MHT CET 2026 April 20 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on April 20 in Shift 2 from 2 AM to 5 PM in CBT mode.

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Also Check: MHT CET 2026 April 20 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper

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MHT CET 2026 April 20 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions

MHT CET 2026 April 20 Shift 2 PCM Questions with Solutions

Physics Section (Questions 1 to 50)

Question 1:

A physical quantity \(x\) is related as \(x = \sqrt{a} b^2c^3d^{-4}\). Relative errors in the quantities \(a\), \(b\), \(c\) and \(d\) are 2%, 1%, 3% and 4% respectively. Relative error in \(x\) will be

  • (A) 30%
  • (B) 28%
  • (C) 24%
  • (D) 18%

Question 2:

If two vectors \(\overset{⃗}{A} = 4\hat{i}+n\hat{j}+2\hat{k}\) and \(\overset{⃗}{B} = 2\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-\hat{k}\) are mutually perpendicular to each other then value of 'n' is

  • (A) \(+3\)
  • (B) \(+1\)
  • (C) \(-3\)
  • (D) \(-1\)

Question 3:

A particle completes 2 revolutions in a circular path of radius 3 cm. The angular displacement of the particle will be (in radian)

  • (A) \(π\)
  • (B) \(2π\)
  • (C) \(3π\)
  • (D) \(4π\)

Question 4:

A car is travelling at 40 m/s on a circular path of radius 40 m. It is increasing its speed at the rate of \(2 \text{m/s}^2\). Its net acceleration is (in \(\text{m/s}^2\)) nearly

  • (A) \(4 \text{m/s}^2\)
  • (B) \(8 \text{m/s}^2\)
  • (C) \(16 \text{m/s}^2\)
  • (D) \(40 \text{m/s}^2\)

Question 5:

Two spheres are projected at angles \(30^{\circ}\) and \(45^{\circ}\) with the horizontal. The maximum height reached by both is same. The ratio of their initial velocities is, \((sin45^{\circ} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}},sin30^{\circ} = 0.5)\)

  • (A) \(2:3\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2}:1\)
  • (C) \(3:1\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{2}:\sqrt{3}\)

Question 6:

Three blocks of different masses connected with inextensible string are pulled by a force \(F\) on a frictionless surface as shown in the figure. The ratio of tensions \(T_1\) to \(T_2\) is

  • (A) \(1:5\)
  • (B) \(5:1\)
  • (C) \(10:1\)
  • (D) \(1:10\)

Question 7:

A solid sphere of mass 5 kg and a disc of mass 4 kg have the same radius. The ratio of moment of inertia of the sphere about its tangent to the moment of inertia of the disc about a tangent in its plane will be \(x:y\). The value of \(x\) and \(y\) respectively is

  • (A) \(5,8\)
  • (B) \(6,7\)
  • (C) \(7,5\)
  • (D) \(4,3\)

Question 8:

Select the correct statement out of the following

  • (A) Acceleration due to gravity decreases as we go up or down from earth's surface.
  • (B) Acceleration due to gravity is same at a height 'h' and depth 'd' from earth's surface, if \(h = d\).
  • (C) Acceleration due to gravity at 640 km above the earth surface decreases by 10% of its value at earth's surface (earth's radius is 6400 km)
  • (D) There is reduction in acceleration due to gravity at poles due to rotation of earth as the poles are lying on the axis of rotation and do not revolve.

Question 9:

If we dip capillary tubes of different radii \(r_n\) in water and the water rises to different heights \(h_n\) in them, then (\(n = 1,2,3\) .........)

  • (A) \(\frac{h_n}{r_n^2} = \text{constant}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{h_n}{r_n} = \text{constant}\)
  • (C) \(h_nr_n^2 = \text{constant}\)
  • (D) \(h_nr_n = \text{constant}\)

Question 10:

A small metal sphere is falling through a viscous liquid. The variation of velocity (\(V\)) with time (\(t\)) is shown correctly in graph

  • (A) b
  • (B) a
  • (C) d
  • (D) c

Question 11:

On opposite sides of a wide vertical vessel filled with water (density \(ρ\)), two identical holes are drilled, each having cross-section area \(A\). The height difference between holes is \(x\). The resultant force of reaction of water flowing out of vessel is (\(g\) = acceleration due to gravity)

  • (A) \(ρAgx\)
  • (B) \(2ρAgx\)
  • (C) \(3ρAgx\)
  • (D) \(4ρAgx\)

Question 12:

Two stars A and B radiate maximum energy at wavelength \(3.9\times 10^{-7}\) m and \(5.2\times 10^{-7}\) m respectively. The ratio of the temperature of star A to that of star B will be

  • (A) \(2:3\)
  • (B) \(3:2\)
  • (C) \(3:4\)
  • (D) \(4:3\)

Question 13:

A piece of metal of 850 K is dropped into 1 kg of water at 300 K. If equilibrium temperature of water is 350 K then the heat capacity of the metal expressed in \(\frac{J}{K}\) is \((\text{Sp. heat of water} = 1 \frac{\text{cal}}{\text{g}^{\circ}\text{C}})\)

  • (A) \(420\)
  • (B) \(240\)
  • (C) \(100\)
  • (D) \(24\)

Question 14:

A sphere having temperature 600 K is losing heat due to radiation. At this temperature its rate of cooling is \(R\). The rate of cooling of this sphere at 400 K is \(\frac{x}{243}\). The value of \(x\) is (Temperature of surrounding is 300 K)

  • (A) \(50R\)
  • (B) \(45R\)
  • (C) \(40R\)
  • (D) \(35R\)

Question 15:

A black body is at temperature of 5780 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 300 nm is \(U_1\), at wavelength 500 nm is \(U_2\) and that at 900 nm is \(U_3\) respectively. Wien's constant \(b = 2.89\times 10^6 \text{nmK}\). This shows that

  • (A) \(U_1 < U_2 < U_3\)
  • (B) \(U_1 > U_2 > U_3\)
  • (C) \(U_1 < U_2 > U_3\)
  • (D) \(U_1 > U_2 < U_3\)

Question 16:

The efficiency of Carnot engine which operates between the two temperatures \(T_1 = 500\) K and \(T_2 = 300\) K is

  • (A) \(75 \%\)
  • (B) \(50 \%\)
  • (C) \(25 \%\)
  • (D) \(40 \%\)

