MHT CET 2026 April 16 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on April 16 in Shift 2 from 2 PM to 5 PM in CBT mode.

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Also Check: MHT CET 2026 April 16 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper with Solution PDF

Download MHT CET 2026 April 16 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper with Solutions PDF from the links provided below.

MHT CET 2026 April 16 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper PDF (Memory-Based) 

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MHT CET 2026 April 16 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions

MHT CET 2026 April 16 Shift 2 PCM Questions with Solutions

Physics Section (Questions 1 to 50)

Question 1:

The error in the measurement of length and mass of a cube is 3% and 4% respectively. The error in the measurement of its density will be

  • (A) \(13 \%\)
  • (B) \(6 \%\)
  • (C) \(9 \%\)
  • (D) \(15 \%\)

Question 2:

Vectors \(a\hat{i}+b\hat{j}+\hat{k}\) and \(2\hat{i}-3\hat{j}+4\hat{k}\) are perpendicular to each other when \(3a+2b = 7\), the ratio of a to b is \(x/2\). The value of x is

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(8\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 3:

Two objects are projected with same velocity 'u' at different angles \(α\) and \(β\) with the horizontal. If \(α+β = 90^{\circ}\), the ratio of horizontal range of the first object to the second object will be \([sin(π-θ) = sinθ]\)

  • (A) \(4:1\)
  • (B) \(2:1\)
  • (C) \(1:1\)
  • (D) \(1:2\)

Question 4:

A body of mass 1kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force \(\overset{⃗}{F} = (t\hat{i}+3t^2\hat{j}) \text{N}\) where \(\hat{i}\) and \(\hat{j}\) are the unit vectors along x and y axis. The power developed by the above force at time \(t = 2 \text{s}\) will be (in watt)

  • (A) \(100\)
  • (B) \(50\)
  • (C) \(25\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 5:

A solid sphere of mass M and a disc of mass \(\frac{M}{2}\) have the same radius. The ratio of moment of inertia of the disc about a tangent in its plane to the moment of inertia of the sphere about its tangent will be

  • (A) \(15:8\)
  • (B) \(25:56\)
  • (C) \(12:7\)
  • (D) \(16:9\)

Question 6:

A uniform solid cylinder with radius R and length L has moment of inertia \(I_1\) about the axis of the cylinder. A concentric solid cylinder of radius \(R/2\) and length \(L/2\) is carved out of the original cylinder. If \(I_2\) is the moment of inertia of the carved out portion of the cylinder then \(I_1/I_2\) is (Both \(I_1\) and \(I_2\) are about the axis of the cylinder)

  • (A) \(4:1\)
  • (B) \(8:1\)
  • (C) \(16:1\)
  • (D) \(32:1\)

Question 7:

Solid sphere is rotating about an axis as shown in figure. If the radius of the sphere is 5 cm, then radius of gyration about that axis will be \(\sqrt{x}\) cm. The value of x is

  • (A) \(100\)
  • (B) \(110\)
  • (C) \(120\)
  • (D) \(140\)

Question 8:

A body of mass m is taken from earth surface to a height h equal to twice the radius of earth, the increase in potential energy will be (\(g\) = acceleration due to gravity on earth's surface) (R - radius of earth)

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{3}\text{mgR}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{3}\text{mgR}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\text{mgR}\)
  • (D) \(3\text{mgR}\)

Question 9:

One thousand small water drops of equal radii combine to form a big drop. The ratio of final surface energy to the total initial surface energy is

  • (A) \(1:1\)
  • (B) \(1:10\)
  • (C) \(1:100\)
  • (D) \(1:1000\)

Question 10:

Under isothermal condition, two soap bubbles of radii \(r_1\) and \(r_2\) combine to form a single soap bubble of radius R. The surface tension of the soap solution is (P = outside pressure)

  • (A) \(\frac{P(R^3-r_1^3-r_2^3)}{4(r_1^2+r_2^2-R^2)}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{P(R^3+r_1^3+r_2^3)}{2(r_1^2-r_2^2+R^2)}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{P(r_1^3-r_2^3-R^3)}{(R^2+r^2+r^2)}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{P(R^3-r_1^3+r_2^3)}{2(r_1^2+r_2^2-R^2)}\)

Question 11:

A horizontal pipe carries water in a streamline flow. At point along the pipe, where the cross-sectional area is \(A_1\), the velocity of water is \(V_1\) and the pressure is \(P_1\). What is the pressure of water at another point where the cross-sectional area is \(A_2\)?

  • (A) \(P_1-\frac{ρV_2^2}{2A_1^2}(A_2^2-A_1^2)\)
  • (B) \(P_1+\frac{ρV_1^2}{2A_2^2}(A_2^2-A_1^2)\)
  • (C) \(P_1ρV_1^2(A_1^2-A_2^2)\)
  • (D) \(P/ρV_1^2A_2^2\)

Question 12:

A bowl filled with very hot water cools from \(98^{\circ}\text{C}\) to \(86^{\circ}\text{C}\) in 2 minutes when the room temperature is \(22^{\circ}\text{C}\). How long it will take to cool from \(75^{\circ}\text{C}\) to \(69^{\circ}\text{C}\) ?

  • (A) \(0.5\) minute
  • (B) \(1.4\) minute
  • (C) \(1\) minute
  • (D) \(2\) minute

Question 13:

A Carnot engine with efficiency 50% takes heat from a source at 600 K. To increase the efficiency by 20%, keeping temperature of the sink same, the new temperature of the source will be

  • (A) \(300 \text{K}\)
  • (B) \(900 \text{K}\)
  • (C) \(1000 \text{K}\)
  • (D) \(360 \text{K}\)

Question 14:

One gram of a liquid is converted to vapour at \(3\times 10^5\) Pa pressure. If 10% of the heat supplied is used for increasing the volume by \(1600 \text{cm}^3\) during this phase change, then the increase in internal energy in the process will be

  • (A) \(4.32\times 10^8 \text{J}\)
  • (B) \(4800 \text{J}\)
  • (C) \(4320 \text{J}\)
  • (D) \(4.32\times 10^5 \text{J}\)

Question 15:

The average transnational kinetic energy of a molecule in a gas is \(E_1\). The kinetic energy of the electron (e) accelerated from rest through potential difference 'V' volt is \(E_2\). The temperature at which \(E_1 = E_2\) possible is (mass of molecule and electron is same) (N = number of molecules, V = Velocity, R = gas constant)

  • (A) \(\frac{2VNe}{3R}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{VNe}{2R}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3NeV}{2R}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5NeV}{3R}\)

Question 16:

A rigid diatomic gas having molar mass m is contained in an insulated container. The container is moving with velocity V. If it is stopped suddenly, the change in temperature is (R - gas constant)

