MHT CET 2026 April 16 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted the MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on April 16 in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 12 PM in CBT mode.

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Also Check: Expected Percentile for MHT CET 2026 April 16 Shift 1

Download MHT CET 2026 April 16 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper with Solutions PDF from the links provided below.

MHT CET 2026 April 16 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper PDF (Memory-Based) 

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MHT CET 2026 April 16 Shift 1 PCM Questions with Solutions

Physics Section (Questions 1 to 50)

Question 1:

A wire has mass \((0.3\pm 0.003)\) gram, radius \((0.5\pm 0.005)\) cm and length \((6\pm 0.06)\) cm. The maximum percentage error in the measurement of density is

  • (A) \(2\,\%\)
  • (B) \(3\,\%\)
  • (C) \(4\,\%\)
  • (D) \(5\,\%\)

Question 2:

Let \(\overset{⃗}{P} = \hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}\) and \(\overset{⃗}{Q} = -(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k})\). The angle between \((\overset{⃗}{P}-\overset{⃗}{Q})\) and \(\overset{⃗}{P}\) is

  • (A) \(90^{\circ}\)
  • (B) \(60^{\circ}\)
  • (C) \(0^{\circ}\)
  • (D) \(30^{\circ}\)

Question 3:

A ball is released from height 'h' which makes perfectly elastic collision with ground. The frequency of periodic vibratory motion is (g=acceleration due to gravity)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{\frac{g}{2h}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2π}\sqrt{\frac{g}{2h}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2π}\sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}}\)

Question 4:

Two boys are standing at points A and B on ground where distance AB = a. The boy at point B starts running perpendicular to line AB with velocity '\(V_1\)'. The boy at point A starts running simultaneously with velocity 'V' and catches the other boy in time 't'. The value of 't' is

  • (A) \([\frac{a^2}{(V^2-V_1^2)}]^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (B) \([\frac{a^2}{(V_1^2-V^2)}]^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (C) \([\frac{a^2}{(V^2-V_1^2)}]\)
  • (D) \([\frac{a^2}{(V_1^2-V^2)}]\)

Question 5:

A particle is moving with constant angular acceleration \(4\,\text{rad/s}^2\) in circular path. At what time the magnitudes of its tangential acceleration and centripetal acceleration will be equal ?

  • (A) \(0.2\) s
  • (B) \(0.4\) s
  • (C) \(0.5\) s
  • (D) \(0.6\) s

Question 6:

A particle describes a horizontal circle of radius 'r' in conical funnel with smooth inner surface with a speed of \(0.5\) m/s. The height of the plane of the circle from the vertex of the funnel is (acceleration due to gravity, \(g = 10\,\text{m/s}^2\))

  • (A) \(1.5\) cm
  • (B) \(2.5\) cm
  • (C) \(3.5\) cm
  • (D) \(0.5\) cm

Question 7:

A block of mass 'm' moving on a frictionless horizontal surface collides with a spring of spring constant 'K' and compresses it through a distance 'x'. The maximum momentum of the block after collision is

  • (A) zero
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\text{km}} x\)
  • (C) \(\text{mx}^2/\text{K}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Kx}^2/2\text{m}\)

Question 8:

A Solid sphere has mass M and radius R. Its moment of inertia about a parallel axis passing through a point at a distance R/3 from its centre is

  • (A) \(8\text{MR}^2/11\)
  • (B) \(11\text{MR}^2/15\)
  • (C) \(23\text{MR}^2/45\)
  • (D) \(13\text{MR}^2/20\)

Question 9:

The masses and radii of the earth and moon are \(M_1\), \(R_1\) and \(M_2\), \(R_2\) and respectively, Their centres are at a distance 'd' apart. The minimum speed with which body of mass 'm' should be projected from a distance \(2d/3\) from the centre of \(M_1\) so as to escape to infinity is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{6G}{d}(2M_1+M_2)}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{6G}{d}(M_1-2M_2)}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{3G}{d}(M_1+2M_2)}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{8G}{d}(M_1-2M_2)}\)

Question 10:

A rectangular block of mass 'm' and cross-sectional area 'A' floats on a liquid of density '\(ρ\)'. It is given a small vertical displacement from equilibrium, it starts oscillating with frequency (g=acceleration due to gravity)

  • (A) \(2π\sqrt{\frac{\text{m}}{\text{A}ρ\text{g}}}\)
  • (B) \(2π\sqrt{\frac{\text{A}ρ\text{g}}{\text{m}}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2π}\sqrt{\frac{\text{A}ρ\text{g}}{\text{m}}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2π}\sqrt{\frac{\text{m}}{\text{A}ρ\text{g}}}\)

Question 11:

A closed pipe containing liquid showed a pressure \(P_1\) by gauge. When the valve was opened, pressure was reduced to \(P_2\). The speed of water flowing out of the pipe is (\(ρ\)=density of water)

  • (A) \([\frac{(P_1-P_2)}{ρ}]^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (B) \([\frac{2(P_1-P_2)}{ρ}]^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (C) \([\frac{(P_2-P_1)}{ρ}]^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (D) \([\frac{2(P_2-P_1)}{ρ}]^{\frac{1}{2}}\)

Question 12:

Water flows through a horizontal pipe at a speed 'V'. Internal diameter of the pipe is 'd'. If the water is emerging at a speed '\(V_1\)' then the diameter of the nozzle is

  • (A) \(\text{d}\sqrt{\frac{\text{V}}{\text{V}_1}}\)
  • (B) \(\text{d}\sqrt{\frac{\text{V}_1}{\text{V}}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\text{dV}}{\text{V}_1}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\text{dV}_1}{\text{V}}\)

Question 13:

A liquid is at rest in a container. In a sphere of influence, the liquid molecule at its centre is

  • (A) attracted by other molecules in the sphere of influence.
  • (B) attracted by other molecules outside sphere of influence.
  • (C) repelled by other molecules outside the sphere of influence.
  • (D) repelled by other molecules in the sphere of influence.

