MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on April 19 in Shift 2 from 2 AM to 5 PM in CBT mode.

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

Also Check: MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper

Download MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper with Solutions PDF from the links provided below.

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper PDF Download

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 Question Paper Download PDF Check Solution

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 1

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 2

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 3

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 4

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 5

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 6

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 7

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 8

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 9

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 10

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 11

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 12

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 13

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 14

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 15

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 16

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 17

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 18

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 19

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 20

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 21

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 22

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 23

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 24

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 25

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 26

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 27

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 28

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 29

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 30

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 31

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 32

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 33

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 34

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 35

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 36

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 37

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 38

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 39

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 40

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 41

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 42

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 43

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 44

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 45

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 46

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 47

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 48

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 49

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 50

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 51

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 52

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 53

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper page 54

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions

MHT CET 2026 April 19 Shift 2 PCM Questions with Solutions

Physics Section (Questions 1 to 50)

Question 1:

A cuboid has volume \(V = l\times l\times \sqrt{l}\), where \(l\) is the length of one side. When the length \(l\) is measured by a meter scale of least count \(1\,\text{mm}\), the relative percentage error in the measurement of its volume is \(6.25\%\). Then the relative percentage error in measurement of its length and the value of the length \(l\) is

  • (A) \(2\%\) and \(2\) cm
  • (B) \(2.5\%\) and \(4\) cm
  • (C) \(1.8\%\) and \(3.6\) cm
  • (D) \(1\%\) and \(3\) cm

Question 2:

A particle is performing U.C.M. along a circle of radius \(R\). In half the period of revolution, its displacement and distance covered are respectively

  • (A) \(\sqrt{2}R,2πR\)
  • (B) \(2R,πR\)
  • (C) \(2R,2πR\)
  • (D) \(R,πR\)

Question 3:

The equation of the trajectory of a ball projected at an angle \(θ\) with the horizontal, is given as \(y = x-\frac{gx^2}{2}\)
The initial velocity of the ball is
[Given : \(tan45^{\circ} = 1\), \(cos45^{\circ} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\) ]

  • (A) \(2\sqrt{2}\,\text{m/s}\)
  • (B) \(2\,\text{m/s}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{2}\,\text{m/s}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\,\text{m/s}\)

Question 4:

A stone of mass \(40\) g is tied to a light inextensible string of length \(50\) cm and whirled in a vertical circle at the rate of \(30\) revolutions per minute. The tension in the string when it is at the lowest point of the circle is
(Take gravitational acceleration, \(g = 10\,\text{m/s}^2\) and \(π^2 = 10\))

  • (A) \(0.4\) N
  • (B) \(0.5\) N
  • (C) \(0.6\) N
  • (D) \(0.7\) N

Question 5:

A body of mass 'm' attached at the end of a string is just completing the loop in a vertical circle. The apparent weight of the body at the lowest point in its path is
(\(g\) = gravitational acceleration)

  • (A) \(6\,mg\)
  • (B) \(3\,mg\)
  • (C) \(1\,mg\)
  • (D) zero

Question 6:

Two particles of masses \(2\) g and \(4\) g are situated at the opposite ends, A and B of a wooden bar respectively. Let \(l(AB) = 9\) cm. The center of mass of the system will be

  • (A) \(6\) cm from B.
  • (B) \(3\) cm from A.
  • (C) \(2\) cm from B.
  • (D) \(6\) cm from A.

Question 7:

A force of \(3\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-\hat{k}\) N acts on a particle with position vector \(\hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k}\) m. The magnitude of torque of given force is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{5}\,\text{N}\,m\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{8}\,\text{N}\,m\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{6}\,\text{N}\,m\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{10}\,\text{N}\,m\)

Question 8:

A satellite is revolving around a planet in a circular orbit close to its surface. Let \(ρ\) be mean density and \(R\) be the radius of the planet; then the period of the satellite is
(\(G\) = Universal constant of gravitation).

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{4π}{ρG}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{2π}{ρG}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{π}{ρG}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{3π}{ρG}}\)

Question 9:

A metal wire of length 'L' and density 'd' floats horizontally on the free surface of water. The maximum radius of the wire does not sink in water is
[ \(T\) = surface tension of water , \(g\) = gravitational acceleration]

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{2dg}{πT}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{2T}{πdg}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{πdg}{2T}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{T}{πdg}}\)

Question 10:

The energy needed for breaking a liquid drop of radius 'R' into 'n' droplets each of radius 'r' is
[ \(T\) = surface tension of the liquid]

  • (A) \(4πTR^2[\frac{R}{r}-1]\)
  • (B) \(4πTR[\frac{R}{r}-1]\)
  • (C) \(4πT[\frac{R^2}{r^2}-1]\)
  • (D) \(4πT[1+\frac{R^3}{r}]\)

Question 11:

In most liquids, with rise in temperature surface tension of liquid

  • (A) decreases
  • (B) increases
  • (C) remains unchanged
  • (D) first decreases and then increases

Question 12:

Out of the following, which statement is NOT true about black body radiation ?

  • (A) Intensity is more for shorter wavelengths (\(λ\)).
  • (B) Intensity is same for all wavelengths (\(λ\)).
  • (C) Intensity is less for longer wavelengths (\(λ\)).
  • (D) A black body emits all wavelengths (\(λ\)).

Question 13:

\(15\) g of ice at \(0^{\circ}\text{C}\) is added to a vessel containing water at \(40^{\circ}\text{C}\). The mass of water and water equivalent of the vessel is \(60\) g. Assuming that negligible heat is taken from the surroundings, the final temperature of the mixture will be
[ \(L_{\text{ice}} = 80\,\text{cal/g}\) , \(S_{\text{water}} = 1\,\text{cal/g}\) ]

  • (A) \(30^{\circ}\text{C}\)
  • (B) \(22^{\circ}\text{C}\)
  • (C) \(16^{\circ}\text{C}\)
  • (D) \(10^{\circ}\text{C}\)

Question 14:

An ideal gas having pressure P, volume V and temperature T undergoes a thermodynamic process in which \(dW = 0\) and \(dQ < 0\). Then, for the gas

  • (A) T will increase.
  • (B) V will increase.
  • (C) T will decrease.
  • (D) P may increase or decrease.

Question 15:

An ideal gas at pressure 'P' and temperature 'T' is enclosed in a vessel of volume 'V'. Some gas leaks through a hole from the vessel and the pressure of the enclosed gas falls to \(P^1\). Assuming that the temperature of the gas remains constant during the leakage, the number of moles of the gas that have leaked is

  • (A) \(\frac{P^1V}{RT}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{V}{RT}(P-P^1)\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2V}{RT}(P+P^1)\)
  • (D) \(\frac{V}{RT}(P+P^1)\)

Question 16:

Assuming the expression for the pressure exerted by the gas, it can be shown that pressure is

  • (A) \((\frac{2}{3})^{rd}\) of kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas.
  • (B) \((\frac{3}{4})^{th}\) of kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas.
  • (C) \((\frac{1}{3})^{rd}\) of kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas.
  • (D) \((\frac{3}{2})^{nd}\) times kinetic energy per unit volume of a gas.

