MHT CET 2026 April 17 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on April 17 in Shift 2 from 2 AM to 5 PM in CBT mode.

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Also Check: MHT CET 2026 April 17 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper

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MHT CET 2026 April 17 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions

MHT CET 2026 April 17 Shift 2 PCM Questions with Solutions

Physics Section (Questions 1 to 50)

Question 1:

There are two vectors \(\overset{⃗}{A} = 6\hat{i}+9\hat{j}-\hat{k}\) and \(\overset{⃗}{B} = 2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}-p\hat{k}\) which have the same direction. The value of 'p' is

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 2:

A force 'F' is applied on a square plate of side 'L'. If the percentage error in determining 'L' is 3% and that in 'F' is 2% then the percentage error in determining the pressure is

  • (A) \(5\%\)
  • (B) \(6\%\)
  • (C) \(7\%\)
  • (D) \(8\%\)

Question 3:

A ball P is projected at an angle of \(60^{\circ}\) with the vertical with certain initial speed. Another ball Q of the same mass as that of ball P is projected vertically upwards with the same initial speed as that of P. At the highest point, the ratio of potential energy of ball P to that of ball Q is
\((sin30^{\circ} = 0.5)\)

  • (A) \(1:4\)
  • (B) \(4:1\)
  • (C) \(2:3\)
  • (D) \(3:2\)

Question 4:

A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40g with a speed of \(600\text{ ms}^{-1}\). The person holding the gun can bare maximum force of 168N on it. The number of bullets that can be fired from the gun per second is

  • (A) \(8\)
  • (B) \(7\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 5:

Radius of gyration of a thin uniform circular disc about the axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is \(K_c\). Radius of gyration of the same disc about a diamter of the disc is \(K_d\). the ratio \(K_d:K_c\) is

  • (A) \(1:4\)
  • (B) \(1:\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{2}:1\)
  • (D) \(2:1\)

Question 6:

A solid sphere of radius R and mass M is rotating about its diameter. The moment of intertia of the solid sphere rotating about an axis at a distance \(\frac{R}{3}\) from the centre and parallel to that diameter is

  • (A) \(\frac{11}{15}MR^2\)
  • (B) \(\frac{13}{20}MR^2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{23}{45}MR^2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{47}{45}MR^2\)

Question 7:

A mass tied to a string is whirled in a horizontal circular path with a constant angular velocity and its angular momentum is 'L'. If the length of the string is now halved, keeping angular velocity same then the angular momentum will be

  • (A) \(\frac{L}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{L}{2}\)
  • (C) \(L\)
  • (D) \(2L\)

Question 8:

Two planets A and B are orbiting around the sun. The distances of the two planets A and B from the sun are \(r_A\) and \(r_B\) respectively. Also \(r_B = 225\,r_A\). If the orbital speed of the planet A is 'V' then the orbital speed of planet B will be

  • (A) \(\frac{V}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{V}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{V}{15}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{15}\,V\)

Question 9:

When a capillary tube of radius 'r' is immersed in water, rise of water is upto height 'h'. The mass of water in capillary tube is 'm'. When another capillary tube of radius 'xr' is immersed in water, the mass of water that will rise in this tube is

  • (A) \(x\cdot m\)
  • (B) \(\frac{m}{x}\)
  • (C) \(x^2m\)
  • (D) \((x+1)m\)

Question 10:

The excess pressure inside the first soap bubble is three times that inside the second soap bubble. The ratio of the volume of the first soap bubble to the volume of the second soap bubble is

  • (A) \(3:4\)
  • (B) \(1:3\)
  • (C) \(1:9\)
  • (D) \(1:27\)

Question 11:

Two soap bubbles, A and B, have radii in the ratio \(3:2\). The excess pressure inside the bubble A to that of B is in the ratio

  • (A) \(2:3\)
  • (B) \(3:2\)
  • (C) \(1:5\)
  • (D) \(4:9\)

Question 12:

A black body emits radiation of maximum intensity of wavelength '\(λ\)' at temperature 'T' K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature \((2.5T)\) K will be

  • (A) \(\frac{2λ}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2λ}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4λ}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{16λ}{81}\)

Question 13:

In a composite slab there are two materials having coefficients of thermal conductivity K and 2K, thickness x and 4x repectively. The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a composite slab are \(T_2\) and \(T_1\) \((T_2 > T_1)\). \(T_2\) is on side K and \(T_1\) is on side 2K. The rate of heat transfer through the slab in a steady state is \([\frac{A(T_2-T_1)K}{x}]\cdot f\), where f is equal to

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 14:

A carnot engine having efficiency \(\frac{1}{6}\), operates between the source temperature \(T_H\) and the sink temperature \(T_C\). Its efficiency increases to \(\frac{1}{3}\), when \(T_C\) is decreased by 64 K. The temperatures \(T_H\) and \(T_C\) are repectively

  • (A) \(374\) K , \(310\) K
  • (B) \(384\) K , \(320\) K
  • (C) \(384\) K , \(340\) K
  • (D) \(320\) K , \(256\) K

Question 15:

A thermodynamic system is compressed adiabatically, then its temperature

  • (A) becomes zero.
  • (B) remains constant.
  • (C) increases.
  • (D) decreases.

Question 16:

Two cylinders A and B fitted with pistons contain equal amount of an ideal diatomic gas at 303 K. The piston of cylinder A is free to move and that of cylinder B is held fixed. The same amount of heat is given to the gas in each cylinder. If the rise in temperature of the gas in cylinder B is 63 K then the rise in temperature of the gas in A is

  • (A) \(35\) K
  • (B) \(40\) K
  • (C) \(45\) K
  • (D) \(50\) K

Question 17:

The temperature at which r.m.s. velocity of hydrogen molecules is 4.5 times that of an oxygen molecule at \(47^{\circ}\) C is (molecular weight of hydrogen and oxygen are 2 and 32 respectively)

  • (A) \(47^{\circ}\) C
  • (B) \(132^{\circ}\) C
  • (C) \(320^{\circ}\) C
  • (D) \(405^{\circ}\) C

Question 18:

The displacement of a particle performing linear S.H.M. is given by \(y = Acos[π(t+φ)]\). If at \(t = 0\), the displacement is \(y = 2\) cm and velocity is \(2π\) cm/s, the value of amplitude A in cm is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(2\sqrt{2}\)

Question 19:

A light spring is suspended with mass '\(m_1\)' at its lower end and its upper end is fixed to a rigid support. The mass is pulled down a short distance and then released. The period of oscillation is T second. When a mass '\(m_2\)' is added to '\(m_1\)' and the system is made to oscillate the period is found to be \(\frac{3}{2}\) T. The ratio \((\frac{m_1}{m_2})\) is

