MHT CET 2025 April 17 Shift 2 PCB Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2025 PCB Exam on April 17 in Shift 2 from 2 PM to 5 PM in CBT mode. This paper is memory-based: it is compiled from the questions candidates recalled after the exam, so it does not contain every question of the shift.

The MHT CET 2025 PCB question paper includes the following:

  • The MHT CET 2025 PCB Question Paper consists of 200 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics (50 questions), Chemistry (50 questions), and Biology (100 questions).
  • All questions carry 1 mark each. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

MHT CET 2025 April 17 Shift 2 PCB Question Paper with Solution PDF

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MHT CET 2025 April 17 Shift 2 PCB Questions with Solutions


Question 2:

Identify the WRONG statement from the following. In an intrinsic semiconductor

  • (A) the number of free electrons increases with temperature.
  • (B) the number of free electrons is less than that in a conductor.
  • (C) there are no free electrons at absolute zero temperature.
  • (D) there are no free electrons at any temperature except absolute zero.

Question 3:

Two resistances are connected in two gaps of a meter bridge. The null point is obtained at 20 cm from zero end. A resistance of 15 \(\Omega\) is connected in series with smaller of the two. The null point shifts to 40 cm. The smaller resistance used in \(\Omega\) is

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 12

Question 4:

A flywheel at rest is set into rotation about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane, to have an angular velocity of 24 rad/s in 6 second with constant angular acceleration. The total angle made by the flywheel during this interval is

  • (A) 24 rad
  • (B) 30 rad
  • (C) 48 rad
  • (D) 72 rad

Question 5:

A particle of mass 'm' and charge 'q' is placed at rest in uniform electric field E and then released. The momentum gained by the particle after moving a distance 'y' is \(\sqrt{2x}\). Then x is equal to

  • (A) Eqy
  • (B) \(\frac{2Eqy}{m}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{2mEqy}\)
  • (D) mEqy

Question 6:

Two solid spheres of same metal but of mass M and 64 M fall simultaneously through a viscous liquid and their terminal velocities are V and nV respectively then value of n is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 16
  • (D) 32

Question 7:

A body cools from temperature \((3\theta)^\circ\)C to \((2\theta)^\circ\)C in 10 minute. Then it cools from \((2\theta)^\circ\)C to \((\theta_1)^\circ\)C in next 10 minute. The room temperature is \((\theta)^\circ\)C. Assuming that the Newton's law of cooling is applicable the value of \((\theta_1)^\circ\)C is

  • (A) \(\theta\)
  • (B) \(\frac{5}{4}\theta\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{3}\theta\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3}{2}\theta\)

Question 8:

At \(20^\circ\)C, the ratio of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal gas to its pressure \(\left(\frac{\rho}{P}\right)\) is 'x'. At \(100^\circ\)C, this ratio is

  • (A) 5 x
  • (B) x
  • (C) \(\frac{373}{293}x\)
  • (D) \(\frac{293}{373}x\)

Question 9:

A beam of photons having incident frequency \(\nu\) falls a metal plate of work functions \(W_0\), photo-electrons of maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If frequency of radiation is made four times, the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be

  • (A) \(K+h\nu\)
  • (B) \(K-4h\nu\)
  • (C) \(K+5h\nu\)
  • (D) \(K+3h\nu\)

Question 10:

A wire has mass \((0.2\pm0.002)\) gram, radius \((0.4\pm0.004)\) mm and length \((6\pm0.06)\) cm. The percentage error in the measurement of its density is

  • (A) 1 %
  • (B) 2 %
  • (C) 3 %
  • (D) 4 %

Question 11:

A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has capacitance 9 pF. The separation between the plates becomes thrice and the space between them is filled with a medium of dielectric constant 6. The capacitance becomes 'x' pF. The value of 'x' is

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 18
  • (C) 4.5
  • (D) 27

Question 12:

The equation of trajectory of a projectile is \(y=\sqrt{3}x-\frac{g}{8}x^{2}\) where x, y are in metre and g is in m/s\(^2\). The initial velocity of projectile 'u' is

  • (A) 2 m/s
  • (B) 4 m/s
  • (C) 8 m/s
  • (D) 16 m/s

Question 13:

Two parallel straight conductors carrying unequal currents in the same direction will

  • (A) repel each other.
  • (B) attract each other.
  • (C) neither attract nor repel each other.
  • (D) have rotational motion.

Question 15:

Susceptibility of ferromagnetic substance is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) -1
  • (C) \(>1\)
  • (D) \(<1\)

Question 16:

A particle of mass 'm' is performing U.C.M. along a circular path of radius 'r'. Its angular momentum about the axis passing through the centre of the circle and perpendicular to the plane is 'L'. Then kinetic energy of the particle is directly proportional to

  • (A) \(\frac{L^2}{m^2r}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{L}{mr^2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{mL}{r}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{L^2}{mr^2}\)

Question 17:

Two whistles A and B have frequencies 660 Hz and 590 Hz respectively. An observer is standing in the middle of the line joining the two sources. Source B and observer are moving towards right with velocity 30 m/s and A is stationary at left side. The number of beats listened by the observer are (Velocity of sound in air = 300 m/s)

  • (A) 2/s
  • (B) 4/s
  • (C) 6/s
  • (D) 8/s

Question 18:

In the product \(\vec{F}=q(\vec{V}\times\vec{B})\), q = charge 1C, \(\vec{V}=2\hat{i}+4\hat{j}+6\hat{k}\), \(\vec{B}=(B\hat{i}+B\hat{j}+B\hat{k})\) and \(\vec{F}=4\hat{i}-20\hat{j}+12\hat{k}\). What will be the complete expression for \(\vec{B}\)?