Question 17:

An ideal gas (\(γ = 1.5\)) is expanded adiabatically. To reduce the root mean square velocity of molecules two times, the gas should be expanded

  • (A) \(20\) times
  • (B) \(16\) times
  • (C) \(12\) times
  • (D) \(8\) times

Question 18:

A spring force constant \(180\) N/m is loaded with a mass \(0.2\) kg. The amplitude of oscillations is \(4\) cm. When mass comes to equilibrium position, its velocity is

  • (A) \(0.012\) m/s
  • (B) \(0.12\) m/s
  • (C) \(1.2\) m/s
  • (D) \(12\) m/s

Question 19:

A particle executing linear S.H.M. has velocities \(V_1\) and \(V_2\) at distance \(x_1\) and \(x_2\) respectively, from the mean position, its angular velocity is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{V_2^2-V_1^2}{x_1^2-x_2^2}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{V_2^2-V_1^2}{x_2^2-x_1^2}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{V_2^2-V_1^2}{x_1x_2}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{V_1V_2}{x_1+x_2}}\)

Question 20:

In a resonance tube open at one end, the end correction is \(1.1\) cm. If the shortest length of resonating air column with a tuning fork is \(18\) cm, the next resonating length will be

  • (A) \(45.9\) cm
  • (B) \(49.6\) cm
  • (C) \(51.3\) cm
  • (D) \(56.2\) cm

Question 21:

For stationary wave, \(y = 12cos(\frac{πx}{10})sin(36πt)\) cm, the distance between a node and the successive antinode is

  • (A) \(20\) cm
  • (B) \(12\) cm
  • (C) \(10\) cm
  • (D) \(5\) cm

Question 22:

Two waves of same frequency (\(n\)) approaching each other with same velocity of \(18\) m/s interfere. The distance between two consecutive antinodes is

  • (A) \(\frac{18}{n}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{10}{n}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{9}{n}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{n}{18}\)

Question 23:

The equation of a progressive wave is given by \(y = 6cos(100t-4x)\) where \(y\) is in \(μ\text{m}\), \(x\) in metre and \(t\) in second. The ratio of the maximum particle velocity to the velocity of wave is

  • (A) \(1.5\times 10^{-5}\)
  • (B) \(2.0\times 10^{-6}\)
  • (C) \(2.4\times 10^{-5}\)
  • (D) \(2.8\times 10^{-6}\)

Question 24:

A body sends a wave \(150\) mm long through medium P and \(0.30\) m long in medium Q. If velocity of the wave in medium P is \(80\,\text{cm s}^{-1}\), the velocity of wave in medium Q is

  • (A) \(4.0\,\text{m s}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(3.2\,\text{m s}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(2.0\,\text{m s}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(1.6\,\text{m s}^{-1}\)

Question 25:

An uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius 'R' has uniform surface charge density '\(σ\)'. It is made of two hemispherical identical shells held together by pressing them with force 'F' as shown. F is proportional to
[\(ε_0\) = permittivity of free space]

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{ε_0}\,\frac{σ^2}{R^2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{ε_0}\,\frac{σ^2}{R}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{ε_0}\,σ^2R^2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{ε_0}\,σ^2R\)

Question 26:

Two equal positive charges each of value 'q' are placed at points A and B, where \(AB = 3x\). A third charge \(-3q\) is placed at point C at a distance \(x\) from A on AB. The potential energy of the system is nearly (\(ε_0\) = permittivity of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{q^2}{4πε_0x}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{-2q^2}{4πε_0x}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3q^2}{4πε_0x}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-4q^2}{4πε_0x}\)

Question 27:

A particle of mass 'm' and charge 'q', initially at rest, is accelerated by a uniform electric field 'E' through a distance 'D' and is then allowed to approach a fixed static charge 'Q' of the same sign. The distance of the closest approach of the charge q is
[ \(ε_0\) = permittivity of free space ]

  • (A) \(Q/4πε_0D\)
  • (B) \(Q/4πε_0ED\)
  • (C) \(Q/2πε_0D^2\)
  • (D) \(Q/4πε_0E\)

Question 28:

In an oscillating LC circuit the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. When the energy is stored equally between the electric and magnetic fields, the charge on the capacitor (q) is

  • (A) \(Q\)
  • (B) \(\frac{Q}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{Q}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{Q}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 29:

A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity 'C' farad, potential 'V' volt and energy 'E' joule. When the gap between the plates is completely filled with dielectric

  • (A) V increases, E decreases.
  • (B) V decreases, E increases.
  • (C) both V and E increase.
  • (D) both V and E decrease.

Question 30:

When a galvanometer is shunted by a resistance 'S', its current capacity increases 'n' times. If the same galvanometer is shunted by another resistance '\(S^1\)', its current capacity will increase to '\(n^1\)'. The value of n in terms of \(n^1\), S and \(S^1\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{n^1+S}{S^1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{S(n^1-1)-S^1}{S}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{(n^1+1)S^1}{S}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{S+S^1(n^1-1)}{S}\)

Question 31:

The resistances in the two gaps of a balanced meter bridge are 'X' \(\Omega\) and '3X' \(\Omega\) respectively. If the resistances are interchanged the balance point shifts by

  • (A) \(25\) cm
  • (B) \(33.3\) cm
  • (C) \(50\) cm
  • (D) \(75\) cm

Question 32:

A current carrying circular coil of radius 'R' produces magnetic field \(B_1\) at an axial point P at a distance 'x' from its centre and \(B_2\) at point Q placed at its centre respectively . If \(B_2 = 8B_1\), the value of x is

  • (A) \(3R\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{3}\,R\)
  • (C) \(\frac{R}{2\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2R}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 33:

The magnetic induction produced inside an ideal solenoid, depends on which of the following quantities ?
(a) number of turns per unit length.
(b) radius of the wire.
(c) current flowing throught it.
(d) permeability of the medium.

