MHT CET 2026 April 18 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on April 18 in Shift 2 from 2 AM to 5 PM in CBT mode.

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Also Check: MHT CET 2026 April 18 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper

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MHT CET 2026 April 18 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions

MHT CET 2026 April 18 Shift 2 PCM Questions with Solutions

Physics Section (Questions 1 to 50)

Question 1:

If a unit vector is represented by \(\overset{⃗}{U} = 0.9\,\hat{i}-0.2\,\hat{j}+m\hat{k}\), then the value of m is

  • (A) \(0.85\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{0.15}\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{0.77}\)

Question 2:

The maximum error in the measurement of the density and mass of the uniform cube are 8% and 2% respectively. Hence, the maximum error in the measurement of length will be

  • (A) \(2\%\)
  • (B) \(4\%\)
  • (C) \(6\%\)
  • (D) \(8\%\)

Question 3:

For a projectile motion, the range R is 'n' times the maximum height H. So the angle of projection is

  • (A) \(sin^{-1}(\frac{2}{n})\)
  • (B) \(cos^{-1}(\frac{4}{n})\)
  • (C) \(tan^{-1}(\frac{4}{n})\)
  • (D) \(tan^{-1}(\frac{2}{n})\)

Question 4:

An inextensible string passing over a smooth pulley connects two blocks of masses \(m_1\) and \(m_2\) (\(m_2 > m_1\)) vertically. If the acceleration of the system is \((\frac{g}{n})\), then the ratio of masses \((\frac{m_2}{m_1})\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{n}{n+1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{n}{n-1}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{n+1}{n-1}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{n+1}{n}\)

Question 5:

Given identical rings are arranged in a hexagonal plane pattern so as to touch each neighbouring ring as shown in figure. Each ring has mass M and radius R. The moment of inertia of the system of seven rings about an axis passing through the centre of central ring and normal to plane of all rings is

  • (A) \(31MR^2\)
  • (B) \(19MR^2\)
  • (C) \(11MR^2\)
  • (D) \(7MR^2\)

Question 6:

A kathak dancer is standing on horizontal surface with folded hands. In the begining dancer is rotating about his central axis and his kinetic energy is 'K' at that time. The kathak dancer now stretches his arms so that the moment of inertia of the dancer becomes three times and the angular velocity becomes one-third. The kinetic energy of the dancer now is

  • (A) \(\frac{K}{6}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{K}{3}\)
  • (C) \(3K\)
  • (D) \(6K\)

Question 7:

A solid sphere rolls without slipping on an inclied plane at an angle \(θ\). The ratio of total kinetic energy to its rotational kinetic energy is

  • (A) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{7}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5}{7}\)

Question 8:

The acceleration due to gravity at a height 'h' above the surface of earth is '\(g_h\)'. At the depth 90 km below the earth's surface the acceleration due to gravity is also '\(g_h\)'. The value of 'h' is

  • (A) \(180\) km
  • (B) \(120\) km
  • (C) \(90\) km
  • (D) \(45\) km

Question 9:

An incompressible fluid (ideal fluid) is flowing through non uniform cross-sectional tube PQ as shown in the figure from end P to end Q. If \(K_P\) and \(K_Q\) are the kinetic energy per unit volume of the fluid at end P and end Q respectively, then

  • (A) \(K_P = \frac{1}{2}K_Q\)
  • (B) \(K_P = K_Q\)
  • (C) \(K_P < K_Q\)
  • (D) \(K_P > K_Q\)

Question 10:

In case of fluid flowing on horizontal surface the flow of fluid becomes unsteady when Reynolds number (Rn) is

  • (A) less than 499
  • (B) between 500 - 999
  • (C) between 1000 - 1999
  • (D) greater than 2000

Question 11:

If the shape of the liquid surface is curved, then

  • (A) the pressure on convex side is equal to atmosphereic pressure.
  • (B) the pressure on the convex side is equal to pressure on concave side.
  • (C) the pressure on the concave side is greater than that on the convex side.
  • (D) the pressure on the concave side is lesser than that on the convex side.

Question 12:

A black body radiates maximum energy at wavelength '\(λ\)' at temperature \(T_1\) and its emissive power is E. When the temperature of the body is changed to \(T_2\), it radiates maximum energy at wavelength \(\frac{2λ}{3}\), then the emissive power will become

  • (A) \(\frac{99}{16}\,E\)
  • (B) \(\frac{81}{16}\,E\)
  • (C) \(\frac{63}{16}\,E\)
  • (D) \(\frac{45}{16}\,E\)

Question 13:

A body cools from a temperature \(3θ\) to \(2θ\) in 10 minute. The room temperature is \(θ\). The temperature of the body at the end of the next 10 minute is '\(x\)'. Assuming that Newton's law of cooling is applicable, the value of '\(x\)' will be

  • (A) \(\frac{9}{5}θ\)
  • (B) \(\frac{7}{4}θ\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{2}θ\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4}{3}θ\)

Question 14:

An ideal monoatomic gas is taken around the cycle ABCDA as shown in the P.V diagram. The work done during the cycle is

  • (A) \(-P_0V_0\)
  • (B) \(2P_0V_0\)
  • (C) \(-2P_0V_0\)
  • (D) \(6P_0V_0\)

Question 15:

An ideal gas with pressure P, volume V and temperature T is expanded isothermally to volume 2V and a final pressure \(P_i\). The same gas is expanded adiabatically to a volume 2V then the final pressure is \(P_a\). In terms of \(γ\), the ratio of the two specific heats for the gas, the ratio \(P_i/P_a\) is

  • (A) \(2^γ\)
  • (B) \(2^{1-γ}\)
  • (C) \(2^{γ-1}\)
  • (D) \(2γ\)

Question 16:

At a pressure P and temperature T, 7 gram of oxygen occupies a volume V. The equation of state will be (Molecular weight of Oxygen \(= 32\))

  • (A) \(PV = (\frac{2}{7})RT\)
  • (B) \(PV = (\frac{7}{2})RT\)
  • (C) \(PV = (\frac{7}{16})RT\)
  • (D) \(PV = (\frac{7}{32})RT\)

Question 17:

When the r.m.s. velocity of a gas is denoted by '\(v\)' at temperature '\(T\)'. Out of the following relations, the true one is

  • (A) \(v\cdot T^2 = \text{constant}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{v}{T^2} = \text{constant}\)
  • (C) \(v^2T = \text{constant}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{v^2}{T} = \text{constant}\)

Question 18:

Three masses 100g, 300g and 500g are suspended at the end of a spring as shown in figure and are in equilibrium. When the 500 g mass is removed, the system oscillates with a period of 3 second. When the 300 g mass is also removed, it will oscillate with a period of