Question 17:

An ideal gas having pressure \(P\), volume \(V\) and temperature \(T\) is expanded isothermally, to a volume \(3V\) and final pressure \(P_I\). The same gas is expanded adiabatically to a volume \(3V\), the final pressure being \(P_A\). The ratio \(\frac{P_A}{P_I}\) is \((\frac{C_P}{C_V} = γ)\)

  • (A) \(3γ\)
  • (B) \(3^γ\)
  • (C) \(3^{(1-γ)}\)
  • (D) \(3^{(γ-1)}\)

Question 18:

The displacement of a particle varies with time according to the relation
\(x = asinωt+bcosωt\)

  • (A) The motion is simple harmonic motion with an amplitude \(\sqrt[3]{a^2+b^2}\)
  • (B) The motion is simple harmonic motion with an amplitude \(\sqrt{a^2+b^2}\)
  • (C) The motion is periodic but not simple harmonic motion
  • (D) The motion is simple harmonic with an amplitude \((a^2+b^2)\)

Question 19:

For a particle executing S.H.M., the potential energy is \(n\) times the kinetic energy when its displacement from mean position is \((\frac{2\sqrt{2}}{3})A\), where \(A\) is the amplitude of S.H.M. The value of \(n\) is

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 20:

A particle is performing S.H.M. about \(x = 0\), with an amplitude \(a\) and time period \(T\). The speed of the particle at \(x = \frac{a}{3}\) will be

  • (A) \(\frac{2πa}{T}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4πa}{3T}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3} π^2a}{2T}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4\sqrt{2} πa}{3T}\)

Question 21:

Two sound waves each of wavelength \(λ\) and same amplitude \(A\) interfere at point \(Q\). If the path difference is \(\frac{λ}{4}\), the amplitude of the resultant wave at point \(Q\) is \([sin\frac{π}{2} = 1,cos\frac{π}{2} = 0]\)

  • (A) \(A\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2}A\)
  • (C) \(3A\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{3}A\)

Question 22:

Two monoatomic ideal gases '1' and '2' of molecular masses \(m_1\) and \(m_2\) respectively are enclosed in separate containers kept at the same temperature. The ratio of the speed of sound in gas '1' to that in gas '2' is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{m_1}{m_2}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{m_2}{m_1}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{m_1}{m_2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{m_2}{m_1}\)

Question 23:

Two waves are represented as
\(y_1 = a_1sin(ωt-\frac{2πx}{λ})\) and
\(y_2 = a_2cos(ωt-\frac{2πx}{λ}+\frac{π}{6})\)
The path difference between two waves is

  • (A) \(\frac{λ}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{λ}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{λ}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{λ}{2}\)

Question 24:

The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass density \(0.02 \text{kg m}^{-1}\) is \(Y = 0.01sin[2π(\frac{t}{0.02}-\frac{x}{0.50})]\) m. The tension in the string is

  • (A) \(12.50\) N
  • (B) \(6.25\) N
  • (C) \(25\) N
  • (D) \(50\) N

Question 25:

If charge \(+q\) is taken from one point to another over an equipotential surface, then

  • (A) work done on the charge continuously increases.
  • (B) work is done by the charge.
  • (C) work done on the charge is constant.
  • (D) no work is done.

Question 26:

A charge \(Q\) is placed at each corner of a cube of side \(r\). The potential at the centre of the cube is (\(ε_0\) = permittivity of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{4Q}{πε_0r\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{8Q}{πε_0r\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{16Q}{3πε_0r}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{32Q}{πε_0r\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 27:

Select the 'WRONG' statement about polar molecules.

  • (A) A molecule in which centre of mass of positive charges does not coincide with the centre of mass of negative charges is a polar molecule.
  • (B) They have permanent dipole moment.
  • (C) They act as tiny electric dipoles.
  • (D) They have symmetrical shape.

Question 28:

Two point charges placed in air separated by distance \(R\) exert a force \(F\) on each other. Now the space between those charges is filled with dielectric constant \(K\). At distance \(R_1\) between the charges, the same force is exerted as \(F\). Then

  • (A) \(R_1 = \sqrt{K}R\)
  • (B) \(R_1 = R\)
  • (C) \(R_1 = \frac{R}{K}\)
  • (D) \(R_1 = \frac{R}{\sqrt{K}}\)

Question 29:

Figure shows a potentiometer wire AB having resistance of \(5 \Omega\) and length 10 m. An e.m.f. is \(0.4\) V of battery, the balancing length AP is (internal resistance is negligible)

  • (A) \(8\) m
  • (B) \(10\) m
  • (C) \(6\) m
  • (D) \(4\) m

Question 30:

The currents in different parts of the electric circuit are shown in following figure. The value of current \(i\) is

  • (A) \(0.7\) A
  • (B) \(1.4\) A
  • (C) \(2.1\) A
  • (D) \(2.8\) A

Question 31:

An electron is moving with initial velocity \(\overset{⃗}{v} = V_0\hat{j}\) in a magnetic field \(\overset{⃗}{B} = B_0\hat{i}\). Its de-Broglie wavelength will

  • (A) decrease with time.
  • (B) increase and decrease periodically.
  • (C) remains constant.
  • (D) increase with time.

Question 32:

A thin circular wire carrying current \(I\) has magnetic moment \(M\). The shape of the wire is changed to a square and it carries the same current. It will have magnetic moment \(M_1\). The ratio \(M\) to \(M_1\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{π}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4}{π}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{2}\)

Question 33:

A circular arc of wire of radius of curvature \(r\) subtends an angle of \(\frac{π}{5}\) radian at its centre. If current \(i\) is flowing in it then the magnetic induction at its centre is (\(μ_0\) = permeability of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{μ_0i}{4r}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{μ_0i}{8r}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{μ_0i}{16r}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{μ_0i}{20r}\)

Question 34:

A solenoid of 1000 turns is wound uniformly on a glass tube 4 m long and \(0.3\) m in diameter. The magnetic intensity at the centre of the solenoid when a current of 4 A flows through it is

  • (A) \(2\times 10^{+3} \text{A/m}\)
  • (B) \(16\times 10^{+3} \text{A/m}\)
  • (C) \(4\times 10^{+3} \text{A/m}\)
  • (D) \(10^{+3} \text{A/m}\)