  • (A) (a), (b) and (d)
  • (B) (a), (b) and (c)
  • (C) (b), (c) and (d)
  • (D) (a), (c) and (d)

Question 34:

Two coils P and S have a mutual inductance of (\(π\)) mH. The secondary coil S has resistance \(4\,\Omega\) and self inductance \((60/π)\) mH. If the current in the primary is \(I_p = 12sin(50πt)\), then the maximum value of the current induced in coil S is [Take \(π^2 = 10\)]

  • (A) \(2\) A
  • (B) \(1.8\) A
  • (C) \(1.5\) A
  • (D) \(1.2\) A

Question 35:

A solenoid is connected to a battery so that a steady current flows through it. If an iron core is inserted into the solenoid, then the current in the coil

  • (A) will not change
  • (B) will increase
  • (C) will decrease
  • (D) may increase or decrease depending upon the direction of the current

Question 36:

The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance \(4\,\text{H}\) carrying a current of \(1.5\) A is

  • (A) \(4.5\) mJ
  • (B) \(3\,μ\text{J}\)
  • (C) \(45\,μ\text{J}\)
  • (D) \(4500\) mJ

Question 37:

When a.c. source is connected across a pure capacitor, the correct phase relation between current and emf is shown in figure.

  • (A) (C)
  • (B) (A)
  • (C) (B)
  • (D) (D)

Question 38:

In series LCR circuit \(R = 10\,\Omega\) and impedance is \(30\,\Omega\). An r.m.s. voltage \(210\) V, is applied across the circuit. The true power consumed in AC circuit is

  • (A) \(360\) W
  • (B) \(420\) W
  • (C) \(490\) W
  • (D) \(600\) W

Question 39:

Light travels a distance 'x' in time '\(t_0\)' in air and '\(4x\)' in time '\(t_1\)' in another denser medium. The critical angle for this medium is

  • (A) \(sin^{-1}(\frac{t_1}{t_0})\)
  • (B) \(sin^{-1}(\frac{4t_0}{t_1})\)
  • (C) \(sin^{-1}(\frac{4t_1}{t_0})\)
  • (D) \(sin^{-1}(\frac{t_0}{4t_1})\)

Question 40:

In a biprism experiment, a steady interference pattern is observed on the screen kept at a distance of 100 cm using a light of wavelength \(5000\) Å. Without changing the distance between the virtual images of the slit, the source of light is replaced by a source of wavelength \(6400\) Å. Now, to reduce the fringe width by \(20\%\) of its initial value, the screen should be moved

  • (A) towards the source by \(37.5\) cm
  • (B) towards the source by \(62.5\) cm
  • (C) away from the source by \(62.5\) cm
  • (D) away from the source by \(37.5\) cm

Question 41:

A ray of light is incident at polarising angle \(θ\) on air-glass interface. If \(λ_a\) and \(λ_g\) are the wavelengths of light in air and glass respectively then

  • (A) \(λ_a = λ_gcotθ\)
  • (B) \(λ_g = λ_acotθ\)
  • (C) \(λ_a = λ_gtan^2θ\)
  • (D) \(λ_g = λ_atan^2θ\)

Question 42:

In biprism experiment, the maximum intensity is \(I_0\). If the path difference between the two interfering waves is \(\frac{λ}{3}\), then intensity at the point on the screen is
[\(sin30^{\circ} = cos60^{\circ} = 0.5\), \(sin60^{\circ} = cos30^{\circ} = \sqrt{3}/2\)]

  • (A) \(\frac{I_0}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{I_0}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{I_0}{2}\)
  • (D) \(I_0\)

Question 43:

When light of wavelength '\(λ\)' is incident on a photosensitive surface, the stopping potential is 'V'. When a light of wavelength \(1.5λ\) is incident on the same surface, the stopping potential is '\(\frac{V}{4}\)'. Threshold wavelength for the surface is

  • (A) \(\frac{6}{5}λ\)
  • (B) \(\frac{7.5}{4}λ\)
  • (C) \(\frac{7.5}{9}λ\)
  • (D) \(\frac{9}{5}λ\)

Question 44:

If the ionisation energy for the hydrogen atom is \(13.6\) eV, then the energy required to excite it from the ground state to the next higher state is nearly

  • (A) \(-10.2\,eV\)
  • (B) \(-3.4\,eV\)
  • (C) \(10.2\,eV\)
  • (D) \(13.6\,eV\)

Question 45:

The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving in the \(n^{th}\) Bohr orbit of radius 'r' is

  • (A) \(nπr\)
  • (B) \(\frac{nr}{π}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2πr}{n}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{nr}{2π}\)

Question 46:

The magnetic moment of electron due to orbital motion is proportional to
(\(n\) = principal quantum number)

  • (A) \(n\)
  • (B) \(n^2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{n}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{n^2}\)

Question 47:

A radioactive element has rate of disintegration \(16,000\) disintegrations per minute at a particular instant. After four minutes, it becomes \(2000\) disintegrations per minute. The decay constant per minute is

  • (A) \(0.25log_e2\)
  • (B) \(0.50log_e3\)
  • (C) \(0.75log_e2\)
  • (D) \(0.8log_e3\)

Question 48:

The Boolean expression for the given combination of logic gates is

  • (A) \(Y = (A+B)\cdot \overset{̄}{C}\)
  • (B) \(Y = (A\cdot B)\cdot \overset{̄}{C}\)
  • (C) \(Y = (A+B)+C\)
  • (D) \(Y = (A\cdot B)+\overset{̄}{C}\)

Question 49:

In a transistor, comparing the doping of emitter, base and collector, the part which is heavily doped and that which is lightly doped are respectively

  • (A) collector and emitter
  • (B) emitter and base
  • (C) collector and base
  • (D) emitter and collector

Question 50:

In the following electrical circuit, the reading in the milliammeter is
(Take knee voltage of silicon diode \(= 0.7\) V)

  • (A) \(25.5\) mA
  • (B) \(21.5\) mA
  • (C) \(18.5\) mA
  • (D) \(15.8\) mA

Chemistry Section (Questions 51 to 100)


Question 51:

Chlorine has two isotopes \(\text{Cl}^{37}\) and \(\text{Cl}^{35}\) with percentage abundance of \(25\%\) and \(75\%\) respectively. Find average atomic mass of chlorine ?

  • (A) \(35\)
  • (B) \(37\)
  • (C) \(35.5\)
  • (D) \(36\)

Question 52:

Calculate the shortest wavelength in hydrogen spectrum emission of Lymen series (\(R_H = 109677\,\text{cm}^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(9.117\times 10^{-6}\) cm
  • (B) \(9.241\times 10^{-6}\) cm
  • (C) \(9.360\times 10^{-6}\) cm
  • (D) \(9.482\times 10^{-6}\) cm

Question 53:

What is the number of bond pair of electrons and lone pair of electrons present in the valence shell of chalcogens in their hydride ?

  • (A) 2 - Bond pair and 1- lone pair of electrons
  • (B) 2 - Bond pair and 2- lone pair of electrons
  • (C) 3 - Bond pair and 1- lone pair of electrons
  • (D) 3 - Bond pair and 2- lone pair of electrons

Question 54:

Which of the following is favourable condition for the formation of ionic bond ?