Question 14:

Rate of flow of heat through a cylindrical rod is '\(H_1\)'. The temperature at the ends of the rod are \(T_1\) and \(T_2\). If all the dimensions of the rod become double and the temperature difference remains the same and if the rate of flow of heat becomes '\(H_2\)' then \(H_2 =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\text{H}_1}{2}\)
  • (B) \(4\text{H}_1\)
  • (C) \(2\text{H}_1\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\text{H}_1}{4}\)

Question 15:

The energy spectrum of a black body exhibits a maximum around a wavelength '\(λ\)'. The temperature of the black body is now changed such that the energy is maximum around a wavelength \(2λ/3\). The power radiated by the black body will now increase by a factor

  • (A) \(\frac{9}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{81}{16}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{27}{8}\)

Question 16:

A black rectangular surface of area 'A' emits energy 'E' per second at \(27^{\circ}\)C. If length and breadth is reduced to half of its initial value and temperature is raised to \(327^{\circ}\)C then energy emitted per second becomes

  • (A) \(2E\)
  • (B) \(4E\)
  • (C) \(8E\)
  • (D) \(16E\)

Question 17:

A monoatomic gas at pressure P having volume V expands isothermally to a volume 3V and then adiabatically to a volume 81 V. The final pressure of the gas is (\(γ = 5/3\)).

  • (A) \(\frac{\text{P}}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\text{P}}{(3)^2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\text{P}}{(3)^4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\text{P}}{(3)^6}\)

Question 18:

An ideal gas at \(27^{\circ}\)C is compressed adiabatically to \((\frac{8}{27})\) of its original volume. If \(γ = 5/3\), then the rise in temperature of a gas is

  • (A) \(300\) K
  • (B) \(675\) K
  • (C) \(375\) K
  • (D) \(27\) K

Question 19:

The translational kinetic energy of the molecules of a gas at absolute temperature (T) can be doubled by

  • (A) increasing T to 4 T
  • (B) increasing T to \(\sqrt{2}\) T
  • (C) decreasing T to T/2
  • (D) increasing T to 2T

Question 20:

For a particle P performing S.H.M., when displacement is 'x', potential energy and restoring force acting on it is denoted by 'E' and 'F' respectively. The relation between x, E and F is

  • (A) \(\frac{2\text{E}}{\text{F}}-x = 0\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2\text{E}}{\text{F}}+x = 0\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2\text{F}}{\text{x}}+\text{F} = 0\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2\text{E}}{\text{x}}-\text{F} = 0\)

Question 21:

A progressive wave of frequency 50 Hz is travelling with velocity 350 m/s through a medium. The change in phase at given time interval of 0.01s is

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{4}\,\text{rad}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{2}\,\text{rad}\)
  • (C) \(π\,\text{rad}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3π}{2}\,\text{rad}\)

Question 22:

When a sonometer wire vibrates in the third overtone, the number of antinodes and nodes formed on the wire are respectively

  • (A) \(4,5\)
  • (B) \(5,4\)
  • (C) \(3,4\)
  • (D) \(4,3\)

Question 23:

When the observer moves towards a stationary source with velocity '\(V_1\)', the apparent frequency of the emitted note is '\(F_1\)'. When the observer moves away from the source with velocity '\(V_1\)', the apparent frequency is '\(F_2\)'. If 'V' is the speed of sound in air and \(F_1/F_2 = 2\), then \(V/V_1 =\)

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 24:

The equation of wave motion is \(Y = 6sin(12πt-0.02πx+\frac{π}{3})\) where x is in metre and time in second. The velocity of the wave is

  • (A) \(200\) m/s
  • (B) \(300\) m/s
  • (C) \(400\) m/s
  • (D) \(600\) m/s

Question 25:

The electric field in the region is \(\overset{⃗}{E} = a\hat{i}+b\hat{j}\) where 'a' and 'b' are constants. The net electric flux passing through a square area of side 'l' parallel to Y-Z plane is

  • (A) \(al\)
  • (B) \(al^4\)
  • (C) \(al^6\)
  • (D) \(al^2\)

Question 26:

Two point charges \(q_1 = 6 μ\text{C}\) and \(q_2 = 4 μ\text{C}\) are kept at points A and B in air where distance \(AB = 10\) cm. What is the increase in potential energy of the system when \(q_2\) is moved towards \(q_1\), by 2 cm ? \((\frac{1}{4πε_0} = 9\times 10^9 \text{SI units})\)

  • (A) \(21.6\) J
  • (B) \(216\) J
  • (C) \(0.54\) J
  • (D) \(54\) J

Question 27:

The electric field between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 'E'. If the charge on the plates is Q then the force on each plate is

  • (A) \(\text{QE}^2\)
  • (B) \(\text{QE}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\text{QE}}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\text{QE}^2}{2}\)

Question 28:

Two condensers of capacities, '2C' and 'C' are joined in parallel and charged upto potential 'V'. The battery is then disconnected and condenser of capacity 'C' is filled completely with a medium of dielectric constant 'K'. The potential difference across the capacitors in the second case is

  • (A) \(\frac{3\text{V}}{(\text{K}+2)}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\text{V}}{(\text{K}+2)}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5\text{V}}{(\text{K}+2)}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2\text{V}}{(\text{K}+2)}\)

Question 29:

A potentiometer wire is 4m long and potential difference of 3V is maintained between the ends. The e.m.f. of the cell which balances against a length of 100 cm of the potentiometer wire is

  • (A) \(0.75\) V
  • (B) \(0.5\) V
  • (C) \(0.25\) V
  • (D) \(1.5\) V

Question 30:

A metre bridge experiment, the resistance in the left gap is \(20 \Omega\) and in the right gap is \(60 \Omega\). The bridge is balanced. The distance of the null point from the centre of the wire is

  • (A) \(50\) cm
  • (B) \(75\) cm
  • (C) \(25\) cm
  • (D) \(40\) cm

Question 31:

The magnetic moment produced in a sample of 2 gram is \(8\times 10^{-7}\,\text{A/m}^2\). If its density is \(4 \text{g/cm}^3\) then the magnetization of the sample is

  • (A) \(1.6\)
  • (B) \(1.2\)
  • (C) \(1.4\)
  • (D) \(1.8\)

Question 32:

A wire carrying current 'I' along x axis has length 'L' and it is kept in a magnetic field \(B(\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-2\hat{k})\) T. The magnitude of magnetic force acting on the wire is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{8}\,\text{ILB}\)
  • (B) \(2\,\text{ILB}\)
  • (C) \(4\,\text{ILB}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{2}\,\text{ILB}\)

Question 33:

A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field in a circular path of radius 'R'. When the energy of the particle becomes 3 times the original, the new radius will be

  • (A) \(R\)
  • (B) \(3R\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3}R\)
  • (D) \(R/3\)

Question 34:

Torque acting on a coil carrying current 'I' situated parallel to magnetic field of induction 'B' having of turns 'n' and area 'A' is