  • (A) \(\frac{mV^2}{R}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{mV^2}{3R}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{mV^2}{5R}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{mV^2}{7R}\)

Question 17:

If a gas is compressed isothermally then the r.m.s. velocity of the molecules

  • (A) increases
  • (B) remains the same
  • (C) decreases
  • (D) first increases and then decreases

Question 18:

A mass \(m_1\) performs S.H.M. with amplitude A which is connected to horizontal spring. While mass \(m_1\) passing through mean position, another mass \(m_2\) (\(m_2 < m_1\)) is placed on it so that both masses move together with amplitude \(A_1\). The ratio of \(A/A_1\) is

  • (A) \([\frac{m_1+m_2}{m_1}]^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (B) \([\frac{m_1}{m_1+m_2}]^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{m_1}{m_1+m_2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{m_2}{m_1+m_2}\)

Question 19:

The maximum potential energy of a block executing S.H.M. is E and amplitude of oscillation is 'A'. The kinetic energy of the block at amplitude A/2 is

  • (A) \(\frac{3\text{E}}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\text{E}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2\text{E}}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5\text{E}}{4}\)

Question 20:

The time taken by simple pendulum for one oscillation is T on earth's surface. Its time period becomes xT when taken to a height R (equal to earth's radius) above the earth's surface. The value of x is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 21:

An air column in a pipe which is closed at one end will be in resonance with a vibrating tuning fork of frequency 415 Hz for various vibrating air columns. Which one of the following lengths is not in resonance ? (velocity of sound in air = 332 m/s) (Neglect end correction)

  • (A) \(20 \text{cm}\)
  • (B) \(40 \text{cm}\)
  • (C) \(60 \text{cm}\)
  • (D) \(100 \text{cm}\)

Question 22:

Two waves \(Y_1 = 0.25sin316t\) and \(Y_2 = 0.25sin310t\) are propagating along the same direction. The number of beats produced per second are

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{π}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{π}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{2}\)

Question 23:

When open pipe is closed from one end then third overtone of closed pipe is higher in frequency by 150Hz than second overtone of open pipe. The fundamental frequency of open end pipe will be (Neglect end correction)

  • (A) \(75 \text{Hz}\)
  • (B) \(150 \text{Hz}\)
  • (C) \(225 \text{Hz}\)
  • (D) \(300 \text{Hz}\)

Question 24:

A person observes two moving trains. 'A' reaching the station and 'B' leaving the station with equal speed of 30m/s. If both trains emit sounds with frequency 300 Hz, (speed of sound = 330 m/s) difference of frequencies heard by the person will be

  • (A) \(10 \text{Hz}\)
  • (B) \(33 \text{Hz}\)
  • (C) \(55 \text{Hz}\)
  • (D) \(80 \text{Hz}\)

Question 25:

Two spherical hollow spheres of radii '\(R_1\)' and '\(R_2\)' are charged with same charge. Let '\(σ_1\)' and '\(σ_2\)' are their respective charge densities, then the ratio \(σ_1\) to \(σ_2\) is

  • (A) \(R_1:R_2\)
  • (B) \(R_2:R_1\)
  • (C) \(R_2^2:R_1^2\)
  • (D) \(R_1^2:R_2^2\)

Question 26:

An electric dipole of length \(0.5 μ\text{m}\) is placed with its axis making an angle of \(30^{\circ}\) with uniform electric field \(10^4 \text{V/m}\). If it experiences a torque of \(5\times 10^{-9} \text{Nm}\), the magnitude of the charge on the dipole is (\(sin30^{\circ} = 0.5\))

  • (A) \(1 μ\text{C}\)
  • (B) \(1.5 μ\text{C}\)
  • (C) \(2 μ\text{C}\)
  • (D) \(2.5 μ\text{C}\)

Question 27:

Two charges \(q_1\) and \(q_2\) are separated by a distance of 30cm. A third charge \(q_3\) initially at point C is shown in figure, is moved along the circular path of radius 40 cm from C to D. If the difference in potential energy due to movement of \(q_3\) from C to D is \(q_3k/4πε_0\), the value of K is (\(ε_0\) = permittivity of free space)

  • (A) \(8q_2\)
  • (B) \(8q_1\)
  • (C) \(6q_2\)
  • (D) \(6q_1\)

Question 28:

A capacitor has capacity C when it's parallel plates are separated by air medium of thickness 'd'. A slab of material of dielectric constant K having area equal to that of plates but thickness \(\frac{d}{2}\) is inserted between the plates. Capacitance of the capacitor in the presence of slab will be

  • (A) \(\text{KC}\)
  • (B) \(2\text{KC}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\text{KC}}{\text{K}+1}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2\text{KC}}{\text{K}+1}\)

Question 29:

A galvanometer has resistance G and range Vg. How much resistance is required to read voltage up to V volt?

  • (A) \(GV_g\)
  • (B) \(G(\frac{V-V_g}{V})\)
  • (C) \(G(\frac{V}{V_g}-1)\)
  • (D) \(G(\frac{V+V_g}{V})\)

Question 30:

If the potential difference between points B and D is zero in the given circuit, the value of x is \(\frac{1}{n} \Omega\). The value n is

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 31:

The magnetic field intensity (H) at the centre of a long solenoid having 'n' turns per unit length and carrying a current I, when no material is kept in it is (\(μ_0\) = permeability of free space)

  • (A) \(n/I\)
  • (B) \(nI\)
  • (C) \(μ_0I\)
  • (D) \(μ_0/nI\)

Question 32:

The magnitude of magnetic induction at mid point 'O' due to current arrangement as shown in figure will be (\(μ_0\) = permeability of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{μ_0I}{2πa}\)
  • (B) zero
  • (C) \(\frac{μ_0I}{4πa}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{μ_0I}{πa}\)

Question 33:

A circular loop of radius R is carrying current I. The ratio of magnetic field at the center of circular loop and at a distance R from the center of the loop on its axis is

  • (A) \(1:\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(1:3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{8}:1\)
  • (D) \(3\sqrt{2}:1\)

Question 34:

A circular coil of radius 'r' is placed on another circular coil whose radius is 'R' and the current flowing through it is changing and their centers coincide. (\(R≫r\)). If both the coils are coplanar, then the mutual inductance between them is proportional to

  • (A) \(\frac{r}{R}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{R}{r}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{R^2}{r}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{r^2}{R}\)

Question 35:

A graph of magnetic flux (\(\Phi\)) versus current (I) is shown for four inductors A, B, C, D. The smallest value of self inductance is for inductor.

