by the curve \(y = x^3\) and the lines \(y = 8\) and \(x = 0\) is ... square units.

  • (A) \(8\)
  • (B) \(12\)
  • (C) \(16\)
  • (D) \(10\)

Question 135:

The differential equation of \(3y = \sqrt[3]{x+c}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{9y^2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{27y^2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{81y^2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{36y^2}\)

Question 136:

The general solution of the differential equation \((x+y)\frac{dy}{dx} = 1\) is

  • (A) \(x+y+1 = c\), where \(c\) is a constant of integration
  • (B) \(x+y+1 = ce^y\), where \(c\) is a constant of integration
  • (C) \(x+y+1 = ce^{-y}\), where \(c\) is a constant of integration
  • (D) \(x+y-1 = ce^{-y}\), where \(c\) is a constant of integration

Question 137:

A body cools according to Newton's law of cooling from \(100^{\circ}\)C to \(60^{\circ}\)C in \(20\) minutes. The temperature of the surroundings being \(20^{\circ}\)C, then the total time required for the body to cool down to \(30^{\circ}\)C is

  • (A) \(90\) minutes
  • (B) \(1\) hour and \(10\) minutes
  • (C) \(80\) minutes
  • (D) \(60\) minutes

Question 138:

If \(\overset{̄}{a} = \hat{i}+\hat{j}\) and \(\overset{̄}{b} = \hat{i}-\hat{k}\), then the point of intersection of the lines \(\overset{̄}{r}\times \overset{̄}{a} = \overset{̄}{b}\times \overset{̄}{a}\) and \(\overset{̄}{r}\times \overset{̄}{b} = \overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{b}\) is

  • (A) \((2,1,-1)\)
  • (B) \((2,-1,1)\)
  • (C) \((0,1,1)\)
  • (D) \((0,-1,1)\)

Question 139:

If \(\overset{̄}{a}\) and \(\overset{̄}{b}\) have the same magnitude and angle between them is \(60^{\circ}\) and their scalar product is \(\frac{1}{2}\), then \(|\overset{̄}{a}|\) is ____

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(7\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 140:

If \(\overset{̄}{a} = \hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k},\overset{̄}{b} = \hat{i},\overset{̄}{c} = c_1\hat{i}+c_2\hat{j}+c_3\hat{k}\) with \(c_1 = 1\), \(c_2 = 2\), then value of \(c_3\) such that \(\overset{̄}{a},\overset{̄}{b},\overset{̄}{c}\) are coplanar is ____

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(-2\)

Question 141:

If \(\overset{̄}{a},\overset{̄}{b}\) and \(\overset{̄}{c}\) are non-coplanar unit vectors such that the angle between any two of them is \(60^{\circ}\), and the vector \(\overset{̄}{d} = x\overset{̄}{a}+y\overset{̄}{b}+z\overset{̄}{c}\) is perpendicular to both \(\overset{̄}{a}\) and \(\overset{̄}{b}\), then the value of \(\frac{(x+y)}{z}\) is

  • (A) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (C) \(-1\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 142:

If \(\overset{̄}{a},\overset{̄}{b},\overset{̄}{c}\) are three non zero and non-coplanar vectors such that \(\overset{̄}{a}\times (\overset{̄}{b}\times \overset{̄}{c}) = \frac{\overset{̄}{b}}{2}\), then the angle between \(\overset{̄}{a}\) and \(\overset{̄}{b}\) is ...

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{6}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{2}\)
  • (D) \(π\)

Question 143:

The vector equation of the plane which is at a distance of \(5\) units from the origin and normal to the vector \(2\hat{i}+\hat{j}-2\hat{k}\) is

  • (A) \(\overset{⃗}{r}\cdot (2\hat{i}+\hat{j}-2\hat{k}) = 12\)
  • (B) \(\overset{⃗}{r}\cdot (2\hat{i}+\hat{j}-2\hat{k}) = 15\)
  • (C) \(\overset{⃗}{r}\cdot (2\hat{i}+\hat{j}-2\hat{k}) = 9\)
  • (D) \(\overset{⃗}{r}\cdot (2\hat{i}+\hat{j}-2\hat{k}) = 18\)

Question 144:

The equation of a line passing through a point \((4,-2,3)\) and perpendicular to the XZ-plane is....