  • (A) \(\text{nI}(\overset{⃗}{A}\cdot \overset{⃗}{B})\)
  • (B) \(\text{nI}(\overset{⃗}{A}\times \overset{⃗}{B})\)
  • (C) \(\text{IBA}/\text{n}\)
  • (D) \(\text{nBA}/\text{I}\)

Question 35:

A metal rod of length 'L' completes the circuit as shown. The area of the circuit is perpendicular to magnetic field 'B'. Total resistance of the circuit is 'R'. The force needed to move the rod in the direction as shown with constant speed 'V' is

  • (A) \(\frac{\text{BVL}}{\text{R}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\text{B}^2\text{L}^2\text{V}}{\text{R}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\text{B}^2\text{L}^2\text{V}^2}{\text{R}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\text{BLV}^2}{\text{R}}\)

Question 36:

When a capacitor is connected in series LR circuit, the alternating current flowing in the circuit

  • (A) increases
  • (B) decreases
  • (C) remains constant
  • (D) is zero

Question 37:

With gradual increase in frequency of an a.c. supply, the impedance of an LCR series circuit

  • (A) increases
  • (B) decreases
  • (C) remains constant
  • (D) first decreases, becomes minimum and then increases

Question 38:

An alternating e.m.f. is given by \(e = e_0sinωt\). In what time the e.m.f. will have half its maximum value, if 'e' Starts from zero?

  • (A) \(\frac{\text{T}}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\text{T}}{8}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\text{T}}{12}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\text{T}}{16}\)

Question 39:

A step down transformer has turns ratio 20:1. If 8V are applied across \(0.4 \Omega\) secondary then the primary current will be

  • (A) \(0.5\) A
  • (B) \(1\) A
  • (C) \(2\) A
  • (D) \(4\) A

Question 40:

A simple microscope is used to see the object first in blue light and then in red light. Due to the change from blue to red light, what is the effect on its magnifying power?

  • (A) decreases
  • (B) increases
  • (C) remains constant
  • (D) first increase and then decreases

Question 41:

In Young's double slit experiment, the fringe width is 0.4 mm. What is the distance between \(4^{\text{th}}\) dark band and \(6^{\text{th}}\) bright band on the same side of the interference pattern?

  • (A) \(0.5\) mm
  • (B) \(0.75\) mm
  • (C) \(1.0\) mm
  • (D) \(1.5\) mm

Question 42:

The ratio of intensities at two points on the screen in Young's double slit experiment when waves from the two slits have a path difference of zero and \(λ/4\) is (\(λ\) is the wavelength of light used) (\(cos0^{\circ} = 1\), \(cosπ/2 = 0\))

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(2:1\)
  • (C) \(1:4\)
  • (D) \(4:1\)

Question 43:

In Young's double slit experiment, the distance between the slits is 3 mm and the slits are 2m away from the screen. Two interference patterns can be obtained on the screen due to light of wavelength 480 nm and 600 nm respectively. The separation on the screen between the \(5^{\text{th}}\) order bright fringes on two interference patterns is

  • (A) \(2\times 10^{-4}\,\text{m}\)
  • (B) \(1\times 10^{-4}\,\text{m}\)
  • (C) \(8\times 10^{-4}\,\text{m}\)
  • (D) \(4\times 10^{-4}\,\text{m}\)

Question 44:

For a photosensitive material, work function is '\(W_0\)' and stopping potential is 'V'. The wavelength of the incident radiation is (h=Planck's constant, c = velocity of light, e = electronic charge)

  • (A) \(\frac{\text{hc}}{(\text{W}_0-\text{eV})}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\text{hc}}{(\text{W}_0+\text{eV})}\)
  • (C) \(\text{hc}(\text{W}_0-\text{eV})\)
  • (D) \(\text{hc}(\text{W}_0+\text{eV})\)

Question 45:

Using Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graphical representation between the kinetic energy (E) of emitted Photoelectrons and the frequency of incident radiation (\(ν\)) is show correctly in figure

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 46:

The force acting on the electron in hydrogen atom (Bohr's theory) is related to the principal quantum number n as

  • (A) \(n^4\)
  • (B) \(n^{-4}\)
  • (C) \(n^2\)
  • (D) \(n^{-2}\)

Question 47:

Using Bohr's atomic model, the orbital period of electron in hydrogen atom in the \(n^{\text{th}}\) orbit is (\(ε_0\)=permittivity of free space, h=Planck's constant, m = mass of electron, e = electronic charge)

  • (A) \(\frac{4\,ε_0^2n^3h^3}{me^4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2ε_0^2n^2h^3}{me^2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4ε_0^2n^2h^3}{me^2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2ε_0n^3h^3}{me^4}\)

Question 48:

In a transistor amplifier, a change of 0.2 mA in the base current causes a change of 5 mA in the collector current. If input resistance is \(2 \text{k}\Omega\) and voltage gain is 75, the load resistance used in the circuit is

  • (A) \(4 \text{k}\Omega\)
  • (B) \(6 \text{k}\Omega\)
  • (C) \(8 \text{k}\Omega\)
  • (D) \(2 \text{k}\Omega\)

Question 49:

The resultant gate and its Boolean expression in the given circuit is

  • (A) $\text{AND}, \overline{\text{A} + \text{B}}$
  • (B) $\text{NAND}, \text{A} + \text{B}$
  • (C) $\text{OR}, \text{A} + \text{B}$
  • (D) $\text{NOR}, \text{A} - \text{B}$

Question 50:

When a small amount of impurity atoms are added to a semiconductor then generally its resistivity

  • (A) increases
  • (B) decreases
  • (C) does not change
  • (D) may increase or decrease depending upon the percentage of doping

Chemistry Section (Questions 51 to 100)


Question 51:

Calculate the amount of aluminium present in \(\text{Al}_2(\text{SO}_4)_3\) if the compound contains 4 g of sulfur.
[Molar mass of sulfur = 32 g/mol , Molar mass of Al =27 g/mol ]

  • (A) \(2.25\) g
  • (B) \(2.50\) g
  • (C) \(2.0\) g
  • (D) \(2.75\) g

Question 52:

What is the observed electronic configuration of Cu ?

  • (A) \([\text{Ar}] 3d^9 4s^2\)
  • (B) \([\text{Ar}] 3d^{10} 4s^1\)
  • (C) \([\text{Ar}] 3d^5 4s^2\)
  • (D) \([\text{Ar}] 3d^6 4s^2\)

Question 53:

What is the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom in a stationary state corresponding to n = 2 ?