  • (A) \(1.0\) s
  • (B) \(1.5\) s
  • (C) \(2.0\) s
  • (D) \(2.5\) s

Question 19:

Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring constants \(K_A\) and \(K_B\) respectively. The maximum velocities of the particles during oscillations are equal. The ratio of the amplitude of 'B' to that of 'A' is

  • (A) \(K_A:K_B\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{K_A}:\sqrt{K_B}\)
  • (C) \(K_B:K_A\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{K_B}:\sqrt{K_A}\)

Question 20:

A particle of mass '\(m\)' is executing S.H.M. about the origin on x-axis with frequency \(\sqrt{\frac{Ka}{πm}}\), where K is a constant and a is the amplitude of S.H.M. If '\(x\)' is the displacement of a particle at time '\(t\)', the potential energy of a particle will be

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}Kax^2\)
  • (B) \(πKax^2\)
  • (C) \(2πKax^2\)
  • (D) \(2Kax^2\)

Question 21:

In an organ pipe closed at one end produces a fundamental note of frequency '\(ν\)'. The pipe is cut into two pipes of equal length. The fundamental frequencies produced in the two pipes are

  • (A) \(ν\) , \(2ν\)
  • (B) \(\frac{ν}{2}\) , \(ν\)
  • (C) \(2ν\) , \(4ν\)
  • (D) \(\frac{ν}{2}\) , \(2ν\)

Question 22:

The fundamental frequency '\(n\)' of the tuning fork is 288 Hz, it will not resonate with the frequency

  • (A) \(288\) Hz
  • (B) \(576\) Hz
  • (C) \(844\) Hz
  • (D) \(864\) Hz

Question 23:

A wire of length 'L' and linear density 'm' is stretched between two rigid supports with tension 'T'. It is observed that wire resonates in the \(P^{th}\) harmonic at a frequency of 320 Hz and resonates again at next higher frequency of 400 Hz in two successive modes. The value of 'P' is

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(8\)
  • (D) \(10\)

Question 24:

A person standing between two parallel cliffs fires a gun and hears two echoes, first echo after 1 second and second echo after 3 second. The distance between the two cliffs is (The velocity of sound \(= 330\) m/s)

  • (A) \(330\) m
  • (B) \(660\) m
  • (C) \(990\) m
  • (D) \(1320\) m

Question 25:

Three point charges Q, \(+2q\) and \(+q\) are placed at the vertices of a right-angled isosceles triangle of length \(\sqrt{2}a\) as shown in figure. The net electrostatic potential energy of the configuration is zero, if Q is equal to

  • (A) \(-\frac{1}{2\sqrt{3}}q\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}q\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}q\)
  • (D) \(-\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}\,q\)

Question 26:

Two equal point charges exert a force F on each other when they are placed distance 'd' apart in air. When they are placed distance 'D' apart in a medium of dielectric constant K, they exert the same force. The distance D is equal to

  • (A) \(\frac{d}{\sqrt{K}}\)
  • (B) \(d\sqrt{K}\)
  • (C) \(d^2K\)
  • (D) \(\frac{K}{d^2}\)

Question 27:

Figure shows a network of five capacitors connected to a supply voltage 'V'. The equivalent capacitance and the energy stored in the network is respectively

  • (A) \(4C\) , \(2CV^2\)
  • (B) \(6C\) , \(3CV^2\)
  • (C) \(9C\) , \(4CV^2\)
  • (D) \(11C\) , \(9CV^2\)

Question 28:

Three identical capacitors connected in series have net capacitance '\(x\)'. Then they are connected in parallel. The ratio of energy stored in series configuration to that in parallel configuration is (if both configurations are connected to the same source)

  • (A) \(1:3\)
  • (B) \(3:1\)
  • (C) \(1:9\)
  • (D) \(9:1\)

Question 29:

When cell of E.M.F. '\(E_1\)' is connected to potentiometer wire the balancing length is '\(l_1\)'. Another cell of E.M.F. '\(E_2\)' (\(E_1 > E_2\)) is connected along with \(E_1\) so as two cells oppose each other, the balancing length is '\(l_2\)'. The ratio \(E_1:E_2\) is

  • (A) \((l_1):(l_1+l_2)\)
  • (B) \((l_1):(l_1-l_2)\)
  • (C) \((l_1+l_2):(l_1)\)
  • (D) \((l_1+l_2):(l_1-l_2)\)

Question 30:

In the following network,
\(I_1 = -0.4\,\text{A}\) , \(I_4 = 1\,\text{A}\) , \(I_5 = 0.4\,\text{A}\)
The values of \(I_2\), \(I_3\) and \(I_6\) are respectively

  • (A) \(1.4\,\text{A}\) , \(0.4\,\text{A}\) , \(-0.6\,\text{A}\)
  • (B) \(0.4\,\text{A}\) , \(-0.6\,\text{A}\) , \(1.4\,\text{A}\)
  • (C) \(1.4\,\text{A}\) , \(-0.6\,\text{A}\) , \(0.4\,\text{A}\)
  • (D) \(-0.6\,\text{A}\) , \(1.4\,\text{A}\) , \(0.4\,\text{A}\)

Question 31:

A particle of charge '\(q\)' and mass '\(m\)' moves in a circular orbit of radius '\(r\)' with angular speed '\(ω\)'. The ratio of the magnitude of its magnetic moment to that of its angular momentum depends upon

  • (A) q and m
  • (B) \(ω\) and m
  • (C) \(ω\) and q
  • (D) \(ω\) , q and m

Question 32:

A straight long wire is carrying current I. The ratio of magnetic field due to this wire at perpendicular distance 2 cm and 5 cm respectively from the wire is

  • (A) \(2:5\)
  • (B) \(3:5\)
  • (C) \(7:3\)
  • (D) \(5:2\)

Question 33:

Two wires with current 3A and 1.5A are enclosed in a circular loop P. Third parallel wire with current 1A is situated outside the loop as shown. All the wires are perpendicular to the plane of the circular loop. The value of \(\oint \overset{⃗}{B}\cdot \overset{⃗}{dl}\) around the loop is (\(μ_0 =\) permeability of free space)

  • (A) \(5.5\,μ_0\)
  • (B) \(2.5\,μ_0\)
  • (C) \(1.5\,μ_0\)
  • (D) \(0.5\,μ_0\)

Question 34:

Two coils A and B have 180 and 360 turns respectively. The current of 1A flows through both the coils. Due to current of 1A in coil A, flux per turn of \(0.8\times 10^{-3}\) Wb is linked with coil A. Due to current of 1A in coil B, flux per turn of \(1\times 10^{-3}\) Wb is linked with coil B. The self inductance of coil A is \(L_A\) and the self inductance of coil B is \(L_B\). The ratio \(L_A\) to \(L_B\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5}{2}\)