Question 35:

A circular disc of radius 20 cm is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction \(\frac{7}{22} \text{Wb/m}^2\) in such a way that its axis makes an angle of \(60^{\circ}\) with \(\overset{⃗}{B}\). The magnetic flux linked with the disc is \((cos60^{\circ} = 0.5)\)

  • (A) \(0.01\) Wb
  • (B) \(0.02\) Wb
  • (C) \(0.06\) Wb
  • (D) \(0.08\) Wb

Question 36:

An aeroplane having a wing span of 30 m flies due north with the speed of 170 m/s. Magnetic field \(B = 3.6\times 10^{-5}\) T. The potential difference between the tips of the wings will be

  • (A) \(136.4\) mV
  • (B) \(183.6\) mV
  • (C) \(272.8\) mV
  • (D) \(367.2\) mV

Question 37:

In an LCR series circuit an alternating voltage source of frequency \(F\) is connected. The current leads the voltage by \(45^{\circ}\). The value of \(L\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{1+2πFCR}{2πFC}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1+2πFCR}{4π^2F^2C}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1-2πFCR}{4π^2F^2C}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1+2πFR}{4π^2F^2C}\)

Question 38:

Given below are the two circuits, choose the correct option.

  • (A) At resonance, current in (B) is less than that in (A)
  • (B) The r.m.s. current in (B) can be larger than that in (A)
  • (C) The r.m.s. current in (A) is always equal to that in (B)
  • (D) The r.m.s. current in (B) can never be larger than that in (A)

Question 39:

In a L-R circuit of 4 mH inductance and \(3 \Omega\) resistance, e.m.f. \(E = cos(1000t)\) V is applied. The amplitude of current is

  • (A) \(1.6\) A
  • (B) \(1\) A
  • (C) \(0.2\) A
  • (D) \(0.4\) A

Question 40:

A current of 4 A is flowing at 230 V in the primary coil of a transformer. If the voltage produced in the secondary coil is 2300 V and 40 % of power is lost, then the current in the secondary will be

  • (A) \(0.24\) A
  • (B) \(0.2\) A
  • (C) \(0.12\) A
  • (D) \(0.4\) A

Question 41:

A thin glass prism has refractive index \(1.5\). The correct relation between the angle of minimum deviation \((δm)\) and angle of refraction \((r)\) is

  • (A) \(δm = \frac{r}{2}\)
  • (B) \(δm = 2r\)
  • (C) \(δm = r\)
  • (D) \(δm = \frac{3r}{2}\)

Question 42:

In diffraction experiment from single slit, the angular width of the central maxima does NOT depend upon

  • (A) width of the slit
  • (B) wavelength of light used.
  • (C) ratio of wavelength and slit width.
  • (D) distance of the slit from the screen.

Question 43:

To improve the resolving power of a compound microscope we should

  • (A) decrease the diameter of the objective lens.
  • (B) decrease the focal length of the eye-piece.
  • (C) increase the refractive index of the medium between the object and objective lens.
  • (D) increase the wavelength of light.

Question 44:

In the diffraction pattern, the first maximum is at \(30^{\circ}\), when a monochromatic light of wavelength \(λ\) is incident on a slit of width \(a\). For the same wavelength, if the slit width is changed, so that first maximum is at \(45^{\circ}\). The slit width is changed by \((sin30^{\circ} = \frac{1}{2},sin45^{\circ} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})\)

  • (A) \(3(\frac{\sqrt{2}-1}{\sqrt{2}})λ\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}}λ\)
  • (C) \(3\sqrt{2}λ\)
  • (D) \(3(\frac{\sqrt{2}+1}{\sqrt{2}})λ\)

Question 45:

The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of an $\alpha$-particle and proton accelerated from rest by the same potential is $\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{m}}$. The value of $m$ is

  • (A) $2$
  • (B) $8$
  • (C) $4$
  • (D) $5$

Question 46:

The kinetic energy of the electron in an orbit of radius $r$ in hydrogen atom is proportional to ($e$ = electronic charge)

  • (A) $\dfrac{e^2}{2r^2}$
  • (B) $\dfrac{e^2}{r^2}$
  • (C) $\dfrac{e^2}{2r}$
  • (D) $\dfrac{e^2}{4r}$

Question 47:

Which of the following is an integral multiple of $\dfrac{h}{2\pi}$ in Bohr's model of an hydrogen atom?

  • (A) Radius of an atom
  • (B) Kinetic energy
  • (C) Potential energy
  • (D) Angular momentum

Question 48:

Activity of a radioactive sample decreases to $\left(\dfrac{1}{4}\right)^{th}$ of its original value in 4 days. Then in 16 days its activity will become $x$ times the original value. The value of $x$ is

  • (A) $\dfrac{1}{16}$
  • (B) $\dfrac{1}{32}$
  • (C) $\dfrac{1}{256}$
  • (D) $\dfrac{1}{128}$

Question 49:

In Boolean expression \(A+B = Y\) implies that

  • (A) \(Y\) exists when \(A\) or \(B\) exists but not when both \(A\) and \(B\) exist.
  • (B) \(Y\) exists only when \(A\) and \(B\) both exist.
  • (C) \(Y\) exists when both \(A\) and \(B\) do not exist.
  • (D) \(Y\) exists when \(A\) exists or \(B\) exists or both \(A\) and \(B\) exist

Question 50:

The depletion region of p-n junction

  • (A) increases if reverse biased.
  • (B) increases if forward biased.
  • (C) decreases if reverse biased.
  • (D) remains same in reverse and forward biasing.

Chemistry Section (Questions 51 to 100)


Question 51:

What is the number of molecules in 2.125 g of ammonia?

  • (A) \(6.022\times 10^{23}\)
  • (B) \(3.011\times 10^{23}\)
  • (C) \(1.505\times 10^{22}\)
  • (D) \(7.527\times 10^{22}\)

Question 52:

Identify pair of orbitals having similar \((n+l)\) values from the following.

  • (A) 3s and 3p
  • (B) 2p and 4s
  • (C) 3d and 4p
  • (D) 2p and 3p

Question 53:

What is the proportionality between (I) Bond length and size of atom (II) Bond length and multiplicity of bond respectively?