  • (A) \(-5.45\times 10^{-19}\) J
  • (B) \(-2.40\times 10^{-19}\) J
  • (C) \(-4.35\times 10^{-18}\) J
  • (D) \(-6.70\times 10^{-18}\) J

Question 54:

Identify increasing order of acidity for following diprotic acids in aqueous solutions.

  • (A) \(\text{H}_2\text{S} < \text{H}_2\text{Se} < \text{H}_2\text{Te}\)
  • (B) \(\text{H}_2\text{Se} < \text{H}_2\text{S} < \text{H}_2\text{Te}\)
  • (C) \(\text{H}_2\text{Te} < \text{H}_2\text{S} < \text{H}_2\text{Se}\)
  • (D) \(\text{H}_2\text{Se} < \text{H}_2\text{Te} < \text{H}_2\text{S}\)

Question 55:

Which of the following molecules is paramagnetic?

  • (A) \(\text{Li}_2\)
  • (B) \(\text{N}_2\)
  • (C) \(\text{O}_2\)
  • (D) \(\text{F}_2\)

Question 56:

Which of the following statements is true about ideal gas ?

  • (A) It shows deviation from Boyle's law and Charles' law.
  • (B) Its molecules are not perfectly elastic.
  • (C) It does not exist.
  • (D) Intermolecular attraction is present in it, hence a collision takes place with loss of kinetic energy.

Question 57:

What is the change in entropy of surrounding for the reaction,
\(\text{H}_{2(g)}+1/2 \text{O}_{2(g)}\rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)}\)
at 298 K if standard enthalpy of formation of water is \(-286\) kJ ?

  • (A) \(959.7 \text{JK}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(801.5 \text{JK}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(850.7 \text{JK}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(980.0 \text{JK}^{-1}\)

Question 58:

In a particular reaction, 4 kJ heat is released by the system and 12 kJ work done on the system. Calculate the \(\Delta H\) and \(\Delta U\).

  • (A) \(\Delta H = 4\) kJ and \(\Delta U = 16\) kJ
  • (B) \(\Delta H = -4\) kJ and \(\Delta U = 8\) kJ
  • (C) \(\Delta H = -4\) kJ and \(\Delta U = -16\) kJ
  • (D) \(\Delta H = 4\) kJ and \(\Delta U = -16\) kJ

Question 59:

Which of the following relations is correct for a reaction \(\text{S}_{(s)}+\text{O}_{2(g)}\rightarrow \text{SO}_{2(g)}\) ?

  • (A) \(\Delta H > \Delta U\)
  • (B) \(\Delta H < \Delta U\)
  • (C) \(\Delta H = 0\)
  • (D) \(\Delta H = \Delta U\)

Question 60:

The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt BA is \(6.4\times 10^{-13}\). Calculate it's solubility in \(\text{g dm}^{-3}\) .
Molar mass of salt is \(190 \text{g mol}^{-1}\) .

  • (A) \(1.52\times 10^{-4}\)
  • (B) \(1.25\times 10^{-4}\)
  • (C) \(2.1\times 10^{-4}\)
  • (D) \(1.9\times 10^{-4}\)

Question 61:

The solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M NaCl is S mol/L. If the solubility product of AgCl is \(1.8\times 10^{-10}\), then S is approximately:

  • (A) \(1.8\times 10^{-9}\) M
  • (B) \(1.8\times 10^{-10}\) M
  • (C) \(1.8\times 10^{-11}\) M
  • (D) \(1.8\times 10^{-12}\) M

Question 62:

Identify from following a weak electrolyte based on their dissociation nature in aqueous medium.

  • (A) \(\text{NH}_3\)
  • (B) \(\text{NaOH}\)
  • (C) \(\text{KOH}\)
  • (D) \(\text{HI}\)

Question 63:

What is the oxidation number of oxygen in \(\text{KO}_2\) ?

  • (A) \(-2\)
  • (B) \(-1/2\)
  • (C) \(-1\)
  • (D) \(+2\)

Question 64:

The most abundant element in the universe is

  • (A) Hydrogen
  • (B) Sodium
  • (C) Magnesium
  • (D) Potassium

Question 65:

Which of the following compounds is formed when chlorine reacts with dry slake lime \(\text{Ca(OH)}_2\) ?

  • (A) \(\text{CaOCl}_2\)
  • (B) \(\text{CaO}_2\text{Cl}_2\)
  • (C) \(\text{CaOCl}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CaCl}_2\)

Question 66:

Which of the following is an aromatic alcohol?

  • (A) I Only
  • (B) II and III Only
  • (C) I, II, III and IV
  • (D) I and IV Only

Question 67:

What type of following reactions, the oxidative rancidity is?

  • (A) addition
  • (B) substitution
  • (C) free radical chain reaction
  • (D) displacement

Question 68:

Find the number of hyperconjugation structures in the isopropyl carbocation.

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(9\)
  • (D) \(12\)

Question 69:

Which from following alkenes is highly stabilized ?

  • (A) \(\text{R}_2\text{C} = \text{CR}_2\)
  • (B) \(\text{R}_2\text{C=CH}_2\)
  • (C) \(\text{RCH=CHR}\)
  • (D) \(\text{RCH=CH}_2\)

Question 70:

Which of the following alkanes is NOT obtained when a mixture of ethyl iodide and n-propyl iodide is subjected to Wurtz reaction?

  • (A) n-Butane
  • (B) Propane
  • (C) n-Pentane
  • (D) n-Hexane

Question 71:

A compound forms hcp structure. What is the number of tetrahedral voids formed in 0.8 mol of it.

  • (A) \(4.818\times 10^{23}\)
  • (B) \(9.635\times 10^{23}\)
  • (C) \(7.227\times 10^{23}\)
  • (D) \(2.410\times 10^{23}\)

Question 72:

Calculate the number of atoms present in 90 g of metal if it forms bcc structure.
[ \(ρ\times a^3 = 1.8\times 10^{-22}\) g ]

  • (A) \(4.0\times 10^{24}\)
  • (B) \(1.0\times 10^{24}\)
  • (C) \(2.0\times 10^{24}\)
  • (D) \(3.0\times 10^{24}\)

Question 73:

In the fcc structure, the number of tetrahedral holes per sphere is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 74:

For a binary solution, when a nonvolatile nonelectrolyte solute is dissolved in solvent, the vapour pressure of solvent decreases by 20 % . what is mole fraction of solvent in solution ?