  • (A) Low ionization enthalpy of metal and low negative value of electron gain enthalpy of non metal.
  • (B) Low ionization enthalpy of metal and high negative value of electron gain enthalpy of non metal.
  • (C) High ionization enthalpy of metal and high negative value of electron gain enthalpy of non metal.
  • (D) High ionization enthalpy of metal and low negative value of electron gain enthalpy of non metal.

Question 55:

Which is the correct decreasing order of boiling points for different compounds from following ?

  • (A) \(\text{CH}_3\text{Cl} > \text{CH}_3\text{Br} > \text{CH}_2\text{Br}_2 > \text{CHBr}_3\)
  • (B) \(\text{CH}_3\text{Br} > \text{CH}_2\text{Br}_2 > \text{CHBr}_3 > \text{CH}_3\text{Cl}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_2\text{Br}_2 > \text{CHBr}_3 > \text{CH}_3\text{Br} > \text{CH}_3\text{Cl}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CHBr}_3 > \text{CH}_2\text{Br}_2 > \text{CH}_3\text{Br} > \text{CH}_3\text{Cl}\)

Question 56:

Which from following gases is least soluble in water under same conditions of temperature and pressure ?

  • (A) \(\text{HCl}\)
  • (B) \(\text{CO}_2\)
  • (C) \(\text{NH}_3\)
  • (D) \(\text{O}_2\)

Question 57:

Calculate standard Gibbs energy for any gaseous reaction if values of \(K_p\) and \(R\) respectively are \(3.5\times 10^{17}\) ; \(8.314\,\text{JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}\)

  • (A) \(-100.1\,\text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(-79.5\,\text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(-71.4\,\text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(-89.5\,\text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)

Question 58:

Calculate the work done for the following reaction at \(27\,^{\circ}\text{C}\)
\(\text{C}_2\text{H}_{4(g)}+\text{H}_{2(g)}⟶\text{C}_2\text{H}_{6(g)}\) (\(R = 8.314\,\text{JK}^{-1}\text{mol}^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(2494.2\) J
  • (B) \(124.71\) J
  • (C) \(3741.3\) J
  • (D) \(187.07\) J

Question 59:

Which from following is NOT a state function ?

  • (A) Volume
  • (B) Pressure
  • (C) Work
  • (D) Temperature

Question 60:

Calculate the \([\text{H}_3\text{O}^+]\) if pH of the solution is \(4.25\)

  • (A) \(6.123\times 10^{-5}\) M
  • (B) \(5.623\times 10^{-5}\) M
  • (C) \(4.508\times 10^{-5}\) M
  • (D) \(4.085\times 10^{-5}\) M

Question 61:

If \([\text{H}_3\text{O}^+]\) of a solution is \(1\times 10^{-4}\). What is the value of pOH at \(298\,\text{K}\) ?

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(10\)
  • (C) \(12\)
  • (D) \(14\)

Question 62:

Calculate the molar concentration of weak monobasic acid if \(K_a = 1.8\times 10^{-5}\) and degree of dissociation is \(0.01\) ?

  • (A) \(1.8\times 10^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(1.8\times 10^{-2}\)
  • (C) \(5.55\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (D) \(5.55\times 10^{-4}\)

Question 63:

Which of the following equimolar solutions is the best conductor of electricity at same temperature ?

  • (A) \(\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}\)
  • (B) \(\text{NH}_4\text{OH}\)
  • (C) \(\text{HCl}\)
  • (D) \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_{12}\text{O}_6\)

Question 64:

Which of the following statements is false regarding hydrogen ?

  • (A) It has two isotopes.
  • (B) In periodic table hydrogen is placed separately above group 1.
  • (C) When one electron is lost it forms proton.
  • (D) It does not exist freely.

Question 65:

Which among the following is an aromatic aldehyde ?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 66:

What is IUPAC name of the following compound ?

  • (A) 2,6-diethylhept-4-en-3-ol
  • (B) 2-ethyl-6-methyloct-3-en-5-ol
  • (C) 3,7-Dimethylnon-5-en-4-ol
  • (D) 7-ethyl-3-methyl-oct-5-en-4-ol

Question 67:

Which among the following is allylic halide ?

  • (A) \(\text{CH}_3-\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2-\text{X}\)
  • (B) \(\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CH}_2-\text{X}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_2 = \text{CH}-\text{CH}_2-\text{X}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CH}_3-\text{CH} = \text{CH}-\text{X}\)

Question 68:

IUPAC name of glycerol is -

  • (A) Propane - 1, 2-diol.
  • (B) Propane - 1, 3-diol.
  • (C) Propane - 1,2,3-triol.
  • (D) Propene - 1,2,3-triol.

Question 69:

Which from following structures represents 1,3 butadiene ?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 70:

Which of the following is NOT a phenol ?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 71:

Find the number of structural isomers possible for hexane ?

  • (A) Two
  • (B) Four
  • (C) Three
  • (D) Five

Question 72:

Which of the following hydrocarbons has stronger London dispersion forces ?

  • (A) Methane
  • (B) Ethane
  • (C) n-pentane
  • (D) neo-pentane

Question 73:

Identify the major product of following reaction.
\(\text{Propene}\rightarrow _{\text{Peroxide}\,}^{\text{HBr}\,}\,?\)

  • (A) 1 - Bromopropane
  • (B) 2 - Bromopropane
  • (C) 3 - Bromopropene
  • (D) 2 - Bromopropan-1-ol

Question 74:

Calculate the total volume of simple cubic unit cell in \(\text{cm}^3\) if void volume is \(2.0\times 10^{-23}\,\text{cm}^3\)

  • (A) \(4.2\times 10^{-23}\)
  • (B) \(3.8\times 10^{-23}\)
  • (C) \(3.4\times 10^{-23}\)
  • (D) \(4.6\times 10^{-23}\)

Question 75:

Which of the following statements is true about schottky defect ?

  • (A) The density of a substance decreases.
  • (B) The electrical neutrality of the substance changes.
  • (C) It is found in ionic compounds with larger difference between sizes of cation and anion.
  • (D) It develops when smaller cations occupy interstial sites from their normal sites.