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 36:

In the given circuit, if \(dI/dt = -1 \text{A/s}\) then the value of \(V_{AB}\) at this instant will be

  • (A) \(30\text{V}\)
  • (B) \(20\text{V}\)
  • (C) \(10\text{V}\)
  • (D) \(15\text{V}\)

Question 37:

Alternating current of peak value \((\frac{2}{π})\) A flows through the primary coil of a transformer. The coefficient of mutual inductance between primary and secondary coils is 1H. The peak value of induced e.m.f. in the secondary coil is
(Frequency of a.c. = 50 Hz)

  • (A) \(100\text{V}\)
  • (B) \(300\text{V}\)
  • (C) \(200\text{V}\)
  • (D) \(400\text{V}\)

Question 38:

Series LCR circuit containing an a.c. source of 100V has a inductor and a capacitor of reactance \(24 \Omega\) and \(16 \Omega\) respectively. If a resistance of \(6 \Omega\) is connected in series, then the potential difference across the series combination of inductor and capacitor only is

  • (A) \(80\text{V}\)
  • (B) \(8\text{V}\)
  • (C) \(40\text{V}\)
  • (D) \(20\text{V}\)

Question 39:

An inductor of inductance \(2 μ\text{H}\) is connected in series with a resistance, a variable capacitor and an a.c. source of 10 kHz. The value of capacitance for which maximum current is drawn in to the circuit is \(\frac{1}{x} \text{F}\), where the value of x is (Take \(π^2 = 10\))

  • (A) \(8000\)
  • (B) \(600\)
  • (C) \(400\)
  • (D) \(1600\)

Question 40:

A ray of light passes from the vacuum into a medium of refractive index 'n'. If the angle of incidence is twice the angle of refraction, then the angle of incidence in terms of refractive index is

  • (A) \(sin^{-1}(\frac{n}{2})\)
  • (B) \(2cos^{-1}(\frac{n}{2})\)
  • (C) \(2sin^{-1}(\frac{n}{2})\)
  • (D) \(cos^{-1}(\frac{n}{2})\)

Question 41:

A convex lens having refractive index 1.6 has focal length 12 cm, when it is in air. The focal length of that lens when placed in water is (refractive index of water = 1.28)

  • (A) \(655 \text{mm}\)
  • (B) \(288 \text{mm}\)
  • (C) \(555 \text{mm}\)
  • (D) \(355 \text{mm}\)

Question 42:

Three identical polaroids \(P_1\), \(P_2\) and \(P_3\) are placed one after another. The pass axis of \(P_2\) and \(P_3\) are inclined at angle of \(60^{\circ}\) and \(90^{\circ}\) with respect to axis of \(P_1\). The source has an intensity \(I_0\). The intensity of light finally coming out is

  • (A) \(\frac{I_0}{2}cos^230^{\circ}cos^290^{\circ}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{I_0}{2}cos^260^{\circ}cos^230^{\circ}\)
  • (C) \(I_0cos^260^{\circ}cos^230^{\circ}\)
  • (D) zero

Question 43:

In Young's double slit experiment, two slits are illuminated with a light of wavelength \(λ\). The line joining \(A_1P\) is perpendicular to \(A_1A_2\) as shown in figure. If the first minimum is detected at P, the value of slits separation 'a' will be
(D = distance between source and screen)

  • (A) \(λ\text{D}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{λ\text{D}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{λ}{\text{D}}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{\text{D}}{λ}}\)

Question 44:

When a light of wavelength '\(λ\)' falls on the emitter of a photosensitive surface, maximum speed of emitted photoelectrons is 'V'. If the incident wavelength is changed to '\(2λ/3\)', maximum speed of emitted photoelectrons will be

  • (A) less than \(V(1.5)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (B) greater than \(V(1.5)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (C) less than \(V\)
  • (D) less than \(\frac{V}{2}\)

Question 45:

A photoemissive substance is illuminated with a radiation of wavelength \(λ_i\) so that it releases electrons with de-Broglie wavelength \(λ_e\). The longest wavelength of radiation that can emit photoelectron is \(λ_0\). Expression for de-Broglie wavelength is (m = mass of electron, h = Planck's constant, C = Speed of light)

  • (A) \((\text{h}λ_i/2\text{mc})^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (B) \((\text{h}λ_0/2\text{mc})^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (C) \([\text{h}/2\text{mc}(\frac{1}{λ_i}-\frac{1}{λ_0})]^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (D) \([\text{h}/[2\text{mc}(\frac{1}{λ_i}-\frac{1}{λ_0})]^{\frac{1}{2}}\)

Question 46:

An electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a hydrogen like atom. Out of the following statements which one is correct ?
(A) K.E, P. E. and T.E. decreases
(B) K.E. increases but P. E. and T.E. decreases
(C) K.E. and T.E. decreases but P.E. increases
(D) K.E. decreases, P.E. increases but T.E. remains the same

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 47:

The ratio of the density of oxygen nucleus \((_8^{16}\text{O})\) and helium nucleus \((_2^4\text{He})\) is

  • (A) \(1:1\)
  • (B) \(2:1\)
  • (C) \(4:1\)
  • (D) \(8:1\)

Question 48:

Electrical conductivity of insulators is

  • (A) exactly zero
  • (B) extremely large
  • (C) extremely small
  • (D) sometimes small and sometimes large

Question 49:

Which of the following statement is NOT correct in the case of LED?
(A) It is a heavily doped p-n junction diode.
(B) It emits light only when it is forward biased.
(C) It emits light only when it is reverse biased.
(D) The energy of the light emitted is equal to or slightly less than the energy gap of the semiconductor used.

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 50:

In which of the logic gate the following statement is true? "The output is high when either of the inputs is high but not if both inputs are high"

  • (A) NAND
  • (B) NOR
  • (C) X-OR
  • (D) OR

Chemistry Section (Questions 51 to 100)


Question 51:

The ratio of mass of 'x' atoms of an element to mass of carbon atoms is 9:1. Find the mass of 1 mol of x if molar mass of carbon is 12 g/mol.

  • (A) \(54 \text{g}\)
  • (B) \(108 \text{g}\)
  • (C) \(180 \text{g}\)
  • (D) \(216 \text{g}\)

Question 52:

What is the number of unpaired electrons present in ground state of Silicon and Chromium, respectively ?

  • (A) 2 and 4
  • (B) 2 and 6
  • (C) 0 and 6
  • (D) 4 and 5

Question 53:

Identify the most electronegative element by the following.

  • (A) Oxygen
  • (B) Nitrogen
  • (C) Fluorine
  • (D) Chlorine

Question 54:

What is the total number of electrons present in bonding and antibonding orbitals respectively in \(\text{F}_2\) molecule according to MO theory ?