  • (A) \(0.02\)
  • (B) \(0.08\)
  • (C) \(0.2\)
  • (D) \(0.8\)

Question 75:

Calculate the boiling point of an aqueous solution containing 18 g glucose in 100 g water if the molal elevation constant of water is \(0.5 \text{K kg mol}^{-1}\).
[Molar mass of glucose \(= 180 \text{g mol}^{-1}\) and boiling point of water \(= 100 ^{\circ}\text{C}\)]

  • (A) \(100 ^{\circ}\text{C}\)
  • (B) \(100.5 ^{\circ}\text{C}\)
  • (C) \(101.0 ^{\circ}\text{C}\)
  • (D) \(101.5 ^{\circ}\text{C}\)

Question 76:

Which of the following is the colligative property of a solution?

  • (A) vapour pressure
  • (B) boiling point
  • (C) osmotic pressure
  • (D) Freezing point

Question 77:

Identify the reaction from following so that the standard potential of \(\text{Cu}^{+2}/\text{Cu}\) electrode is 0.34 V. with respective to SHE ?

  • (A) \(\text{Cu}\rightarrow \text{Cu}^{+2}+2e^-\)
  • (B) \(\text{Cu}^{+2}+2e^-\rightarrow \text{Cu}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Cu}^+\rightarrow \text{Cu}^{+2}+e^-\)
  • (D) \(\text{Cu}^{+3}\rightarrow \text{Cu}^{+2}+e^-\)

Question 78:

The cells A and B contain aqueous solutions of ferrous chloride and ferric chloride respectively. The mass of iron deposited by the same quantity of electricity in cells A and B is in the ratio.

  • (A) \(1:1\)
  • (B) \(2:1\)
  • (C) \(3:1\)
  • (D) \(3:2\)

Question 79:

What happens during the discharge of a lead storage battery?

  • (A) \(\text{SO}_2\) is evolved
  • (B) Pb is formed
  • (C) \(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\) is consumed
  • (D) \(\text{PbSO}_4\) is consumed

Question 80:

The rate constant of reaction is \(1.5\times 10^7 \text{s}^{-1}\) at 300 K and \(3.0\times 10^7 \text{s}^{-1}\) at 330 K. What is the activation energy for the reaction? [ \(R\times 2.303 = 19.15 \text{JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}\)]

  • (A) \(18.02 \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(20.1 \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(19.02 \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(21.5 \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)

Question 81:

The rate constant for the reaction \(2\text{N}_2\text{O}_5\rightarrow 4\text{NO}_2+\text{O}_2\) is \(3.0\times 10^{-5} \text{s}^{-1}\). If the rate is \(2.4\times 10^{-5} \text{mole L}^{-1} \text{s}^{-1}\) then the concentration of \(\text{N}_2\text{O}_5\,(\text{mol L}^{-1})\) is

  • (A) \(1.4\)
  • (B) \(1.2\)
  • (C) \(0.04\)
  • (D) \(0.8\)

Question 82:

What is order of radioactive decay of a substance ?

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(1.5\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 83:

Nano materials not applied in

  • (A) Manufacturing of scratch proof glasses
  • (B) Electronic devices
  • (C) Conventional water treatment
  • (D) self cleaning material

Question 84:

Which of the following properties is responsible for the development of colour to the colloids?

  • (A) Tyndall effect
  • (B) Brownian motion
  • (C) Electrophoresis
  • (D) Electroosmosis

Question 85:

Identify the factor responsible for colour of transition metal compounds.

  • (A) d-d transitions
  • (B) s-p mixing
  • (C) Ionisation
  • (D) Shielding effect

Question 86:

Identify the number of unpaired electrons present and geometry respectively of \([\text{Co(NH}_3)_6]^{3+}\) complex.

  • (A) 0, square planar
  • (B) 2, square planar
  • (C) 4, octahedral
  • (D) 0, octahedral

Question 87:

Identify oxidation state of cobalt ion in the complex, \([\text{Co(NH}_3)_5\text{Br}]\text{SO}_4\) .

  • (A) \(+2\)
  • (B) \(+3\)
  • (C) \(+1\)
  • (D) \(+4\)

Question 88:

Which of the following alkyl halides is hydrolyzed most rapidly by the \(\text{SN}^2\) mechanism ?

  • (A) \(\text{CH}_3\text{-Br}\)
  • (B) \((\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C-Br}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_3\text{-CH}_2\text{-Br}\)
  • (D) \((\text{CH}_3)_2\text{CH-Br}\)

Question 89:

Which of the following alkyl halides undergoes \(\text{SN}^1\) reaction most readily?

  • (A) \((\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C-F}\)
  • (B) \((\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C-Cl}\)
  • (C) \((\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C-Br}\)
  • (D) \((\text{CH}_3)_3\text{C-I}\)

Question 90:

What is the nature of alcohols in aqueous medium?

  • (A) Acidic
  • (B) Basic
  • (C) Neutral
  • (D) Amphoteric

Question 91:

Which of following observations is found in Tollens test for aldehydes?

  • (A) The formation of pink or magenta color upon the addition of the reagent to the sample solution.
  • (B) Formation of an Ag layer on sides of test tube upon addition and warming of the reagent.
  • (C) Formation of brick-red precipitate upon heating with reagent.
  • (D) Appearance of red color upon shaking with reagent.

Question 92:

An organic compound \(\text{CH}_3\text{-CH=CH-CH}_2\text{-CHO}\) is taken in two different containers A and B. Sample in A is treated with \(\text{H}_2\) / Ni forming new compound P. Sample in B is treated with \(\text{LiAlH}_4\) and hydrolyzed further forming new compound Q. Identify P and Q.

  • (A) \(\text{P} = \text{Q} = \text{CH}_3\text{-CH=CH-CH}_2\text{-CH}_2\text{OH}\)
  • (B) \(\text{P} = \text{Q} = \text{CH}_3(\text{CH}_2)_3\text{CH}_2\text{OH}\)
  • (C) \(\text{P} = \text{CH}_3(\text{CH}_2)_3\text{CHO}\) and \(\text{Q} = \text{CH}_3(\text{CH}_2)_3\text{CH}_2\text{OH}\)
  • (D) \(\text{P} = \text{CH}_3(\text{CH}_2)_3\text{CH}_2\text{OH}\) and \(\text{Q} = \text{CH}_3\text{-CH=CH-CH}_2\text{-CH}_2\text{OH}\)

Question 93:

What is the common name for the simplest carboxylic acid, HCOOH ?

