MHT CET 2026 April 24 Shift 1 PCB Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCB Exam on April 24 in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 12 PM in CBT mode.

The MHT CET 2026 PCB question paper includes the following:

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCB Question Paper consists of 200 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics (50 questions), Chemistry (50 questions), and Biology (100 questions).
  • All questions carry 1 mark each. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

MHT CET 2026 April 24 Shift 1 PCB Question Paper with Solution PDF

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MHT CET 2026 April 24 Shift 1 PCB Questions with Solutions


Physics (Q1 - Q50)

Question 1:

\(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are expressed as \(\vec{A}=2\hat{i}+\hat{j}\) and \(\vec{B}=\hat{i}-\hat{j}\). Unit vector perpendicular to \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{\hat{i}-\hat{j}+\hat{k}}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k}}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\hat{i}+\hat{k}}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (D) \(-\hat{k}\)

Question 2:

The physical quantity \(P=\frac{a^{3}b^{2}}{c^{1/3}d^{1/4}}\), where the percentage error in a, b, c, and d are \(1\%\), \(\frac{3}{2}\%\), \(3\%\), and \(2\%\) respectively. Then the percentage error in P is

  • (A) \(14\ \%\)
  • (B) \(14.5\ \%\)
  • (C) \(7\ \%\)
  • (D) \(7.5\ \%\)

Question 3:

For uniform acceleration in linear motion which of the following is NOT CORRECT?

  • (A) The area under the velocity-time graph equals the displacement.
  • (B) Velocity-time graph is non-linear.
  • (C) Acceleration is the slope of velocity-time graph.
  • (D) Velocity-time graph is linear.

Question 4:

Consider the following forces-(a) Force of friction, (b) Collision forces, (c) Normal reaction generated by the surface and (d) Tension in strings.
Which of these are electromagnetic forces?

  • (A) Only (a), (c) and (d)
  • (B) Only (b)
  • (C) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (D) Only (c) and (d)

Question 5:

A flywheel used to prepare earthenware pots is set into rotation at 50 rpm. It is in the form of a disc of mass 5 kg and radius 0.2 m. A lump of clay (to be taken equivalent to a particle) of mass 0.8 kg falls on it and adheres to it at a certain distance 'x' from the centre. The value of 'x' if the wheel now rotates at 40 rpm, is

  • (A) \(1\) m
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{4}\) m
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{32}}\) m
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{8}}\) m

Question 6:

From a uniform circular disc of mass M and radius R, part AOC is removed as shown in the figure. The M.I. of the remaining portion of the disc about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is

  • (A) \(\frac{MR^{2}}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{MR^{2}}{9}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{MR^{2}}{6}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{MR^{2}}{12}\)

Question 7:

A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity \(\omega\). Six objects, each of mass m, are kept gently to the opposite ends of three diameters of the ring. The angular velocity of the ring will be

  • (A) \(\frac{(M+6m)\omega }{M}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{M\omega }{6m}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{M\omega }{M+6m}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{(M-6m)\omega }{M+6m}\)

Question 8:

The kinetic energies of planets in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are \(K_{A}\), \(K_{B}\) and \(K_{C}\), respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun as shown in figure. Then

  • (A) \(K_{B}\lt K_{A}\lt K_{C}\)
  • (B) \(K_{A}>K_{B}>K_{C}\)
  • (C) \(K_{A}\lt K_{B}\lt K_{C}\)
  • (D) \(K_{B}>K_{A}\lt K_{C}\)

Question 9:

A solid cylinder of length \(l\) and cross-sectional area A is immersed such that it floats with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid interface with length \(\frac{l}{3}\) in the denser liquid as shown in the figure. The lower density liquid is open to the atmosphere, having pressure \(P_{0}\). The density of a solid cylinder is

  • (A) \(\frac{3\rho }{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2\rho }{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5\rho }{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3\rho }{5}\)

Question 10:

An ice cube floats in water. The percentage of volume of ice cube outside the water is [density of water \(=1\) g/cc, density of ice \(=0.9\) g/cc]