  • (A) Bonding - 8, Antibonding - 10
  • (B) Bonding - 6, Antibonding - 12
  • (C) Bonding - 10, Antibonding - 8
  • (D) Bonding - 12, Antibonding - 6

Question 55:

At constant temperature, a gas occupies a volume of 200 mL at a pressure of 500 mm Hg. What will be its volume at 800 mm Hg pressure?

  • (A) \(280 \text{mL}\)
  • (B) \(125 \text{mL}\)
  • (C) \(100 \text{mL}\)
  • (D) \(350 \text{mL}\)

Question 56:

Which of the following statements is not correct ?

  • (A) \(\Delta G^{\circ}\) is an extensive property.
  • (B) \(E^{\circ}\) cell is an intensive property.
  • (C) For a chemical reaction to be spontaneous \(\Delta G\) must be \(-\text{ve}\).
  • (D) Electrical work is equal to \(\Delta G\)

Question 57:

The heat of combustion of carbon to \(\text{CO}_2\) is \(-393.5 \text{kJ/mol}\). The heat released upon formation of 35.2 g of \(\text{CO}_2\) from carbon and oxygen gas is

  • (A) \(+315 \text{kJ}\)
  • (B) \(-315 \text{kJ}\)
  • (C) \(-3.15 \text{kJ}\)
  • (D) \(-630 \text{kJ}\)

Question 58:

Calculate the enthalpy change when 6 g. \(\text{CO(g)}\) reacts with sufficient \(\text{NO}_2\text{(g)}\) according to the following reaction
\(4\,\text{CO(g)}+2\,\text{NO}_2\text{(g)}\rightarrow 4\,\text{CO}_2\text{(g)}+2\text{N}_2\text{(g)}\,; \Delta _rH^0 = -1200 \text{kJ}\)

  • (A) \(-16.08 \text{kJ}\).
  • (B) \(-32.15 \text{kJ}\).
  • (C) \(-64.29 \text{kJ}\)
  • (D) \(-128.58 \text{kJ}\).

Question 59:

Identify the process that proceeds with no heat exchange between system and surrounding.

  • (A) Isothermal
  • (B) Isobaric
  • (C) Isochoric
  • (D) Adiabatic

Question 60:

The solubility product of sparingly soluble salt BA is \(4\times 10^{-13}\). Calculate the \([\text{A}^-]\) if \([\text{B}^+]\) is \(1\times 10^{-6} \text{M}\).

  • (A) \(2\times 10^{-7} \text{M}\)
  • (B) \(3\times 10^{-7} \text{M}\)
  • (C) \(4\times 10^{-7} \text{M}\)
  • (D) \(5\times 10^{-7} \text{M}\)

Question 61:

Which of the following salt undergoes anionic hydrolysis ?

  • (A) \(\text{CuSO}_4\)
  • (B) \(\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3\)
  • (C) \(\text{NH}_4\text{Cl}\)
  • (D) \(\text{FeCl}_3\)

Question 62:

Identify from the following salts an example of a salt of strong acid and weak base.

  • (A) Ammonium acetate.
  • (B) Sodium acetate.
  • (C) Copper (II) chloride.
  • (D) Sodium carbonate.

Question 63:

What is oxidation state of chlorine in chlorous acid?

  • (A) \(+2\)
  • (B) \(+4\)
  • (C) \(+3\)
  • (D) \(+7\)

Question 64:

Which of the following phenomena represents oxidation?

  • (A) Removal of oxygen
  • (B) Addition of electronegative element
  • (C) Addition of electropositive element
  • (D) Gain of electron

Question 65:

What is the role of glycerol in the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide?

  • (A) It increases the reaction rate.
  • (B) It reduces the reaction rate.
  • (C) It increases the enthalpy of the reaction.
  • (D) It increases the rate of collisions between reactant molecules.

Question 66:

Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding dihydrogen?

  • (A) It is colorless and tasteless gas.
  • (B) It burns with a pale blue flame.
  • (C) It is a polar water-soluble gas.
  • (D) It is lighter than air.

Question 67:

Which of following has the highest nucleophilicity ?

  • (A) \(\text{F}^-\)
  • (B) \(\text{OH}^-\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_3^-\)
  • (D) \(\text{NH}_2^-\)

Question 68:

Identify the catalyst used in the Friedel crafts acylation reaction.

  • (A) Anhydrous \(\text{AlCl}_3\)
  • (B) Anhydrous \(\text{FeCl}_3\)
  • (C) \(\text{NaNO}_2\)
  • (D) Alcoholic KOH

Question 69:

Identify the use of Baeyer's reagent by the following.

  • (A) Detecting the presence of carbon carbon double bond.
  • (B) Polymerisation
  • (C) Oxidation
  • (D) Reduction

Question 70:

What is the total contribution of all corner particles in bcc unit cell?

  • (A) 1 particle
  • (B) 2 particles
  • (C) 3 particles
  • (D) 4 particles

Question 71:

When silver crystallizes, it forms face centered cubic cells, if the volume of unit cells \(6.84\times 10^{-23} \text{cm}^3\). Calculate the density of silver. (Molar mass of silver is 108 g/mol, \(N_A = 6.022\times 10^{23}\))

  • (A) \(12.49 \text{gm cm}^{-3}\)
  • (B) \(10.49 \text{gm cm}^{-3}\)
  • (C) \(16.89 \text{gm cm}^{-3}\)
  • (D) \(20.49 \text{gm cm}^{-3}\)

Question 72:

What is the coordination number of Ag in a crystal lattice?

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(12\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 73:

The normal boiling point of Ethyl acetate is \(77^{\circ}\text{C}\). A solution of non-volatile non-electrolyte solute in ethyl acetate boils at \(78^{\circ}\text{C}\). \(K_b\) for ethyl acetate is \(2.77 ^{\circ}\text{C kg mol}^{-1}\). What is the molality of the solution ?

  • (A) \(0.361 \text{m}\)
  • (B) \(0.052 \text{m}\)
  • (C) \(0.075 \text{m}\)
  • (D) \(0.25 \text{m}\)

Question 74:

18 g of glucose (molar mass = 180 g/mol) is dissolved in water to prepare 500 ml solution at \(15^{\circ}\text{C}\). Calculate the osmotic pressure of the solution. [\(R = 0.0821 \text{L atm K}^{-1} \text{mol}^{-1}\)]

  • (A) \(1.65 \text{atm}\)
  • (B) \(4.73 \text{atm}\)
  • (C) \(5.57 \text{atm}\)
  • (D) \(2.34 \text{atm}\)

Question 75:

What type of solution is a brass ?

  • (A) solid in solid
  • (B) liquid in solid
  • (C) gas in solid
  • (D) liquid in gas

Question 76:

What mass of silver (Atomic mass = 108 g/mol) deposited by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of \(\text{O}_2\) at STP ?