  • (A) (I)- direct (II)- inverse
  • (B) (I)- direct (II)- direct
  • (C) (I)-inverse (II)-direct
  • (D) (I)-inverse (II)-inverse

Question 54:

A mixture of 0.5 mol \(\text{N}_2\) gas, 1.0 mol \(\text{O}_2\) gas and 1.5 mol \(\text{H}_2\) gas exerts a total pressure of 18 bar. Find the partial pressure of \(\text{O}_{2(g)}\).

  • (A) \(4.0\) bar
  • (B) \(6.0\) bar
  • (C) \(8.0\) bar
  • (D) \(10.0\) bar

Question 55:

The enthalpy of combustion of C, \(\text{H}_2\), and \(\text{CH}_4\) are \(-390\), \(-285\) and \(-890\) kJ/mol. Find the enthalpy of formation of methane.

  • (A) \(-70\) kJ
  • (B) \(-111\) kJ
  • (C) \(-170\) kJ
  • (D) \(-85\) kJ

Question 56:

Calculate the change in internal energy if an ideal gas expands from \(0.5 \text{dm}^3\) to \(3.5 \text{dm}^3\) at constant pressure 2 bar by absorbing 1800 J heat energy.

  • (A) \(1200\) J.
  • (B) \(-1200\) J.
  • (C) \(2400\) J.
  • (D) \(-2400\) J.

Question 57:

Which of the following processes exhibits the decrease in internal energy of a system?

  • (A) Isothermal expansion of an ideal gas.
  • (B) Isothrmal compression of an ideal gas.
  • (C) Adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas.
  • (D) Adiabatic compression of an ideal gas

Question 58:

There are two different solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 4. Find the pH of solution B having \([\text{H}^+]\) three times that of solution A.

  • (A) \(3.5229\)
  • (B) \(4.229\)
  • (C) \(3.229\)
  • (D) \(3.5223\)

Question 59:

Calculate the pH of buffer solution containing 0.1M \(\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}\) and 0.1 M \(\text{CH}_3\text{COONa}\) \([K_a = 1.8\times 10^{-5}]\)

  • (A) \(4.745\)
  • (B) \(5.741\)
  • (C) \(2.876\)
  • (D) \(7.001\)

Question 60:

What is the pH of 1 molar HCl solution? (assume complete dissociation)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) Zero
  • (D) \(7\)

Question 61:

What is the oxidation state of Xe in \(\text{XeOF}_4\)?

  • (A) \(+4\)
  • (B) \(-4\)
  • (C) \(-6\)
  • (D) \(+6\)

Question 62:

What is the oxidation number of Cl in \(\text{HOClO}_2\)?

  • (A) \(+7\)
  • (B) \(+5\)
  • (C) \(+3\)
  • (D) \(+1\)

Question 63:

What is the number of electrons gained by Cl atom when \(n\) mole of \(\text{ClO}_4^-\) is transformed into \(n\) mole of \(\text{ClO}_2^-\) ion?

  • (A) \(3n\)
  • (B) \(4n\)
  • (C) \(n\)
  • (D) \(2n\)

Question 64:

Choose a false statement regarding the properties of sodium hydroxide.

  • (A) It is highly water soluble.
  • (B) It absorbs atmospheric \(\text{CO}_2\) to form \(\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3\).
  • (C) the solution of NaOH turns blue litmus red.
  • (D) NaOH is a white deliquescent solid.

Question 65:

The IUPAC name of the following compound is,

  • (A) 1, 1 - diethyl - 4 - methoxycyclohexane
  • (B) 1, 1 - dimethyl - 4 - methoxycyclohexane
  • (C) 4, 4 - dimethyl - 1 - methoxycyclohexane
  • (D) 4, 4 - Diethyl - 1 - methoxycyclohexane

Question 66:

Which of the following molecule has Chiral Carbon?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 67:

Which one of the following series contains only electrophiles?

  • (A) \(\text{R-OH},\text{Cl}^+,\text{NH}_3\)
  • (B) \(\text{H}_2\text{O},\text{R}_2\text{N}^-,\text{H}_3\text{O}^+\)
  • (C) \(\text{BF}_3,\text{SO}_3,\text{NO}^+\)
  • (D) \(\text{AlCl}_3,\text{R-NH}_2,\text{PCl}_3\)

Question 68:

Which of the following reaction steps is known as propagation step

  • (A) \(\text{Cl-Cl}\rightarrow \text{Cl}^∙+\text{Cl}^∙\)
  • (B) \(\text{CH}_3+\text{Cl}_2\rightarrow \text{CH}_3\text{-Cl}+\text{Cl}^∙\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_3^∙+\text{Cl}^∙\rightarrow \text{CH}_3\text{-Cl}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CH}_3^∙+\text{CH}_3^∙\rightarrow \text{CH}_3\text{-CH}_3\)

Question 69:

A metal crystallizes in a bcc unit cell having unit cell volume \(2.5\times 10^{-23} \text{cm}^3\). Find the number of unit cells in 18 g metal if the density of metal is \(7.2 \text{g cm}^{-3}\).

  • (A) \(1.0\times 10^{23}\)
  • (B) \(2.0\times 10^{23}\)
  • (C) \(0.5\times 10^{23}\)
  • (D) \(1.5\times 10^{23}\)

Question 70:

A metal has a fcc structure if the edge length of unit cell is 200 pm, calculate the volume occupied by particles in a unit cell.

  • (A) \(2.08\times 10^{-24} \text{cm}^3\)
  • (B) \(5.92\times 10^{-24} \text{cm}^3\)
  • (C) \(8\times 10^{-24} \text{cm}^3\)
  • (D) \(3.14\times 10^{-24} \text{cm}^3\)

Question 71:

Which of the following defects is observed in steel?

  • (A) Substitutional impurity defect
  • (B) Interstitial impurity defect
  • (C) Vacancy defect
  • (D) Schottky defect

Question 72:

When the bottle of soft drink is opened, what would take place from the following?
(A) Solubility of dissolved gas decreases.
(B) bottle released internal pressure.
(C) effervences evolved from the bottle.
(D) increase in external pressure.
Identify the correct choice.

  • (A) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 73:

Find the osmotic pressure of 0.01 M solution at 25 °C \((R = 0.0821 \text{L atm mol}^{-1}\text{K}^{-1})\)

  • (A) \(0.201\) atm
  • (B) \(0.245\) atm
  • (C) \(0.082\) atm
  • (D) \(0.41\) atm

Question 74:

Identify the colligative property from the followings?