  • (A) \(40\ \%\)
  • (B) \(30\ \%\)
  • (C) \(10\ \%\)
  • (D) \(5\ \%\)

Question 11:

A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius 'r' coalesce to form a single drop of the radius 'R' and volume V. If T is the surface tension of the liquid, then the energy released in this process is

  • (A) \(VT\left(\frac{1}{r}-\frac{1}{R}\right)\)
  • (B) \(3VT\left(\frac{1}{r}-\frac{1}{R}\right)\)
  • (C) \(2VT\left(\frac{1}{r}-\frac{1}{R}\right)\)
  • (D) \(4VT\left(\frac{1}{r}-\frac{1}{R}\right)\)

Question 12:

Three spheres P, Q and R, having radii of 2 m, 3 m and 4 m respectively, are coated with lamp-black on their outer surfaces. The wavelengths corresponding to maximum intensity are 200 nm, 300 nm and 400 nm respectively. If the powers radiated by them are \(P_{P}\), \(P_{Q}\) and \(P_{R}\) respectively, then

  • (A) \(P_{P}\) is maximum
  • (B) \(P_{Q}\) is maximum
  • (C) \(P_{R}\) is maximum
  • (D) \(P_{P}=P_{Q}=P_{R}\)

Question 13:

A metal sphere cools from \(80^{\circ }\text{C}\) to \(60^{\circ }\text{C}\) in 10 minute. The time taken (in minute) by it to cool from \(60^{\circ }\text{C}\) to \(40^{\circ }\text{C}\) if the room temperature is \(30^{\circ }\text{C}\), is

  • (A) \(10\)
  • (B) \(20\)
  • (C) \(30\)
  • (D) \(40\)

Question 14:

The rectangular surface area \((12\ \text{cm}\times 6\ \text{cm})\) of the black body, at a temperature \(127^{\circ }\text{C}\), emits heat energy at the rate of Q units per second. If the length and breadth of the surface area are each reduced to half of its initial value and the temperature is increased to \(327^{\circ }\text{C}\), then the emission of heat energy will be

  • (A) \(\frac{9Q}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{81Q}{16}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{81Q}{32}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{81Q}{64}\)

Question 15:

A gas for which \(\gamma\) is \(3/2\) is heated at constant pressure. The percentage of heat supplied for external work is nearly

  • (A) \(11\ \%\)
  • (B) \(22\ \%\)
  • (C) \(33\ \%\)
  • (D) \(44\ \%\)

Question 16:

A mono-atomic ideal gas, initially at temperature \(T_{1}\) is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically to a temperature \(T_{2}\) by releasing the piston suddenly. \(L_{1}\) and \(L_{2}\) are the lengths of gas columns before and after the expansion, respectively. The value of \(\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}\) is \(\left[\gamma =\frac{5}{3}\right]\)

  • (A) \(\left(\frac{L_{1}}{L_{2}}\right)^{\frac{2}{3}}\)
  • (B) \(\left(\frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}}\right)^{\frac{2}{3}}\)
  • (C) \(\left(\frac{L_{1}}{L_{2}}\right)^{\frac{5}{3}}\)
  • (D) \(\left(\frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}}\right)^{\frac{5}{3}}\)

Question 17:

There are two vessels A and B with rigid walls containing ideal gases. The pressure, temperature and volume are \(P_{A}\), \(T_{A}\) and V in the vessel A and \(P_{B}\), \(T_{B}\) and V in vessel B. The vessels are now connected through a small tube. In equilibrium, pressure is P and temperature is T, then \(\frac{P}{T}\) is {number of moles of gas in vessel A \(=\) number of moles of gas in vessel B}

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{P_{A}}{T_{A}}+\frac{P_{B}}{T_{B}}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{2}\left(\frac{P_{A}}{T_{A}}+\frac{P_{B}}{T_{B}}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{4}\left(\frac{P_{A}}{T_{A}}+\frac{P_{B}}{T_{B}}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5}{4}\left(\frac{P_{A}}{T_{A}}+\frac{P_{B}}{T_{B}}\right)\)