Question 76:

In ionic solid, anions are arranged in hcp array and cations occupy \(\frac{1}{2}\) tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of ionic compound ?
[Consider A = Cation ; B = anion]

  • (A) \(\text{AB}_2\)
  • (B) \(\text{AB}\)
  • (C) \(\text{A}_2\text{B}\)
  • (D) \(\text{AB}_3\)

Question 77:

Calculate the molality of aqueous solution of electrolyte that freezes at \(-0.93\,^{\circ}\text{C}\) if \(K_f\) for water and van't Hoff factor respectively are \(1.86\,\text{K kg mol}^{-1}\) and \(1.25\). (Freezing point of water \(= 0\,^{\circ}\text{C}\) )

  • (A) \(0.2\) m
  • (B) \(0.5\) m
  • (C) \(0.3\) m
  • (D) \(0.4\) m

Question 78:

Calculate the solubility of certain gas in solvent with pressure \(3\) atm at \(25^{\circ}\text{C}\) (Henry's law constant is \(3.0\times 10^{-2}\,\text{mol dm}^{-3}\,\text{atm}^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(0.07\) M
  • (B) \(0.08\) M
  • (C) \(0.09\) M
  • (D) \(0.1\) M

Question 79:

What is molar conductivity of \(\text{CH}_3\text{COOH}\) at zero concentration if the molar conductivities of \(\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4\), \(\text{K}_2\text{SO}_4\) and \(\text{CH}_3\text{COOK}\) at zero concentrations are respectively x, y and z \(\Omega ^{-1}\text{cm}^2\text{mol}^{-1}\) ?

  • (A) \(\frac{(x-y)}{2}+z\)
  • (B) \((x-y+2z)\)
  • (C) \((x+y-z)\)
  • (D) \(\frac{(x-y)}{2}+2z\)

Question 80:

What must be the molarity of \(\text{BaCl}_2\) solution to have molar conductivity \(240\,\Omega ^{-1}\text{cm}^2\text{mol}^{-1}\) and conductivity \(0.012\,\Omega ^{-1}\text{cm}^{-1}\) at \(25^{\circ}\text{C}\) ?

  • (A) \(0.01\) M
  • (B) \(0.02\) M
  • (C) \(0.05\) M
  • (D) \(0.1\) M

Question 81:

Half life of a first order reaction is \(900\) second. If initial concentration of reactant is \(0.08\,\text{mol dm}^{-3}\) find concentration that remains after \(35\) minute ?

  • (A) \(0.159\,\text{mol dm}^{-3}\)
  • (B) \(0.0159\,\text{mol dm}^{-3}\)
  • (C) \(1.05\,\text{mol dm}^{-3}\)
  • (D) \(0.759\,\text{mol dm}^{-3}\)

Question 82:

Consider the reaction,
\(3\text{I}_{(aq)}^-+\text{S}_2\text{O}_8^{2-}_{(aq)}⟶\text{I}_3^-_{(aq)}+2\text{SO}_4^{2-}_{(aq)}\)
If the rate of formation of \(\text{SO}_4^{2-}\) at a particular time is \(2.2\times 10^{-2}\,\text{mol dm}^{-3}\,\text{s}^{-1}\). Calculate the rate of consumption of \(\text{I}^-\).

  • (A) \(1.1\times 10^{-2}\,\text{mol dm}^{-3}\,\text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(2.2\times 10^{-2}\,\text{mol dm}^{-3}\,\text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(3.3\times 10^{-2}\,\text{mol dm}^{-3}\,\text{s}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(4.4\times 10^{-2}\,\text{mol dm}^{-3}\,\text{s}^{-1}\)

Question 83:

For a first order reaction, half life is \(5\) hour. What time is required to reduce \(10\) g of reactant to \(2.5\) g ?

  • (A) \(3\) hour
  • (B) \(4\) hour
  • (C) \(5\) hour
  • (D) \(10\) hour

Question 84:

Which of following forces is responsible for physisorption ?

  • (A) Coulombic force
  • (B) Electrostatic force
  • (C) London force of dispersion
  • (D) Hydrogen bonding

Question 85:

Which of the following ranges of particle size defines nano scale ?

  • (A) \(10\text{-}100\) nm
  • (B) \(1000\text{-}2000\) nm
  • (C) \(1\text{-}100\) nm
  • (D) \(100\text{-}1000\) nm

Question 86:

Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of bond dissociation enthalpy of halogens ?

  • (A) \(\text{F}_2 > \text{Cl}_2 > \text{Br}_2 > \text{I}_2\)
  • (B) \(\text{I}_2 > \text{Br}_2 > \text{Cl}_2 > \text{F}_2\)
  • (C) \(\text{Cl}_2 > \text{Br}_2 > \text{F}_2 > \text{I}_2\)
  • (D) \(\text{Br}_2 > \text{I}_2 > \text{F}_2 > \text{Cl}_2\)

Question 87:

Which from following is NOT an inner transition element ?

  • (A) \(\text{Rf}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Ac}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Lu}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Ho}\)

Question 88:

Identify species having metal atom in \(+6\) oxidation state from following

  • (A) \(\text{MnO}_4^-\)
  • (B) \([\text{Cr}(\text{CN})_6]^{3-}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Cr}_2\text{O}_3\)
  • (D) \(\text{CrO}_2\text{Cl}_2\)

Question 89:

Which element from following is NOT regarded as transition element ?

  • (A) \(\text{Cu}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Sc}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Cd}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Au}\)

Question 90:

Which from following coordinate complexes contains neutral ligand ?

  • (A) Pentacarbonyliron (0)
  • (B) Hexacyanoferrate (II) ion
  • (C) Trioxalatocobaltate (III) ion
  • (D) Sodium hexanitrocobaltate (III)

Question 91:

Which from following complexes is an example of \(\text{MA}_4\text{BC}\) type distereoisomers ?

  • (A) \([\text{Pt}(\text{NH}_3)(\text{H}_2\text{O})\,\text{Cl}_2]\)
  • (B) \([\text{Pt}(\text{NH}_3)_4\,\text{ClBr}]^{2+}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Pt}(\text{NH}_3)_2\,\text{Cl}_2\)
  • (D) \([\text{Co}(\text{NH}_3)_4\,\text{Cl}_2]^+\)

Question 92:

Identify the product B in following reaction.
\(\text{CH}_3\text{Br}\overset{\text{KCN}\,}{\rightarrow }\text{A}\rightarrow _{\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{OH}\,}^{\text{Na}\,}\text{B}\)

  • (A) Ethane
  • (B) Ethanamine
  • (C) Ethanol
  • (D) Methanol

Question 93:

What is the product formed on Rosenmund reduction of benzoyl chloride ?

  • (A) Benzene
  • (B) Benzyl alcohol
  • (C) Benzaldehyde
  • (D) Chlorobenzene

Question 94:

Identify the reagent used in following reaction.
\(\text{Benzoic acid}\rightarrow _{\Delta \,}^{\text{Reagent}\,}\text{Benzoyl chloride}+\text{phosphorous oxychloride}+\text{Hydrogen chloride}\)

  • (A) \(\text{PCl}_3\)
  • (B) \(\text{HCl}\)
  • (C) \(\text{PCl}_5\)
  • (D) \(\text{SOCl}_2\)

Question 95:

Which from following reactions occurs by removal of -CO- group from amide ?