  • (A) \((4\hat{i}+4\hat{j}-6\hat{k})\)
  • (B) \((6\hat{i}+6\hat{j}+8\hat{k})\)
  • (C) \((-6\hat{i}-6\hat{j}-8\hat{k})\)
  • (D) \((-8\hat{i}-8\hat{j}+6\hat{k})\)

Question 19:

A planoconvex lens has the radius of curvature of its spherical surface 25 cm. If the refractive index of a glass is 1.5, then the power of lens is

  • (A) 0.2 D
  • (B) 2 D
  • (C) 0.5 D
  • (D) 5 D

Question 20:

A Carnot engine with efficiency 40% takes heat from a source at 500 K. To increase the efficiency to 60%, keeping temperature of the sink same, the new temperature of the source will be

  • (A) 900 K
  • (B) 750 K
  • (C) 1000 K
  • (D) 450 K

Question 21:

An ideal transformer converts 170 V a.c. to 1.70 kV a.c. to transmit a power of 3.4 kW. If primary coil has 500 turns then alternating current in secondary coil is

  • (A) 2.5 A
  • (B) 1.5 A
  • (C) 1 A
  • (D) 2 A

Question 22:

The excess pressure inside the first soap bubble is three times that inside the second soap bubble. The ratio of volume of the first to that of the second bubble is

  • (A) 1:27
  • (B) 9:1
  • (C) 1:9
  • (D) 1:3

Question 23:

In Young's double slit experiment, two slits \(A_1\) and \(A_2\) are illuminated with light of wavelength 600 nm. The line joining \(A_1O\) is perpendicular to \(A_1A_2\). If the first minimum is detected at 'O', the value of slit separation 'a' will be (D = 60 cm). [Figure: YDSE experimental setup with slits and screen]

  • (A) \(6\times10^{-4}\) m
  • (B) \(3\sqrt{10}\times10^{-2}\) cm
  • (C) \(\sqrt{10}\times10^{-6}\) cm
  • (D) \(6\times10^{-3}\) m

Question 24:

In an ideal gas of density '\(\rho\)', the pressure exerted at a temperature 'T' is 'P'. Then

  • (A) \(P\propto\rho\)
  • (B) \(P\propto\frac{1}{\sqrt{\rho}}\)
  • (C) \(P\propto\rho^{\circ}\)
  • (D) \(P\propto\frac{1}{\rho^2}\)

Question 25:

The mutual inductance between a primary and secondary circuit is 0.4 H and the resistance in these circuits are 20 \(\Omega\) and 4 \(\Omega\) respectively. To produce a current of 0.5 A in the secondary, current in the primary must be changed at the rate of

  • (A) 0.2 A/s
  • (B) 0.4 A/s
  • (C) 4 A/s
  • (D) 5 A/s

Question 26:

A pipe closed at one end produces a fundamental note of frequency '\(\nu\)'. The pipe is cut into two pipes of equal lengths. The fundamental frequencies produced in the two pipes are

  • (A) \(\frac{\nu}{2},\nu\)
  • (B) \(\nu,2\nu\)
  • (C) \(2\nu,\frac{\nu}{2}\)
  • (D) \(2\nu,4\nu\)

Question 27:

A thin rod of length 'L' and mass 'M' is bent at the middle point O at an angle of \(60^\circ\). The moment of inertia of the rod about an axis passing through point 'O' and perpendicular to the plane of the rod will be [Figure: Rod bent at 60\(^\circ\) at point O]

  • (A) \(\frac{ML^2}{6}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{ML^2}{12}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{ML^2}{24}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{ML^2}{3}\)

Question 28:

In Young's double slit experiment, a light of wavelength 5000 \(\mathring{A}\) is used. A glass plate of refractive index 1.5 and thickness 0.2 mm is introduced in the path of one of the interfering beams. The number of fringes which will shift is

  • (A) 200
  • (B) 300
  • (C) 400
  • (D) 100

Question 29:

Which of the following relations is correct for root means square speed of a gas at temperature T? (m = mass of molecule, K = Boltzmann constant)

  • (A) \(C_{rms}=\sqrt{\frac{3KT}{m}}\)
  • (B) \(C_{rms}=\sqrt{\frac{8KT}{\pi m}}\)
  • (C) \(C_{rms}=\sqrt{\frac{2KT}{m}}\)
  • (D) \(C_{rms}=\sqrt{\frac{KT}{m}}\)

Question 30:

The instantaneous voltage through a circuit of impedance 10 \(\Omega\) is \(V=40\sin(50\pi t)\). The effective value of current is

  • (A) \(2\sqrt{2}\) A
  • (B) \(4\sqrt{2}\) A
  • (C) 2 A
  • (D) 4 A

Question 31:

A body is suspended from the two light springs separately, the periods of vertical oscillations are \(T_1\) and \(T_2\). The same body is suspended from two springs connected in series first and then in parallel. The periods of oscillations in both cases respectively are

  • (A) \(\sqrt{T_1T_2},\sqrt{\frac{T_1T_2}{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{T_1^2+T_2^2},\frac{T_1T_2}{\sqrt{T_1^2+T_2^2}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{T_1^2+T_2^2}{2}},\frac{T_1T_2}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{T_1^2+T_2^2}{3}},\frac{2T_1T_2}{T_1^2+T_2^2}\)

Question 32:

A metal wire is bent in the shape of right angle triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm, 5 cm is carrying a current of 1 A. The wire loop is in uniform magnetic field 0.5 T whose direction is parallel to the current in the 5 cm side of the loop. The magnitude of magnetic force on the side 3 cm side will be \(\frac{x}{500}\) N. The value of x is

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 7
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 9

Question 33:

A shot put iron ball of mass 3 kg is rolling on a frictionless horizontal surface with velocity 4 m/s. It collides on the free end of an ideal horizontal spring whose other end is fixed to a rigid support. If the spring constant is 32 N/m, the maximum compression produced in the spring will be

  • (A) \(\sqrt{2.5}\) m
  • (B) \(\sqrt{1.5}\) m
  • (C) \(\sqrt{7.3}\) m
  • (D) \(\sqrt{2.1}\) m

Question 34:

The capacity of a parallel plate air capacitor is \(C_0\) and the distance of separation of the plates is d. A dielectric slab of thickness \(\frac{4d}{5}\) is introduced between the plates and the new capacity is C. The ratio \(C:C_0\) is

  • (A) 5K : (K + 4)
  • (B) 4K : (K + 5)
  • (C) (K + 4) : 5K
  • (D) 5K : 4

Question 35:

Two radioactive materials A and B have decay constants \(6\lambda\) and \(2\lambda\) respectively. If initially they have same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of A to that of B will be \(\frac{1}{e}\) after time

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{3\lambda}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2\lambda}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4\lambda}\)

Question 37:

Starting with same initial conditions an ideal gas expands from volume \(V_A\) to \(V_B\) in three different ways. The work done by the gas is 'W\(_1\)' if the process is purely adiabatic, 'W\(_2\)' if it is purely isobaric and 'W\(_3\)' if purely isothermal. Then

  • (A) \(W_1>W_2>W_3\)
  • (B) \(W_1<W_2<W_3\)
  • (C) \(W_2>W_3>W_1\)
  • (D) \(W_2<W_3<W_1\)

Question 39:

A particle starting from extreme position performs S.H.M. The phase difference of the particle between any two successive mean positions is

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\pi\)
  • (D) \(2\pi\)

Question 40:

According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph of kinetic energy of the photoelectron emitted from the metal versus the frequency of incident radiation gives a straight line graph whose slope

  • (A) depends on the nature of the metal only.
  • (B) depends on the intensity of the incident radiation only.
  • (C) depends on the nature of the metal and also on the intensity of incident radiation.
  • (D) is same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the incident radiation.