Question 18:

Two particles A and B execute S.H.M.s of periods T and \(\frac{5T}{2}\). If they start from the mean position, then the phase difference between them when the particle A completes two oscillations will be (in radian)

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi }{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3\pi }{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{6\pi }{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{12\pi }{5}\)

Question 19:

A body is suspended from the two light springs separately. The periods of vertical oscillations are T and 3T respectively. The same body is suspended from two springs connected first in parallel and then in series. The periods of oscillation in both cases, respectively, are

  • (A) \(\frac{2T}{\sqrt{5}},\ \sqrt{5}T\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3T}{\sqrt{10}},\ \sqrt{10}T\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4T}{\sqrt{15}},\ \sqrt{15}T\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{5}T,\ \frac{2T}{\sqrt{5}}\)

Question 20:

If the length of seconds pendulum on the surface of the earth is 1 m. The length of the seconds pendulum on the surface of the planet is \(\left\{g_{planet}=\frac{7}{2}g_{earth}\right\}\) {periodic time of the seconds pendulum is same on both planets}

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{7}\ m\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{7}\ m\)
  • (C) \(\frac{7}{2}\ m\)
  • (D) \(7\ m\)

Question 21:

A wave is represented by the equation \(y=0.2\,\sin 4\pi \left[\frac{t}{0.08}+\frac{x}{0.8}+\frac{1}{12}\right]\) in SI units.
The expression represents a wave traveling in the

  • (A) positive x-direction with velocity 10 m/s and with wavelength 0.4 m.
  • (B) negative x-direction with velocity 10 m/s and with wavelength 0.4 m.
  • (C) positive x-direction with velocity 20 m/s and with wavelength 0.6 m.
  • (D) negative x-direction with velocity 20 m/s and with wavelength 0.6 m.

Question 22:

The length of a sonometer wire AB is 176 cm. Where should the two bridges be placed from end A to divide the wire into three segments whose fundamental frequencies are in the ratio \(1:2:3\)?

  • (A) 90 cm and 140 cm
  • (B) 96 cm and 144 cm
  • (C) 92 cm and 142 cm
  • (D) 94 cm and 48 cm

Question 23:

Two identical straight wires are stretched so as to produce 8 beats per second when vibrating simultaneously with tensions \(T_{1}\) and \(T_{2}\) respectively. On changing the tensions, the beat frequency remains unchanged. This will happen when \((T_{1}>T_{2})\)

  • (A) both \(T_{1}\) and \(T_{2}\) is decreased by value 256 N
  • (B) both \(T_{1}\) and \(T_{2}\) is increased by value 256 N
  • (C) \(T_{1}\) is decreased or \(T_{2}\) is increased
  • (D) \(T_{1}\) is increased or \(T_{2}\) is decreased

Question 24:

The density of oxygen is 16 times that of hydrogen. The ratio of the velocity of sound in oxygen to that in hydrogen is

  • (A) \(1:4\)
  • (B) \(4:1\)
  • (C) \(1:2\)
  • (D) \(2:1\)

Question 25:

Three charges Q, \(+q\) and \(+q\) are placed at the vertices of the right angle triangle (isosceles triangle) as shown. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero, if Q is equal to [a \(=\) length of two equal sides of a triangle]

  • (A) \(\frac{-q}{1+\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{-\sqrt{2}q}{1+\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{-q}{1+\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (D) \(-q\)

Question 26:

Three metallic spherical shells (not concentric) of radii R, 2R and 4R are given charges \(Q_{1}\), \(Q_{2}\) and \(Q_{3}\) respectively. It is found that the surface charge densities on the outer surfaces of the shells are equal. Then, the ratio of the charges \(Q_{1}:Q_{2}:Q_{3}\), is

  • (A) \(1:2:4\)
  • (B) \(1:3:9\)
  • (C) \(1:4:16\)
  • (D) \(1:6:12\)

Question 27:

The amount of work done in increasing voltage across the plates of capacitor from 5 V to 10 V is W. The work done in increasing it from 10 V to 20 V is

  • (A) \(W\)
  • (B) \(2W\)
  • (C) \(3W\)
  • (D) \(4W\)

Question 28:

Three identical parallel plate air capacitors are connected in series to a battery of e.m.f. V. If two capacitors are completely filled with dielectric material of constant k, then potential difference across the third capacitor will become

  • (A) \(\frac{k}{V(k+2)}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{kV}{(k+2)}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{k-2}{kV}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{V}{k(k+2)}\)

Question 29:

A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance \(8\ \Omega\). The resistance that must be connected in series with the wire and the driving battery of e.m.f. 2 V, so as to get a potential gradient of 1 mV per cm on the wire is

  • (A) \(50\ \Omega\)
  • (B) \(42\ \Omega\)
  • (C) \(40\ \Omega\)
  • (D) \(32\ \Omega\)

Question 30:

A resistance is to be measured using a meter bridge; the student chooses the standard resistance R to be \(100\ \Omega\). The student finds the null point at \(l_{1}=16\) cm. To get the null point near the middle of the wire, the value of R will be

  • (A) \(49\ \Omega\)
  • (B) \(39\ \Omega\)
  • (C) \(19\ \Omega\)
  • (D) \(29\ \Omega\)

Question 31:

If the current 'i' is passing through the wire, it has a shape as shown in the figure. The radius of the curved part is R and the linear part is assumed to be very long. The magnetic induction of the field at the point O, is
(\(\mu _{0}=\)permeability of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{\mu _{0}i}{2\pi R}\left(2+\frac{\pi }{2}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\mu _{0}i}{4\pi R}(2+\pi )\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\mu _{0}i}{2\pi R}\left(1+\frac{3\pi }{2}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\mu _{0}i}{\pi R}\left(1+\frac{\pi }{2}\right)\)

Question 32:

In a cyclotron, for the same values of B and R, what is the ratio of the maximum kinetic energies of \(\alpha\) particles and deuteron? {Mass of deuteron \(=2m_{p}\), charge on deuteron \(=+e\)}

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 33:

There are four lightweight rod samples P, Q, R and S separately suspended by thread. A bar magnet is slowly brought near to each sample and the following observations are noted
(a) P is weakly repelled
(b) R is strongly attracted
(c) S remains unaffected
(d) Q is weakly attracted
Which of the following is true?

  • (A) R is of a diamagnetic material
  • (B) P is of a non-magnetic material
  • (C) S is of a ferromagnetic material
  • (D) Q is of a paramagnetic material

Question 34:

A wire of length \(l\) in the form of a square loop is in a plane normal to magnetic field B. If the length of the wire is decreasing at the rate \(\frac{dl}{dt}\), the e.m.f. induced is \(e_{1}\). If this wire is converted into a circular loop, the e.m.f. induced in a circular loop is \(e_{2}\). Then \(\frac{e_{1}}{e_{2}}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi }{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi }{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3\pi }{4}\)
  • (D) \(\pi\)

Question 35:

Semicircular wire of radius R is rotated in a uniform magnetic field about an axis passing through its ends. If the frequency of rotation is f, the amplitude of induced e.m.f. in the wire is [B\(=\)magnetic field induction]

  • (A) \(\pi ^{2}RfB\)
  • (B) \(\pi ^{2}R^{2}fB\)
  • (C) \(2\pi ^{2}RfB\)
  • (D) \(2\pi ^{2}Rf^{2}B\)

Question 36:

A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius r is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B as shown in the figure. The potential difference developed across the ring when its speed is v, is
\(\{\sin (90)^{\circ }=1\}\)

  • (A) \(\pi rBv\) and terminal R is at higher potential
  • (B) \(\frac{Bv\pi r^{2}}{2}\) and terminal P is at higher potential
  • (C) \(2rBv\) and terminal R is at higher potential
  • (D) zero

Question 37:

An alternating voltage is given as, \(E=100\sqrt{2}\sin 100t\)
This voltage E is applied to a capacitor of \(1\ \mu \text{F}\). The current reading in an a.c. ammeter in mA is

  • (A) \(10\)
  • (B) \(20\)
  • (C) \(40\)
  • (D) \(80\)

Question 38:

The alternating voltage is given by \(V=V_{0}\sin \left(\omega t+\frac{\pi }{6}\right)\). When will the voltage be maximum for the first time?
\(\{\sin (90)^{\circ }=1\}\)

  • (A) \(\frac{T}{12}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{T}{6}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{T}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{T}{2}\)

Question 39:

A series LCR circuit is connected across a source E of e.m.f. \(E=15\,\sin \left(50\pi t-\frac{\pi }{3}\right)\). The current from the supply is \(I=5\,\sin \left(50\pi t+\frac{\pi }{6}\right)\). The impedance of the circuit and the phase difference between e.m.f. and current are, respectively, [all the quantities in the above two equations are in SI units.]

  • (A) \(5\ \Omega ,\ \left(\frac{\pi }{6}\right)^{c}\)
  • (B) \(3\ \Omega ,\ \left(\frac{\pi }{2}\right)^{c}\)
  • (C) \(7\ \Omega ,\ \left(\frac{\pi }{12}\right)^{c}\)
  • (D) \(9\ \Omega ,\ \left(\frac{\pi }{4}\right)^{c}\)

Question 40:

A ray of light passes through four transparent media with refractive indices \(\mu _{1}\), \(\mu _{2}\), \(\mu _{3}\) and \(\mu _{4}\) as shown in the figure. The surfaces of all media are parallel. If the emergent ray CD is parallel to the incident ray AB, then

  • (A) \(\mu _{1}=\mu _{2}\)
  • (B) \(\mu _{2}=\mu _{3}\)
  • (C) \(\mu _{3}=\mu _{4}\)
  • (D) \(\mu _{4}=\mu _{1}\)

Question 41:

An object is placed 15 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm, then the nature of the image formed will be

  • (A) magnified and inverted
  • (B) magnified and erect
  • (C) small in size and inverted
  • (D) small in size and erect

Question 42:

In Young's double slit, 18 fringes are observed to be formed in a certain segment of the screen when light of wavelength 400 nm is used. If the wavelength is changed to 600 nm, the number of fringes observed in the same segment of the screen is

  • (A) \(6\)
  • (B) \(12\)
  • (C) \(18\)
  • (D) \(24\)

Question 43:

In Young's double slit experiment using a monochromatic light of wavelength \(\lambda\). The path difference (in terms of an integer n) corresponding to any point having one fourth of its peak intensity is
\(\{\cos (\pi /3)=1/2,\ \cos (4\pi /3)=-1/2\}\)

  • (A) \(\left(n\pm \frac{1}{2}\right)\lambda ,\ n=0,1,2\)
  • (B) \(\left(n\pm \frac{1}{3}\right)\lambda ,\ n=0,1,2\)
  • (C) \(\left(n\pm \frac{1}{4}\right)\lambda ,\ n=0,1,2\)
  • (D) \(\left(n\pm \frac{1}{5}\right)\lambda ,\ n=0,1,2\)

Question 44:

The additional energy that should be given to an electron to reduce its de-Broglie wavelength from 1 nm to 0.5 nm is \(x\) times the initial kinetic energy. The value of \(x\) is

  • (A) \(0.5\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 45:

In a photoelectric cell, for the incident radiation of wavelength \(\lambda\), the fastest electron has speed 'v'. If the wavelength of incident radiation is changed to \(\frac{\lambda }{3}\), the speed of the fastest emitted electron is

  • (A) \(v\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\)
  • (B) \(v(\sqrt{3})\)
  • (C) less than \(v(\sqrt{3})\)
  • (D) greater than \(v(\sqrt{3})\)

Question 46:

Two spherical nuclei have mass numbers 216 and 64 with their radii \(R_{1}\) and \(R_{2}\) respectively. The ratio \(\frac{R_{1}}{R_{2}}\) is

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(1:3\)
  • (C) \(2:3\)
  • (D) \(3:2\)

Question 47:

A radioactive nucleus \({}_{92}X^{235}\) decays to \({}_{91}Y^{231}\). Which of the following particles are emitted?