  • (A) \(2:3\)
  • (B) \(3:4\)
  • (C) \(4:5\)
  • (D) \(5:6\)

Question 20:

For a particle performing linear S.H.M. of amplitude 'r', the potential energy is '\(λ\)' times its total energy. The displacement of particle is

  • (A) \(rλ\)
  • (B) \(\frac{r}{λ}\)
  • (C) \(r\sqrt{λ}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{r}{\sqrt{λ}}\)

Question 21:

In a sonometer experiment, the fundamental frequency of vibration of wire is '\(n_1\)' when wire is stretched by hanging a metal bob. If the bob is completely immersed in water, the frequency of vibration of wire becomes '\(n_2\)'. The relative density of the metal of the bob is

  • (A) \(\frac{n_1}{n_1-n_2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{n_1-n_2}{n_2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{n_1^2}{n_1^2-n_2^2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{n_2^2}{n_1^2-n_2^2}\)

Question 22:

The beats are produced when there is a superposition of two sound waves which will have

  • (A) same amplitude and same frequency.
  • (B) different amplitude but same frequency.
  • (C) same amplitude but slightly different frequencies.
  • (D) different amplitude and different frequencies.

Question 23:

In a pipe closed at one end, air column is vibrating in the fourth overtone so the vibrating air column has '\(x\)' nodes and '\(y\)' antinodes. The values of \(x\) and \(y\) are respectively

  • (A) \(4,4\)
  • (B) \(4,5\)
  • (C) \(5,4\)
  • (D) \(5,5\)

Question 24:

Two sounding waves send waves at certain temperature in air of wavelength 50 cm and 50.5 cm repectively. The frequency of sources differ by 6 Hz. The velocity of sound in air at same temperature is

  • (A) \(330\text{ m/s}\)
  • (B) \(313\text{ m/s}\)
  • (C) \(303\text{ m/s}\)
  • (D) \(300\text{ m/s}\)

Question 25:

Three point charges +q, +2q and +Q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. If the potential energy of the system of three charges is zero, the value of Q in terms of q is

  • (A) \(-\frac{q}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{-2q}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{q}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3q}{2}\)

Question 26:

Two point charges +e and +4e are kept at a distance 'd' units apart. Third point charge +q is placed between the two charges at a distance 'x' units from charge +e so as to be in equilibrium. The value of 'x' is

  • (A) \(\frac{d}{3}\) units
  • (B) \(\frac{d}{2}\) units
  • (C) \(\frac{2d}{5}\) units
  • (D) \(\frac{3d}{4}\) units

Question 27:

Two indentical metal plates are given charges \(q_1\) and \(q_2\) \((q_2 < q_1)\) respectively. They are brought close together to form a parallel plate capacitor with capacitance 'C'. The potential difference 'V' between the plates is

  • (A) \(\frac{q_1-q_2}{C}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{q_1+q_2}{C}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{q_1-q_2}{2C}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{q_1+q_2}{2C}\)

Question 28:

If the equivalent capacitance between points A and B of the combination of capacitors shown in figure, is 6C, the capacitor \(C^1\) is

  • (A) \(9C\)
  • (B) \(15C\)
  • (C) \(18C\)
  • (D) \(24C\)

Question 29:

A current of 9A enters point P of an equilateral triangle PQR having three wires of \(3\Omega\) each and leaves by point R. The currents \(I_1\) and \(I_2\) are respectively

  • (A) \(2A,7A\)
  • (B) \(3A,6A\)
  • (C) \(5A,4A\)
  • (D) \(6A,3A\)

Question 30:

The current passing through the galvanometer is 4 % of the total current in the curcuit. If the resistance of the galvanometer is 'G', the shunt resistance 'S' connected across the galvanometer is

  • (A) \(25\,G\)
  • (B) \(24\,G\)
  • (C) \(\frac{G}{24}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{G}{25}\)

Question 31:

Two wires of same length are bent to form the circular loop with two turns and a square loop of one turn. Both of them carry same current. The ratio of magnetic moment of circular loop of two turns to that of square loop is

  • (A) \(π:4\)
  • (B) \(4:π\)
  • (C) \(π:1\)
  • (D) \(2:π\)

Question 32:

The magnetic field at a distance 'r' from a long straight wire carrying current I is 0.4 tesla. The magnetic field at a distance 2r will be

  • (A) \(0\cdot 1\) tesla
  • (B) \(0\cdot 2\) tesla
  • (C) \(0\cdot 8\) tesla
  • (D) \(1\cdot 6\) tesla

Question 33:

In the cyclotron, as radius of the circular path of the charged particle increases, (\(ω\) = angular velocity, V = linear velocity)

  • (A) V increases , \(ω\) decreases.
  • (B) V increases , \(ω\) remains constant.
  • (C) only \(ω\) increases , V remains constant.
  • (D) both \(ω\) and V increase.

Question 34:

Two planar concentric rings of metal wire having radii '\(r_1\)' and '\(r_2\)' (with \(r_1 > r_2\)) are placed in air. The current 'I' is flowing through the coil of larger radius. The mutual inductance between the coils is given by ( \(μ_0\) = permeability of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{μ_0π\,r_1^2}{2\,r_2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{μ_0π\,r_2^2}{2\,r_1}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{μ_0π\,(r_1+r_2)^2}{2\,r_1}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{μ_0π\,(r_1-r_2)^2}{2\,r_2}\)

Question 35:

Two coils having self-inductance \(L_1 = 75\) mH and \(L_2 = 48\) mH are coupled with each other. If the mutual inductance of the coils is 37.2 mH, then coefficient of coupling will be

  • (A) \(0.58\)
  • (B) \(0.60\)
  • (C) \(0.62\)
  • (D) \(0.64\)

Question 36:

A straight line conductor of length 0.4 m is moved with a speed of \(7.0\text{ ms}^{-1}\) perpendicular to magnetic field of intensity \(0.8\text{ Wb m}^{-2}\). The induced e.m.f. across the conductor is

  • (A) \(2\cdot 24\) V
  • (B) \(2\cdot 80\) V
  • (C) \(3\cdot 20\) V
  • (D) \(5\cdot 60\) V

Question 37:

In LCR circuit, at a particular angular frequency the capacitive reactance and inductive reactance is same. If the angular frequency is doubled, the ratio of the reactance of the capacitor to that of the inductor will be

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 38:

In an a.c. circuit with pure capacitance 'C' and a.c. source \(E = E_0sinωt\), the equation of instantaneous current is given by

  • (A) \(I = E_0\,ωC\cdot sin(ωt)\)
  • (B) \(I = E_0ωCsin(ωt+\frac{π}{2})\)
  • (C) \(I = \frac{E_0}{ωC}sin(ωt)\)
  • (D) \(I = \frac{E_0}{ωC}sin(ωt+\frac{π}{2})\)