  • (A) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
  • (B) Ammonolysis of halides
  • (C) Mendius reduction
  • (D) Hofmann degradation

Question 96:

Which from following pairs of carbohydrates contains galactose in both of them as one of the constituent ?

  • (A) Sucrose and maltose
  • (B) Maltose and lactose
  • (C) Lactose and Raffinose
  • (D) Sucrose and lactose

Question 97:

Which from following amino acids has a unique structure so that the side chain connects to the back bone of amino acid at two points ?

  • (A) Histidine
  • (B) Proline
  • (C) Tryptophan
  • (D) Tyrosine

Question 98:

Which from following contains mainly saturated fats ?

  • (A) Margarine
  • (B) Olive oil
  • (C) Safflower oil
  • (D) Fish oil

Question 99:

Which from following polymers is classified as branched chain polymer?

  • (A) High density polythene
  • (B) Low density polythene
  • (C) PVC
  • (D) Melamine

Question 100:

Which from following polymers is obtained by condensation polymerisation method ?

  • (A) \([\,\text{CF}_2-\text{CF}_2\,]_n\)
  • (B) \([\,\text{CH}_2-\text{CH}_2\,]_n\)
  • (C) \([\,\text{NH}-(\text{CH}_2)_5-\text{CO}\,]_n\)
  • (D)

Mathematics Section (Questions 101 to 150)


Question 101:

If \(z = \sum _{n = 0}^{2026}i^n\), where \(i = \sqrt{-1}\), then one of the values of \(\sqrt{z}\) is...

  • (A) \(e^{i\frac{π}{4}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}e^{i\frac{π}{4}}\)
  • (C) \(e^{i\frac{π}{2}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}e^{i\frac{π}{2}}\)

Question 102:

Point A\((5,12)\) rotated about the origin O in the XY-plane through an angle of \(30^{\circ}\) in the anticlockwise direction to a new position B. The ordinate of point B is...

  • (A) \(6\sqrt{3}+\frac{5}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{5\sqrt{3}}{2}-6\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5\sqrt{3}}{2}+6\)
  • (D) \(6\sqrt{3}-\frac{5}{2}\)

Question 103:

If \(^nC_4,^nC_5\) and \(^nC_6\) are in arithmetic progression (A.P.), then the value of n is...

  • (A) \(5\) or \(11\)
  • (B) \(7\) or \(14\)
  • (C) \(8\) or \(15\)
  • (D) \(6\) or \(13\)

Question 104:

The family of straight lines \(4ax+3by+c = 0\) such that \(a+b+c = 0\) (where a, b, c are real constants) are concurrent at the point...

  • (A) \((4,3)\)
  • (B) \((\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{3})\)
  • (C) \((\frac{1}{4},\frac{1}{3})\)
  • (D) \((\frac{1}{3},\frac{1}{2})\)

Question 105:

If two lines represented by \(x^2-(1+\sqrt{3})xy+\sqrt{3}y^2 = 0\) make angles \(α\) and \(β\) with the X-axis, then \(tan(α+β)\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}-1}{\sqrt{3}+1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1+\sqrt{3}}{1-\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}+1}{\sqrt{3}-1}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}+1}{2}\)

Question 106:

Let PA and PB be the tangent segments drawn from point P\((6,8)\) to the circle with the centre at origin O. The radius of circle for which the area of quadrilateral PAOB is maximum, is...

  • (A) \(5\)
  • (B) \(5\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5}{2}\)

Question 107:

A circle passes through the point \((0,1)\) and touches the parabola \(y = x^2\) at the point \((1,1)\). The centre of the circle is...

  • (A) \((-\frac{1}{2},-\frac{5}{2})\)
  • (B) \((\frac{1}{2},-\frac{5}{2})\)
  • (C) \((\frac{1}{2},\frac{5}{4})\)
  • (D) \((-\frac{1}{2},\frac{5}{4})\)

Question 108:

The eccentricity of the ellipse represented by the equation \(7x^2+16y^2-14x+64y-377 = 0\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{7}}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3}{8}\)

Question 109:

If \(\underset{x\rightarrow 1}{lim}\frac{x^3+ax^2+bx+c}{x^2-2x+1} = 2026\) then the value of \(a-c\) is...

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(-1\)
  • (D) \(-2\)

Question 110:

If the truth value of \([(p∨q)∧(q\rightarrow r)∧(\sim r)]\rightarrow (p∧q)\) is false, then which of the following is NOT true?

  • (A) Truth value of \(p\rightarrow q\) is False
  • (B) Truth value of \(p\rightarrow r\) is False.
  • (C) Truth value of \((\sim q)\rightarrow p\) is False.
  • (D) The truth value of \((\sim p)∧r\) is False.

Question 111:

If p, q, r are simple propositions with truth values T, F, T respectively, then which of the following is not a true statement?

  • (A) \([q∧(p\rightarrow q)]\rightarrow p\)
  • (B) \((p∧q)\rightarrow (q∨\sim p)\)
  • (C) \([(\sim p∨q)∧\sim r]\leftrightarrow p\)
  • (D) \((p∧q)∨(\sim q∨r)\)

Question 112:

If \(\sim p\rightarrow q\) is false and \(q\leftrightarrow r\) is false, then the truth value of \((p,q,r)\) is...

  • (A) \((T,F,T)\)
  • (B) \((F,T,F)\)
  • (C) \((F,F,T)\)
  • (D) \((F,T,T)\)

Question 113:

In \(△ABC\), with usual notations, \((a+b+c)(b+c-a)(c+a-b)(a+b-c) = 3b^2c^2\), then \(\angle A =\)

  • (A) \(60^{\circ}\) or \(120^{\circ}\)
  • (B) \(30^{\circ}\) or \(150^{\circ}\)
  • (C) \(45^{\circ}\) or \(135^{\circ}\)
  • (D) \(30^{\circ}\) or \(90^{\circ}\)

Question 114:

If ABC is a triangle of area \(\Delta\) with \(a = 2,b = \frac{7}{2},c = \frac{5}{2}\), where \(a,b,c\) are the lengths of the sides of the triangle opposite to angles A, B and C respectively, then \(\frac{2sinA-sin2A}{2sinA+sin2A}\) is equal to...

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{4\Delta }\)
  • (B) \((\frac{3}{4\Delta })^2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{45}{4\Delta }\)
  • (D) \((\frac{45}{4\Delta })^2\)

Question 115:

If matrix \(A = \left[ \begin{array}{ccc}-1 & 2025 & 2026 \\ 0 & 2 & 2027 \\ 0 & 0 & -1\end{array} \right]\), then the sum of all elements in \(\text{adj}(A^{-1})\) is equal to...