  • (A) Acetic acid
  • (B) Formic acid
  • (C) Propanoic acid
  • (D) Butanoic acid

Question 94:

Which of the following reactions uses diazonium salt ?

  • (A) Sandmeyer reaction
  • (B) Mendius reaction
  • (C) Hofmann rearrangement reaction
  • (D) carbylamine reaction

Question 95:

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  • (A) Primary amines show intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
  • (B) Tertiary butylamine is a primary amine.
  • (C) Tertiary amines do not show inter molecular hydrogen bonds.
  • (D) iso-propylamine is a secondary amine.

Question 96:

Identify the linkage in backbone of single strand of DNA ?

  • (A) Base- phosphate -sugar
  • (B) Phosphate -base -sugar
  • (C) Sugar -phosphate- base
  • (D) Phosphate -sugar-phosphate

Question 97:

Which of the following ionic species is present in hemoglobin and responsible for transformation of oxygen ?

  • (A) \(\text{Ca}^{+2}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Co}^{+3}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Fe}^{+2}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Mg}^{+2}\)

Question 98:

Which of the following processes develops cross-links in elastomer?

  • (A) galvanization
  • (B) vulcanization
  • (C) polymerization
  • (D) hydration

Question 99:

Which of the following is not a basis of classification of polymers ?

  • (A) Source
  • (B) Number of monomers
  • (C) Method of preparation
  • (D) Structure

Question 100:

Which of the following detergents is used as germicide?

  • (A) Anionic detergent
  • (B) Non ionic detergent (an ester)
  • (C) Cationic detergent
  • (D) Non ionic detergents (an ether)

Mathematics Section (Questions 101 to 150)


Question 101:

A ball is thrown in the air. Its height at any time \(t\) is given by \(h = 3+14t-5t^2\), then the maximum height it can reach

  • (A) \(12.9\)
  • (B) \(12.8\)
  • (C) \(12.7\)
  • (D) \(12.6\)

Question 102:

If \((1+i)\cdot (1+2i)\ldots \ldots \ldots (1+ni) = x+iy\) (Where \(i = \sqrt{-1}\) ), then the value of \((2)\cdot (5)\cdot (10)\ldots \ldots \ldots (1+n^2)\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{x}+\sqrt{y}}{2}\)
  • (B) \(x^2+y^2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{x}+\sqrt{y}}{\sqrt{x}-\sqrt{y}}\)
  • (D) \(x^2-y^2\)

Question 103:

The number of arrangements of the numbers strictly between 10 and 1000 formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 without repetition is

  • (A) \(180\)
  • (B) \(215\)
  • (C) \(216\)
  • (D) \(222\)

Question 104:

The value of \(\frac{sin^23A}{sin^2A}-\frac{cos^23A}{cos^2A}\) is

  • (A) \(cos2A\)
  • (B) \(8cos2A\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{8}cos2A\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}sin2A\)

Question 105:

If \(0\leq x\leq \frac{π}{2}\) , then the number of values of \(x\) for which \(sinx-sin2x+sin3x = 0\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 106:

The number of lines passing through A (3, 4) and the sum of whose non-zero intercepts is zero is (are)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 107:

If \(4ab = 3h^2\), then the ratio of the slopes of the lines represented by \(ax^2+2hxy+by^2 = 0\) is...

  • (A) \(\sqrt{2}:1\)
  • (B) \(2:1\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3}:1\)
  • (D) \(1:3\)

Question 108:

The equations of the tangent to the curve \(x^2+y^2 = 10\), where the tangent is parallel to the line \(2x+y-1 = 0\), are

  • (A) \(2x+y = \pm \sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(2x+y = \pm 5\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(2x+y = \pm 2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(2x+y = \pm 3\sqrt{2}\)

Question 109:

If the line \(y = 2x+λ\) is a tangent to the hyperbola \(36x^2-25y^2 = 3600\), then \(λ =\)

  • (A) \(\pm 36\)
  • (B) \(\pm 25\)
  • (C) \(\pm 16\)
  • (D) \(\pm 9\)

Question 110:

\(\underset{x\rightarrow 0}{lim}\frac{(5^x-1)^4\,\text{cosec}\,(xlog5)}{tan(xlog5)\cdot log(1+x^2log25)} = \ldots \ldots\)

  • (A) \(5log5\)
  • (B) \(log\sqrt{5}\)
  • (C) \((log5)^2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4}log5\)

Question 111:

Simplest form of the following switching circuit is

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 112:

With usual notations in \(△\)ABC, if \(bcos^2\frac{C}{2}+ccos^2\frac{B}{2} = \frac{3a}{2}\) then

  • (A) \(a,b,c\) are in A.P.
  • (B) \(a,c,b\) are in A.P.
  • (C) \(b,a,c\) are in A.P.
  • (D) \(a,b,c\) are in G.P

Question 113:

In a triangle ABC, with usual notations \(a = \sqrt{3}+1\), \(b = \sqrt{3}-1\) and \(\angle C = 60^{\circ}\) then the values of \(\angle A\) and \(\angle B\) respectively are

  • (A) \(105^{\circ},15^{\circ}\)
  • (B) \(100^{\circ},20^{\circ}\)
  • (C) \(90^{\circ},30^{\circ}\)
  • (D) \(110^{\circ},10^{\circ}\)

Question 114:

Inverse of \([\begin{array}{cc}3 & -2 \\ 1 & 4\end{array}]\) is

  • (A) \(\left[ \begin{array}{cc}\frac{2}{7} & \frac{1}{7} \\ -\frac{1}{14} & \frac{3}{14}\end{array} \right]\)
  • (B) \(\left[ \begin{array}{cc}\frac{3}{14} & -\frac{1}{7} \\ \frac{1}{14} & \frac{2}{7}\end{array} \right]\)
  • (C) \(\left[ \begin{array}{cc}\frac{2}{7} & -\frac{1}{7} \\ \frac{1}{14} & \frac{3}{14}\end{array} \right]\)
  • (D) \(\left[ \begin{array}{cc}-\frac{3}{14} & \frac{1}{7} \\ \frac{1}{14} & \frac{2}{7}\end{array} \right]\)

Question 115:

If \(A = [\begin{array}{cc}5a & -b \\ 3 & 2\end{array}]\) and \(A\,(\text{adj }A) = AA^T\), Then \(5a+b =\)

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) \(\frac{15}{2}\)

Question 116:

If \(y = tan^{-1}[\frac{x-\sqrt{1-x^2}}{x+\sqrt{1-x^2}}]\) , then \(\frac{dy}{dx} =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{-1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(-1\)