  • (A) Vapour pressure of solution.
  • (B) Osmotic pressure of solution.
  • (C) Boiling point of solution.
  • (D) Freezing point of solution.

Question 75:

Determine the electrode potential of \(\text{Sn}^{2+}(0.01\text{M}) | \text{Sn(s)}\) at \(25^{\circ}\text{C}\) if \(E_{\text{Sn}}^{\circ}\) is \(-0.136\) V.

  • (A) \(0.186\) V
  • (B) \(-0.186\) V
  • (C) \(-0.195\) V
  • (D) \(0.195\) V

Question 76:

If molar conductance at infinite dilution for \(\text{CH}_3\text{COO}^-\) and \(\text{H}^+\) ions are \(50 \text{S cm}^2 \text{mol}^{-1}\) and \(350 \text{S cm}^2 \text{mol}^{-1}\) respectively, molar conductivity of \(5\times 10^{-2}\) M \(\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}\) is \(20 \text{S cm}^2\text{mol}^{-1}\). What is the hydrogen ion concentration in \(\text{mol/dm}^3\) of \(\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}\)?

  • (A) \(5\times 10^{-2}\)
  • (B) \(5\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (C) \(2.5\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (D) \(2.5\times 10^{-4}\)

Question 77:

Which of the following expressions indicates the correct relationship between molar conductivity of strong electrolyte and its concentration?

  • (A) \(\Lambda = \Lambda _0+\sqrt{c}\)
  • (B) \(\Lambda = \Lambda _0-a\sqrt{c}\)
  • (C) \(\Lambda = \Lambda _0+a\sqrt{c}\)
  • (D) \(\Lambda = \Lambda _0-\sqrt{c}\)

Question 78:

What is the role of catalyst in reaction?

  • (A) To increase activation energy of a reaction
  • (B) To decrease the equilibrium constant of the reaction
  • (C) To supply energy to the reactants
  • (D) To decrease activation energy of a reaction

Question 79:

Calculate the rate constant of first order reaction \(\text{A}\rightarrow \text{B}\) having rate \(5.4\times 10^{-6} \text{mol dm}^{-3}\text{s}^{-1}\) and \([\text{A}] = 0.3\) M.

  • (A) \(1.52\times 10^{-5} \text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(1.68\times 10^{-5} \text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(1.72\times 10^{-5} \text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(1.80\times 10^{-5} \text{s}^{-1}\)

Question 80:

What is the order and molecularity of the following elementary reaction?
\(2\text{NO}_{2(g)}\rightarrow 2\text{NO}_{(g)}+\text{O}_{2(g)}\), rate \(= k\times [\text{NO}_2]^2\)

  • (A) The reaction is second order and biomolecular.
  • (B) The reaction is first order and bimolecular.
  • (C) The reaction is second order and unimolecular.
  • (D) The reaction is zero order and unimolecular.

Question 81:

Which of the following nanomaterials has one dimension \(< 100\) nm?

  • (A) Quantum dots
  • (B) Nanorings
  • (C) Thin films
  • (D) Nanowires

Question 82:

In Haber process of production of ammonia \(\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3\) is used as

  • (A) Adsorbate
  • (B) Inhibitor
  • (C) Catalyst
  • (D) Promoter

Question 83:

Which of the following pairs of elements does NOT include transition elements?

  • (A) Mn and Ag
  • (B) Zr and Au
  • (C) Mo and Pt
  • (D) Sn and Pm

Question 84:

Which of the following prediction is correct when the transition metal ion is colourless?

  • (A) it contains 0 unpaired electrons
  • (B) it contains 1 unpaired electrons
  • (C) it contains 2 unpaired electrons
  • (D) it contains 3 unpaired electrons

Question 85:

Which of the following complex is neutral?

  • (A) \(\text{K}_3[\text{Fe(CN)}_5\text{NO}]\)
  • (B) \([\text{Zn(NH}_3)_4]^{2+}\)
  • (C) \([\text{Co(NH}_3)_5\text{Cl}]^{2+}\)
  • (D) \([\text{Ni(CO)}_4]\)

Question 86:

Which of the following coordinate complexes is heteroleptic?

  • (A) Pentacarbonyliron(0)
  • (B) Triamminetrinitrocobalt(III)
  • (C) Tetraamminecopper(II) ion
  • (D) Tetracyanonickelate(II) ion

Question 87:

What is the major product formed when 2-bromopentane reacts with alcoholic KOH?

  • (A) Pent-1-ene
  • (B) Pent-2-ene
  • (C) Pentane
  • (D) Pentan-2-ol

Question 88:

In Finkelstein reaction, which one of the following reagents is used?

  • (A) HI in dry acetone
  • (B) NaI in dry acetone
  • (C) NaOI in dry acetone
  • (D) NaI in dry ether

Question 89:

Which of the following alcohols contains the hydroxy group, at the side chain of the aromatic ring?

  • (A) allylic alcohol
  • (B) vinylic alcohol
  • (C) aromatic alcohols
  • (D) aliphatic alcohol

Question 90:

In the following reaction, condition 'A' is -

  • (A) Reduction with Zinc dust
  • (B) Dehydration with \(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\) / 443 K
  • (C) Treatment with \(\text{CS}_2\) / low temperture
  • (D) Oxidation with \(\text{CrO}_3\)

Question 91:

Which of the following compounds exhibits Schiff test?

  • (A) Ketones
  • (B) Carboxylic acids
  • (C) Aldehydes
  • (D) Ethers

Question 92:

Which of the following reactions is preferentially used to prepare the corresponding paraffins from alkanone?

  • (A) Clemmensen reduction
  • (B) Etard reaction
  • (C) Rosenmund reduction
  • (D) Haloform reaction

Question 93:

Identify the reason for the highest boiling point of R-COOH as compared to alkanes, ethers, alcohols and aldehydes.