  • (A) One alpha and one beta particle
  • (B) Two deuterons and one positron
  • (C) One alpha and one proton
  • (D) One proton and four neutrons

Question 48:

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?

  • (A) The majority carriers in n-type semiconductors are electrons.
  • (B) The resistance of an intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase in temperature.
  • (C) Doping pure silicon crystal with trivalent impurities gives p-type semiconductor.
  • (D) The majority carriers in n-type semiconductors are holes.

Question 49:

For a common emitter amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of \(2\ \text{k}\Omega\) is 4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is \(1\ \text{k}\Omega\), then the input voltage is

  • (A) \(10\ \text{mV}\)
  • (B) \(15\ \text{mV}\)
  • (C) \(20\ \text{mV}\)
  • (D) \(25\ \text{mV}\)

Question 50:

Below we give four entries for the truth table of two point input OR gate. Which two are wrong?
\(\begin{aligned} & A & B & Y \\ \text{i} & 1 & 0 & 1 \\ \text{ii} & 1 & 1 & 0 \\ \text{iii} & 0 & 0 & 1 \\ \text{iv} & 0 & 1 & 1 \end{aligned}\)

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (ii) and (iii)
  • (C) (iii) and (iv)
  • (D) (iv) and (i)

Chemistry (Q51 - Q100)

Question 51:

What is the number of moles of Cl atoms present in n moles of tear gas and in n moles of mustard gas respectively?

  • (A) \(2n\) and \(3n\)
  • (B) \(3n\) and \(2n\)
  • (C) \(n\) and \(3n\)
  • (D) \(n\) and \(2n\)

Question 52:

Find the mass of lime obtained by heating 500 g of \(90\%\) pure lime stone. [Molar masses \(\text{Ca}=40\) g/mol, \(\text{O}=16\) g/mol \(\&\) \(\text{C}=12\) g/mol]

  • (A) \(252\) g
  • (B) \(280\) g
  • (C) \(265\) g
  • (D) \(230\) g

Question 53:

Find the wave number of the \(4^{\text{th}}\) line in the Lyman series of H spectrum. (R \(=\) Rydberg constant)

  • (A) \(24/(25R)\ \text{cm}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(25/(25R)\ \text{cm}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \((25R)/24\ \text{cm}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \((24R)/25\ \text{cm}^{-1}\)

Question 54:

Which has the maximum electropositive character?

  • (A) \(\text{Cu}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Cs}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Ba}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Cr}\)

Question 55:

Identify the correct decreasing order of lattice enthalpy for metal fluorides from following.

  • (A) \(\text{KF}>\text{NaF}>\text{LiF}\)
  • (B) \(\text{NaF}>\text{KF}>\text{LiF}\)
  • (C) \(\text{LiF}>\text{KF}>\text{NaF}\)
  • (D) \(\text{LiF}>\text{NaF}>\text{KF}\)

Question 56:

Which of the following relations is correct regarding rate of diffusion of a gas?

  • (A) directly proportional to its density
  • (B) directly proportional to its molecular mass
  • (C) directly proportional to the square of its molecular mass
  • (D) inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass

Question 57:

What is the work done in the formation of 1 mole gaseous methane from solid carbon and gaseous hydrogen at \(27^{\circ }\text{C}\)? (\(R=8.314\ \text{J k}^{-1}\text{ mol}^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(-2.4942\) kJ
  • (B) \(+2.4942\) kJ
  • (C) \(-24.942\) kJ
  • (D) \(+24.942\) kJ

Question 58:

Which of the following is applicable for isothermal process?