Question 117:

\(cos(cos^{-1}(-\frac{1}{2})+\frac{π}{3}) =\)

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 118:

\(sin^{-1}(\frac{12}{13})+cos^{-1}(\frac{4}{5})+tan^{-1}(\frac{63}{16}) =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3π}{2}\)
  • (C) \(π\)
  • (D) \(2π\)

Question 119:

If \(f(x) = \frac{4x+3}{6x-4}\), \(x\neq \frac{2}{3}\) and \((\text{fof})(x) = g(x)\) where \(g:R-\{\frac{2}{3}\}\rightarrow R-\{\frac{2}{3}\}\), then \((g\,o\,g\,o\,g\,o\,g\,o\,g)\,(3) =\)

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (C) \(3^5\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{3^5}\)

Question 120:

If the derivative of the function \(f(x) = \{\begin{array}{cc}ax^2+b & \text{if }x < -1 \\ bx^2+ax+4 & \text{if }x\geq -1\end{array}\) is continuous everywhere then

  • (A) \(a = 2,b = 3\)
  • (B) \(a = 3,b = 2\)
  • (C) \(a = -2,b = 3\)
  • (D) \(a = -3,b = -2\)

Question 121:

The derivative of \(log_8(log_5x)\) w. r. t. \(x\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{log_58logx}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{xlog5logx}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{xlogxlog8log5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{xlog8logx}\)

Question 122:

If \(y^{\frac{1}{m}}+y^{\frac{-1}{m}} = 2x\) , then \((x^2-1)y_1^2 =\)

  • (A) \(my^2\)
  • (B) \(m^2y^2\)
  • (C) \(m^2y\)
  • (D) \(my\)

Question 123:

A triangle has two fixed vertices A \((a,0)\) and B\((0,b)\) . Let its third vertex C is moving along the line \(x = y\). If \(s\) is the area of triangle ABC, then \(\frac{ds}{dx} =\)

  • (A) \(a+b\)
  • (B) \(-(\frac{a+b}{2})\)
  • (C) \(\frac{a-b}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{a}{2}\)

Question 124:

The function \(f(x) = tan^{-1}(sinx+cosx)\) is an increasing function in the interval.....

  • (A) \((0,\frac{π}{2})\)
  • (B) \((\frac{-π}{2},\frac{π}{2})\)
  • (C) \((\frac{π}{4},\frac{π}{2})\)
  • (D) \((\frac{-π}{2},\frac{π}{4})\)

Question 125:

The minimum value of \(\frac{logx}{x}\) in the interval \((2,\infty )\) is

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(e\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{e}\)
  • (D) Does not exist

Question 126:

\(\int \frac{(x+1)(x+logx)^2}{x}\,dx =\)

  • (A) \((\frac{x+logx}{x})^2+c\), where c is the constant of integration
  • (B) \(\frac{(x+logx)^2}{x}+c\), where c is the constant of integration
  • (C) \(\frac{(x+logx)^3}{3}+c\), where c is the constant of integration
  • (D) \(\frac{(x+logx)^3}{3x}+c\), where c is the constant of integration

Question 127:

\(\int cot^4x\,dx\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\frac{cot^3x}{3}-cotx+x+c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{cot^3x}{3}+cotx+x+c\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{cot^3x}{3}+cotx+x+c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{cot^3x}{3}-2cotx+x+c\)

Question 128:

\(\int \frac{cos^3x}{sin^2x+sinx}\,dx =\)

  • (A) \(log(cosx)+cosx+c\), where c is the constant of integration
  • (B) \(log(sinx)-sinx+c\), where c is the constant of integration
  • (C) \(log(sinx)+sinx+c\), where c is the constant of integration
  • (D) \(log(cosx)-cosx+c\), where c is the constant of integration

Question 129:

\(\int _{π/6}^{π/3}\frac{sinx-cosx}{1+sinxcosx}\,dx =\)

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{12}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{24}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π^2}{2}\)

Question 130:

\(\int _0^{log5}\frac{e^x\sqrt{e^x-1}}{e^x+3}\,dx =\)

  • (A) \(2-\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (B) \(4-\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (C) \(2-π\)
  • (D) \(4-π\)

Question 131:

The integrating factor of the differential equation \((1+t^2)+(x-e^{tan^{-1}t})\frac{dt}{dx} = 0\) is

  • (A) \(e^{tan^{-1}t}\)
  • (B) \(-e^{tan^{-1}t}\)
  • (C) \(e^{-tan^{-1}t}\)
  • (D) \(-e^{-tan^{-1}t}\)

Question 132:

The degree of the differential equation obtained from the equation \((y-a)^2 = 4(x-b)\) [where \(a\) and b are arbitrary constants] is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) not defined

Question 133:

The solution of the differential equation \((x+2y^3)\frac{dy}{dx}-y = 0\) is

  • (A) \(x = (c+y^2)y\), where c is the constant of integration
  • (B) \(y = (c+y^2)x\), where c is the constant of integration
  • (C) \(x = (c+y)y\), where c is the constant of integration
  • (D) \(y = (c+x^2)\), where c is the constant of integration

Question 134:

The rate of reduction is proportional to the square root of a persons existing assets at that moment. If his assets at the beginning are 10000 and they dwindle down to 5625 in 2 years, then the person will be bankrupt in

  • (A) 4 years
  • (B) 6 years
  • (C) 8 years
  • (D) 10 years

Question 135:

If a vector \(3\hat{i}+4\hat{j}-5\hat{k}\) is rotated through a certain angle about the origin in the anti-clockwise direction, then the components of the new vector are \(a+1,-3,5\) . The possible values of \(a\) is

  • (A) 5 or 3
  • (B) 5 or -3
  • (C) 4 or -2
  • (D) -5 or 3

Question 136:

Let A, B, C, D be the points in the plane with position vectors \(-2\hat{i}-\hat{j}\), \(4\hat{i}\), \(3\hat{i}+3\hat{j}\) and \(-3\hat{i}+2\hat{j}\) respectively, then \(◻\)ABCD is

  • (A) a parallelogram which is neither a rhombus nor a reactangle
  • (B) a square
  • (C) a rectangle but not a square
  • (D) a rhombus but not a square

Question 137:

Let \(\overset{̄}{a} = \hat{i}+\hat{j}\), \(\overset{̄}{c} = \hat{i}-\hat{j}\) and a vector \(\overset{̄}{b}\) be such that \(\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{b} = \overset{̄}{c}\) and \(\overset{̄}{a}\cdot \overset{̄}{b} = 3\) then \(|\overset{̄}{b}| =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{11}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{11}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{11}{2}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{11}{3}}\)