Question 39:

In a series LCR circuit alternating e.m.f. and current are given by the equations \(V = V_0sin(ωt)\) and \(I = I_0sin(ωt+\frac{π}{3})\) respectively. The average power dissipated in the circuit over one cycle of a.c. is \((cos60^{\circ} = 0.5)\)

  • (A) zero
  • (B) \(\frac{V_0I_0}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}V_0I_0\)
  • (D) \(\frac{V_0I_0}{4}\)

Question 40:

A ray of light incident on one face of an equilateral glass prism having refractive index \(\sqrt{2}\), produces the emergent ray which just grazes along the adjacent face. The value of angle of incidence is \((sin90^{\circ} = 1)\)
\((sin30^{\circ} = \frac{1}{2})(sin45^{\circ} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})\)

  • (A) \(sin^{-1}(\sqrt{2}sin15^{\circ})\)
  • (B) \(sin^{-1}(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}sin15^{\circ})\)
  • (C) \(sin^{-1}(\sqrt{2}sin30^{\circ})\)
  • (D) \(sin^{-1}(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}sin45^{\circ})\)

Question 41:

An unpolarised light of intensity \(64\text{ Wm}^{-2}\) passes through three polarizers successively such that the transmission axis of last polarizer is crossed with the first. The intensity of the emerging light is \(6\text{ Wm}^{-2}\). The angle between the transmission axis of the first two polarizers is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}sin^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2})\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}cos^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2})\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}sin^{-1}(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}})\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}cos^{-1}(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}})\)

Question 42:

In Young's experiment, the intensity ratio of the maxima and minima in an interference pattern produced by two coherent sources is \(36:1\). The ratio of the amplitudes of the two individual sources will be

  • (A) \(4:7\)
  • (B) \(5:7\)
  • (C) \(7:5\)
  • (D) \(7:4\)

Question 43:

For obtaining maximum contrast between the bright and dark fringes in an interference pattern, the intensities of the two light coherent sources should be

  • (A) large
  • (B) small
  • (C) equal
  • (D) in the ratio \(2:1\)

Question 44:

The ratio of the accelerating potentials required to accelerate (i) an \(α\)-particle and (ii) a proton to have the same de Broglie wavelength associated with them is
(mass of \(α\) - particle = \(6.4\times 10^{-27}\) kg, mass of proton = \(1.6\times 10^{-27}\) kg)

  • (A) \(1:8\)
  • (B) \(1:4\)
  • (C) \(8:1\)
  • (D) \(4:1\)

Question 45:

In photoelectric effect, keeping the frequency of incident radiation and accelerating potential fixed, if the intensity of incident light is increased,

  • (A) the photoelectric current increases.
  • (B) the kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons increases.
  • (C) photoelectric current decreases.
  • (D) kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons decreases.

Question 46:

In Bohr's atomic model, the energy of the electron is 'E' in the second orbit of hydrogen atom. So the energy of the electron in the third orbit of helium atom \((Z = 2)\) will be

  • (A) \(\frac{16\,E}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{16\,E}{9}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4\,E}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4\,E}{9}\)

Question 47:

The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as \(N_0\) counts per minute at time \(t = 0\) and \(\frac{N_0}{e}\) counts per minute at time \(t = 3\) minute. The time (in minute) in which the activity reduces to half the value, is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{3}log_e2\)
  • (B) \(3log_e2\)
  • (C) \(3log_{10}2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3}{log_e2}\)

Question 48:

In the following digital circuit, the output 'Y' will be '1' (one) for inputs 'A' and 'B' having values

  • (A) \(A = 0,B = 0\)
  • (B) \(A = 0,B = 1\)
  • (C) \(A = 1,B = 0\)
  • (D) \(A = 1,B = 1\)

Question 49:

In common emitter configuration of transistor amplifier, \(r_i\), \(R_L\) and \(β\) represent the input resistance, load resistance and the a.c. current gain respectively. The voltage gain \(A_V\) and power gain \(A_P\) are represented in magnitude respectively by

  • (A) \(β(\frac{r_i}{R_L}),β^2(\frac{r_i}{R_L})\)
  • (B) \(β(\frac{R_L}{r_i}),β(\frac{R_L}{r_i})^2\)
  • (C) \(β(\frac{R_L}{r_i}),β^2(\frac{R_L}{r_i})\)
  • (D) \(β(\frac{r_i}{R_L}),β(\frac{r_i}{R_L})^2\)

Question 50:

A semiconductor X is made by doping a germanium crystal with indium \((Z = 49)\). A second semiconductor Y is made by doping germanium crystal with arsenic \((Z = 33)\). Both are joined end to end and connected to a battery as shown. Which of the following statements is correct?

  • (A) X is p-type, Y is n-type and the junction is forward biased.
  • (B) X is p-type, Y is n-type and the junction is reverse biased.
  • (C) X is n-type, Y is p-type and the junction is forward biased.
  • (D) X is n-type, Y is p-type and the junction is reverse biased.

Chemistry Section (Questions 51 to 100)


Question 51:

How many moles of potassium chlorate are heated to produce \(11\cdot 2\) L oxygen at STP ?

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\) mole
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{3}\) mole
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{4}\) mole
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{3}\) mole

Question 52:

Find the energy of third stationary orbit of Bohr's model of hydrogen atom if the energy of ground state is \(-E\) J

  • (A) \(-\frac{E}{2}\) J
  • (B) \(-\frac{E}{4}\) J
  • (C) \(-\frac{E}{9}\) J
  • (D) \(-\frac{E}{16}\) J

Question 53:

Which of the following statements regarding Pi \((π)\) bond is NOT true ?

  • (A) It is weaker than sigma bond.
  • (B) It is formed by lateral overlapping of two half filled P orbitals.
  • (C) It is formed after the formation of sigma bond.
  • (D) The presence of Pi \((π)\) bond increases the bond length of covalent bond.

Question 54:

Identify the number of lone pair and bond pair electrons present in the valence shell of central atom in \(\text{BrF}_3\).

  • (A) 1 _ Lone pair and 2 _ Bond pair of electrons
  • (B) 2 _ Lone pair and 2 _ Bond pair of electrons
  • (C) 2 _ Lone pair and 3 _ Bond pair of electrons
  • (D) 1 _ Lone pair and 3 _ Bond pair of electrons

Question 55:

A gas at \(10\,^{\circ}\text{C}\) occupies a volume of 283 mL. if it is heated to \(20\,^{\circ}\text{C}\) keeping the pressure constant. What is the new volume of gas ?