  • (A) Formation of carboxylate ion
  • (B) Van der waals force of attraction
  • (C) Formation of intramolecular hydrogen bonding
  • (D) Formation of intermolecular hydrogen bonding

Question 94:

Aniline on treatment with \(\text{NaNO}_2\) / HCl at about \(0^{\circ}\text{C}\) gives a compound A, which on further treatment with CuCN / KCN gives a compound B, which when reacts with \(\text{H}_2\) / Ni gives a compound C. The compound C on reaction with \(\text{HNO}_2\) gives a compound D. The structure of D is:

  • (A) \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{-CH}_2\text{-OH}\)
  • (B) \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{-NH-CH}_2\text{-CH}_3\)
  • (C) \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{-NH-OH}\)
  • (D) \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{-CH}_2\text{-NH}_2\)

Question 95:

Identify the reagent used to distinguish primary and secondary amines by Hinsberg test.

  • (A) \(\text{NaNO}_2\) and HCl
  • (B) \(\text{FeCl}_3\) (alc)
  • (C) \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{SO}_2\text{Cl}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CHCl}_3\) and KOH (alc)

Question 96:

Identify the product when glucose reacts with bromine water.

  • (A) Saccharic acid
  • (B) Cyanohydrin
  • (C) Gluconic acid
  • (D) Nucleic acid

Question 97:

What type of compound the Legumelin is?

  • (A) Carbohydrate
  • (B) Globular protein
  • (C) Fibrous protein
  • (D) Enzyme

Question 98:

Which of the following is fully Fluorinated polymer?

  • (A) PVC
  • (B) Teflon
  • (C) neoprene
  • (D) Buna-S

Question 99:

Which of the following is a cross-linked, thermosetting polymer?

  • (A) Bakelite
  • (B) PVC
  • (C) Polystyrene
  • (D) PTFE (Teflon)

Question 100:

What is the chemical name of Aspirin?

  • (A) salicylic acid
  • (B) acetyl salicylic acid
  • (C) chloroxylenol
  • (D) thymol

Mathematics Section (Questions 101 to 150)


Question 101:

The statement having truth value 'T' from the following is

  • (A) \(sin(x)\) is an even function.
  • (B) Every square matrix is non-singular.
  • (C) The product of complex number and its conjugate is purely imaginary.
  • (D) A square of any real number is non-negative.

Question 102:

If \(i = \sqrt{-1}\) then \([i^{18}+(\frac{1}{i})^{25}]^3 =\)

  • (A) \(4+4i\)
  • (B) \(2+2i\)
  • (C) \(4-4i\)
  • (D) \(2-2i\)

Question 103:

The number of permutations of the letters of the word INSTITUTION are .......

  • (A) \(6652800\)
  • (B) \(221760\)
  • (C) \(1108800\)
  • (D) \(554400\)

Question 104:

If \(x+y = \frac{π}{4}\), then \((1+tanx)(1+tany) =\)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 105:

A straight line makes equal negative intercepts on the coordinate axes. If the perpendicular distance from the origin to the line is 4 units, then the equation of the line is ......

  • (A) \(x+y+4 = 0\)
  • (B) \(x+y+4\sqrt{2} = 0\)
  • (C) \(x-y+4 = 0\)
  • (D) \(x-y+4\sqrt{2} = 0\)

Question 106:

If the angle made by the lines represented by the equation \(ax^2+2hxy+by^2 = 0\) with X-axis are \(α\) and \(β\), then \(tan(α+β)\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{h}{a+b}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2h}{a-b}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2h}{a+b}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{h}{a-b}\)

Question 107:

The equation of a circle whose center lies on \(x+2y = 0\) and touching the lines \(3x-4y+8 = 0\) and \(3x-4y-28 = 0\) is

  • (A) \((x-2)^2+(y+1)^2 = 324\)
  • (B) \((x-2)^2+(y-1)^2 = 324\)
  • (C) \(5(x-2)^2+5(y+1)^2 = 324\)
  • (D) \(25(x-2)^2+25(y+1)^2 = 324\)

Question 108:

If \(P\) be any point on the ellipse \(16x^2+25y^2 = 400\) with foci \(S\) and \(S^'\) and area of \(△PSS^'\) is 9 square units, then the abscissa of point \(P\) is...........

  • (A) \(\frac{7\sqrt{5}}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4\sqrt{7}}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5\sqrt{7}}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{10}{7}\)

Question 109:

The value of \(\underset{n\rightarrow \infty }{lim}[\frac{1}{1-n^2}+\frac{2}{1-n^2}+\ldots +\frac{n}{1-n^2}]^3\) is

  • (A) \(8\)
  • (B) \(-8\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-1}{8}\)

Question 110:

If \(\sim p∨q\) is false then which of the following is correct?

  • (A) \(p\leftrightarrow q\) is \(T\)
  • (B) \(p\rightarrow q\) is \(T\)
  • (C) \(q\rightarrow p\) is \(T\)
  • (D) \(q\rightarrow p\) is \(F\)

Question 111:

The contrapositive of \(\sim q\rightarrow p\) is equivalent to

  • (A) \(p\rightarrow q\)
  • (B) \(p∧q\)
  • (C) \(p∨q\)
  • (D) \(\sim p\rightarrow \sim q\)

Question 112:

The angles of \(△ABC\) are in A.P. and \(b:c = \sqrt{3}:\sqrt{2}\) then \(\angle A =\)

  • (A) \(30^{\circ}\)
  • (B) \(90^{\circ}\)
  • (C) \(105^{\circ}\)
  • (D) \(75^{\circ}\)

Question 113:

With the usual notations, if the lengths of the sides of the triangle are 3 units, 5 units and 7 units, then the largest angle of the triangle is

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2π}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{4}\)

Question 114:

If \(A = [\begin{array}{cc}1 & -5 \\ -2 & 4\end{array}]\), then \(A^{-1} =\)

  • (A) \(-\frac{1}{6}[\begin{array}{cc}-4 & 5 \\ 2 & -1\end{array}]\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{14}[\begin{array}{cc}-1 & 5 \\ 2 & -4\end{array}]\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{14}[\begin{array}{cc}4 & 5 \\ 2 & 1\end{array}]\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{1}{6}[\begin{array}{cc}4 & 5 \\ 2 & 1\end{array}]\)

Question 115:

Let \(A = \left[ \begin{array}{ccc}3 & 1 & 2 \\ 1 & 2 & 0 \\ 1 & 1 & 4\end{array} \right]\) and \(pC_{11}+4C_{21}-5C_{32} = -2\), where \(C_{ij}\) denotes the cofactor of an element \(a_{ij}\) of matrix \(A\), then the value of \(p\) is :