Question 138:

The acute angle between the vector \(2\hat{i}+\hat{j}-3\hat{k}\) and the plane containing the vectors \(2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}-\hat{k}\) and \(\hat{i}-\hat{j}+2\hat{k}\) is

  • (A) \(sin^{-1}(\frac{4}{\sqrt{42}})\)
  • (B) \(cos^{-1}(\frac{4}{\sqrt{42}})\)
  • (C) \(sin^{-1}(\frac{3}{\sqrt{42}})\)
  • (D) \(cos^{-1}(\frac{3}{\sqrt{42}})\)

Question 139:

A parallelogram is constructed on \(5\overset{̄}{a}+2\overset{̄}{b}\) and \(\overset{̄}{a}-3\overset{̄}{b}\) as its adjacent sides, with \(|\overset{̄}{a}| = 2\sqrt{2},|\overset{̄}{b}| = 3\) . The angle between \(\overset{̄}{a}\) and \(\overset{̄}{b}\) is \(\frac{π}{4}\) . Then the length of the diagonals of the parallelogram are

  • (A) \(15,\sqrt{593}\)
  • (B) \(15, 593\)
  • (C) \(225, 593\)
  • (D) \(20, 593\)

Question 140:

The lines \(\frac{x-2}{1} = \frac{y-3}{1} = \frac{z-4}{-k}\) and \(\frac{x-1}{k} = \frac{y-4}{2} = \frac{z-5}{1}\) are coplanar if

  • (A) \(k = 0,-3\)
  • (B) \(k = -1,3\)
  • (C) \(k = 1,2\)
  • (D) \(k = 2,4\)

Question 141:

The direction ratios of the normal to the plane passing through (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0) which makes an angle of measure \(45^{\circ}\) with the plane \(2x+3y = 7\) are....

  • (A) \(\sqrt{6}, 1, 1\)
  • (B) \(1, 1, \sqrt{6}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{13}, \sqrt{13}, \sqrt{6}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{13}, \sqrt{13}, 2\sqrt{6}\)

Question 142:

The lines \(\frac{x-1}{-1} = \frac{y+2}{1} = \frac{z-3}{-2}\) and \(\frac{x-1}{1} = \frac{y+2}{1} = \frac{z+1}{-2}\) are

  • (A) intersecting but not perpendicular
  • (B) parallel
  • (C) perpendicular
  • (D) skew lines

Question 143:

If the product of the distances of the point (1, 2, 3) from the origin and the plane \(2x-3y+z+k = 0\) is 7, then the value of k is

  • (A) \(8\)
  • (B) \(10\)
  • (C) \(7\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 144:

The vector equation of the line whose cartesian equations are \(x = 2,2y-3z+7 = 0\)

  • (A) \(\overset{⃗}{r} = (2\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-3\hat{k})+λ(2\hat{j}-3\hat{k})\)
  • (B) \(\overset{⃗}{r} = (2\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-3\hat{k})+λ(2\hat{i}-3\hat{j})\)
  • (C) \(\overset{⃗}{r} = (2\hat{i}+\frac{7}{3}\hat{k})+λ(3\hat{j}+2\hat{k})\)
  • (D) \(\overset{⃗}{r} = (-2\hat{i}+\frac{7}{3}\hat{k})+λ(3\hat{j}+2\hat{k})\)

Question 145:

The feasible region represented by the constraints \(y-2x\leq 4,x+y\geq 5,x\leq 4,y\geq 2,x,y\geq 0\) is ...........

  • (A) a convex bounded region with 4 corner points
  • (B) an unbounded region
  • (C) a convex bounded region with 5 corner points
  • (D) no feasible region

Question 146:

A fair die is thrown at random. Let A be the event that the number obtained on the die is a non-even prime number and B be the event that the number obtained on the die is an odd number.
Let \(p:P(A) = \frac{1}{3}\), \(q\) : A and B are independent events.
Then the truth values of statements \(p\) and \(q\) respectively are.....

  • (A) T , T
  • (B) T , F
  • (C) F , T
  • (D) F , F

Question 147:

Three ships A, B, C sail from England to India. If the odds in favour of their safe arrival are 2:5, 3:7 and 6:11 respectively, then the probability that the exactly two ships arrive safely is

  • (A) \(\frac{24}{119}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{24}{1190}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{66}{1190}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{84}{1190}\)

Question 148:

A random variable X has the probability distribution

\(X = x\)\(1\)\(2\)\(3\)\(4\)\(5\)\(6\)\(7\)\(8\)
\(P(X = x)\)\(0.23\)\(0.15\)\(0.12\)\(0.10\)\(0.20\)\(0.07\)\(0.08\)\(0.05\)

for the events E = {X is a prime number} and F = {X \(\leq\) 3}, then P (E\(\cup\)F)=

  • (A) \(0.55\)
  • (B) \(0.70\)
  • (C) \(0.87\)
  • (D) \(0.78\)

Question 149:

The probability distribution of a random variable X is given by

\(X = x\)\(1\)\(2\)\(3\)\(4\)
\(P(X = x)\)\(k\)\(2k\)\(3k\)\(4k\)

Then the c.d.f. of X is given by

  • (A)
    \(X = x\)\(1\)\(2\)\(3\)\(4\)
    \(F(X = x)\)\(\frac{1}{10}\)\(\frac{3}{10}\)\(\frac{6}{10}\)\(1\)
  • (B)
    \(X = x\)\(1\)\(2\)\(3\)\(4\)
    \(F(X = x)\)\(\frac{3}{10}\)\(\frac{1}{10}\)\(\frac{6}{10}\)\(1\)
  • (C)
    \(X = x\)\(1\)\(2\)\(3\)\(4\)
    \(F(X = x)\)\(\frac{1}{10}\)\(\frac{3}{10}\)\(\frac{5}{10}\)\(\frac{1}{10}\)
  • (D)
    \(X = x\)\(1\)\(2\)\(3\)\(4\)
    \(F(X = x)\)\(\frac{1}{10}\)\(\frac{6}{10}\)\(\frac{3}{10}\)\(1\)

Question 150:

Two dice are thrown successively 4 times and getting a doublet is called a success. The probability of getting at least 1 success is

  • (A) \(\frac{50}{1296}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1246}{1296}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{625}{1296}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{671}{1296}\)

MHT CET PCM Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT-CET 2026 Exam Strategy