Question 41:

In Young's double slit experiment, the distance of the \(4^{th}\) bright fringe from central band is 3 cm. The distance between slits and screen is 1 m and wavelength of light used is 6000 \(\mathring{A}\). The slitwidth is

  • (A) 80 \(\mu\)m
  • (B) 64 \(\mu\)m
  • (C) 75 \(\mu\)m
  • (D) 24 \(\mu\)m

Question 42:

In L-C-R series resonant circuit, angular frequency at resonance is '\(\omega\)'. When the inductance of inductor is made twice and capacitance of the capacitor is made four times, the angular frequency at resonance is '\(\omega_1\)'. The ratio of \(\omega:\omega_1\) is

  • (A) 2 : 1
  • (B) \(2\sqrt{2}\) : 1
  • (C) 1 : \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) 1 : 2

Question 43:

A tuning fork and a vibrating sonometer wire gives 6 beats per second either with length of the wire 1.0 m or 1.06 m. The frequency of the fork is

  • (A) 200 Hz
  • (B) 206 Hz
  • (C) 212 Hz
  • (D) 218 Hz

Question 44:

The ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of electron of hydrogen atom from its (i) second to first energy level and (ii) highest energy level to third level is respectively

  • (A) 3 : 2
  • (B) 16 : 3
  • (C) 27 : 4
  • (D) 9 : 4

Question 45:

In an ammeter, 20 % of main current is passing through the galvanometer. If the resistance of the galvanometer is G, then the shunt resistance in ohm is

  • (A) \(\frac{G}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{G}{8}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{G}{9}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{G}{10}\)

Question 46:

Two particles 'A' and 'B' perform S.H.M. starting from mean position, with periodic time T and \(\frac{3T}{2}\) respectively. The phase difference between the particles when particle 'A' completes one oscillation will be

  • (A) \(\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\left(\frac{\pi}{3}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\left(\frac{2\pi}{3}\right)\)

Question 47:

Select the wrong statement in the case of LED.

  • (A) It emits light only when it is reversed biased.
  • (B) It emits light only when it is forward biased.
  • (C) The energy of light emitted is equal to or slightly less than the energy gap of the semi-conductor used.
  • (D) It is a heavily doped p-n junction.

Question 48:

A progressive wave is given by the equation \(Y=0.07\sin(6x-3t)\) m. The velocity of the wave is (all quantities are in SI units)

  • (A) 6 m/s
  • (B) 3 m/s
  • (C) 2 m/s
  • (D) 0.5 m/s

Question 49:

A particle carrying a charge equal to 1000 times the charge on an electron, is rotating at one rotation per second in a circular path of radius 0.4 m. The value of the magnetic field produced at the centre will be (in tesla) (\(\mu_0\) = permeability of vacuum, e = \(1.6\times10^{-19}\) C)

  • (A) \(2\mu_0\times10^{-16}\)
  • (B) \(\mu_0\times10^{-16}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\mu_0}{2}\times10^{-15}\)
  • (D) \(\mu_0\times10^{-15}\)

Chemistry (Q51 - Q99)

Question 51:

What mass of \(H_2\) gas is consumed to obtain 21.6 g of elemental boron (Atomic mass of B = 10.8) from \(BCl_3\) and dihydrogen?

  • (A) 2 g
  • (B) 4 g
  • (C) 6 g
  • (D) 8 g

Question 53:

Identify the correct relationship between pressure (P), density (d), molar mass (M) and Temperature (T) for an ideal gas from the following.

  • (A) \(P = \frac{d\times M\times R}{T}\)
  • (B) \(P = \frac{d\times R\times T}{M}\)
  • (C) \(P = \frac{M\times R\times T}{d}\)
  • (D) \(P = \frac{d\times M\times T}{R}\)

Question 54:

Which of the following interhalogen compounds is used in the determination of iodine value of an oil?

  • (A) \(ICl_3\)
  • (B) \(ICl\)
  • (C) \(IF_3\)
  • (D) \(IF_7\)

Question 55:

Calculate the number of unit cells in 1 cm\(^3\) volume of metal if it forms ccp structure [\(a = 3.5\times 10^{-8}\) cm].

  • (A) \(4.211\times 10^{22}\)
  • (B) \(3.281\times 10^{22}\)
  • (C) \(1.451\times 10^{22}\)
  • (D) \(2.332\times 10^{22}\)

Question 56:

For the reaction \(2A + B \rightarrow A_2B\) find the rate of decrease of [B]

  • (A) half the rate [A] decreases
  • (B) same as rate [A] decreases
  • (C) twice the rate [A] decreases
  • (D) double the rate of \([A_2B]\) increases

Question 57:

Identify the correct decreasing order of thermodynamic stability of complexes from following.

  • (A) \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+} > [Ag(CN)_2]^{-} > [Cu(CN)_4]^{2-}\)
  • (B) \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+} > [Cu(CN)_4]^{2-} > [Ag(CN)_2]^{-}\)
  • (C) \([Cu(CN)_4]^{2-} > [Ag(CN)_2]^{-} > [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\)
  • (D) \([Ag(CN)_2]^{-} > [Cu(CN)_4]^{2-} > [Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\)

Question 58:

Identify the monomer used to prepare acrylic glass

  • (A) Acrylamide
  • (B) Methylmethacrylate
  • (C) Butadiene
  • (D) Vinyl chloride

Question 59:

Calculate the change in internal energy of a gas if a gas is compressed adiabatically from 25 dm\(^3\) to 15 dm\(^3\) at constant external pressure of 4 bar.

  • (A) 30 dm\(^3\) bar
  • (B) 40 dm\(^3\) bar
  • (C) 50 dm\(^3\) bar
  • (D) 56 dm\(^3\) bar

Question 60:

Which of the following statement is NOT correct for aromatic compounds?

  • (A) They contain higher percentage of carbon.
  • (B) They burn with sooty flame.
  • (C) They are easily attacked by normal oxidising and reducing agents.
  • (D) They prefer substitution reactions.

Question 61:

Which of the following mixture have the total volume after mixing greater than the sum total volume of components before mixing?

  • (A) Benzene + toluene
  • (B) Carbon disulfide + acetone
  • (C) Phenol + aniline
  • (D) Chloroform + acetone

Question 62:

What is the common name of Benzene-1,2,3-triol?