  • (A) \(566\text{ mL}\)
  • (B) \(450\text{ mL}\)
  • (C) \(350\text{ mL}\)
  • (D) \(293\text{ mL}\)

Question 56:

Calculate the quantity of heat released from system when 2 moles of and ideal gas compressed isothermally from volume \(25\text{ dm}^3\) to \(10\text{ dm}^3\) at constant external pressure 4 bar.

  • (A) \(5\cdot 5\text{ kJ}\)
  • (B) \(5\cdot 0\text{ kJ}\)
  • (C) \(6\cdot 5\text{ kJ}\)
  • (D) \(6\cdot 0\text{ kJ}\)

Question 57:

Calculate the standard enthalpy of combustion of carbon monoxide if
\(\Delta _fH^{\circ}(\text{CO}) = -110\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\)
\(\Delta _fH^{\circ}(\text{CO}_2) = -393\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\)

  • (A) \(-503\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(-110\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(-283\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(-383\text{ kJ mol}^{-1}\)

Question 58:

Which of the following processes is an endothermic ?

  • (A) The aqueous NaOH and HCl solutions mixed together.
  • (B) Formation of ammonia by Haber process.
  • (C) Ice melts at room temperature.
  • (D) The freezing of liquid water.

Question 59:

The solubility of sapringly soluble salt \(\text{AB}_2\) is \(18\cdot 78\times 10^{-4}\text{ g/dm}^3\) What is its solubility product ? (Molar mass of \(\text{AB}_2 = 187\cdot 8\text{ g mol}^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(2\times 10^{-15}\)
  • (B) \(4\times 10^{-15}\)
  • (C) \(6\times 10^{-15}\)
  • (D) \(8\times 10^{-15}\)

Question 60:

What is the pH of resulting solution when \(20\text{ mL }\frac{M}{10}\text{ NaOH}\) and \(10\text{ mL }\frac{M}{10}\text{ H}_2\text{SO}_4\) are mixed together ?

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(7\)
  • (D) \(10\)

Question 61:

Which of the following is correct relationship between solubility and solubility product for silver oxalate ?

  • (A) \(S = \sqrt[3]{K_{sp}\times 4}\)
  • (B) \(S = \sqrt[3]{\frac{4}{K_{sp}}}\)
  • (C) \(S = \sqrt[3]{\frac{K_{sp}}{4}}\)
  • (D) \(S = \sqrt[4]{\frac{K_{sp}}{27}}\)

Question 62:

Identify oxidation number of Sulphur respectively in \(\text{SO}_2\) and \(\text{SO}_4^{2-}\) .

  • (A) \(+6,+4\)
  • (B) \(+4,+6\)
  • (C) \(+4,+3\)
  • (D) \(+3,+4\)

Question 63:

Identify colour change when NaCl solution is titrated against \(\text{AgNO}_3\) solution using fluorescein indicator.

  • (A) Colourless to pale yellow
  • (B) Reddish pink to pale yellow
  • (C) Pale yellow to reddish pink
  • (D) Colourless to reddish pink

Question 64:

Which from the following metal chlorides does not contain water of crystallisation ?

  • (A) \(\text{LiCl}\)
  • (B) \(\text{MgCl}_2\)
  • (C) \(\text{CsCl}\)
  • (D) \(\text{BeCl}_2\)

Question 65:

What is the name of second lower homologue of \(\text{CH}_3(\text{CH}_2)_2\text{COOH}\) ?

  • (A) Methanoic acid
  • (B) Ethanoic acid
  • (C) Propanoic acid
  • (D) Pentanoic acid

Question 66:

How many chiral carbon atoms are present in 2-Iodo-3, 4, 5-trimethylhexane ?

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 67:

Identify the product 'B' in the following reaction
\(\text{Toluene}\overset{\text{Chromyl chloride}/\text{CS}_2\,}{\rightarrow }A\overset{\text{H}_3\text{O}^+\,}{\rightarrow }B\)

  • (A) Benzal chloride
  • (B) Benzaldehyde
  • (C) Benzyl alcohol
  • (D) Benzoic acid

Question 68:

Identify the 'A' in the following reaction.
\(\text{CaC}_2+\text{H}_2\text{O}\rightarrow \text{A}+\text{Ca(OH)}_2\)

  • (A) Ethene
  • (B) Ethyne
  • (C) Propene
  • (D) Propyne

Question 69:

Calculate the number of atoms in 1 g metal that forms bcc crystal structure \([ρ\times a^3 = 6\cdot 6\times 10^{-22}\text{ g}]\)

  • (A) \(4\cdot 05\times 10^{21}\)
  • (B) \(5\cdot 12\times 10^{21}\)
  • (C) \(3\cdot 03\times 10^{21}\)
  • (D) \(2\cdot 47\times 10^{21}\)

Question 70:

Which of the following dopants is used in germanium to form n-type semiconductor ?

  • (A) B
  • (B) In
  • (C) Ga
  • (D) P

Question 71:

Calculate the void volume of bcc unit cell if volume of unit cell is \(8\cdot 0\times 10^{-23}\text{ cm}^3\)

  • (A) \(3\cdot 08\times 10^{-23}\text{ cm}^3\)
  • (B) \(4\cdot 16\times 10^{-23}\text{ cm}^3\)
  • (C) \(5\cdot 44\times 10^{-23}\text{ cm}^3\)
  • (D) \(2\cdot 56\times 10^{-23}\text{ cm}^3\)

Question 72:

Calculate the molar mass of a nonvolatile solute if 6.4 g of it dissolved in 100 g water produces a relative lowering in vapour pressure of \(0\cdot 016\) at 300 K.

  • (A) \(60\text{ gmol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(66\text{ gmol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(72\text{ gmol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(84\text{ gmol}^{-1}\)

Question 73:

Calculate the cryoscopic constant of a solvent if depression in freezing point of \(0\cdot 3\) m solution of nonelectrolyte is \(0\cdot 48\) K

  • (A) \(1\cdot 1\text{ K kg mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(1\cdot 6\text{ K kg mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(2\cdot 2\text{ K kg mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(2\cdot 6\text{ K kg mol}^{-1}\)

Question 74:

Identify the correct statement from following.

  • (A) The vapour pressure of a solvent increases by dissolving nonvolatile solute into it.
  • (B) The boiling point of solvent decreases by dissolving a nonvolatile solute into it.
  • (C) The osmotic pressure of electrolytic solution is greater than nonelectrolytic solution of the same concentration.
  • (D) The freezing point of solvent is a colligative properly.

Question 75:

What is the change in oxidation number of Pb at positive electrode of lead accumulator acting as galvanic cell ?