Question 35:

If current of 4 A produces magnetic flux of \(3\times 10^{-3}\) Wb through a coil of 400 turns, the energy stored in the coil will be

  • (A) \(1.2\) J
  • (B) \(2.4\) J
  • (C) \(24\) J
  • (D) \(240\) J

Question 36:

The equivalent inductance between A and B is equal to

  • (A) \(10\) H
  • (B) \(5\) H
  • (C) \(\frac{12}{25}\) H
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{5}\) H

Question 37:

A series combination of resistor 'R' and capacitor 'C' is connected to an a.c. source of angular frequency '\(ω\)'. Keeping the voltage same, if the frequency is changed to \((\frac{ω}{3})\) the current becomes half of the original current. Then the ratio of capacitive reactance and resistance is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{6}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{0.3}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{0.6}\)

Question 38:

In the series LCR circuit shown in figure the impedance is

  • (A) \(300\,\Omega\)
  • (B) \(500\,\Omega\)
  • (C) \(700\,\Omega\)
  • (D) \(900\,\Omega\)

Question 39:

In an LCR series circuit, the potential difference across the terminals of the inductor, capacitor and resistor is 60 V, 30 V and 40 V respectively. Then supply voltage will be equal to

  • (A) \(10\) V
  • (B) \(50\) V
  • (C) \(70\) V
  • (D) \(130\) V

Question 40:

Refractive index of a glass convex lens is \(1.5\). The radius of curvature of each of the two surfaces of the lens is 40 cm. The ratio of the power of the lens when immersed in a liquid of refractive index \(1.25\) to that when placed in air is

  • (A) \(2:3\)
  • (B) \(2:5\)
  • (C) \(3:4\)
  • (D) \(5:2\)

Question 41:

In a biprism experiment, fifth dark fringe is obtained at a point. A thin transparent film of refractive index '\(μ\)' is placed in one of the interfering paths. Now \(7^{th}\) bright fringe is obtained at the same point. If '\(λ\)' is the wavelength of light used, the thickness of film is equal to

  • (A) \(1.5(μ-1)λ\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1.5\,λ}{(μ-1)}\)
  • (C) \(2.5(μ-1)λ\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2.5\,λ}{(μ-1)}\)

Question 42:

A plane wavefront of width \(x\), is incident on an air-water interface and the corresponding refracted wavefront has a width y as shown in figure. The refreactive index of air with respect to water in terms of distances w and z is

  • (A) \(\frac{w}{z}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{z}{w}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{w}{z}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{z}{w}}\)

Question 43:

In an optical instrument- microscope, the wavelength of light used are \(λ_1 = 6800\) Å and \(λ_2 = 5100\) Å. The ratio of the resolving power of microscope corresponding to '\(λ_1\)' to that for '\(λ_2\)' is

  • (A) \(9:16\)
  • (B) \(5:4\)
  • (C) \(4:3\)
  • (D) \(3:4\)

Question 44:

The maximum kinetic energies of photoelectrons emitted are \(K_1\) and \(K_2\) when light of wavelength \(λ_1\) and \(λ_2\) respectively are incident on a metallic surface. If \(λ_1 = 3λ_2\) then

  • (A) \(K_1 = \frac{K_2}{3}\)
  • (B) \(K_1 < \frac{K_2}{3}\)
  • (C) \(K_1 = 3K_2\)
  • (D) \(K_1 = \frac{2}{3}K_2\)

Question 45:

The de Broglie wavelength of the electron in the ground state is \(λ_1\) and that in the \(n = 3\) level is \(λ_3\) then \(λ_3\) is given by

  • (A) \(\frac{λ_1}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{λ_1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(2λ_1\)
  • (D) \(3λ_1\)

Question 46:

If the difference between \((n+1)^{th}\) Bohr radius and \(n^{th}\) Bohr radius is given by \((n-1)^{th}\) Bohr radius, then the value of n is

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 47:

Two samples A and B contain equal amount of radioactive substances. If \((\frac{1}{8})^{th}\) of sample A and \((\frac{1}{128})^{th}\) of sample B, remain after 9 hours, then the ratio of half life period of B to that of A is

  • (A) \(9:7\)
  • (B) \(7:3\)
  • (C) \(3:7\)
  • (D) \(3:1\)

Question 48:

In an NPN transistor, the collector current is 28 mA. If 80% electrons reach the collector, its base current in mA is

  • (A) \(7\) mA
  • (B) \(14\) mA
  • (C) \(28\) mA
  • (D) \(35\) mA

Question 49:

The output Y of the given logic circuit is

  • (A) \(\overline{(A\cdot B)}+\overline{(C\cdot B)}\)
  • (B) \(\overline{(A+B)}\cdot \overline{(B\cdot C)}\)
  • (C) \(\overline{(A\cdot B)}+\overline{(B+C)}\)
  • (D) \((A+B)+(B+C)\)

Question 50:

For intrinsic semiconductor, if \(n_h\) and \(n_e\) represent the number of holes per unit volume and the number of free electrons per unit volume respectively then

  • (A) \(n_h < n_e\)
  • (B) \(n_h > n_e\)
  • (C) \(n_h = n_e\)
  • (D) \(n_h\neq n_e\)

Chemistry Section (Questions 51 to 100)


Question 51:

Find the number of molecules present in 70 g dinitrogen.

  • (A) \(1.5055\times 10^{24}\)
  • (B) \(1.5055\times 10^{23}\)
  • (C) \(3.011\times 10^{24}\)
  • (D) \(3.011\times 10^{23}\)

Question 52:

Which from following colours has highest energy if wave lengths of violet, blue, yellow and red light are 410 nm, 470 nm, 580 nm and 750 nm respectively ?

  • (A) Blue
  • (B) Violet
  • (C) Yellow
  • (D) Red

Question 53:

Select the incorrect statement from the following.

  • (A) \(\text{NH}_3\) and \(\text{NF}_3\) both are polar molecules
  • (B) \(\text{NH}_3\) and \(\text{NF}_3\) both have pyramidal shape
  • (C) In \(\text{NH}_3\) and \(\text{NF}_3\) the orbital dipole due to lone pair is in the same direction as that of resultant dipole moment of other three bonds
  • (D) Dipole moment of \(\text{NH}_3\) is greater than \(\text{NF}_3\)

Question 54:

Which from following gases is least soluble in water at same temperature and pressure ?

  • (A) \(\text{NH}_3\)
  • (B) \(\text{CO}_2\)
  • (C) \(\text{HCl}\)
  • (D) \(\text{N}_2\)

Question 55:

Which of the following ethers is gaseous at room temperature ?