  • (A) Phloroglucinol
  • (B) Pyrogallol
  • (C) Quinol
  • (D) Catechol

Question 64:

If \(E^\circ (Cd^{+2}|Cd_{(s)}) = -0.40\) V. What is potential for \(Cd_{(s)} \rightarrow Cd^{+2}_{(aq)}(0.01M) + 2e^{-}\) at 298 K?

  • (A) +0.4592 V
  • (B) -0.4592 V
  • (C) +0.3408 V
  • (D) -0.3408 V

Question 65:

Which of the following metals exhibits minimum packing efficiency in its cubic system?

  • (A) Polonium
  • (B) Niobium
  • (C) Silver
  • (D) Magnesium

Question 66:

Identify false statement regarding lithium aluminium hydride?

  • (A) It is obtained by reaction of lithium hydroxide with aluminium chloride.
  • (B) It is colourless solid.
  • (C) It reacts violently with water.
  • (D) It is used as reducing agent in organic synthesis.

Question 67:

What is the total number of donor atoms present in Pentaammineaquacobalt (III) iodide?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 6

Question 68:

Which from following is a thermoplastic polymer?

  • (A) Terylene
  • (B) Neoprene
  • (C) Polythene
  • (D) Bakelite

Question 69:

Which from following amines forms corresponding alcohol liberating dinitrogen when treated with mixture of \(NaNO_{2(aq)}\) and HCl?

  • (A) Ethanamine
  • (B) N-ethylethanamine
  • (C) Benzenamine
  • (D) N,N-Dimethylmethanamine

Question 70:

Calculate the radius of the second orbit of \(He^{+}\).

  • (A) 52.9 Pm
  • (B) 105.8 Pm
  • (C) 158.7 Pm
  • (D) 211.6 Pm

Question 71:

The depression in freezing point of 0.2 m aqueous solution of an electrolyte is 0.7 K. Calculate its percent degree of dissociation. [\(K_f\) for water = 1.86 K kg mol\(^{-1}\); n = 2]

  • (A) 29 %
  • (B) 46 %
  • (C) 60 %
  • (D) 88 %

Question 72:

Identify the name of process so that there is no exchange of heat between system and surroundings.

  • (A) Isothermal process
  • (B) Isobaric process
  • (C) Isochoric process
  • (D) Adiabatic process

Question 73:

Which from following methods of three dimensional representation of molecules uses a long slanting line for \(C-C\) single bond?

  • (A) Fischer projection formula
  • (B) Sawhorse formula
  • (C) Newman projection formula
  • (D) Wedge formula

Question 76:

Which of the following molecules have regular geometry without Lone pair of electrons in the valence shell of central atom?

  • (A) \(NH_3\)
  • (B) \(PCl_3\)
  • (C) \(BF_3\)
  • (D) \(ICl_3\)

Question 77:

What is the reduction potential of hydrogen gas electrode when pure hydrogen gas is at 1 atmosphere pressure and platinum electrode is in contact with HCl of pH 2 at 298 K?

  • (A) -0.0296 V
  • (B) -0.0592 V
  • (C) -0.1184 V
  • (D) -0.1592 V

Question 78:

Which of the following is true about the decomposition of ozone?

  • (A) \(\Delta H = -ve, \Delta S = +ve\) and \(\Delta G = -ve\)
  • (B) \(\Delta H = +ve, \Delta S = +ve\) and \(\Delta G = -ve\)
  • (C) \(\Delta H = -ve, \Delta S = +ve\) and \(\Delta G = +ve\)
  • (D) \(\Delta H = +ve, \Delta S = -ve\) and \(\Delta G = +ve\)

Question 79:

Which of the following is kinetic property of colloidal solutions?

  • (A) Brownian motion
  • (B) Colour of colloidal solution
  • (C) Electrophoresis
  • (D) Electroosmosis

Question 80:

What is the number of unpaired electrons in Mn at observed electronic configuration?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5

Question 81:

Which of the following is used as green solvent?

  • (A) \(H_2O\)
  • (B) \(CH_2Cl_2\)
  • (C) \(CHCl_3\)
  • (D) \(CCl_4\)

Question 82:

Which from following tests decides the straight chain structure of glucose?

  • (A) Glucose forms oxime when treated with hydroxyl amine.
  • (B) Glucose forms cyanohydrin when treated with HCN.
  • (C) Glucose forms gluconic acid when treated with \(Br_2\) water.
  • (D) Glucose forms n-hexane when prolong heated with HI.

Question 83:

Which from following the compound in aqueous medium having minimum pH?

  • (A) NaOH
  • (B) \(NH_4Cl\)
  • (C) \(Na_2CO_3\)
  • (D) NaCl

Question 84:

Calculate the standard entropy change of the surrounding if standard enthalpy of formation of methyl alcohol is \(-240\) kJ mol\(^{-1}\)

  • (A) 706.48 JK\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 805.37 JK\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 915.10 JK\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 612.16 JK\(^{-1}\)

Question 85:

Identify the use of BHT from following:

  • (A) As antioxidant
  • (B) As analgesics
  • (C) As antimicrobials
  • (D) As antibiotics

Question 86:

Identify product 'X' of the following reaction. Benzoyl chloride \(\xrightarrow{H_2O}\) \(X\)

  • (A) Benzyl alcohol
  • (B) Benzaldehyde
  • (C) Benzoic acid
  • (D) Benzophenone

Question 87:

Which of the following reagent is used for conversion of alkyl halide into nitrile?

  • (A) AgCN alcoholic
  • (B) KCN alcoholic
  • (C) \(K^{+}O^{-}-N=0\)
  • (D) \(Ag-O-N=0\)

Question 88:

Which of the following is neopentyl chloride?

  • (A) 1-Chloro-2,2-dimethylpropane
  • (B) 2-Chloro-2-methylbutane
  • (C) 2-2-dichloro-3-methylpentane
  • (D) 1-Chloro-2-2-dimethylpentane

Question 89:

Consider the following half cell reactions with corresponding standard reduction potentials. \(Cl_{2(g)} + 2e^{-} \rightarrow 2Cl^{-}_{(aq)}, E^{\circ} = +1.36\) V \(Al^{+3}_{(aq)} + 3e^{-} \rightarrow Al_{(s)}, E^{\circ} = -1.66\) V \(Na^{+}_{(aq)} + e^{-} \rightarrow Na_{(s)}, E^{\circ} = -2.71\) V \(Cu^{+2}_{(aq)} + 2e^{-} \rightarrow Cu_{(s)}, E^{\circ} = +0.377\) V The strongest oxidising and reducing agents respectively are -

  • (A) \(Al^{+3}\) and \(Na^{+}\)
  • (B) \(Na^{+}\) and \(Cl_2\)
  • (C) \(Cl_2\) and Na
  • (D) \(Cu^{+2}\) and \(Al^{+3}\)

Question 90:

Solubility product of \(Mg(OH)_2\) is \(1.08\times 10^{-10}\) What is it's solubility in mol dm\(^{-3}\)?