  • (A) increases by 1
  • (B) decreases by 1
  • (C) increases by 2
  • (D) decreases by 2

Question 76:

The graphical variation of molar conductivity \((\Lambda )\) against square root of molar concentration \((\sqrt{c})\) of certain electrolyte 'X' is linear with intercept on y axis. Identify X from following.

  • (A) \(\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}\)
  • (B) \(\text{NH}_4\text{OH}\)
  • (C) \(\text{HCOOH}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CH}_3\text{COONa}\)

Question 77:

If standard reduction potential \((E^0)\) of \((\text{Al}_{(aq)}^{+3}|\text{Al}_{(s)})\), \((\text{Fe}_{(aq)}^{+2}|\text{Fe}_{(s)})\), \((\text{Cu}_{(aq)}^{+2}|\text{Cu}_{(s)})\) and \((\text{Ag}_{(aq)}^{+1}|\text{Ag}_{(s)})\) are \(-1\cdot 66\) V, \(-0\cdot 44\) V, \(+0\cdot 34\) V and \(+0\cdot 79\) V respectively. Which of the following reaction is non spontaneous ?

  • (A) \(2\text{Ag}_{(s)}+\text{Fe}_{(aq)}^{+2}\rightarrow 2\text{Ag}_{(aq)}^{+1}+\text{Fe}_{(s)}\)
  • (B) \(2\text{Al}_{(s)}+3\text{Cu}_{(aq)}^{+2}\rightarrow 2\text{Al}_{(aq)}^{+3}+3\text{Cu}_{(s)}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Fe}_{(s)}+\text{Cu}_{(aq)}^{+2}\rightarrow \text{Fe}_{(aq)}^{+2}+\text{Cu}_{(s)}\)
  • (D) \(2\text{Al}_{(s)}+3\text{Fe}_{(aq)}^{+2}\rightarrow 2\text{Al}_{(aq)}^{+3}+3\text{Fe}_{(s)}\)

Question 78:

For the reaction \(2\text{NOBr}_{(g)}\rightarrow 2\text{NO}_{(g)}+\text{Br}_{2(g)}\) rate law is \(r = k[\text{NOBr}]^2\), if rate constant is \(1\cdot 62\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\text{ s}^{-1}\) and concentration of NOBr is \(2\times 10^{-3}\text{ mol L}^{-1}\). What is the rate of reaction ?

  • (A) \(4\cdot 05\times 10^{-5}\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(6\cdot 48\times 10^{-6}\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(2\cdot 12\times 10^{-5}\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(8\cdot 63\times 10^{-6}\text{ mol dm}^{-3}\text{s}^{-1}\)

Question 79:

In first order reaction 20 millimole of reactant is reduced to 10 millimole in \(1\cdot 151\) minute. Find rate constant.

  • (A) \(0\cdot 6023\text{ minute}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(6\cdot 120\text{ minute}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(0\cdot 3010\text{ minute}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(2\cdot 010\text{ minute}^{-1}\)

Question 80:

Which of the following is an example of second order reaction ?

  • (A) \(2\,\text{H}_2\text{O}_{2(l)}\rightarrow 2\text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)}+\text{O}_{2(g)}\)
  • (B) \(\text{CH}_3\text{CHO}_{(g)}\rightarrow \text{CH}_{4(g)}+\text{CO}_{(g)}\)
  • (C) \(2\,\text{NO}_{2(g)}+\text{F}_{2(g)}\rightarrow 2\text{NO}_2\text{F}_{(g)}\)
  • (D) \(2\,\text{NO}_{(g)}+2\text{H}_{2(g)}\rightarrow \text{N}_{2(g)}+2\text{H}_2\text{O}_{(l)}\)

Question 81:

Which of the following noble gases exhibits higher oxidation states ?

  • (A) Ne
  • (B) Ar
  • (C) Kr
  • (D) Xe

Question 82:

Which from following pair of elements in their respective oxidation states develops same value of calculated spin only magnetic moment ?

  • (A) \(\text{Ti}^{3+}\) and \(\text{Zn}^{2+}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Cr}^{2+}\) and \(\text{Fe}^{2+}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Cr}^{3+}\) and \(\text{Ti}^{3+}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Zn}^{2+}\) and \(\text{Cu}^{2+}\)

Question 83:

What is the atomic number of first post actinoid element ?

  • (A) \(101\)
  • (B) \(108\)
  • (C) \(104\)
  • (D) \(110\)

Question 84:

What is the EAN of metal ion in \([\text{Cu(NH}_3)_4]^{2+}\) ?

  • (A) \(35\)
  • (B) \(27\)
  • (C) \(29\)
  • (D) \(36\)

Question 85:

Identify a ligand with lowest field strength among the following.

  • (A) \(\text{Br}^-\)
  • (B) \(\text{OH}^-\)
  • (C) en
  • (D) \(\text{H}_2\text{O}\)

Question 86:

Identify the product obtained when 2-chlorobutane is heated with aqueous solution of potassium hydroxide.

  • (A) But - 1 - ene
  • (B) But - 2 - ene
  • (C) Butan - 1 - ol
  • (D) Butan - 2 - ol

Question 87:

Identify the product obtained when 2- Chloro - 2 - methylbutane is reacted with sodium metal in presence of dry ether?

  • (A) \(2,2,3,3-\) tetramethyloctane
  • (B) \(3,3,4,4-\) tetramethyloctane
  • (C) \(2,2,3,3-\) tetramethylhexane
  • (D) \(3,3,4,4-\) tetramethylhexane

Question 88:

Which among the following has highest melting point ?

  • (A) Phenol
  • (B) o-Nitrophenol
  • (C) p-Nitrophenol
  • (D) p-Cresol

Question 89:

Which of the following alcohols on addition of Lucas reagent reacts fast and turns the reagent turbid instantly.

  • (A) n - Butyl alcohol
  • (B) sec - Butyl alcohol
  • (C) iso - Butyl alcohol
  • (D) tert - Butyl alcohol

Question 90:

Which among the following does NOT undergo Williamson's synthesis?

  • (A) \(\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{Br}\)
  • (B)
  • (C) \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_5-\text{Br}\)
  • (D) \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_5-\text{CH}_2-\text{Br}\)

Question 91:

Identify the product 'Y' in the following reaction \(\text{Benzonitrile}\overset{\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{MgBr}/\text{dry ether}\,}{\rightarrow }X\overset{\text{H}_3\text{O}^+\,}{\rightarrow }Y+\text{MgBr(OH)}+\text{NH}_3\)

  • (A) Benzophenone
  • (B) Benzylalcohol
  • (C) Benzaldehyde
  • (D) Benzoic acid

Question 92:

Identify the main product of following reaction

  • (A) \(\text{R}-\text{COOH}\)
  • (B) \(\text{RCOR}^'\)
  • (C) \(\text{RCHO}\)
  • (D) \(\text{R CH}_2\text{ OH}\)

Question 93:

Which from following amines when heated with ethanolic KOH and chloroform forms aryl isocyanide ?