  • (A) 1 - Methoxypropane
  • (B) 1 - Ethoxypropane
  • (C) Methoxyethane
  • (D) Ethoxyethane

Question 56:

A container contains mixture of He and Ne gases at certain temperature. He is 20 % by mass of mixture. What is the ratio of partial pressure of Helium to Neon ?

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(2:1\)
  • (C) \(5:4\)
  • (D) \(3:2\)

Question 57:

1 mole of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally and reversibly from initial pressure \(x\) kPa to final pressure \(2x\) kPa at 300 K. Find the work done \((R = 8.314 \text{J K}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1})\)

  • (A) \(1432\) J
  • (B) \(1865\) J
  • (C) \(1296\) J
  • (D) \(1729\) J

Question 58:

Which of the following is the correct expression of the first law of thermodynamics for adiabatic processes ?

  • (A) \(W = -Q\)
  • (B) \(-\Delta U = -W\)
  • (C) \(\Delta U = QV\)
  • (D) \(\Delta U = Q_P-P_{\text{ext}}\,\Delta V\)

Question 59:

Calculate the standard enthalpy change for the following reaction,
\(2\text{C}_2\text{H}_6\text{(g)}+7\text{O}_2\text{(g)}⟶4\text{CO}_2\text{(g)}+6\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}\)
Given, \(\Delta _fH^{\circ}(\text{C}_2\text{H}_6) = -85 \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
\(\Delta _fH^{\circ}(\text{CO}_2) = -390 \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
\(\Delta _fH^{\circ}(\text{H}_2\text{O}) = -285 \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)

  • (A) \(-2900 \text{kJ}\)
  • (B) \(-3100 \text{kJ}\)
  • (C) \(-3000 \text{kJ}\)
  • (D) \(-3200 \text{kJ}\)

Question 60:

The solubility of salt \(\text{AX}_2\) is \(6\times 10^{-12} \text{mol dm}^{-3}\). What is solubility product of the salt ?

  • (A) \(2.06\times 10^{-24}\)
  • (B) \(2.48\times 10^{-24}\)
  • (C) \(4.32\times 10^{-34}\)
  • (D) \(8.64\times 10^{-34}\)

Question 61:

An organic monobasic acid has dissociation constant \(1.96\times 10^{-8}\). What is its percentage dissociation in \(0.01\) M solution ?

  • (A) \(1.40\,\%\)
  • (B) \(0.14\,\%\)
  • (C) \(2.4\,\%\)
  • (D) \(0.19\,\%\)

Question 62:

Which of the following aqueous salt solutions has the least pH value ?

  • (A) \(\text{Na}_2\text{CO}_3\)
  • (B) \(\text{CuCl}_2\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_3\text{COONa}\)
  • (D) \(\text{NaNO}_3\)

Question 63:

What is the oxidation number of carbon in oxalic acid ?

  • (A) \(+2\)
  • (B) \(+3\)
  • (C) \(+4\)
  • (D) \(+6\)

Question 64:

What is the general formula of halide salts of alkali metals if M is a metal atom ?

  • (A) \(\text{MX}\)
  • (B) \(\text{MX}_2\)
  • (C) \(\text{M}_3\text{X}_2\)
  • (D) \(\text{M}_2\text{X}_3\)

Question 65:

Which from following compounds is NOT optically active?

  • (A) 3 - Bromohexane
  • (B) 2 - Bromo - 2 - methylbutane
  • (C) 2 - Bromopentane
  • (D) 2 - Bromo - 3 - methylbutane

Question 66:

Which from following compounds does NOT contain double bond in it ?

  • (A) Tetrahydrofuran
  • (B) 4 H - Pyran
  • (C) Pyrrole
  • (D) Thiophene

Question 67:

Which of the following is NOT terminal alkyne ?

  • (A) Ethyne
  • (B) Propyne
  • (C) But - 1 - yne
  • (D) But - 2 - yne

Question 68:

The major product of the following reaction is

  • (A) 3 - iodo - 3 - methylhexane
  • (B) 4 - iodo - 4 - methylhexane
  • (C) 3 - iodo - 4 - methylhexane
  • (D) 4 - iodo - 3 - methylhexane

Question 69:

Calculate the number of unit cell in \(0.5\) g metal if the product of volume and density of unit cell is \(6.65\times 10^{-23}\) g

  • (A) \(6.340\times 10^{21}\)
  • (B) \(7.518\times 10^{21}\)
  • (C) \(5.625\times 10^{21}\)
  • (D) \(8.492\times 10^{21}\)

Question 70:

What is the total number of adjacent unit cells shared by each face particle of fcc unit cell ?

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 71:

A metal forms fcc structure. Calculate the volume of fcc unit cell in \(\text{cm}^3\) if void volume is \(1.66\times 10^{-23} \text{cm}^3\).

  • (A) \(4.912\times 10^{-23} \text{cm}^3\)
  • (B) \(8.151\times 10^{-23} \text{cm}^3\)
  • (C) \(9.346\times 10^{-23} \text{cm}^3\)
  • (D) \(6.385\times 10^{-23} \text{cm}^3\)

Question 72:

Calculate the mole fraction of solute in solution if vapour pressure of a solution and pure solvent are 27 mm Hg and 30 mm Hg respectively at 298 K.

  • (A) \(0.9\)
  • (B) \(0.1\)
  • (C) \(0.4\)
  • (D) \(0.6\)

Question 73:

Calculate the molar mass of nonelectrolyte solute when 6 gram of it is dissolved in 1 \(\text{dm}^3\) water has osmotic pressure \(2.4 \text{atm}\) at 300 K \((R = 0.0821 \text{atm dm}^3 \text{K}^{-1} \text{mol}^{-1})\)

  • (A) \(45.0 \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(74.12 \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(61.58 \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(90.28 \text{g mol}^{-1}\)

Question 74:

A galvanic cell consist copper electrode and standard hydrogen electrode. If \(E^{\circ}(\text{Cu}_{(aq)}^{+2}|\text{Cu}_{(s)}) = +0.34\,\text{V}\), then identify a reaction taking place at positive electrode during working of cell.