  • (A) \(3\times 10^{-4}\)
  • (B) \(9\times 10^{-4}\)
  • (C) \(6\times 10^{-4}\)
  • (D) \(8\times 10^{-4}\)

Question 91:

Find the total number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids formed in 1 mole of a compound forming hcp structure.

  • (A) \(1.204\times 10^{24}\)
  • (B) \(1.807\times 10^{24}\)
  • (C) \(2.402\times 10^{24}\)
  • (D) \(3.012\times 10^{24}\)

Question 92:

What is the average oxidation number of sulphur in tetrathionate ion?

  • (A) 0
  • (B) +1.5
  • (C) +2.5
  • (D) +3.0

Question 93:

For the reaction, \(N_{2(g)} + 3H_{2(g)} \rightarrow 2NH_{3(g)}\) \(N_{2(g)}\) disappears at a rate of \(2\times 10^{-4}\) mol dm\(^{-3}\)s\(^{-1}\). Calculate rate of disappearance of \(H_2\)?

  • (A) \(1\times 10^{-4}\) mol dm\(^{-3}\)s\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(6\times 10^{-4}\) mol dm\(^{-3}\)s\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(2\times 10^{-4}\) mol dm\(^{-3}\)s\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(2.5\times 10^{-4}\) mol dm\(^{-3}\)s\(^{-1}\)

Question 94:

Which from following is NOT a transition element?

  • (A) Mo
  • (B) Co
  • (C) Ho
  • (D) Ti

Question 95:

Which among the following compound has highest boiling point?

  • (A) \(n-C_4H_9OH\)
  • (B) \(n-C_4H_9NH_2\)
  • (C) \(C_2H_5COOH\)
  • (D) \(C_2H_5CH(CH_3)_2\)

Question 96:

A first order reaction takes 10 minute for 30% completion. Find rate constant of the reaction.

  • (A) 0.0177 minute\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 0.0357 minute\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 0.0526 minute\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 0.0713 minute\(^{-1}\)

Question 97:

Which from following aminoacids contains heterocyclic ring at a side chain (R) group?

  • (A) Arginine
  • (B) Phenylalanine
  • (C) Leucine
  • (D) Tryptophan

Question 98:

What is the pH of buffer solution prepared by mixing 0.2 M \(NH_4OH\) and 0.4 M \(NH_4Cl\) solution (\(pK_b\) of \(NH_4OH\) = 4.620)

  • (A) 4.025
  • (B) 7.035
  • (C) 9.079
  • (D) 8.450

Question 99:

The 'x' g nonvolatile solute having molar mass 196 gmol\(^{-1}\) is dissolved in 3 dm\(^3\) water. Calculate the value of 'x' if resulting solution has osmotic pressure 0.8 atm at 300 K (\(R = 0.0821\) dm\(^3\) atm K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\))

  • (A) 19.1 g
  • (B) 9.8 g
  • (C) 14.7 g
  • (D) 29.4 g

Biology (Q101 - Q200)

Question 101:

The primer extension during PCR cycle requires the temperature range of

  • (A) \(70 - 75^{\circ}\)C
  • (B) \(90 - 98^{\circ}\)C
  • (C) \(65 - 85^{\circ}\)C
  • (D) \(35 - 40^{\circ}\)C

Question 102:

Plants usually absorb Nitrogen in the form of nitrates because Nitrogen is __________

  • (A) very reactive
  • (B) non reactive
  • (C) not very essential
  • (D) has a strong triple covalent bond

Question 103:

ECG helps in diagnosis of following abnormalities in conducting pathways EXCEPT

  • (A) enlargement of heart chambers
  • (B) damage to cardiac muscles
  • (C) reduction in blood supply to cardiac muscles
  • (D) leucopenia

Question 104:

The abscissic acid acts as antitranspirant in plants by the following processes EXCEPT

  • (A) making the guard cells hypotonic
  • (B) making the guard cells turgid
  • (C) prevents uptake of \(K^{+}\) ions by guard cells during night time
  • (D) efflux of \(K^{+}\) ions from guard cells during day time

Question 105:

Oligouria condition in children is when, the urine output is less than __________

  • (A) 3.5ml/kg/h
  • (B) 2.5ml/kg/h
  • (C) 1.5ml/kg/h
  • (D) 0.5ml/kg/h

Question 106:

Identify the correct ratio of male gametes, vegetative cells, generative cells and microspore mother cells produced in a microsporangium if 80 pollen grains are released from it.

  • (A) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
  • (B) 1 : 4 : 4 : 8
  • (C) 2 : 1 : 1 : 4
  • (D) 8 : 4 : 4 : 1

Question 107:

Acetyl Co-A reacts with __________ to begin Krebs cycle.

  • (A) Succinate
  • (B) Fumarate
  • (C) Oxaloacetate
  • (D) Malate

Question 108:

Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding nuclein.

  • (A) It has high phosphorus content.
  • (B) It shows acidic properties.
  • (C) It is a mixture of lipids and nucleic acids.
  • (D) It was isolated from white blood cells in the pus.

Question 109:

Name the disease in which a child shows symptoms like low BMR, thick tongue, prolonged neonatal jaundice, lethargy and constipation.

  • (A) Myxoedema
  • (B) Cushing’s disease
  • (C) Addison’s disease
  • (D) Cretinism

Question 110:

The efficiency index of growth in plants represents

  • (A) total increase in growth per unit time
  • (B) the increase in number of cells only
  • (C) growth of a particular system only
  • (D) permanent change in the structure of cells only

Question 111:

What is the significance of using unleaded petrol in motor vehicles with catalytic converter?

  • (A) Lead in petrol activates catalyst in catalytic converter.
  • (B) Lead in petrol inactivates the catalyst in catalytic converter.
  • (C) Unleaded petrol is cheaper than lead-containing petrol.
  • (D) Unleaded petrol is more combustible than leaded petrol.

Question 112:

Given below are the steps involved in plant breeding program. Identify the correct sequence of these steps.
i. collection of variabilities
ii. hybridization
iii. evaluation and selection of parents
iv. testing, release and commercialization of new cultivars.
v. selection and testing of superior recombinants.