  • (A) Benzenamine
  • (B) N -methylaniline
  • (C) N, N - Dimethylaniline
  • (D) Ethylethanamine

Question 94:

Identify false statement from following regarding preparation of amines by Hofmann degradation method.

  • (A) It is useful to convert amides to primary amines.
  • (B) In this -CO-group is reduced to \(-\text{CH}_2-\) group.
  • (C) Molar mass of the amine obtained is always less than the amide.
  • (D) The reagent used is \(\text{Br}_2\) and \(\text{KOH}_{(aq)}\) .

Question 95:

Identify medicinaly important compound extracted from citrus fruits?

  • (A) Antimicrobials
  • (B) Vit. C
  • (C) Analgesics
  • (D) Antiseptics

Question 96:

Which from following is a protein of muscles ?

  • (A) Keratin
  • (B) Myosin
  • (C) Legumelin
  • (D) Insulin

Question 97:

Which from following enzymes cleaves glycosidic bond in sucrose?

  • (A) Amylose
  • (B) Trypsin
  • (C) Invertase
  • (D) Maltase

Question 98:

Which from following polymer is obtained by addition polymerization?

  • (A)
  • (B) \([\text{NH}-(\text{CH}_2)_5-\text{CO}]_n\)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 99:

Identify the polymer used to prepare disposable cups and plates.

  • (A) Polypropylene
  • (B) Polystyrene
  • (C) Polyethylene terephthalate
  • (D) High density polyethylene

Question 100:

Which from following is a first stage in preparation of viscose rayon ?

  • (A) \(\text{Cell}-\text{OH}+\text{NaOH}\)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Mathematics Section (Questions 101 to 150)


Question 101:

If \(tanA\) and \(tanB\) are the roots of the equation \(5x^2-4x+1 = 0\), then the value of \(A+B\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{6}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{2}\)

Question 102:

\(\frac{(cos2θ+isin2θ)^7}{(cos4θ+isin4θ)^3} =\)

  • (A) \(cos2θ+isin2θ\)
  • (B) \((cos2θ+isin2θ)^4\)
  • (C) \(cos4θ+isin4θ\)
  • (D) \((cos4θ+isin4θ)^{-2}\)

Question 103:

In a test, there are 5 questions of the 'true or false' type. No student has got all the answers correct and the sequence of answers for every student is unique. The maximum number of students who could have appeared for the test is....

  • (A) \(5\)
  • (B) \(31\)
  • (C) \(15\)
  • (D) \(89\)

Question 104:

The line \(y = 2x+c\) passes through a point that is equidistant from both the axes and lies in the first quadrant \((x > 0,y > 0)\). Then the value of c is...

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(-2\)

Question 105:

If the equation \(ax^2+4xy-2y^2+4x+8y+1 = 0\) represents a pair of straight lines, then the coordinates of their point of intersection are.........

  • (A) \((\frac{1}{2},-\frac{3}{2})\)
  • (B) \((-\frac{3}{2},\frac{1}{2})\)
  • (C) \((\frac{1}{2},\frac{3}{2})\)
  • (D) \((-\frac{1}{2},\frac{3}{2})\)

Question 106:

If the circles \(x^2+y^2 = 16\) and \(x^2+y^2+2ax+4y+4 = 0\) touch each other internally then \(a =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{56}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{-2}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 107:

If the line \(3x+4y+k = 0\) touches the ellipse \(9x^2+16y^2 = 144\), then the value of k is.

  • (A) \(\pm 3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(\pm 4\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(\mp 8\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(\mp 12\sqrt{2}\)

Question 108:

Which of the following statements is/are False?
\(S_1:\exists \,n\in N\), such that \(n^2+n+2\) is divisible by 4.
\(S_2:\exists \,x\in N\), such that \(x-17 < 20\).
\(S_3:\forall \,n\in N,\,x^2+3x-10 = 0\).
\(S_4:\forall \,n\in N,\,n^2\geq 1\).

  • (A) \(S_1\) and \(S_2\).
  • (B) \(S_1\) and \(S_3\).
  • (C) Only \(S_3\).
  • (D) \(S_2\) and \(S_4\).

Question 109:

The negation of \((p∧q)\rightarrow ((p∨r)\rightarrow \,\sim q)\) is equivalent to ...

  • (A) \(p∧q\)
  • (B) \(p∧\,\sim r\)
  • (C) \(q∧(p∨r)\)
  • (D) \(\sim p∧\,\sim q\)

Question 110:

The statement pattern \([(p∧q)\rightarrow (\sim p∨r)]∨[(\sim p∨r)\rightarrow (p∧q)]\) is

  • (A) a contradiction
  • (B) a tautology
  • (C) equivalent to \((p∧q)∨r\).
  • (D) equivalent to \((p∨q)\) .

Question 111:

In \(△ABC\), with usual notation, if cot A, cot B, cot C are in arithmetic progression, then

  • (A) sin A, sin B, sin C are in arithmetic progression.
  • (B) \(a^2,b^2,c^2\) are in arithmetic progression.
  • (C) cos A, cos B, cos C are in arithmetic progression.
  • (D) a, b, c are in arithmetic progression.

Question 112:

If \(A = \left[ \begin{array}{cc}1 & -tan\frac{θ}{2} \\ tan\frac{θ}{2} & 1\end{array} \right]\) and \(B = \left[ \begin{array}{cc}1 & tan\frac{θ}{2} \\ -tan\frac{θ}{2} & 1\end{array} \right]\) then \(A^{-1}B\) is equal to

  • (A) \([\begin{array}{cc}cosθ & sinθ \\ -sinθ & cosθ\end{array}]\)
  • (B) \([\begin{array}{cc}cosθ & -sinθ \\ sinθ & cosθ\end{array}]\)
  • (C) \([\begin{array}{cc}sinθ & -cosθ \\ cosθ & sinθ\end{array}]\)
  • (D) \([\begin{array}{cc}cosθ & sinθ \\ sinθ & cosθ\end{array}]\)

Question 113:

If \(A = \left[ \begin{array}{ccc}3 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & -5 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 7\end{array} \right]\); \(B = \left[ \begin{array}{ccc}-1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 2 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 4\end{array} \right]\) then, \((2A+3B)^{-1} =\) _______