  • (A) \(\text{Cu}_{(s)}⟶\text{Cu}_{(aq)}^{+2}+2e^-\)
  • (B) \(\text{Cu}_{(aq)}^{+2}+2e^-⟶\text{Cu}_{(s)}\)
  • (C) \(\text{H}_2\text{(g)}⟶2\text{H}_{(aq)}^++2e^-\)
  • (D) \(\text{H}_{(aq)}^++2e^-⟶\text{H}_2\text{(g)}\)

Question 75:

If standard reduction potential of Zn, Ni and Fe are \(-0.76\,\text{V}\), \(-0.23\,\text{V}\) and \(-0.44\,\text{V}\) respectively. For the reaction (Stated below) to be spontaneous find out electrodes X and Y considering above electrode potentials
\(\text{X}_{(s)}+\text{Y}_{(aq)}^{+2}⟶\text{X}_{(aq)}^{+2}+\text{Y}_{(s)}\)

  • (A) X = Ni , Y = Fe
  • (B) X = Ni , Y = Zn
  • (C) X = Fe , Y = Zn
  • (D) X = Zn , Y = Ni

Question 76:

If standard reduction potential of four electrodes A, B, C, D are \(+2.5\,\text{V},+3.0\,\text{V},-2.0\,\text{V}\) and \(-1.5\,\text{V}\) respectively. When is the standard emf of cell maximum?

  • (A) 'A' is anode and 'B' is cathode
  • (B) 'B' is anode and 'D' is cathode
  • (C) 'C' is anode and 'B' is cathode
  • (D) 'B' is anode and 'C' is cathode

Question 77:

Which of the following is an example of fractional order reaction ?

  • (A) \(2\text{H}_2\text{O}_2\text{(g)}⟶2\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}+\text{O}_2\text{(g)}\)
  • (B) \(\text{H}_2\text{(g)}+\text{I}_2\text{(g)}⟶2\text{HI}\text{(g)}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_3\text{CHO}\text{(g)}⟶\text{CH}_4\text{(g)}+\text{CO}\text{(g)}\)
  • (D) \(2\text{NO}\text{(g)}+2\text{H}_2\text{(g)}⟶\text{N}_2\text{(g)}+2\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}\)

Question 78:

What is the time required for 75 % completion of a first order reaction if rate constant is \(23.03 \text{minute}^{-1}\) ?

  • (A) \(12.00\) s
  • (B) \(3.6\) s
  • (C) \(36\) s
  • (D) \(6.0\) s

Question 79:

For a reaction \(\text{A}⟶\) product, \(k = 2\times 10^{-2} \text{s}^{-1}\). If the initial concentration of A is \(1.0 \text{mol dm}^{-3}\) find the value of \(log\frac{1}{[A]_t}\) after 100 second ?

  • (A) \(0.135\)
  • (B) \(0.270\)
  • (C) \(0.430\)
  • (D) \(0.868\)

Question 80:

Which of the following is an example of macromolecular colloid?

  • (A) Proteins
  • (B) Detergents
  • (C) Soap
  • (D) \(\text{S}_8\) sulphur molecules

Question 81:

Which of the following reactions exhibits the reducing property of ozone ?

  • (A) \(\text{NO}\text{(g)}+\text{O}_3\text{(g)}⟶\text{NO}_2\text{(g)}+\text{O}_2\text{(g)}\)
  • (B) \(2\text{KI}\text{(aq)}+\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}+\text{O}_3\text{(g)}⟶2\text{KOH}\text{(aq)}+\text{I}_2\text{(g)}+\text{O}_2\text{(g)}\)
  • (C) \(\text{H}_2\text{O}_2\text{(l)}+\text{O}_3\text{(g)}⟶\text{H}_2\text{O}\text{(l)}+2\text{O}_2\text{(g)}\)
  • (D) \(\text{PbS}\text{(s)}+4\text{O}_3\text{(g)}⟶\text{PbSO}_4\text{(s)}+4\text{O}_2\text{(g)}\)

Question 82:

What is the oxidation state of chlorine in its weakest oxoacid?

  • (A) \(+1\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(+3\)
  • (D) \(-3\)

Question 83:

Which from following pair of elements in their respective oxidation states have same number of unpaired electrons ?

  • (A) \(\text{Fe}^{2+}\) and \(\text{Mn}^{2+}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Co}^{2+}\) and \(\text{Ni}^{2+}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Fe}^{2+}\) and \(\text{Cr}^{2+}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Co}^{2+}\) and \(\text{Fe}^{2+}\)

Question 84:

Which lanthanoid from following exhibits \(f^{14}\) configuration in +3 state?

  • (A) Tm
  • (B) Lu
  • (C) Ce
  • (D) Dy

Question 85:

What is EAN for metal ion in \([\text{Fe(CN)}_6]^{3-}\) ?

  • (A) \(37\)
  • (B) \(36\)
  • (C) \(35\)
  • (D) \(34\)

Question 86:

Which of the following is a correct increasing order of ligand field strength ?

  • (A) \(\text{EDTA} < \text{C}_2\text{O}_4^{2-} < \text{H}_2\text{O} < \text{en}\)
  • (B) \(\text{en} < \text{H}_2\text{O} < \text{EDTA} < \text{C}_2\text{O}_4^{2-}\)
  • (C) \(\text{C}_2\text{O}_4^{2-} < \text{H}_2\text{O} < \text{EDTA} < \text{en}\)
  • (D) \(\text{H}_2\text{O} < \text{en} < \text{C}_2\text{O}_4^{2-} < \text{EDTA}\)

Question 87:

Identify substrate 'S' in the following reaction.
\(\text{S}\overset{\text{Na / dry ether}\,}{\rightarrow }\) 3, 4 - diethyl - 3, 4 - dimethyl hexane

  • (A) 3 - chloro - 2 - methylpentane
  • (B) 2 - chloro - 3 - methylpentane
  • (C) 3 - chloro - 3 - methylpentane
  • (D) 2 - chloro - 2 - methylpentane

Question 88:

Select the correct decreasing order of acid strength for the following compounds.
a) Ethanol   b) 2-Methyl propan-2-ol   c) Phenol   d) p - Nitrophenol

  • (A) a > b > c > d
  • (B) c > d > b > a
  • (C) d > c > a > b
  • (D) d > b > c > a

Question 89:

Which of the following isomers of \(\text{C}_4\text{H}_9\text{OH}\) has lowest boiling point ?

  • (A) n - Butyl alcohol
  • (B) Isobutyl alcohol
  • (C) sec-Butyl alcohol
  • (D) tert Butyl alcohol

Question 90:

Identify the 'product' in the following reaction.
Pent - 3 - enenitrile \(\rightarrow _{\text{H}_3\text{O}^+\,}^{\text{Al H (i-Bu)}_2\,}\) Product

  • (A) Pent - 3 - en - 1 - amine
  • (B) Pentanal
  • (C) Pent - 3 - enal
  • (D) Pent - 3 - en -1 - ol

Question 91:

Identify the product obtained when isopropyl magnesium chloride in dry ether reacts with dry ice forming a complex, hydrolysed further.