  • (A) \(5.4 \text{g}\)
  • (B) \(10.8 \text{g}\)
  • (C) \(54.0 \text{g}\)
  • (D) \(108.0 \text{g}\)

Question 77:

Which of the following reactions takes place at anode during the electrolysis of molten NaCl?

  • (A) \(\text{Na}_{(l)}^++\text{e}^-\rightarrow \text{Na}_{(l)}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Na}_{(s)}\rightarrow \text{Na}_{(l)}^++\text{e}^-\)
  • (C) \(\text{Cl}_{2(g)}+2\text{e}^-\rightarrow 2\text{Cl}_{(l)}^-\)
  • (D) \(2\text{Cl}_{(l)}^-\rightarrow \text{Cl}_{2(g)}+2\text{e}^-\)

Question 78:

The rate law for the reaction \(A+B\rightarrow P\) is found to be rate \(= k[A]^2[B]\).
The rate constant of the reaction at 300 K is \(6.0 \text{M}^{-2}\text{s}^{-1}\). Calculate the rate of the reaction when \([A] = 1 \text{M}\) and \([B] = 0.2 \text{M}\)

  • (A) \(0.6 \text{M s}^{-1}\).
  • (B) \(1.2 \text{M s}^{-1}\).
  • (C) \(1.8 \text{M s}^{-1}\).
  • (D) \(2.4 \text{M s}^{-1}\).

Question 79:

If for a first-order reaction, \([A]_0 = 1.0 \text{M}\) and \([A]_t = 0.25 \text{M}\) after 276 s, find the value of the rate constant (k).

  • (A) \(0.0021 \text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(0.0050 \text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(0.003 \text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(0.006 \text{s}^{-1}\)

Question 80:

The equation for the rate constant is \(k = Ae^{-E_a/RT}\).
A chemical reaction will proceed more rapidly if there is a decrease in

  • (A) \(k\)
  • (B) \(A\)
  • (C) \(E_a\)
  • (D) \(T\)

Question 81:

What is the oxidation state of chromium in the final product when KI reacts with acidified potassium dichromate solution?

  • (A) \(+2\)
  • (B) \(+3\)
  • (C) \(+6\)
  • (D) \(+4\)

Question 82:

Which of the following series of transition elements has general electronic configuration, \([\text{Kr}]\,4d^{1-10}\,5s^{0-2}\)?

  • (A) 3d series elements
  • (B) 4d series elements
  • (C) 5d series elements
  • (D) 6d series elements

Question 83:

Identify the ionization isomer of \([\text{Cr}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_4\,\text{Cl}(\text{NO}_2)]\,\text{Cl}\) from the following.

  • (A) \([\text{Cr}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_4\,(\text{O}_2\text{N})]\,\text{Cl}_2\)
  • (B) \([\text{Cr}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_4\,\text{Cl}_2]\,(\text{NO}_2)\)
  • (C) \([\text{Cr}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_4\,\text{Cl}(\text{ONO})]\,\text{Cl}\)
  • (D) \([\text{Cr}(\text{H}_2\text{O})_4\,\text{Cl}_2(\text{NO}_2)]\,\text{H}_2\text{O}\)

Question 84:

The number of ligands which are directly bonded to the metal is known as

  • (A) co-ordination number
  • (B) oxidation number
  • (C) co-ordination sphere
  • (D) valency

Question 85:

Identify the reagent used for replacement of \(-\text{N}_2^+\text{Cl}^-\) from benzene diazonium chloride by iodine.

  • (A) HI
  • (B) KOI
  • (C) KI
  • (D) \(\text{PI}_3\)

Question 86:

What is the product P obtained in following reaction?
\(\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{Br}+\text{AgCN}_{(alc)}\rightarrow \text{P}\)

  • (A) \(\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{NC}\)
  • (B) \(\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CN}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{CONH}_2\)
  • (D) \(\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{NH}_2\)

Question 87:

What is action of \(\text{CH}_3\text{ONa}\) on \(\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{Br}\)
\(\text{CH}_3\text{ONa}+\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{Br}\rightarrow\) ?

  • (A) Formation of \(\text{CH}_3\text{OCH}_2\text{CH}_3+\text{NaBr}\)
  • (B) Formation of \(\text{CH}_3\text{OH}+\text{NaBr}\)
  • (C) Formation of \(\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{OH}\)
  • (D) Formation of \((\text{CH}_3)_2\text{O}\)

Question 88:

Which of the following reagents limits the oxidation of \(\text{R-CH}_2\text{OH}\) up to R-CHO only?

  • (A) PCC
  • (B) \(\text{CrO}_3\)
  • (C) \(\text{K}_2\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_7\) / dil. \(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\)
  • (D) \(\text{KMnO}_4\) (acidic)

Question 89:

Which of the following ether, on hydrolysis, gives two different products that are successive members of the homologous series?

  • (A) Methoxymethane
  • (B) Methoxypropane
  • (C) Ethoxypropane
  • (D) 1-Methoxypropane

Question 90:

Identify the product X in the following reaction.

  • (A) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
  • (B) 3,2-diethyl butene
  • (C) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene
  • (D) 2,2-diethyl butene

Question 91:

Acetone on heating with \(\text{CrO}_3\) mainly forms,

  • (A) Acetic acid
  • (B) Ethyl alcohol
  • (C) Toluene
  • (D) Dimethyl ether

Question 92:

Identify the name of the above reaction.

  • (A) Etard reaction
  • (B) Gatterman-Koch formylation reaction
  • (C) Stephen reaction
  • (D) Rosenmund reaction

Question 93:

When sodium bicarbonate is added to an organic compound, brisk effervescences is evolved. This indicate the presence of which functional group.

  • (A) \(-\text{CHO}\)
  • (B) \(-\text{C} = \text{O}\)
  • (C) \(-\text{COCl}\)
  • (D) \(-\text{COOH}\)

Question 94:

Tertiary amines have the lowest boiling points because ,

  • (A) They possess polar N-C bonds
  • (B) They possess inter-molecular dipole-dipole attraction forces.
  • (C) They possess inter-molecular H-bonding
  • (D) They do not possess inter-molecular H- bonding

Question 95:

Which of the following molecules is capable of forming Zwitter ion?

  • (A) \(\text{NH}_2\text{CH}_2\text{COOH}\)
  • (B) \(\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{NH}_2\)
  • (D) \(\text{CCl}_3\text{NO}_2\)

Question 96:

The letter 'D' in carbohydrates signifies

  • (A) dextrorotatory
  • (B) configuration
  • (C) diamagnetic nature
  • (D) mode of synthesis

Question 97:

Which of the following is found to raise the HDL level in the blood?