  • (A) \(\left[ \begin{array}{ccc}\frac{1}{3} & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & -\frac{1}{4} & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & \frac{1}{26}\end{array} \right]\)
  • (B) \(\left[ \begin{array}{ccc}\frac{1}{3} & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & \frac{1}{4} & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & \frac{1}{26}\end{array} \right]\)
  • (C) \(\left[ \begin{array}{ccc}\frac{1}{3} & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & \frac{1}{4} & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & -\frac{1}{26}\end{array} \right]\)
  • (D) \(\left[ \begin{array}{ccc}-\frac{1}{3} & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & \frac{1}{4} & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & -\frac{1}{26}\end{array} \right]\)

Question 114:

If \(sin^{-1}(x-2)+cos^{-1}(x)+tan^{-1}(x+2)+cot^{-1}(x+4) = sec^{-1}(\sqrt{k})-\frac{π}{2}\), then \(cos(2\,\text{cosec}^{-1}\sqrt{k-1}) = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{15}{16}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{31}{32}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{63}{64}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{7}{8}\)

Question 115:

\(sin(3sin^{-1}(\frac{1}{5})) =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{74}{125}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{71}{125}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 116:

\(cos^{-1}(cos\frac{4π}{3})+sin^{-1}(sin\frac{4π}{3}) = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{4π}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{8π}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3π}{2}\)

Question 117:

If \(f(x) = \frac{1-x}{1+x}\), then \(f(f(cosx)) =\)

  • (A) \(cosx\)
  • (B) \(x\)
  • (C) \(tan\frac{x}{2}\)
  • (D) \(cos\frac{x}{2}\)

Question 118:

If the function \(f(x) = \frac{4\sqrt{2}(sin3x+sinx)}{2sin2xsin\frac{3x}{2}+cos\frac{5x}{2}-cos\frac{3x}{2}}\) for \(x\neq \frac{π}{2}\) is continuous at \(x = \frac{π}{2}\), then the value of \(f(\frac{π}{2})\) is equal to

  • (A) \((2)^2\)
  • (B) \((3)^2\)
  • (C) \(4\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(2\sqrt{2}\)

Question 119:

If \(f(x) = cosx\,cos2x\,cos4x\,cos8x\,cos16x\), then \(f^'(\frac{π}{4}) =\)

  • (A) \(\text{cosec}(\frac{π}{4})\)
  • (B) \(cos(\frac{π}{4})\)
  • (C) \(tan(\frac{π}{4})\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 120:

If \(y = \frac{1}{3x+5}\), then the value of \(\frac{d^9y}{dx^9}\) is..

  • (A) \(\frac{9!\times 3^9}{(3x+5)^9}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{(-1)^8\times 9!\times 3^9}{(3x+5)^9}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{(-1)^9\times 9!\times 3^9}{(3x+5)^{10}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{(-1)^8\times 8!\times 3^9}{(3x+5)^{10}}\)

Question 121:

The derivative of \(tan^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{1+x^2}-1}{x})\) with respect to \(tan^{-1}(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}})\) at \(x = \frac{1}{2}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 122:

If \(y = \sqrt{cosx^2+\sqrt{cosx^2+\sqrt{cosx^2+\ldots \infty }}}\) and \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{f(x)}{2y-1}\) then, \(\int f(x)\,dx = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(sinx^2+c\)
  • (B) \(-sinx^2+c\)
  • (C) \(cosx^2+c\)
  • (D) \(-cosx^2+c\)

Question 123:

If \(f(x) = cot^{-1}(\frac{3x-x^3}{1-3x^2})\) and \(g(x) = cos^{-1}(\frac{1-x^2}{1+x^2})\), then \(\underset{x\rightarrow a}{lim}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{g(x)-g(a)}\), \((0 < a < \frac{1}{2})\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 124:

The coordinates of the points on the curve \(4y = x^2\) that are nearest to the point \((0,5)\) are ...

  • (A) \((-2\sqrt{3},3)\)
  • (B) \((2\sqrt{3},-3)\)
  • (C) \((3,2\sqrt{3})\)
  • (D) \((2\sqrt{3},2)\)

Question 125:

The equation of the tangent to the curve \(y = \sqrt{9-3x^2}\) at the point where the ordinate and abscissa equal is...

  • (A) \(x-3y+3 = 0\)
  • (B) \(3x-y-3 = 0\)
  • (C) \(x+3y-6 = 0\)
  • (D) \(3x+y-6 = 0\)

Question 126:

If the line \(y = 4x-5\) is tangent to the curve \(y^2 = ax^3+b\) at the point \((2,3)\), then the value of \(7a-2b\) is...

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(7\)
  • (C) \(14\)
  • (D) \(28\)

Question 127:

If \(\int \frac{sinx}{sin4x}\,dx = αlog\frac{1+sinx}{1-sinx}+βlog\frac{1+\sqrt{2}sinx}{1-\sqrt{2}sinx}+c\), then the value of \(32(α+β^2) =\)

  • (A) \(5\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(9\)
  • (D) \(-3\)

Question 128:

If \(\int f(x)\,dx = g(x)\) then \(\int x^3f(x^2)\,dx\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}[x^2g(x^2)-\int g(x^2)\,d(x^2)]\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}[x^2[f(x)]^2-\int [g(x)]^2\,dx]\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}[x^2g(x)-\int g(x)\,d(x)]\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}[x^2g(x^2)+\int g(x^2)\,d(x^2)]\)

Question 129:

If \(\int \frac{3x+7}{x^2-3x+2}\,dx = mlog(\frac{x-2}{x-1})+nlog(x-2)+c\), where \(m,n\in R\) and \(c\) is an integration constant, then \(m+n =\)

  • (A) \(6\)
  • (B) \(7\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(13\)

Question 130:

If \(f(x) = \frac{sin^{-1}x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\) and \(g(x) = e^{sin^{-1}x}\), then the value of \(\int f(x)g(x)\,dx = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(e^{sin^{-1}x}(sin^{-1}x-1)+c\)
  • (B) \(e^{sin^{-1}x}(1-sin^{-1}x)+c\)
  • (C) \(e^{sin^{-1}x}(sin^{-1}x+1)+c\)
  • (D) \(e^{sin^{-1}x}(-sin^{-1}x-1)+c\)

Question 131:

The function \(f(x) = \int _0^x\frac{dt}{1+cost}\) satisfies which of the following differential equations?

  • (A) \(2\frac{df}{dx} = 1+[f(x)]^2\)
  • (B) \(\frac{df}{dx} = 1+[f(x)]^2\)
  • (C) \(2\frac{df}{dx} = 1-[f(x)]^2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{df}{dx} = 1-[f(x)]^2\)

Question 132:

If \(\int _a^b(x^2-x)\,dx = 18,\int _a^bx^3\,dx = 0\), then \(a+b\) is equal to

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(9\)

Question 133:

The value of the definite integral \(\int _0^π\frac{1}{5+4cosx}\,dx\) is equal to ...