  • (A) Propanoic acid
  • (B) Propanal
  • (C) 2 - Methylpropanoic acid
  • (D) 2 - Methylpropanol

Question 92:

What is the number of moles of hydrogen atoms needed to obtain one mole ethanamine from acetamide using \(\text{LiAl H}_4\) /ether as reducing agent.

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 93:

Identify 'B' in the following reaction
Ethyl cyanide \(\overset{\text{H}_2\text{O}\,}{\rightarrow }\text{A}\overset{\text{H}_2\text{O / dil HCl}\,}{\rightarrow }\text{B}+\text{NH}_3\)

  • (A) Ethanoic acid
  • (B) Ethanamide
  • (C) Propanoic acid
  • (D) Propanamide

Question 94:

Which from following amines when heated with ethanolic KOH and chloroform does NOT produce foul smell ?

  • (A) Benzenamine
  • (B) N , N - Dimethyl aniline
  • (C) Propan - 2 - amine
  • (D) Phenylmethanamine

Question 95:

Identify glycosidic linkage in lactose.

  • (A) \(α-1,4\)
  • (B) \(β-1,4\)
  • (C) \(α-1,6\)
  • (D) \(β-2,6\)

Question 96:

Identify a protein present in nails

  • (A) Legumelin
  • (B) Keratin
  • (C) Myosin
  • (D) Insulin

Question 97:

Identify the use of LDP from following.

  • (A) Manufacture of buckets
  • (B) Preparation of pipes for irrigation
  • (C) For making nonstick cook ware
  • (D) For making tyrecords

Question 98:

What is a starting material used to obtain viscose rayon ?

  • (A) Styrene
  • (B) Cellulose
  • (C) Acrylamide
  • (D) Bisphenol

Question 99:

Which of the following is the use of HDPE ?

  • (A) To obtain shopping bags
  • (B) To prepare shampoo bottles
  • (C) For making carpet
  • (D) To obtain food container

Question 100:

Which from following plants is useful to extract analgesic compound from it ?

  • (A) Turmeric
  • (B) Cinnamon
  • (C) Wintergreen
  • (D) Plants of citrus fruits

Mathematics Section (Questions 101 to 150)


Question 101:

The difference between the roots of the equation \(x^2+2x+4 = 0\) is \(\ldots\) (where \(i = \sqrt{-1}\))

  • (A) \(2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (B) \(3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(2i\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) \(i\sqrt{3}\)

Question 102:

In a test, there are 7 questions of the type 'True or False'. No student got all the answers correct. If the sequence of answers for every student is unique, then the maximum number of students who appeared for the test is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(128\)
  • (B) \(126\)
  • (C) \(127\)
  • (D) \(125\)

Question 103:

Let \(f_k(x) = \frac{1}{k}(cos^kx+sin^kx)\) where \(k\in N\), then \(f_6(x)-f_4(x) = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{1}{12}\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{12}\)

Question 104:

The coordinates of the orthocenter of the triangle whose sides are represented by the lines \(4x-7y+10 = 0\), \(x+y = 5\) and \(7x+4y = 15\) are \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \((1,2)\)
  • (B) \((1,-2)\)
  • (C) \((-1,2)\)
  • (D) \((-1,-2)\)

Question 105:

The combined equation of lines parallel to the coordinate axes and passing through the point of intersection of lines represented by \(x^2-6xy+5y^2+10x-14y+9 = 0\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(xy+2x+y+2 = 0\)
  • (B) \(xy+2x-y-2 = 0\)
  • (C) \(xy-2x+y-2 = 0\)
  • (D) \(xy-2x-y+2 = 0\)

Question 106:

The number of circles passing through the origin and touching the lines \(x+y = 1\) and \(x-y = 1\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 107:

A parabola has its focus on the positive X-axis and the Y-axis as its directrix. If \(P(α,4)\) is a point on this parabola such that the tangent to the parabola at point P passes through the origin, then the distance of P from origin is

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{20}\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{32}\)

Question 108:

If \(\underset{x\rightarrow k}{lim}\frac{x^3-k^3}{x^2-k^2} = \underset{x\rightarrow 0}{lim}\frac{1-cos(2x)}{xsinx}\), then the value of \(k\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3}{8}\)

Question 109:

In a switching circuit, if the combination \((S_1∧S_2)\) is connected in parallel to the combination \((S_1^'∧S_2^')\), then the room is lit only when \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(S_1\) is ON and \(S_2\) is OFF
  • (B) \(S_1\) is OFF and \(S_2\) is ON
  • (C) \(S_1\) and \(S_2\) both ON or \(S_1\) and \(S_2\) both OFF
  • (D) The room is always lit.

Question 110:

If the truth value of the statement pattern \((\sim p∧q)∨(\sim p∧\sim q)∨(p∧\sim q)\) is \(F\), then the truth values of \((p∨\sim q)\) and \((p\rightarrow q)\) are \(\ldots\) respectively.

  • (A) \(F,F\)
  • (B) \(F,T\)
  • (C) \(T,T\)
  • (D) \(T,F\)

Question 111:

The minimum number of switches in the simplified form of the following switching circuit is

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 112:

In \(△ABC\), with usual notations, if \(\Delta\) denotes the area of triangle \(ABC\) then the value of \(2s(b+c-a)tan(\frac{A}{2})\) is equal to \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\Delta\)
  • (B) \(2\Delta\)
  • (C) \(3\Delta\)
  • (D) \(4\Delta\)

Question 113:

If matrix A and its inverse \(A^{-1}\) are given by \(A = \left[ \begin{array}{ccc}0 & 1 & 2 \\ 1 & 2 & 3 \\ 3 & x & 1\end{array} \right]\) and \(A^{-1} = \left[ \begin{array}{ccc}\frac{1}{2} & -\frac{1}{2} & \frac{1}{2} \\ -4 & 3 & y \\ \frac{5}{2} & -\frac{3}{2} & \frac{1}{2}\end{array} \right]\), then the polar co-ordinates of the points whose Cartesian co-ordinates are \((x,y)\) are \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \((2,\frac{7π}{4})\)
  • (B) \((\sqrt{2},\frac{π}{4})\)
  • (C) \((\sqrt{2},\frac{7π}{4})\)
  • (D) \((2,\frac{π}{4})\)

Question 114:

Let \(A = [\begin{array}{cc}-3 & 2 \\ 1 & 4\end{array}]\) and if \(A^2-2A+I = [\begin{array}{cc}18 & p \\ q & 11\end{array}]\), then \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(p = -2, q = -1\)
  • (B) \(p = 2, q = 1\)
  • (C) \(p = -1, q = -2\)
  • (D) \(p = 1, q = 2\)

Question 115:

For \(x > 0\) and \((xlogx) < 1\), if \(y = cot^{-1}(\frac{x-logx^{x^2}}{loge^{x^2}+logx^x})\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{1+x^2}+\frac{2}{x[1+(logx)^2]}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{1+x^2}+\frac{1}{x[1+(logx)^2]}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{-1}{1+x^2}+\frac{1}{x[1+(logx)^2]}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{1+x^2}+\frac{1}{[1+(logx)^2]}\)

Question 116:

For \(x > 0\), if \(sin(cos^{-1}x+tan^{-1}x)-cos(sin^{-1}x+tan^{-1}x) = sin(cot^{-1}2)\) then \(x =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 117:

If \(tan^{-1}ax+tan^{-1}3x = \frac{π}{4}\), where \(3ax^2 < 1\), then value of \(a\) for \(x = \frac{1}{6}\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(9\)

Question 118:

\(sec^2(tan^{-1}3)-tan^2(sec^{-1}3) =\)

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 119:

The domain of the function \(f(x) = \sqrt{\frac{x}{1+x}}\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \((-\infty ,-1)\cup [0,\infty )\)
  • (B) \((-\infty ,-1]\cup [0,\infty )\)
  • (C) \((-\infty ,-1)\cap [0,\infty )\)
  • (D) all R

Question 120:

If \(f(x) = \frac{3^x+3^{-x}-2}{tanx\cdot log(1+x)}\) for \(x\neq 0\), is continuous at \(x = 0\), then the value of \(f(0)\) is equal to \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(2log3\)
  • (B) \((log3)^2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}log3\)
  • (D) \(log\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 121:

If \(\int f^'(x)\cdot e^{x^2}\,dx = (x-1)\cdot e^{x^2}+k\), where \(k\) is constant of integration, then \(f(x) = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(2x^3-\frac{x^2}{2}+x+c\), where \(c\) is constant of integration.
  • (B) \(\frac{x^3}{2}+3x^2+4x+c\), where \(c\) is constant of integration.
  • (C) \(x^3+4x^2+6x+c\), where \(c\) is constant of integration.
  • (D) \(\frac{2x^3}{3}-x^2+x+c\), where \(c\) is constant of integration.

Question 122:

Let \(y = \sqrt[p]{x^3y}\). If \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{3}{2}\) when \(y = 1\), then the value of \(p\) is equal to \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 123:

If \(f^'(x) = sin^2x\) and \(y = f(\frac{2x-1}{x^2+1})\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) at \(x = 1\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4}sin(\frac{1}{2})\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{4}sin^2(\frac{1}{2})\)
  • (C) \(sin^2(\frac{1}{4})\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}sin^2(\frac{1}{2})\)

Question 124:

If \(f:R\rightarrow R\) is an even function then

  • (A) \(f^'(0) = 1\)
  • (B) \(f^'(x)\) is an even function
  • (C) \(f(0) = 0\)
  • (D) \(f^'(x)\) is an odd function

Question 125:

Let \(g(x) = f(x)+f(1-x)\) and \(f^{''}(x) < 0,0\leq x\leq 1\), then \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(g(x)\) increases on \([\frac{1}{2},1]\) and \(g(x)\) decreases on \([0,\frac{1}{2}]\)
  • (B) \(g(x)\) decreases on \([0,1]\)
  • (C) \(g(x)\) increases on \([0,1]\)
  • (D) \(g(x)\) decreases on \([\frac{1}{2},1]\) and \(g(x)\) increases on \([0,\frac{1}{2}]\)

Question 126:

If the function \(f(x) = ax^2+bx+sinx\) satisfies all the conditions of Rolle's theorem on \([0,π]\) and the slope of the tangent to the curve \(y = f(x)\) at \(x = \frac{π}{4}\) is zero, then \(a-b =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}(1-π)}{π}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}(2+π)}{π}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}(π-1)}{π}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}(π+1)}{π}\)

Question 127:

If a particle moves such that the displacement (s) is proportional to the square of the velocity (v), then its acceleration (a) is

  • (A) proportional to \(s^2\)
  • (B) proportional to \(1/s\)
  • (C) proportional to \(1/s^2\)
  • (D) a constant

Question 128:

If \(\int e^{x+tan^{-1}x}(\frac{x^2+2}{sec^2(tan^{-1}x)})dx = e^{f(x)}+c\), then \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(f(x)\) is strictly decreasing on \(R\).
  • (B) \(f(x)\) is strictly increasing on \(R^+\) and strictly decreasing on \(R^-\).
  • (C) \(f(x)\) is strictly increasing on \(R\).
  • (D) \(f(x)\) is strictly decreasing on \(R^+\) and strictly increasing on \(R^-\).

Question 129:

Let \(f(x) = x\), \(f_1(x) = f(logx)\), \(f_2(x) = f_1(logx)\), \(f_3(x) = f_2(logx)\), \(\ldots\) and so on. Then \(\int \frac{1}{f(x)\,f_1(x)\,f_2(x)\,\ldots f_{2026}(x)}\,dx = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(f_{2025}(x)+c\)
  • (B) \(2025f_{2025}(x)+c\)
  • (C) \(f_{2027}(x)+c\)
  • (D) \(2027f_{2027}(x)+c\)

Question 130:

If \(\int _0^2x(2-x)^b\,dx = \frac{32}{7}\), where \(b\in N\) then \(b =\)

  • (A) \(5\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(7\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 131:

\(\int _0^2|4x-5|\,dx = \ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{17}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{18}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{25}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{13}{2}\)

Question 132:

If the area bounded by \(y = x^3+ax\) (where \(a > 0\)), the \(x\)-axis and the lines \(x = -2\) and \(x = 1\) is \(\frac{37}{4}\) square units, then \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(a = 4\)
  • (B) \(a = 2\)
  • (C) \(a = 10\)
  • (D) \(a = 20\)

Question 133:

The rate of disintegration of a radioactive element at any time is proportional to its mass at that time, where \(k\) \((k > 0)\) is the constant of proportionality. The time during which an original mass of 1.5 gm will disintegrate to a mass of 0.5 gm is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(klog3\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{k}log3\)
  • (C) \(klog5\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{k}log5\)

Question 134:

The differential equation of the family of all parabolas whose axis is the \(y\)-axis is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}+x\frac{dy}{dx} = 0\)
  • (B) \(x\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}-\frac{dy}{dx} = 0\)
  • (C) \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}-x\frac{dy}{dx} = 0\)
  • (D) \(x\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}+\frac{dy}{dx} = 0\)

Question 135:

The integrating factor of the differential equation \(x\frac{dy}{dx}+2y = x^2logx\) is

  • (A) \(x^3\)
  • (B) \(x^2\)
  • (C) \(log2x\)
  • (D) \(logx^2\)