  • (A) \(-2\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 116:

If \(3sin^{-1}(\frac{2x}{1+x^2})-4cos^{-1}(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2})+2tan^{-1}(\frac{2x}{1-x^2}) = \frac{π}{3}\) then \(x = ?\)

  • (A) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (D) \(-1\)

Question 117:

If \(2sin^{-1}x-3cos^{-1}x = 4\), then \(2sin^{-1}x+3cos^{-1}x =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{6π-4}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{6π+4}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5π-4}{6}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5π+4}{6}\)

Question 118:

If \(f(x) = \frac{2x-1}{x+5}\), \(x\neq -5\) then \(f^{-1}(x)\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\frac{x+5}{2x-1}\), \(x\neq \frac{1}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{5x+1}{2-x}\), \(x\neq 2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5x-1}{2-x}\), \(x\neq 2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{x-5}{2x+1}\), \(x\neq -\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 119:

If the function \(f(x)\) defined by \(f(x) = \{\begin{array}{cc}ax+1 & \text{if }x\leq 3 \\ bx+3 & \text{if }x > 3\end{array}\) is continuous at \(x = 3\), then \((a-b) =\) ..........

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 120:

If \(f(x),g(x)\) be twice differentiable functions, satisfying \(f^{''}(x) = g^{''}(x),f^'(1) = 2g^'(1) = 4\) and \(f(2) = 3g(2) = 9\) then \(f(x)-g(x)\) at \(x = 4\) is equal to

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(10\)
  • (C) \(8\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 121:

If \(y = cos^2[cot^{-1}(\sqrt{\frac{1-x}{1+x}})]\) then \(\frac{dy}{dx} =\) ........

  • (A) \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(-1\)

Question 122:

If \(\sqrt{\frac{x}{y}}+\sqrt{\frac{y}{x}} = 6\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx} =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{x+17y}{17x-y}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x-17y}{17x-y}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{x-17y}{17x+y}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{x+17y}{17x+y}\)

Question 123:

If \(x = 4t^3+3,y = 3t^4+4\) and \(\frac{\frac{d^2x}{dy^2}}{(\frac{dx}{dy})^n}\) is constant then the value of \(n\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 124:

If \(x = asin^3t\) and \(y = acos^3t\), then the value of \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\) at \(t = \frac{π}{3}\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\frac{-32}{27a}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{-32}{3\sqrt{3}a}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{32}{27a}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-32}{9a}\)

Question 125:

An aeroplane at an altitude of 1 km is flying horizontally at 600 km / hr, passes directly over an observer. Then the rate at which it is approaching the observer when it is 1250 meters away from him is........

  • (A) \(360 km/hr\)
  • (B) \(430 km/hr\)
  • (C) \(600 km/hr\)
  • (D) \(250 km/hr\)

Question 126:

The line \(x+y = 0\) touches the curve \(y^2 = ax^3+b\) at \((1,-1)\) then values of \(a\) and \(b\) respectively are ...........

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2},\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{3},\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{3},\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{5},\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 127:

The function \(f(x) = x(x+3)e^{-(\frac{1}{2})x}\) satisfies all the conditions of Rolle's theorem in \([-3,0]\), then \(c =\)

  • (A) \(-3\)
  • (B) \(-2\)
  • (C) \(-1\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 128:

If \(\int f(x)dx = g(x)+c\) then \(\int f^{-1}(x)dx =\)

  • (A) \(xf^{-1}(x)+c\)
  • (B) \(f(g^{-1}(x))+c\)
  • (C) \(xf^{-1}(x)-g(f^{-1}(x))+c\)
  • (D) \(g^{-1}(x)+c\)

Question 129:

\(\int \frac{logx}{(1+logx)^2}dx =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{1+logx}+c\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{1}{1+logx}+c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{x}{1+logx}+c\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{x}{1+logx}+c\)

Question 130:

\(\int \frac{1}{\sqrt{2x-x^2}}dx =\)

  • (A) \(sin^{-1}(x-1)+c\)
  • (B) \(cos^{-1}(x-1)+c\)
  • (C) \(tan^{-1}(x-1)+c\)
  • (D) \(sin^{-1}x+c\)

Question 131:

\(\int (x^{21}+x^6+x^3)(2x^{18}+7x^3+14)^{\frac{1}{3}} dx =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{56}(2x^{18}+7x^3+14)^{\frac{4}{3}}+c\)
  • (B) \((2x^{18}+7x^3+14)^{\frac{4}{3}}+c\)
  • (C) \((2x^{21}+7x^6+14x^3)^{\frac{4}{3}}+c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{56}(2x^{21}+7x^6+14x^3)^{\frac{4}{3}}+c\)

Question 132:

The value of the integral \(\int _{1/e}^e\frac{|logx|}{x^2}dx\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{e^2-1}{2e}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{e}\)
  • (C) \(2-\frac{2}{e}\)
  • (D) \(1-\frac{1}{e}\)

Question 133:

If \(\int _{-π/2}^{π/2}(sin^2x+sin^3x)dx = k\), then the value of \(k\)

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(π\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{2}\)

Question 134:

If \(I_n = \int _0^{π/4}tan^nx dx,n\in N\) then \(I_{n+2}+I_n\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{n}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{n+1}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{n-1}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{n-2}\)

Question 135:

The area in square units of the region bounded by the curve \(y = \sqrt{16-x^2}\) and lines \(x = 0,x = 4\) above the X-axis is

  • (A) \(16π\)
  • (B) \(12π\)
  • (C) \(8π\)
  • (D) \(4π\)

Question 136:

The general solution of the differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx}+\frac{y}{x} = x^2+5\) is ....