  • (A) Omega-6 fatty acids
  • (B) Omega-3 fatty acids
  • (C) Trans fats
  • (D) Cis fats

Question 98:

Identify the polymer used to prepare plastic bottles needed to store cooking oil.

  • (A) PVC
  • (B) PS
  • (C) LDPE
  • (D) PET

Question 99:

Which polymer is commonly used in nonstick cookwares ?

  • (A) PVC
  • (B) Teflon
  • (C) SBR
  • (D) Buna -S

Question 100:

Buna-S is prepared from

  • (A) 1, 3- butadiene and vinyl cyanide
  • (B) 1, 3- butadiene and styrene
  • (C) 1,2 -butadiene and vinyl cyanide
  • (D) 1, 2-butadiene and styrene

Mathematics Section (Questions 101 to 150)


Question 101:

If \(n\) is a positive integer, then \((1+i\sqrt{3})^{2n}+(1-i\sqrt{3})^{2n}\) is equal to .........

  • (A) \(2^{2n+1}cos(\frac{2nπ}{3})\)
  • (B) \(2^{2n}cos(\frac{nπ}{3})\)
  • (C) \(2^{2n+1}cos(\frac{nπ}{3})\)
  • (D) \(2^ncos(\frac{2nπ}{3})\)

Question 102:

The number of 4-letter words formed from the English alphabet such that there are exactly 2 vowels and 2 consonants and no vowel is repeated, but consonants may be repeated is:

  • (A) \(^4C_2\times ^5C_2\times (21)^2\)
  • (B) \(^4C_2\times ^5C_2\times ^{21}C_2\)
  • (C) \(^4C_2\times ^5P_2\times ^{21}P_2\)
  • (D) \(^4C_2\times ^5P_2\times (21)^2\)

Question 103:

The value of \(cos(60^{\circ}-A)\cdot cosA\cdot cos(60^{\circ}+A)\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4}cos3A\)
  • (B) \(sin3A\)
  • (C) \(cos3A\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4}sin3A\)

Question 104:

The general solution of the equation \(cotθ\cdot cot2θ = 1\) is...

  • (A) \(θ = nπ\pm \frac{π}{6},n\in Z\)
  • (B) \(θ = nπ\pm \frac{π}{3},n\in Z\)
  • (C) \(θ = nπ\pm \frac{π}{4},n\in Z\)
  • (D) \(θ = nπ\pm \frac{π}{8},n\in Z\)

Question 105:

The line \((2+k)x+(1+k)y = 5+7k\) passes through the fixed point for different values of k. If 'd' is the distance of a fixed point from the origin, then \(d^2 = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(29\)
  • (B) \(37\)
  • (C) \(65\)
  • (D) \(85\)

Question 106:

If \(θ\) is the acute angle between the lines \(2x^2+7xy+3y^2 = 0\), then the value of \(\frac{2cosθ-3sinθ}{4sinθ+5cosθ} = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(\frac{5}{9}\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{1}{9}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{9}\)

Question 107:

The combined equation of the pair of lines passing through the origin and making an angle \(\frac{π}{4}\) with the line \(3x+y-6 = 0\) is...

  • (A) \(x^2+3xy-2y^2 = 0\)
  • (B) \(2x^2-3xy+y^2 = 0\)
  • (C) \(2x^2-xy+3y^2 = 0\)
  • (D) \(2x^2+3xy-2y^2 = 0\)

Question 108:

Line \(l:x+y = 4\) intersects the circle \(x^2+y^2-2x-2y = 2\) at points \(A\) and \(B\). If C is the center of the circle, then the area of \(△ABC\) is...

  • (A) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 109:

If \(\underset{x\rightarrow 0}{lim}\frac{45^x-9^x-5^x+1}{(k^x-1)(3^x-1)} = 2\), then the value of \(k\) is ...

  • (A) \(45\)
  • (B) \(9\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 110:

If the truth value of the compound statement \([(p\leftrightarrow q)∧(q\rightarrow r)∧\sim r]\rightarrow (p∧\sim q)\) is false, then the truth values of the statement patterns \((p\rightarrow q)\leftrightarrow (q\rightarrow r)\) and \(\sim (p∨r)\rightarrow (q∧p)\) are, respectively ...

  • (A) \((T,T)\)
  • (B) \((T,F)\)
  • (C) \((F,T)\)
  • (D) \((F,F)\)

Question 111:

The negation of the contrapositive of the statement \((p∨\sim q)\rightarrow (p∧\sim q)\) is

  • (A) \((p∧\sim q)∨(\sim p∧\sim q)\)
  • (B) \((\sim p∧q)∨(p∧\sim q)\)
  • (C) \((\sim p∨\sim q)∧(p∨q)\)
  • (D) \((\sim p∨q)∧(p∨\sim q)\)

Question 112:

In triangle ABC, with usual notations, if \(a = 4,b = 5\) and \(c = 6\), then angle C is equal to...

  • (A) \(A\)
  • (B) \(2A\)
  • (C) \(3A\)
  • (D) \(\frac{A}{2}\)

Question 113:

If \(A = [\begin{array}{cc}2 & 3 \\ 5 & -2\end{array}]\), \(B^{-1} = \left[ \begin{array}{cc}\frac{1}{5} & \frac{2}{5} \\ \frac{2}{5} & -\frac{1}{5}\end{array} \right]\), then \((AB)^{-1} =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{95}[\begin{array}{cc}8 & -1 \\ -1 & 12\end{array}]\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{95}[\begin{array}{cc}12 & -1 \\ -1 & 8\end{array}]\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{95}[\begin{array}{cc}-12 & 1 \\ 1 & -8\end{array}]\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{95}[\begin{array}{cc}-8 & 1 \\ 1 & -12\end{array}]\)

Question 114:

If \(A = [a_{ij}]_{3\times 3}\) is a matrix such that \(a_{ij} = |2i-5j|\), where \(|.|\) denotes the modulus function, then the element in the \(2^{\text{nd}}\) row and \(3^{\text{rd}}\) column of \(A^{-1}\) is ...

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(-1\)

Question 115:

If \(A = [\begin{array}{cc}2 & -1 \\ 0 & 2\end{array}]\) and \(A^2+xA+yI_2 = O_2\), where \(I_2\) and \(O_2\) are the identity matrix and null matrix of order 2 respectively, then:

  • (A) \(x = 4, y = 4\)
  • (B) \(x = -4, y = 4\)
  • (C) \(x = -4, y = -2\)
  • (D) \(x = 4, y = -4\)

Question 116:

The value of \(cot^{-1}[\frac{\sqrt{1-sinx}+\sqrt{1+sinx}}{\sqrt{1-sinx}-\sqrt{1+sinx}}]\), where \(x\in (0,\frac{π}{2})\) is...