  • (A) \(1013\)
  • (B) \(2026\)
  • (C) \(3039\)
  • (D) \(6078\)

Question 116:

The inverse of the matrix \(A = \left[ \begin{array}{ccc}2 & -1 & 4 \\ 4 & -3 & 1 \\ 1 & 2 & 1\end{array} \right]\) is \(B = \frac{1}{37}\left[ \begin{array}{ccc}-5 & 9 & 11 \\ -3 & -2 & 14 \\ 11 & -5 & k\end{array} \right]\), then the value of \(k\) is...

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(-2\)

Question 117:

The value of \(sin^{-1}(sin\frac{5π}{6})+cos^{-1}(cos\frac{7π}{6})+tan^{-1}(tan\frac{2π}{3})\) is equal to...

  • (A) \(\frac{2π}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4π}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5π}{3}\)
  • (D) \(π\)

Question 118:

Let \(f(x) = 1-\frac{1}{x},g_2(x) = f(f(x)),g_3(x) = f(f(f(x)))\) and so on. If \(\int x\cdot g_{2026}(x)\,dx = \int g_{2025}(x)\,dx+h(x)+c\), then \(h(x) =\)...

  • (A) \(x\)
  • (B) \(-x\)
  • (C) \(logx\)
  • (D) \(-logx\)

Question 119:

If \(g(x) = 1-\sqrt{x}\) and \(f(g(x)) = 5+4\sqrt{x}+x\), then the value of \(f(6)\) is...

  • (A) \(5\)
  • (B) \(10\)
  • (C) \(15\)
  • (D) \(20\)

Question 120:

If the function \(f(x) = (\frac{5x-8}{8-3x})^{\frac{3}{2x-4}}\), for \(x\neq 2\) is continuous at \(x = 2\), then the value of \(f(2)\) is...

  • (A) \(e^{12}\)
  • (B) \(e^6\)
  • (C) \(e^3\)
  • (D) \(e^{\frac{3}{2}}\)

Question 121:

If \(x^m+y^m = k,(m\neq 1)\) and \(y^{''} = \frac{ax^b}{y^c}\) such that \(a+b+c = 0\), then the value of k is...

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(m\)

Question 122:

If \(y = sin^{-1}(\frac{25-x^2}{25+x^2})\), then \(y^'(1)\) is...

  • (A) \(-\frac{5}{13}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{5}{13}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{13}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{7}\)

Question 123:

If \(f(x)\) and \(g(x)\) are inverse functions of each other and \(f(x) = x+e^x\), then \(g^'(x) =\)...

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{1+e^{g(x)}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{e^{g(x)}}{1+e^{g(x)}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{1+g(x)}\)
  • (D) \(e^{g(x)}\)

Question 124:

If \(3y^2-2xy-x = 0\), then the value of \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) at \(y = 2\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{5}{36}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{35}{36}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{25}{36}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{36}{25}\)

Question 125:

Rolle's theorem holds for monic quadratic polynomial \(f(x)\) on the interval \([α,α+3]\) where \(f(α) = 0\). Similarly, \(g(x) = f(x)+2\) also follows Rolle's theorem in the interval \([β,3]\) where \(g(3) = 0\), such that the value of \(c\) is the same for both \(f(x)\) and \(g(x)\). Then the value of \((f\circ g)(α)\) is...

  • (A) \(-4\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(-2\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 126:

If the rate of increase of surface area of a spherical balloon is \(5\,\text{cm}^2/\text{sec}\) and rate of increase of volume of a spherical balloon is \(10\,\text{cm}^3/\text{sec}\), then the radius of the balloon at that time is...

  • (A) \(3\) cm
  • (B) \(5\) cm
  • (C) \(6\) cm
  • (D) \(4\) cm

Question 127:

The value of integral \(\int x^3cosx\,dx\) is...

  • (A) \(x^3sinx+x^2cosx-6xsinx+6cosx+c\)
  • (B) \(x^3sinx+3x^2sinx-6xsinx-6cosx+c\)
  • (C) \(x^3sinx+3x^2cosx-6xsinx-6cosx+c\)
  • (D) \(x^3sinx+3x^2cosx-6xsinx+6cosx+c\)

Question 128:

If \(u\) and \(v\) are functions of \(x\), then \(\int \frac{1}{v^3}(uv\frac{du}{dx}-u^2\frac{dv}{dx})dx =\)

  • (A) \(loguv+c\)
  • (B) \(log\frac{u}{v}+c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{v^2}{2u^2}+c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{u^2}{2v^2}+c\)

Question 129:

If \(f(x) = |5x-3|\) is defined on interval \([0,1]\), then the value of \(\int _0^1f(x)\,dx\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{13}{10}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{9}{10}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{17}{10}\)

Question 130:

The value of integral \(\int _0^{\infty}\frac{1}{1+e^x}\,dx\) is...

  • (A) \(log2\)
  • (B) \(log(\frac{2}{e})\)
  • (C) \(-loge\)
  • (D) \(log(\frac{4}{e})\)

Question 131:

If \(f(x)\) is an antiderivative of \(\frac{x+1}{\sqrt{x-1}}\) with respect to \(x\), then value of \(f(5)-f(2)\) is...

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(\frac{14}{3}\)
  • (C) \(7\)
  • (D) \(\frac{26}{3}\)

Question 132:

The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the curve \(y = 2x-x^2\) and the X-axis is...

  • (A) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{20}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 133:

The area (in square units) of the region bounded by the circle \(x^2+y^2 = 9\) and the parabola \(y^2\leq 8x\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{8\sqrt{2}}{3}+\frac{9π}{2}-2\sqrt{2}-9sin^{-1}\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{8\sqrt{2}}{3}+\frac{9π}{2}+2\sqrt{2}+9sin^{-1}\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4\sqrt{2}}{3}+\frac{9π}{4}-\sqrt{2}-\frac{9}{2}sin^{-1}\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4\sqrt{2}}{3}+\frac{9π}{4}+\sqrt{2}+\frac{9}{2}sin^{-1}\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 134:

The differential equation of all lines where the length of the normal from the origin is p and the inclination of the normal is \(α\) is... (where p and \(α\) are arbitrary constants)

  • (A) \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = 0\)
  • (B) \(\frac{dy}{dx} = 0\)
  • (C) \(\frac{dy}{dx} = -cotα\)
  • (D) \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = csc^2α\)

Question 135:

If the solution of the differential equation \((1+x^3)\frac{dy}{dx}+6x^2y = 1+x^2\) is \(y = \frac{1}{(1+x^3)^s}[x+\frac{x^p}{p}+\frac{x^q}{q}+\frac{x^r}{r}+c]\), then the LCM of \(p,q,r\) and \(s\) is...