  • (A) i, ii, iii, v and iv
  • (B) i, iii, ii, v and iv
  • (C) i, ii, iii, vi and v
  • (D) v, i, ii, iii and iv

Question 113:

Which one of the following is considered as molecular scissors in modern biotechnology?

  • (A) Reverse transcriptases
  • (B) Taq polymerases
  • (C) Alkaline phosphatases
  • (D) Restriction endonucleases

Question 114:

A physical place or set of environmental conditions around the organism to which it must adapt to survive and prosper is __________

  • (A) Niche
  • (B) Ecosystem
  • (C) Habitat
  • (D) Biome

Question 115:

Class of cytokines released by cells infected with viruses and certain WBC’s to protect from viral infection are __________

  • (A) spermines
  • (B) interferons
  • (C) mannose binding proteins
  • (D) Alpha - 1 - acid glycoprotein

Question 116:

Proprioceptors are present in __________

  • (A) retina of eye and semi-circular canal.
  • (B) joints, muscles and tendons.
  • (C) taste buds, olfactory epithelium.
  • (D) wall of venae cavae and carotid sinus

Question 117:

Select the group of CORRECT statements.
I. If phenotype of offsprings shows only the dominant trait then the parent plants are heterozygous.
II. A true breeding line shows stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations.
III. In mendelian experiment material, contrasting characters can be easily recognized.
IV. When a single gene controls two (or more) different traits, it is called polygene.
V. When interactions occur between the alleles of different genes present on the same or different chromosome it is called intragenic interaction.

  • (A) III and V only
  • (B) II and III only
  • (C) III and IV only
  • (D) I and V only

Question 118:

With reference to the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve, select the INCORRECT statement / statements.
I. 100 % saturation is very common.
II. 95 - 97 % saturation takes place at \(ppO_2 = 100\) mm Hg in alveoli.
III. At 30 mm Hg of \(ppO_2\), only 50% saturation can be maintained.
IV. The oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve is J-shaped.

  • (A) I and IV only
  • (B) II and III only
  • (C) I, II and III only
  • (D) IV only

Question 119:

Only mode of excretion in marine bony fishes and desert amphibians is __________

  • (A) Diffusion
  • (B) Tubular secretion
  • (C) glomerular filtration
  • (D) selective reabsorption

Question 120:

The compatibility and incompatibility of the pollen-pistil interaction is determined by __________

  • (A) sugars
  • (B) nucleotides
  • (C) fats
  • (D) special proteins

Question 121:

Which of the following condition can be improved by intake of more roughage, sufficient fluids in diet and exercise?

  • (A) Constipation
  • (B) Vomitting
  • (C) Jaundice
  • (D) Diarrhoea

Question 122:

Codon on mRNA and anticodon on tRNA are __________

  • (A) triplet of same nucleotides
  • (B) triplet of complementary nucleotides
  • (C) set of any two complementary nitrogen bases
  • (D) set of only two similar nucleotides

Question 123:

Cytochromes, the electron carriers in ETS are __________

  • (A) Glycoproteins
  • (B) Glycolipids
  • (C) Sulphur containing proteins
  • (D) Iron containing proteins

Question 124:

Which one of the following present in plants is mineral in origin?

  • (A) Carbon
  • (B) Oxygen
  • (C) Hydrogen
  • (D) Nitrogen

Question 125:

Select the correct statement regarding spinal cord.

  • (A) It lies within the central canal of vertebral column.
  • (B) The bunch of nerves in the hind part is called cauda equina.
  • (C) It shows neural canal in the centre.
  • (D) Butterfly shaped area on the inner side shows presence of white matter.

Question 126:

Given below are two statements. Statement I - Most of the blood proteins are acidic proteins. Statement II - Derived proteins are not found in nature. In the light of above statements, Select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 129:

Vehicle DNA in rDNA technology is the common name given to __________

  • (A) r-DNA
  • (B) Cloning vector
  • (C) c-DNA
  • (D) Passenger DNA

Question 130:

Which one of the following pair of plant hormones inhibit flowering in some plants?

  • (A) Auxin and Ethylene
  • (B) Cytokinin and Ethylene
  • (C) Ethylene and abscissic acid
  • (D) Gibberellin and abscissic acid

Question 131:

Which hypothalamic hormones directly act on kidney tubules and uterus respectively?

  • (A) Vasopressin and GnRH
  • (B) Vasopressin and Adreno Corticotropin releasing hormone.
  • (C) Vasopressin and oxytocin
  • (D) Oxytocin and Adreno corticotropin releasing hormone

Question 132:

Nitrates of soil are also leached deep into the earth by __________

  • (A) amination
  • (B) amidation
  • (C) transamination
  • (D) sedimentation

Question 133:

Given below are two statements. Statement I - In the population, every person shows unusual sequences of 20 - 100 base pairs, which are repeated several times and are termed as VNTRs Statement II - VNTRs are same in each individual and hence is the key factor in DNA profiling. In the light of above statements, Select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 134:

Urethral external sphincter present between urinary bladder and urethra is made up of __________ muscles, and is __________ in nature.

  • (A) skeletal, involuntary
  • (B) smooth, involuntary
  • (C) skeletal, voluntary
  • (D) smooth, voluntary

Question 135:

Match the Column I with Column II.
Column I (Animals): i. Spider; ii. Coelenterates; iii. Frog; iv. Fishes
Column II (Respiratory organs / surface): a. Internal gills; b. Book lungs; c. Plasma membrane; d. Lungs; e. External gills
Choose the correct option

  • (A) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - e
  • (B) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a
  • (C) i - c, ii - e, iii - a, iv - b
  • (D) i - e, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a

Question 136:

In homeotherms, the enzymatic reaction occurs best at __________ \(^{\circ}\)C.

  • (A) 25
  • (B) 35
  • (C) 27
  • (D) 37

Question 137:

Given below are two statements. Statement I - During respiration the respiratory substrate directly unite with oxygen. Statement II - The primary process of respiration consists of removal of hydrogen from the respiratory substrate. In the light of above statements, Select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 138:

Which hormone facilitates contraction of fallopian tube and uterus to assist movement of sperms towards ampulla?

  • (A) LH
  • (B) GnRH
  • (C) Estrogen
  • (D) Oxytocin

Question 139:

Comparatively a large amount of pollen grains are wasted during __________

  • (A) hydrophily
  • (B) anemophily
  • (C) ornithophily
  • (D) chiropterophily

Question 140:

Digestion of maltose results in formation of __________

  • (A) glucose only
  • (B) glucose and fructose
  • (C) glucose and galactose
  • (D) fructose only

Question 141:

Transfer of antibodies from mother to infant through colostrum after birth provides __________ to the baby.