  • (A) \(\overset{̄}{r} = (4\hat{i}-2\hat{j}+3\hat{k})+λ(\hat{i}+\hat{k})\)
  • (B) \(\overset{̄}{r} = (4\hat{i}-2\hat{j}+3\hat{k})+λ(\hat{i})\)
  • (C) \(\overset{̄}{r} = (4\hat{i}-2\hat{j}+3\hat{k})+λ(\hat{j})\)
  • (D) \(\overset{̄}{r} = (4\hat{i}-2\hat{j}+3\hat{k})+λ(\hat{i}-\hat{k})\)

Question 145:

The equation of the plane passing through the intersection of planes \(2x-y+z = 3\), \(4x-3y+5z = -9\) and parallel to the line \(\frac{x+1}{2} = \frac{y+3}{4} = \frac{z-3}{5}\) is...

  • (A) \(11x-3y-2z-54 = 0\)
  • (B) \(11x+3y-2z-54 = 0\)
  • (C) \(11x-3y+2z-54 = 0\)
  • (D) \(11x-3y-2z+54 = 0\)

Question 146:

If a line makes angles \(α,β,γ\) with the coordinate axes, then the sum of values of \(sin^2α+sin^2β+sin^2γ\) and \(cos2α+cos2β+cos2γ\) is ...

  • (A) \(5\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 147:

The difference between the maximum value and minimum value of the objective function \(z = 3x+5y\) of a linear programming problem subject to constraints \(5x+10y\leq 50\), \(x+y\geq 1\), \(y\leq 4\) and \(x\geq 0,y\geq 0\) is \(3λ\). Then the value of \(λ\) is

  • (A) \(3\).
  • (B) \(6\).
  • (C) \(9\).
  • (D) \(27\).

Question 148:

In a multiple-choice examination, there are \(10\) questions with one correct option out of \(4\) options for each question. A student gets \(4\) marks for each correct answer and \(1\) mark is deducted for each incorrect answer. The probability that a student, guessing randomly on every question, scores \(30\) marks in this exam is...

  • (A) \(\frac{45}{4^{10}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{135}{4^{10}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{405}{4^{10}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{810}{4^{10}}\)

Question 149:

It is known that a box of \(8\) batteries contains \(3\) defective pieces and a person randomly selects \(2\) batteries from this box. Then the probability distribution of the number of defective batteries is

  • (A)
    \(X = x\)\(0\)\(1\)\(2\)
    \(P(X = x)\)\(\frac{10}{28}\)\(\frac{15}{28}\)\(\frac{3}{28}\)
  • (B)
    \(X = x\)\(1\)\(2\)\(3\)
    \(P(X = x)\)\(\frac{10}{28}\)\(\frac{15}{28}\)\(\frac{3}{28}\)
  • (C)
    \(X = x\)\(0\)\(1\)\(2\)
    \(P(X = x)\)\(\frac{15}{28}\)\(\frac{10}{28}\)\(\frac{3}{28}\)
  • (D)
    \(X = x\)\(1\)\(2\)\(3\)
    \(P(X = x)\)\(\frac{15}{28}\)\(\frac{10}{28}\)\(\frac{3}{28}\)

Question 150:

A certain disease has a prevalence of \(1\%\) in the population. A diagnostic test for the disease has a sensitivity of \(98\%\) and a specificity of \(95\%\). If a person from this population tests positive, then the probability that they actually have the disease is...

  • (A) \(98\%\)
  • (B) \(95\%\)
  • (C) \(16.5\%\)
  • (D) \(1\%\)

MHT CET PCM Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT-CET 2026 Exam Strategy