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(12\)

Question 136:

The solution of the differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx} = cos(x+y)\) is...

  • (A) \(cot(\frac{x+y}{2}) = x+c\)
  • (B) \(tan(\frac{x+y}{2}) = x+c\)
  • (C) \(-sin(x+y) = x+c\)
  • (D) \(sec(x-y)+x = c\)

Question 137:

If \(\overset{⃗}{a},\overset{⃗}{b},\overset{⃗}{c}\) are three vectors such that \(\overset{⃗}{a}⟂(\overset{⃗}{b}+\overset{⃗}{c}),\overset{⃗}{b}⟂(\overset{⃗}{c}+\overset{⃗}{a}),\) and \(\overset{⃗}{c}⟂(\overset{⃗}{a}+\overset{⃗}{b})\) and \(|\overset{⃗}{a}| = 1,|\overset{⃗}{b}| = 2,|\overset{⃗}{c}| = 3\), then \(|\overset{⃗}{a}+\overset{⃗}{b}+\overset{⃗}{c}|\) is...

  • (A) \(\sqrt{8}\)
  • (B) \(8\)
  • (C) \(14\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{14}\)

Question 138:

Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram ABCD are given by \(\overline{AB} = 2\hat{i}+10\hat{j}+11\hat{k}\) and \(\overline{AD} = -\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+2\hat{k}\). The side \(AD\) is rotated by an acute angle \(α\) in the plane of the parallelogram so that \(AD\) becomes \(AD^'\). If \(AD^'\) makes a right angle with the side \(AB\), then the cosine of the angle \(α\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{8}{9}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{17}}{9}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4\sqrt{5}}{9}\)

Question 139:

The maximum volume of a parallelopiped (in cubic units) with vectors \((2a\hat{i}+\hat{k}),(a\hat{j}-a\hat{k})\), and \((3\hat{i}+a\hat{j})\), where \(a\in [0,1]\), as its coterminous edges is...

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(2\sqrt{2}\)

Question 140:

Let O\((0,0)\), A\((-1,2)\) and B\((1,3)\) be the vertices of \(△\)OAB. The bisector of angle O intersects side AB at point D. The value of \(\overset{⃗}{OD}\cdot \overset{⃗}{AB}\) is equal to...

  • (A) \(-5(\sqrt{2}+1)\)
  • (B) \(5(1-\sqrt{2})\)
  • (C) \(5(\sqrt{2}+1)\)
  • (D) \(5(\sqrt{2}-1)\)

Question 141:

The perpendicular distance from the origin to the plane containing the points \((1,-2,1),(2,-1,-3)\) and \((0,1,5)\) is...(in units)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{17}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{26}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{\sqrt{17}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{7}{\sqrt{26}}\)

Question 142:

If \(α,β,γ\) are the direction angles of the line \(x = 4z+3\) and \(y = 2-3z\), then the value of \(cosα+cosβ+cosγ\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{8}{\sqrt{26}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{6}{\sqrt{26}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{26}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{26}}\)

Question 143:

The shortest distance between the lines \(\overset{⃗}{r} = (4\hat{i}-\hat{j})+λ(\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-3\hat{k})\) and \(\overset{⃗}{r} = (\hat{i}-\hat{j}+2\hat{k})+μ(\hat{i}+4\hat{j}-5\hat{k})\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 144:

Let \(\overset{⃗}{r}\cdot (3\hat{i}-2\hat{j}+7\hat{k}) = 32\) is the equation of a plane and the line having direction ratios \((5,b,3)\) is parallel to the plane, then the value of b is...

  • (A) \(b = 13\)
  • (B) \(b = 15\)
  • (C) \(b = 16\)
  • (D) \(b = 18\)

Question 145:

A line passing through the points \((1,-1,2)\) and \((2,0,1)\) meets the XY plane and the YZ plane at points A and B respectively. The distance AB is equal to...

  • (A) \(2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(2\sqrt{3}\)
  • (C) \(3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(3\sqrt{3}\)

Question 146:

An airplane can carry a maximum of \(250\) passengers. A profit of Rs \(1500\) is made on each executive class ticket and a profit of Rs \(900\) is made on each economy class ticket. The airline reserves at least \(30\) seats for executive class. However at least \(4\) times as many passengers prefer to travel by economy class than by executive class. Let \(x_1\) be the number of passengers of executive class and \(x_2\) be the number of passengers of economy class. Formulate the LPP in order to maximize the profit for the airline...

  • (A) Maximize \(z = 1500x_1+900x_2\) subject to \(x_1+x_2\leq 250\), \(x_1\leq 30\), \(x_2\leq 4x_1\), \(x_1\geq 0,x_2\geq 0\).
  • (B) Minimize \(z = 150x_1+90x_2\) subject to \(x_1+x_2\leq 250\), \(x_1\geq 30\), \(x_2\geq 4x_1\), \(x_1\geq 0,x_2\geq 0\).
  • (C) Minimize \(z = 1500x_1+900x_2\) subject to \(x_1+x_2\leq 250\), \(x_1\geq 30\), \(x_2\geq 4x_1\), \(x_1\geq 0,x_2\geq 0\).
  • (D) Maximize \(z = 1500x_1+900x_2\) subject to \(x_1+x_2\leq 250\), \(x_1\geq 30\), \(x_2\geq 4x_1\), \(x_1\geq 0,x_2\geq 0\).

Question 147:

The probability that a bomb will hit the target is \(0.8\). Out of 6 bombs dropped, probability that at least 1 will miss the target is...

  • (A) \((\frac{1}{5})^6\)
  • (B) \(1-(\frac{1}{5})^6\)
  • (C) \((\frac{4}{5})^6\)
  • (D) \(1-(\frac{4}{5})^6\)

Question 148:

Two cards are drawn at random from a box which contains 5 cards numbered 1, 1, 2, 2 & 3. If X denotes the sum of the numbers, then the expected value of X is...

  • (A) \(2.6\)
  • (B) \(3.8\)
  • (C) \(3.2\)
  • (D) \(3.6\)

Question 149:

Bag A contains 3 white and 5 black balls while bag B contains 4 white and 3 black balls. A ball is selected at random from bag A and put in bag B. If a ball is now selected at random from bag B then the probability that this ball is white ball is...

  • (A) \(\frac{20}{64}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{31}{64}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{35}{64}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{32}{64}\)

Question 150:

The lengths of the shadows of a tree of height p, thrown by sun's rays at three different moments are p, 2p and 3p. The sum of the angles of elevation of the sun's rays at these three moments is equal to...

  • (A) \(\frac{2π}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3π}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{π}{2}\)

MHT CET PCM Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT-CET 2026 Exam Strategy