  • (A) \(π\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{4}\)

Question 134:

Let \(f(x) = x-[x]\) for every real number \(x\), where \([x]\) is integral part of \(x\). then \(\int _{-1}^1f(x)\,dx\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(1/2\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 135:

The area of the region bounded by curves \(y = sinx,y = cosx\) and the lines \(x = 0\), \(x = \frac{π}{4}\) is

  • (A) \(2\sqrt{2}-1\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2}-1\)
  • (C) \(2-\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1-\sqrt{2}}{2}\)

Question 136:

The general solution of the differential equation \(secy+(x-e^{siny})\frac{dy}{dx} = 0\) is...

  • (A) \(e^{siny} = x+c\)
  • (B) \(xe^{siny} = \frac{e^{2siny}}{2}+c\)
  • (C) \(2xcosy = e^x+c\)
  • (D) \(siny-e^{siny} = c\)

Question 137:

The general solution of the differential equations \(\frac{dy}{dx} = (9x+y+5)^2\) is...

  • (A) \(tan^{-1}(\frac{9x+y+5}{2}) = -2x+c\)
  • (B) \(tan^{-1}(\frac{9x+y+5}{2}) = 2x+c\)
  • (C) \(tan^{-1}(\frac{9x+y+5}{3}) = -3x+c\)
  • (D) \(tan^{-1}(\frac{9x+y+5}{3}) = 3x+c\)

Question 138:

Let \(\overset{⃗}{a}\) and \(\overset{⃗}{b}\) be linearly independent vectors such that
\(|\overset{⃗}{a}| = \sqrt{3},|\overset{⃗}{b}| = 3\) and \(|\overset{⃗}{a}-\overset{⃗}{b}| = 4\).
If \(\overset{⃗}{a}\times (2\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-\hat{k}) = (2\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-\hat{k})\times \overset{⃗}{b}\) and \(|(\overset{⃗}{a}+\overset{⃗}{b})\cdot (3\hat{i}+4\hat{j}+2\hat{k})| = \sqrt{λ}\), then \(λ = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(32\)
  • (B) \(64\)
  • (C) \(256\)
  • (D) \(128\)

Question 139:

The value of \(b\) such that the scalar product of the vector \(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}\) with the unit vector parallel to the sum of the vectors \(2\hat{i}+4\hat{j}-5\hat{k}\) and \(b\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+3\hat{k}\) is one, is...

  • (A) \(-2\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 140:

If \(|\overset{⃗}{a}\cdot \overset{⃗}{b}| = |\overset{⃗}{a}\times \overset{⃗}{b}|\), \(\overset{⃗}{a}\cdot \overset{⃗}{b} < 0\) and \(θ\) is the angle between \(\overset{⃗}{a}\) and \(\overset{⃗}{b}\), then the value of \(sinθ+tanθ\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}-2}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}+2}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1+\sqrt{2}}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2-\sqrt{2}}{2}\)

Question 141:

Let \(\overset{⃗}{a} = λ\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k},\overset{⃗}{b} = 2\hat{i}+4\hat{j}+4\hat{k},\overset{⃗}{c} = \hat{i}+μ\hat{j}+\hat{k}\)
If \(\overset{⃗}{a}\) is parallel to \(\overset{⃗}{b}\) and \(\overset{⃗}{b}\) is perpendicular to \(\overset{⃗}{c}\) then \(λ-μ = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(-2\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 142:

The equation of the perpendicular line from the point \((2,-3,1)\) to the line \(\frac{x+1}{2} = \frac{y-3}{3} = \frac{z+2}{-1}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{x-2}{24} = \frac{y+3}{13} = \frac{z-1}{9}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x-2}{24} = \frac{y-3}{-13} = \frac{z-1}{9}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{x+2}{-24} = \frac{y+3}{13} = \frac{z+1}{-9}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{x-2}{-24} = \frac{y+3}{13} = \frac{z-1}{-9}\)

Question 143:

The angle between the line \(x-1 = 2-y = \frac{2z-6}{4}\) and the plane \(\overset{⃗}{r}\cdot (2\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}) = 10\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{6}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{12}\)

Question 144:

The sum of the coordinates of one of the points on the line \(\frac{x-2}{1} = \frac{y+3}{-2} = \frac{z+5}{2}\) which is at a distance of 3 units from the point \((2,-3,-5)\) is ...

  • (A) \(7\)
  • (B) \(-7\)
  • (C) \(11\)
  • (D) \(-11\)

Question 145:

If A and B are the feet of the perpendiculars drawn from \((1,2,3)\) to planes \(YZ\) and \(ZX\), then the equation of the plane passing through the points A, B and the origin is

  • (A) \(6x+3y+2z = 0\)
  • (B) \(6x-3y-2z = 0\)
  • (C) \(6x+3y-2z = 0\)
  • (D) \(3x+6y+2z = 0\)

Question 146:

If the distance of point \(B(2,1,-3)\) from the line passing through the point \(A(4,-2,2)\), and parallel to the vector \(\overset{⃗}{c} = -4\hat{i}-6\hat{j}-2\hat{k}\) is \(x\), then \(x^4+x^2+541 =\)

  • (A) \(2026\)
  • (B) \(2025\)
  • (C) \(2024\)
  • (D) \(2023\)

Question 147:

In the following figure, the shaded region represents the system of constraints:

  • (A) \(2x+y\leq 12,x+2y\leq 12,x+1.25y\geq 5,x\leq 0,y\geq 0\)
  • (B) \(2x+y\leq 12,x+2y\leq 12,x+1.25y\geq 5,x\geq 0,y\leq 0\)
  • (C) \(2x+y\leq 12,x+2y\leq 12,x+1.25y\leq 5,x\geq 0,y\geq 0\)
  • (D) \(2x+y\leq 12,x+2y\leq 12,x+1.25y\geq 5,x\geq 0,y\geq 0\)

Question 148:

On average, one out of 10 persons is busy. If six persons are selected at random, then the probability that at least 5 of them will be busy is...

  • (A) \(\frac{25}{(10)^6}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{35}{(10)^6}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{45}{(10)^6}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{55}{(10)^6}\)

Question 149:

If a discrete random variable \(X\) takes the values \(1,2,3,4\) such that \(2P(X = 1) = 3P(X = 2) = P(X = 3) = 5P(X = 4)\), then \(P(X = 4) = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{15}{61}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{30}{61}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{10}{61}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{6}{61}\)

Question 150:

Three numbers are chosen from 1 to 30. The probability that minimum is 10 and maximum is 26 is _______

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{406}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{812}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{812}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{7}{812}\)

MHT CET PCM Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT-CET 2026 Exam Strategy