  • (A) \(π-x\)
  • (B) \(2π-x\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{2}-\frac{x}{2}\)
  • (D) \(π-\frac{x}{2}\)

Question 117:

If \((tan^{-1}x)^2+(cot^{-1}x)^2 = \frac{5π^2}{8}\), then the value of \(x\) is equal to...

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(-2\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 118:

If \(f(\frac{x-1}{x+1}) = x+1\), then \(\int f(x)\,dx = \cdots\)

  • (A) \(2log|1-x|+c\)
  • (B) \(-2log|1-x|+c\)
  • (C) \(2log|1+x|+c\)
  • (D) \(-2log|1+x|+c\)

Question 119:

If \(e^x+e^{f(x)} = e\), then the domain of \(f(x)\) is

  • (A) \((1,\infty )\)
  • (B) \((-\infty ,1)\)
  • (C) \((-\infty ,\infty )\)
  • (D) \((-\infty ,0)\)

Question 120:

If the function f is continuous at \(x = π\), where \(f(x) = \frac{1-cos[7(x-π)]}{5(x-π)^2}\), for \(x\neq π\), then \(f(π) =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{49}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4}{49}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{49}{10}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{10}{49}\)

Question 121:

Let f(x) be a twice differentiable function such that \(f^{''}(x) = -f(x)\), \(f^'(x) = g(x)\) and \(h(x) = \{f(x)\}^2+\{g(x)\}^2\). If \(h(5) = 11\), then \(h(10)\) is equal to ...

  • (A) \(11\)
  • (B) \(22\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) Not defined

Question 122:

If \(cot[f(x)] = \frac{3x-x^3}{1-3x^2}\) and \(sin[g(x)] = \frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2}\), then \(\underset{x\rightarrow t}{lim}\frac{f(x)-f(t)}{g(x)-g(t)} = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{2(1+t^2)}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{5}{2(1+t^2)}\)

Question 123:

If \(y = cos^{-1}(\frac{1-4^x}{1+4^x})\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) at \(x = 1\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{4log2}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{log2}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2log8}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5log8}{2}\)

Question 124:

A cylindrical tank without a top lid is being manufactured to hold a fixed volume of \(125π\) cubic cm. The minimum surface area required to construct this tank is ............square cm

  • (A) \(75π\)
  • (B) \(50π\)
  • (C) \(25π\)
  • (D) \(125π\)

Question 125:

A spherical snow ball is melting so that its volume is decreasing at the rate of 8 c.c./sec then the rate of change of radius when the radius is 2 cm, is :

  • (A) The radius is increasing at the rate of \(\frac{1}{2π} \text{cm/s}\)
  • (B) The radius is decreasing at the rate of \(\frac{1}{2π} \text{cm/s}\)
  • (C) The radius is increasing at the rate of \(\frac{1}{π} \text{cm/s}\)
  • (D) The radius is decreasing at the rate of \(\frac{1}{π} \text{cm/s}\)

Question 126:

The equation of tangent to the curves \(x = 1-3t^2\) and \(y = t-3t^3\) at the point \((-2,2)\) is...

  • (A) \(4x+3y+2 = 0\)
  • (B) \(4x-3y+2 = 0\)
  • (C) \(3x+4y+2 = 0\)
  • (D) \(3x-4y+2 = 0\)

Question 127:

If \(f(x) = cosx\), then the value of \(\int \frac{e^{f(x)}(xsin^3x+f(x))}{1-(f(x))^2}dx =\)

  • (A) \(e^{f(x)}(-\text{cosec} x-x)+c\)
  • (B) \(e^{f(x)}(\text{cosec}\,x+x)+c\)
  • (C) \(e^{f(x)}(cosx-x)+c\)
  • (D) \(e^{f(x)}(cot^2x+x)+c\)

Question 128:

\(\int \frac{x^4+1}{x^6+1}dx =\)

  • (A) \(tan^{-1}x-\frac{1}{3}tan^{-1}(x^3)+c\)
  • (B) \(tan^{-1}x+\frac{1}{3}tan^{-1}(x^3)+c\)
  • (C) \(tan^{-1}x-tan^{-1}(x^3)+c\)
  • (D) \(tan^{-1}x+tan^{-1}(x^3)+c\)

Question 129:

If \(a > 0,b > 0\) and \(\int \frac{1}{ax^2+b}dx = \frac{1}{\sqrt{6}}tan^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{2}x}{\sqrt{3}})+c\), then \(\int \frac{1}{bx^2+a}dx = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(-\frac{1}{\sqrt{6}}tan^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{2}x}{\sqrt{3}})+c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{6}}tan^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{3}x}{\sqrt{2}})+c\)
  • (C) \(-\sqrt{6}\,tan^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{2}x}{\sqrt{3}})+c\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{6}\,tan^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{3}x}{\sqrt{2}})+c\)

Question 130:

The value of integral \(\int _0^1cot^{-1}(1+x^2-x)\,dx\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{2}-log2\)
  • (B) \(π-log2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{4}-log2\)
  • (D) \(2π-log2\)

Question 131:

The value of \(\int _{-π}^π\frac{2x(1+sinx)}{1+cos^2x}dx\) is...

  • (A) \(-\sqrt{2}π^2\)
  • (B) \(π^2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π^2}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{π^2}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 132:

The area of the region enclosed by the lines \(y = 2x,2y = x\) and \(x = 2\) (in sq.units) is...

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 133:

The area of the region common to the parabolas \(4y^2 = 9x\) and \(3x^2 = 16y\) is...

  • (A) 2 sq. units
  • (B) 4 sq. units
  • (C) 8 sq. units
  • (D) 16 sq. units

Question 134:

For the differential equation \(\frac{d^3y}{dx^3}+cos(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}) = 0\), which of the following is true ?

  • (A) Order = 3, degree = 1
  • (B) Order = 3, degree = 2
  • (C) Order = 3, degree is not defined
  • (D) Order = 2, degree is not defined

Question 135:

If water at \(100^{\circ}\text{C}\) cools in 10 minutes to \(80^{\circ}\text{C}\) and to \(65^{\circ}\text{C}\) in the next 10 minutes, then the room temperature will be ...