  • (A) \(\frac{x^4}{4}+\frac{5x^2}{2}-xy = c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x^4}{4}-\frac{5x^2}{2}-xy = c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{x^4}{4}-\frac{5x^2}{2}+xy = c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{x^4}{4}+\frac{5x^2}{2}+xy = c\)

Question 137:

The order and degree of the differential equation \(\sqrt{⎷1+\frac{1}{(\frac{dy}{dx})^2}} = (\frac{d^2y}{dx^2})^{\frac{3}{2}}\), respectively are

  • (A) \(2,1\)
  • (B) \(2,3\)
  • (C) \(1,2\)
  • (D) \(3,2\)

Question 138:

Let \(\overset{⃗}{a} = 2\hat{i}+\hat{k},\overset{⃗}{b} = \hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}\), and \(\overset{⃗}{c} = 4\hat{i}-3\hat{j}+7\hat{k}\). If \(\overset{⃗}{r}\) is a vector such that \(\overset{⃗}{r}\times \overset{⃗}{b} = \overset{⃗}{c}\times \overset{⃗}{b}\) and \(\overset{⃗}{r}\cdot \overset{⃗}{a} = 0\), Then \(\overset{⃗}{r}\cdot \overset{⃗}{c} =\)

  • (A) \(-14\)
  • (B) \(34\)
  • (C) \(-7\)
  • (D) \(20\)

Question 139:

If \(\overset{⃗}{u} = \hat{i}+2\hat{j}-2\hat{k},\overset{⃗}{v} = 2\hat{i}+\hat{k}\) and \(\overset{⃗}{w}\) is unit vector then the maximum value of scalar triple product \([\overset{⃗}{u} \overset{⃗}{v} \overset{⃗}{w}]\) is

  • (A) \(-3\sqrt{5}\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(3\sqrt{5}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{54}\)

Question 140:

If \(\overset{⃗}{a},\overset{⃗}{b},\overset{⃗}{c}\) are three non-coplanar vectors and \(\overset{⃗}{p},\overset{⃗}{q},\overset{⃗}{r}\) are defined as \(\overset{⃗}{p} = \frac{\overset{⃗}{b}\times \overset{⃗}{c}}{[\overset{⃗}{a} \overset{⃗}{b} \overset{⃗}{c}]},\overset{⃗}{q} = \frac{\overset{⃗}{c}\times \overset{⃗}{a}}{[\overset{⃗}{a} \overset{⃗}{b} \overset{⃗}{c}]},\overset{⃗}{r} = \frac{\overset{⃗}{a}\times \overset{⃗}{b}}{[\overset{⃗}{a} \overset{⃗}{b} \overset{⃗}{c}]}\), then \([(\overset{⃗}{a}+\overset{⃗}{b})\cdot \overset{⃗}{p}+(\overset{⃗}{b}+\overset{⃗}{c})\cdot \overset{⃗}{q}+(\overset{⃗}{c}+\overset{⃗}{a})\cdot \overset{⃗}{r}]\) is equal to

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 141:

The volume of the parallelopiped whose coterminous edges are \(2\hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k},3\hat{i}-\hat{j}-\hat{k},\hat{j}+3\hat{k}\) is

  • (A) \(16\) cu. units
  • (B) \(6\) cu. units
  • (C) \(2\) cu. units
  • (D) \(12\) cu. units

Question 142:

Given the following expression
A) \((\overset{⃗}{a}\times \overset{⃗}{b})\cdot \overset{⃗}{c}\)
B) \(\overset{⃗}{a}\times (\overset{⃗}{b}\cdot \overset{⃗}{c})\)
C) \(\overset{⃗}{a}\cdot (\overset{⃗}{b}\cdot \overset{⃗}{c})\)
D) \(|\overset{⃗}{a}|(\overset{⃗}{b}\cdot \overset{⃗}{c})\)
E) \((\overset{⃗}{a}\cdot \overset{⃗}{b})\times (\overset{⃗}{b}\cdot \overset{⃗}{c})\)
Then which of the following is not correct

  • (A) B and E are meaningful
  • (B) A and D are meaningful
  • (C) B, C and E are meaningless
  • (D) A is meaningful but B is meaningless

Question 143:

If the perpendicular distance of the plane passing through the point \(Q(1,0,-1)\) and containing the line \(\overset{⃗}{r} = (\hat{i}-3\hat{j}+\hat{k})+λ(2\hat{i}-2\hat{j}+\hat{k})\) from origin is \(\frac{p}{\sqrt{53}}\) then \(p =\) ...

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) \(9\)

Question 144:

If the line joining points \((2,1,4)\) and \((a-1,4,-1)\) is parallel to the line joining points \((0,2,b-1)\) and \((5,3,-2)\) then the values of \(b\) and \(a\) are respectively

  • (A) \(18,\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{2},18\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{3},18\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{2}{3},18\)

Question 145:

Lines \(\overset{⃗}{r} = \overset{⃗}{a}+λ\overset{⃗}{b}\) and \(\overset{⃗}{r} = \overset{⃗}{b}+μ\overset{⃗}{a}\) intersect at point \((2,4,-4)\). If \(|\overset{⃗}{a}-\overset{⃗}{b}| = 4\), then \(\overset{⃗}{a}\cdot \overset{⃗}{b} =\)

  • (A) \(5\)
  • (B) \(10\)
  • (C) \(-5\)
  • (D) \(-10\)

Question 146:

The Cartesian equations of the line passing through \(A(0,1,1)\) and parallel to the X-axis are ....

  • (A) \(y = 1,z = 1\)
  • (B) \(x = 0\)
  • (C) \(x+y+z = 2\)
  • (D) \(y = z\)

Question 147:

The LPP maximize \(z = 2x+5y\) subject to \(x+3y\leq 6\), \(2x+6y\leq 18\), \(x\geq 0\), \(y\geq 0\) has

  • (A) Unique solution
  • (B) Infinite solutions
  • (C) No solution
  • (D) Unbounded feasible region

Question 148:

Four cards are drawn successively with replacement from well shuffled deck of 52 cards, then the probability that only two cards are club cards is ...........

  • (A) \(\frac{26}{128}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{24}{128}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{27}{128}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{28}{128}\)

Question 149:

For the following probability distribution of a random variable \(X\), the Expected value and Variance of \(X\) are respectively

\(X = x\)\(1\)\(2\)\(3\)
\(P(X = x)\)\(1/5\)\(2/5\)\(2/5\)

  • (A) \(\frac{27}{5},\frac{27}{25}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{11}{5},\frac{14}{25}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{5},\frac{14}{25}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{7}{5},\frac{11}{25}\)

Question 150:

A fair die is rolled indefinitely. Player A wins if two consecutive rolls show 3 or 5, and player B wins if two consecutive rolls show 1 or 2 or 4 or 6. The probability that player A wins in the long run is

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{5}{21}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{21}\)

MHT CET PCM Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT-CET 2026 Exam Strategy