  • (A) \(W=-Q\)
  • (B) \(-\Delta U=-W\)
  • (C) \(\Delta U=Q_{v}\)
  • (D) \(Q_{p}=\Delta U+P_{ext}\Delta V\)

Question 59:

The bond enthalpies of H-H, Cl-Cl, and H-Cl bonds are 437 kJ/mol, 239 kJ/mol, and 433 kJ/mol respectively. Calculate the enthalpy of formation of HCl.

  • (A) 249 kJ/mol
  • (B) \(-248\) kJ/mol
  • (C) \(-95\) kJ/mol
  • (D) 98 kJ/mol

Question 60:

Calculate the amount of NaOH in g/L in a one L solution of it with the pH of 12. (Molar mass of \(\text{NaOH}=40\) g/mol)

  • (A) \(0.4\) g/L
  • (B) \(2\) g/L
  • (C) \(4\) g/L
  • (D) \(0.2\) g/L

Question 61:

The solubility of AgBr at 298 K is \(2\times 10^{-7}\ \text{kg/dm}^{3}\). Find the solubility product of AgBr at same temperature. [Molar mass of \(\text{AgBr}=188\) g/mol]

  • (A) \(1.981\times 10^{-12}\)
  • (B) \(1.632\times 10^{-12}\)
  • (C) \(1.425\times 10^{-12}\)
  • (D) \(1.124\times 10^{-12}\)

Question 62:

Which of the following aqueous solutions of salts is neutral?

  • (A) \(\text{NH}_{4}\text{NO}_{3}\)
  • (B) \(\text{KCN}\)
  • (C) \(\text{KNO}_{3}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CuCl}_{2}\)

Question 63:

Identify the gas that readily decolourises acidified \(\text{KMnO}_{4}\) solution.

  • (A) \(\text{CO}_{2}\)
  • (B) \(\text{SO}_{2}\)
  • (C) \(\text{NO}_{2}\)
  • (D) \(\text{H}_{2}\text{S}\)

Question 64:

Which of the following statement is NOT correct about a racemic mixture?

  • (A) It is an equimolar mixture of enantiomers.
  • (B) Enantiomers have identical refractive index.
  • (C) It is optically active.
  • (D) It is optically inactive.

Question 65:

Which of the following exhibits \(-\)I effect?

  • (A) \(-\text{C}(\text{CH}_{3})_{3}\)
  • (B) \(-\text{NO}_{2}\)
  • (C) \(-\text{C}_{2}\text{H}_{5}\)
  • (D) \(-\text{CH}_{3}\)

Question 66:

Identify the product obtained when toluene reacts with chlorine in the presence of \(\text{FeCl}_{3}\).

  • (A) benzyl chloride
  • (B) m-Chloro toluene
  • (C) chlorobenzene
  • (D) o-Chlorotoluene and p-Chlorotoluene

Question 67:

Chlorobenzene is formed by the reaction between benzene and chlorine in presence of \(\text{AlCl}_{3}\). Which of the following species actually attacks the benzene ring in this reaction?

  • (A) \(\text{Cl}^{-}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Cl}_{2}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Cl}^{+}\)
  • (D) \(\text{AlCl}_{4}^{-}\)

Question 68:

What is the general molecular formula for alkenes?

  • (A) \(\text{C}_{n}\text{H}_{2n+2}\)
  • (B) \(\text{C}_{n}\text{H}_{2n}\)
  • (C) \(\text{C}_{n}\text{H}_{2n-2}\)
  • (D) \(\text{C}_{n}\text{H}_{n}\)

Question 69:

Which of the following crystals are the hardest and most incompressible of all materials.