  • (A) \(30^{\circ}\text{C}\)
  • (B) \(15^{\circ}\text{C}\)
  • (C) \(25^{\circ}\text{C}\)
  • (D) \(20^{\circ}\text{C}\)

Question 136:

The equation of the curve passing through the point (0, 1) and having a slope of the tangent at point \(P(x,y)\) is equal to \(\frac{y}{x+y}\), is

  • (A) \(x = e^{-\frac{y}{x}}\)
  • (B) \(y = e^{-\frac{y}{x}}+1\)
  • (C) \(x = e^{\frac{x}{y}}-1\)
  • (D) \(y = e^{\frac{x}{y}}\)

Question 137:

If \(f(x)\) is a polynomial such that \(f(x) = [f^'(x)]^2\) and \(f(2) = 0\), then \(f(-2) = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(-4\)

Question 138:

The equation of a line in cartesian form passing through (0, 0, 0) and (4, 3, c) and parallel to \(\overset{⃗}{a}\times \overset{⃗}{b}\) where \(\overset{⃗}{a} = 2\hat{i}+\hat{j}+2\hat{k}\), \(\overset{⃗}{b} = 3\hat{i}-4\hat{j}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{x-4}{8} = \frac{y-3}{6} = \frac{z+\frac{11}{2}}{11}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x-4}{8} = \frac{y+3}{6} = \frac{z+\frac{11}{2}}{-11}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{x-4}{8} = \frac{y-3}{6} = \frac{z+\frac{11}{2}}{-11}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{x+4}{8} = \frac{y-3}{6} = \frac{z+\frac{11}{2}}{-11}\)

Question 139:

If \(\overset{̄}{a} = 4\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}\), \(\overset{̄}{b} = 2\hat{i}+\hat{j}+2\hat{k}\) and \(\overset{̄}{c} = 3\hat{i}+4\hat{j}+5\hat{k}\), then \((\overset{̄}{a}+\overset{̄}{b})\cdot (\overset{̄}{b}+\overset{̄}{c}) =\)

  • (A) \(30\)
  • (B) \(21\)
  • (C) \(61\)
  • (D) \(10\)

Question 140:

If \(\overset{̄}{a} = 2\hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k}\), \(\overset{̄}{b} = \hat{i}+3\hat{k}\) and \(\overset{̄}{c}\) is a unit vector, then the maximum value of the scalar triple product \([\overset{̄}{a} \overset{̄}{b} \overset{̄}{c}]\) is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{10}+\sqrt{6}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{10}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{6}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{59}\)

Question 141:

Let \(\overset{̄}{a},\overset{̄}{b}\) and \(\overset{̄}{c}\) be three coplanar unit vectors. A unit vector \(\overset{̄}{d}\) is perpendicular to them. If \((\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{b})\times (\overset{̄}{c}\times \overset{̄}{d}) = \frac{3}{26}\hat{i}-\frac{2}{13}\hat{j}+\frac{6}{13}\hat{k}\) and the angle between \(\overset{̄}{a}\) and \(\overset{̄}{b}\) is \(30^{\circ}\), then \(\overset{̄}{c}\) is equal to...

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{13}\hat{i}-\frac{4}{13}\hat{j}+\frac{12}{13}\hat{k}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{13}\hat{i}-\frac{2}{13}\hat{j}+\frac{6}{13}\hat{k}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{26}\hat{i}-\frac{4}{13}\hat{j}+\frac{12}{13}\hat{k}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3}{26}\hat{i}-\frac{3}{26}\hat{j}+\frac{5}{26}\hat{k}\)

Question 142:

The volume of a parallelopiped with coterminous edges \(\overset{̄}{a},\overset{̄}{b},\overset{̄}{c}\) is 3 cubic units. The volume (in cubic units) of a tetrahedron with coterminous edges \((\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{b}),(\overset{̄}{a}\times 2\overset{̄}{c}),(\overset{̄}{b}\times 2\overset{̄}{c})\) is...

  • (A) \(6\)
  • (B) \(12\)
  • (C) \(24\)
  • (D) \(36\)

Question 143:

If the lines \(2x = ky = -z\) and \(6x = -y = -4z\) are perpendicular to each other then the value of \(k\) is ...

  • (A) \(16\)
  • (B) \(5\)
  • (C) \(10\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 144:

The vector equation of plane in parametric form, passing through the points (-1, 2, 0), (2, 2, -1) and parallel to the line \(\frac{x-1}{1} = \frac{2y+1}{2} = \frac{z+1}{-1}\) is

  • (A) \(\overset{̄}{r} = (-\hat{i}+2\hat{j})+λ(3\hat{i}-\hat{k})+μ(\hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k})\)
  • (B) \(\overset{̄}{r} = (-\hat{i}+2\hat{j})+λ(3\hat{i}-\hat{k})+μ(\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-\hat{k})\)
  • (C) \(\overset{̄}{r} = (\hat{i}-2\hat{j})+λ(3\hat{i}+\hat{k})+μ(\hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k})\)
  • (D) \(\overset{̄}{r} = (-\hat{i}+2\hat{j})+λ(3\hat{i}-\hat{k})+μ(\hat{i}-\hat{j}+\hat{k})\)

Question 145:

If \(d\) is the distance of point (2, 5, 10) from the plane containing the lines \(\overset{̄}{r} = (4\hat{j}-\hat{k})+λ(\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-2\hat{k})\) and \(\overset{̄}{r} = (2\hat{i}+\hat{j})+μ(\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-2\hat{k})\), then \(d^2 =\)

  • (A) \(145\)
  • (B) \(13\)
  • (C) \(90\)
  • (D) \(79\)

Question 146:

The values of p and q so that the line joining the points (7, p, 2) and (q, -2, 5) may be parallel to the line joining the points (2, -3, 5) and (-6, -15, 11) are

  • (A) \(p = 4, q = -3\)
  • (B) \(p = 4, q = 3\)
  • (C) \(p = -4, q = 3\)
  • (D) \(p = -4, q = -3\)

Question 147:

The minimum value of \(z = 3x+5y\), subject to constraints \(x\leq 80\), \(y\geq 60\), \(x+y\leq 200\) & \(x,y\geq 0\) occurs at the point...

  • (A) \((0,200)\)
  • (B) \((60,0)\)
  • (C) \((0,60)\)
  • (D) \((80,60)\)

Question 148:

If a fair coin is tossed 8 times, then the probability of getting at most 2 heads is...

  • (A) \(\frac{37}{64}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{37}{256}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{37}{128}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{37}{512}\)

Question 149:

If a random variable \(X\) has a probability mass function \(P(x) = \{\begin{array}{cc}kx^2, & \text{for }x = 1,2,3,4 \\ 0, & \text{otherwise}\end{array}\), then the mean of \(X\) is ...

  • (A) \(3.232\)
  • (B) \(2.221\)
  • (C) \(3.333\)
  • (D) \(2.222\)

Question 150:

If \(E_1\) and \(E_2\) are equally likely, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events and \(P(A|E_1) = 0.2\), \(P(A|E_2) = 0.3\), then \(P(E_1|A)\) equal to...

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{5}\)

MHT CET PCM Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT-CET 2026 Exam Strategy