  • (A) natural acquired active immunity
  • (B) natural acquired passive immunity
  • (C) artificial acquired active immunity
  • (D) artificial acquired passive immunity

Question 142:

Which of the following microbe is used in the manufacturing of Vitamin C?

  • (A) Neurospora gossypii
  • (B) Eremothecium ashbyi
  • (C) Pseudomonas denitrificans
  • (D) Aspergillus niger

Question 143:

Match the ecological terms given in Column I with its correct explanation in Column II.
Column I (Terms): i. Stratification; ii. Zonation; iii. Productivity; iv. Decomposition
Column II (Explanation): a. Horizontal distribution of different species; b. Rate of generation of Biomass in an ecosystem; c. Breakdown of detritus; d. Vertical distribution of different species
Choose the correct option

  • (A) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
  • (B) i - d, ii - a, iii - b, iv - c
  • (C) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
  • (D) i - d, ii - a, iii - d, iv - b

Question 144:

The ’cry’ gene transferred from Bacillus thuringiensis to a crop plant provides it with __________ properties.

  • (A) herbicidal
  • (B) insecticidal
  • (C) fungicidal
  • (D) medicinal

Question 145:

Which one of the following is measured in Dobson units (DU)?

  • (A) Thermal pollution of water
  • (B) Thickness of ozone in a column of air
  • (C) Biochemical oxygen Demand
  • (D) Biomagnification of DDT and Mercury

Question 146:

The common antibiotic Streptomycin is obtained from __________

  • (A) Streptomyces griseus
  • (B) Streptomyces venezuelae
  • (C) Streptomyces erythreus
  • (D) Streptomyces aurifaciens

Question 147:

Specific gravity of CSF is __________

  • (A) 1.5
  • (B) 1.005
  • (C) 1.02
  • (D) 1.815

Question 148:

Water is the best __________ medium for all biochemical reactions occurring in the cells.

  • (A) inert organic
  • (B) aqueous
  • (C) acidic
  • (D) alkaline

Question 149:

Flippers of penguin and dolphins is an example of __________

  • (A) Convergent evolution
  • (B) Industrial melanism
  • (C) Natural selection
  • (D) Adaptive radiation

Question 150:

Lymphedema, i.e. accumulation of lymph fluid in tissue causing swelling is seen in __________

  • (A) Amoebiasis
  • (B) Malaria
  • (C) Filariasis
  • (D) Ascariasis

Question 151:

Which one of the following is CORRECT regarding struvite stones in kidney?
I. These are formed in response to bacterial infection.
II. It is a genetic disorder.
III. These grow quickly and become quite large.
IV. Occurs in people who consume high protein diet.
V. Affected people excrete too much of certain amino acid.

  • (A) I and III only
  • (B) I and II only
  • (C) III and IV only
  • (D) IV and V only

Question 152:

The number of pollen sacs in dithecous anther is __________

  • (A) one
  • (B) three
  • (C) two
  • (D) four

Question 153:

Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding glycolysis.

  • (A) It occurs in cytoplasm
  • (B) It is common to aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
  • (C) Glucose undergoes partial oxidation to form 2 molecules of pyruvic acid.
  • (D) The process is completed in a single phase through ten steps.

Question 155:

Which one of the following is INCORRECT about homologous chromosomes?

  • (A) They are morphologically similar.
  • (B) They synapse during meiosis.
  • (C) Have identical gene loci bearing alleles.
  • (D) Both the homologous chromosomes are usually inherited from mother.

Question 156:

During \(CO_2\) transport, movement of chloride ions across the membrane of RBCs from plasma is called __________

  • (A) Bohr effect
  • (B) Haldane effect
  • (C) Hamburger's phenomenon
  • (D) Sewall Wright effect

Question 157:

Given below are two statements. Statement I - The amount of energy available in an ecosystem increases at each successive trophic level. Statement II - Transfer of energy from one trophic level to the other follows 10% law. In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 158:

From which one of the following, the melatonin is derived?

  • (A) Tyrosine
  • (B) Methionine
  • (C) Tryptophan
  • (D) Mevalonic acid

Question 159:

Pyruvate is converted to Acetyl CoA by the process of __________

  • (A) Oxidative Carboxylation
  • (B) Oxidative decarboxylation
  • (C) Acetylation and Carboxylation
  • (D) Reductive decarboxylation

Question 160:

Given below are two statements. Statement I - In artificial method of plant propagation like cutting, vegetative part used for propagation contains one or more buds. Statement II - In artificial method of vegetative propagation like budding, a vegetative part of stem contains only one bud. In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 161:

Water retention in body is assisted by __________ hormone.

  • (A) renin
  • (B) calcitriol
  • (C) erythropoietin
  • (D) ADH

Question 162:

Match the Column I and Column II with respect to menstrual cycle.
Column I: i. Menstrual phase; ii. Follicular phase; iii. Ovulatory phase; iv. Secretory phase
Column II: a. Rapid secretion of LH; b. Development of primary follicle; c. Secretion of inhibin; d. Secretion of estrogen
Choose the correct option

  • (A) i - a, ii - b, iii - d, iv - c
  • (B) i - b, ii - d, iii - a, iv - c
  • (C) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
  • (D) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a

Question 163:

Nucleosomes are the repeating units of chromatin the part between adjacent nucleosomes is called __________

  • (A) cDNA
  • (B) tandem repeats
  • (C) linker DNA
  • (D) recombination nodules

Question 164:

Given below are two statements. Statement I - Presence of capillary water is essential. Statement II - High concentration of solutes in soil water reduces the rate of absorption of water. In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 165:

Which one of the following is NOT a second messenger?

  • (A) \(IP_3\)
  • (B) \(Ca^{++}\)
  • (C) cGMP
  • (D) \(Mg^{++}\)

Question 166:

Time is a crucial factor for __________

  • (A) ecological succession
  • (B) stratification
  • (C) zonation
  • (D) eutrophication

Question 167:

Which one of the following is NOT a bioherbicide of bacterial origin?

  • (A) Pseudomonas spp
  • (B) Xanthomonas spp
  • (C) Fusarium spp
  • (D) Agrobacterium spp

Question 168:

Which one of the following Indian institution got the U.S. patent cancelled for haldi (turmeric)?

  • (A) OECD
  • (B) CSIR
  • (C) EPO
  • (D) GEAC

Question 169:

Given below are two statements. Statement I - In disruptive natural selection individuals acquire peripheral character value at both the ends of distribution curve. Statement II - Industrial melanism is an example of disruptive selection. In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 170:

Two monosaccharides are held together by __________ bond.