Question 136:

A spherical raindrop evaporates at a rate proportional to its surface area. The differential equation involving the rate of change of its radius \(r\) with time '\(t\)' is \(\ldots\) (where \(k\) is a positive constant)

  • (A) \(\frac{dr}{dt}+k = 0\)
  • (B) \(\frac{dr}{dt}-k = 0\)
  • (C) \(\frac{dr}{dt}+kr = 0\)
  • (D) \(\frac{dr}{dt}-kr = 0\)

Question 137:

The order and degree of the differential equation \(\sqrt{⎷1+\frac{1}{(\frac{dy}{dx})^2}} = (\frac{d^2y}{dx^2})^{\frac{3}{2}}\) are \(\ldots\)

  • (A) Order 2, Degree 3
  • (B) Order 2, Degree 2
  • (C) Order 3, Degree 3
  • (D) Order 3, Degree 2

Question 138:

The equation of the plane passing through the points having position vectors \((\overset{̄}{a}+\overset{̄}{b}),(\overset{̄}{b}+\overset{̄}{c})\) and \((\overset{̄}{a}+\overset{̄}{c})\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\overset{̄}{r}\cdot (\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{b}+\overset{̄}{b}\times \overset{̄}{c}+\overset{̄}{c}\times \overset{̄}{a}) = [\overset{̄}{a} \overset{̄}{b} \overset{̄}{c}]\)
  • (B) \(\overset{̄}{r}\cdot (\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{b}+\overset{̄}{b}\times \overset{̄}{c}+\overset{̄}{c}\times \overset{̄}{a}) = 2[\overset{̄}{a} \overset{̄}{b} \overset{̄}{c}]\)
  • (C) \(\overset{̄}{r}\cdot (\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{b}+\overset{̄}{b}\times \overset{̄}{c}+\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{c}) = [\overset{̄}{a} \overset{̄}{b} \overset{̄}{c}]\)
  • (D) \(\overset{̄}{r}\cdot (\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{b}+\overset{̄}{b}\times \overset{̄}{c}+\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{c}) = 2[\overset{̄}{a} \overset{̄}{b} \overset{̄}{c}]\)

Question 139:

If the volume of the tetrahedron whose coterminous edges are given by the vectors \(\overset{̄}{a} = -2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}-3\hat{k}\), \(\overset{̄}{b} = 4\hat{i}+5\hat{j}+(λ-10)\hat{k}\), \(\overset{̄}{c} = 6\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-3\hat{k}\) is 11 cubic units, then the sum of the possible values of \(λ\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(7\)
  • (B) \(8\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(6\)

Question 140:

The value of \(θ\in (0,\frac{π}{2})\) for which vectors \(\overset{̄}{a} = (sinθ)\hat{i}+(cosθ)\hat{j}\) and \(\overset{̄}{b} = \hat{i}-\sqrt{3}\hat{j}+2\hat{k}\) are perpendicular is

  • (A) \(θ = \frac{π}{3}\)
  • (B) \(θ = \frac{π}{6}\)
  • (C) \(θ = \frac{π}{4}\)
  • (D) \(θ = \frac{π}{2}\)

Question 141:

If \(|\overset{̄}{a}| = |\overset{̄}{b}| = 1,|\overset{̄}{c}| = 2\) and \(\overset{̄}{a}\times (\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{c})+\overset{̄}{b} = \overset{̄}{0}\), then the acute angle between \(\overset{̄}{a}\) and \(\overset{̄}{c}\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{6}\)

Question 142:

The value of \(|\overset{̄}{a}\cdot \overset{̄}{b}|^2+|\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{b}|\cdot |\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{b}|\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(-a^2b^2\)
  • (B) \(a^2b^2\)
  • (C) \(a^2b^2cosθ\)
  • (D) \(a^2b^2sinθ\)

Question 143:

If \(\overset{̄}{a}\cdot \overset{̄}{b} = β\) and \(\overset{̄}{a}\times \overset{̄}{b} = \overset{̄}{c}\) then \(\overset{̄}{a} =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\overset{̄}{b}\times \overset{̄}{c}-β\overset{̄}{b}}{|\overset{̄}{b}|^2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\overset{̄}{b}\times \overset{̄}{c}-β\overset{̄}{c}}{|\overset{̄}{b}|^2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\overset{̄}{b}\times \overset{̄}{c}+β\overset{̄}{b}}{|\overset{̄}{b}|^2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\overset{̄}{b}\times \overset{̄}{c}+β\overset{̄}{c}}{|\overset{̄}{b}|^2}\)

Question 144:

If the equation of a plane passing through \(A(1,p,2)\), \(B(3,2,4)\) and parallel to the z axis, is \(3x-2y-q = 0\), then \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(p = -1, q = 5\)
  • (B) \(p = 1, q = -5\)
  • (C) \(p = -2, q = -5\)
  • (D) \(p = 2, q = -5\)

Question 145:

The angle between the line \(\overset{̄}{r} = (\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+\hat{k})+λ(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k})\) and the plane \(\overset{̄}{r}\cdot (2\hat{i}-\hat{j}+\hat{k}) = 8\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(θ = sin^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3})\)
  • (B) \(θ = cos^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3})\)
  • (C) \(θ = cos^{-1}(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}})\)
  • (D) \(θ = sin^{-1}(\frac{3}{\sqrt{2}})\)

Question 146:

The acute angle between the lines \(2x = 3y = -z\) and \(6x = -y = -4z\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{π}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{6}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{2}\)

Question 147:

The maximum value of \(z = 4x+y\) subject to the constraints \(x+y\leq 5,2x+y\leq 7,3x+2y\leq 11,x\geq 0,y\geq 0\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(13\)
  • (B) \(8\)
  • (C) \(11\)
  • (D) \(14\)

Question 148:

A fair die is thrown 4 times. If getting a prime number on the die is considered as a success, then the probability of getting no success at all is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{16}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{15}{16}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{81}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{16}{81}\)

Question 149:

If the p. d. f. of a continuous random variable X is given by \(f(x) = \{\begin{array}{cc}k(9+8x-x^2), & \text{for }-1\leq x\leq 4 \\ 0, & \text{otherwise}\end{array}\) then the value of \(k\) is \(\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{125}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{250}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{125}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{250}\)

Question 150:

In an entrance test, there are multiple choice questions. There are four possible answers to each question, only one of which is correct. The probability that a student knows the answer to a question is 90%. If he gets the correct answer to a question, then the probability that he was guessing is

  • (A) \(\frac{37}{40}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{37}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{36}{37}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{9}\)

MHT CET PCM Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT-CET 2026 Exam Strategy