  • (A) disulphide
  • (B) hydrogen
  • (C) phospodiester
  • (D) glycosidic

Question 171:

Secretion of salivary gland performs following functions EXCEPT

  • (A) acts as antibacterial agent that prevents infections.
  • (B) partial digestion of complex carbohydrates
  • (C) lubrication of food
  • (D) digestion of disaccharides

Question 172:

The process of gametogenesis is initiated by __________ and __________ hormones respectively.

  • (A) GnRH, LH
  • (B) FSH, LH
  • (C) LH, FSH
  • (D) GnRH, FSH

Question 173:

Which one of the following is a termination codon?

  • (A) AUG
  • (B) UGU
  • (C) UAG
  • (D) UUA

Question 174:

In plants, active absorption usually does NOT occur when __________

  • (A) stomata are open
  • (B) stomata are closed
  • (C) transpiration stops
  • (D) it is night time

Question 175:

Given below are two statements. Statement I - Smaller the food chain, more is the available energy at each trophic level. Statement II - Pyramid of energy can also be sometimes inverted. In the light of above statements, Select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 176:

Protozoan like Nosema locustae is used for controlling the target pests like __________

  • (A) Grasshopper and crickets
  • (B) Wasp, beetles and ants
  • (C) mealy bugs and mites
  • (D) caterpillars and cabbage worm

Question 177:

Which one of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding competition?

  • (A) Resources need not always be limiting for competition to occur.
  • (B) Only related species compete with each other.
  • (C) Feeding efficiency of one species is reduced due to interference of other species.
  • (D) Fitness of one species is significantly lower in presence of another species.

Question 178:

In which country was AIDS first detected?

  • (A) India
  • (B) United States of America
  • (C) Canada
  • (D) China

Question 179:

A bundle of axons inside the central nervous system is __________.

  • (A) nerve fibre
  • (B) nerve net
  • (C) nerve tract
  • (D) neurofibril

Question 180:

According to capillarity theory __________ alone causes ascent of sap in plants.

  • (A) hydrostatic pressure
  • (B) osmotic pressure
  • (C) transpiration pull
  • (D) physical forces and dead cells

Question 181:

Given below are two statements. Statement I - Lactose on hydrolysis converts in to glucose and galactose. Statement II - Galactose also plays same role as glucose in respiration. In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 182:

Angiotensinogen is secreted by __________.

  • (A) Beta cells of pancreas
  • (B) Alpha cells of islets of Langerhans
  • (C) Kupffer cells of Liver
  • (D) Hepatocytes of Liver

Question 183:

Which one of the following is an example of pleiotropy?

  • (A) Haemophilia
  • (B) Thalassemia
  • (C) Sickle cell anaemia
  • (D) Colour blindness

Question 184:

Which of the following is NOT a characteristics feature of open circulation?

  • (A) Presence of haemocoel
  • (B) Blood flows with low pressure
  • (C) Absence of respiratory pigment
  • (D) Blood flows through vessels

Question 185:

Which of the following characteristic is NOT acquired by man in the course of evolution?

  • (A) Increase in cranial capacity
  • (B) Bipedal locomotion
  • (C) Lengthening of forelimbs
  • (D) Broadening of pelvic girdle

Question 186:

Government of Maharashtra has adopted Japanese method of tree plantation.

  • (A) Kawasaki
  • (B) Kurosowa
  • (C) Miyawaki
  • (D) Gibberella

Question 188:

Extra embryonic membrane that immediately surrounds and protects the embryo is

  • (A) chorion
  • (B) amnion
  • (C) yolk sac
  • (D) trophoblast

Question 189:

Usually digestion of cellulose in herbivorous animals takes place in __________

  • (A) Duodenum
  • (B) Jejunum
  • (C) Stomach
  • (D) Vermiform appendix

Question 190:

Aneuploidy refers to

  • (A) addition or deletion of one or more chromosomes to the total number.
  • (B) addition of entire set of chromosome to the primary basic number.
  • (C) haploid set of chromosomes.
  • (D) tetraploid set of chromosomes.

Question 191:

Select a correct pair of cells with identical set of chromosomes.

  • (A) Secondary oocyte and spermatid.
  • (B) First polar body and primary spermatocyte.
  • (C) \(2^{nd}\) polar body and primary oocyte.
  • (D) Secondary spermatocyte and spermatogonia.

Question 192:

Association between clown fish and sea anemone is __________

  • (A) mutualism
  • (B) amensalism
  • (C) commensalism
  • (D) parasitism

Question 193:

The volume of air that is present in the respiratory tract (from nose to the terminal bronchioles) but not involved in gaseous exchange is called __________

  • (A) residual volume
  • (B) reserve volume
  • (C) dead space
  • (D) vital capacity

Question 194:

In Maharashtra a 24-hour toll free helpline number 1926 has been set up to provide information regarding __________

  • (A) Covid-19 cases
  • (B) atrocities against women and girl child
  • (C) tree plantation, protection and mass awareness
  • (D) emergency ambulance service

Question 195:

Genetic drift occurs due to __________.

  • (A) Natural selection
  • (B) Sudden elimination of particular allele
  • (C) Continuous gene movement
  • (D) Mutation

Question 196:

Match the parts of brain in Column I with their inclusions in Column II.
Column I: i. Telencephalon; ii. Rhinencephalon; iii. Mesencephalon; iv. Metencephalon
Column II: a. Olfactory lobes; b. Cerebellum and pons varolli; c. Crura cerebri and corpora quadrigemina; d. Cerebrum
Choose the correct option

  • (A) i - a, ii - d, iii - c, iv - b
  • (B) i - b, ii - c, iii - d, iv - a
  • (C) i - d, ii - a, iii - c, iv - b
  • (D) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a

Question 197:

Considering the concept of multiple alleles, one individual can have only __________ alleles for that character.

  • (A) one
  • (B) three
  • (C) two
  • (D) four

Question 198:

Mucosa forms __________ in stomach and __________ in intestine respectively.

  • (A) a - rugae, b - villi
  • (B) a - villi, b - rugae
  • (C) a - gastric glands, b - villi
  • (D) a - gastric glands, b - rugae

Question 200:

Clones are produced by asexual reproduction and resulting individuals are identical __________.

  • (A) morphologically only
  • (B) genetically only
  • (C) anatomically only
  • (D) morphologically and genetically

MHT CET 2025 PCB Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCB (Physics, Chemistry, Biology) for Pharmacy and Agriculture
Total Questions

200

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marking Scheme 1 mark for each correct answer
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%