  • (A) Magnesium oxide
  • (B) Diamond
  • (C) Sugar
  • (D) Copper

Question 70:

The volume of fcc unit cell is \(5.6\times 10^{-23}\ \text{cm}^{3}\). Calculate the molar mass of metal if the density of metal is \(20.4\ \text{g cm}^{-3}\). [\(N_{A}=6.022\times 10^{23}\)]

  • (A) \(172\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(192\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(156\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(180\ \text{g mol}^{-1}\)

Question 71:

The silicon doped with gallium forms

  • (A) n-type semiconductor
  • (B) both n and p-type semiconductor
  • (C) an intrinsic semiconductor
  • (D) p-type semiconductor

Question 72:

Calculate relative lowering of vapor pressure of 1 molal glucose solution in water at room temperature. (molar mass of water \(=18\))

  • (A) \(2.1\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (B) \(1.5\times 10^{-2}\)
  • (C) \(2.5\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (D) \(1.8\times 10^{-2}\)

Question 73:

Which of the following solutions has maximum vapour pressure?

  • (A) 1 M copper sulphate solution
  • (B) 0.01 M copper sulphate solution
  • (C) 0.5 M copper sulphate solution
  • (D) 2 M copper sulphate solution

Question 74:

The molar conductivity of 0.02 M electrolytic solution is \(220\ \Omega ^{-1}\text{ cm}^{2}\text{ mol}^{-1}\) at \(25\ ^{\circ }\text{C}\). Find its conductivity.

  • (A) \(0.0044\ \Omega ^{-1}\text{ cm}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(0.0022\ \Omega ^{-1}\text{ cm}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(0.0011\ \Omega ^{-1}\text{ cm}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(0.0033\ \Omega ^{-1}\text{ cm}^{-1}\)

Question 75:

A 0.02 M KCl solution has conductivity \(k=2.76\times 10^{-3}\ \text{S cm}^{-1}\). Find molar conductivity.

  • (A) \(130\ \text{S cm}^{2}\text{mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(138\ \text{S cm}^{2}\text{mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(148\ \text{S cm}^{2}\text{mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(150\ \text{S cm}^{2}\text{mol}^{-1}\)

Question 76:

The standard electrode potential of Zn, Ag and Cu are \(-0.76\), \(0.80\) and \(0.34\) volt respectively, then identify the correct statement from following.

  • (A) Ag can oxidise Zn and Cu
  • (B) Ag can reduce \(\text{Zn}^{2+}\) and \(\text{Cu}^{2+}\)
  • (C) Zn can reduce \(\text{Ag}^{+}\) and \(\text{Cu}^{2+}\)
  • (D) Cu can oxidise Zn and Ag

Question 77:

What is the value of standard electrode potential of the standard hydrogen gas electrode?

  • (A) \(+1.00\) V
  • (B) \(-1.00\) V
  • (C) \(0.00\) V
  • (D) \(+0.50\) V

Question 78:

Integrated rate law for zero order reaction is

  • (A) \(K=\frac{2.303}{t}\log _{10}\frac{[A]_{0}}{[A]_{t}}\)
  • (B) \(K=\frac{2.303}{t}\log _{10}\frac{a}{a-x}\)
  • (C) \(K=\frac{0.693}{t_{1/2}}\)
  • (D) \(K=\frac{[A]_{0}-[A]_{t}}{t}\)

Question 79:

The rate constant for the first order reaction is given by \(\ln k=15-(1.5\times 10^{4})/T\). Calculate the activation energy.

  • (A) \(125\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(120\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(130\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(140\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)

Question 80:

For the reaction, \(\text{NO}_{2(g)}+\text{CO}_{(g)}\rightarrow \text{NO}_{(g)}+\text{CO}_{2(g)}\) the rate expression is found to be: rate \(=k[\text{NO}_{2}]^{2}\). What is the order of reaction with respect to CO?

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(1/2\)

Question 81:

Find the color of the gold nanoparticles in solution.

  • (A) Yellow
  • (B) Pink
  • (C) Black
  • (D) Red

Question 82:

What type of solutions is starch in water?

  • (A) true solution
  • (B) suspension
  • (C) lyophilic sol
  • (D) lyophobic sol

Question 83:

Find the number of total atoms of all halogens present in 1 mole molecule of inter halogen compounds having \(+7\) oxidation state of central halogen.

  • (A) \(4.82\times 10^{24}\)
  • (B) \(4.21\times 10^{24}\)
  • (C) \(3.61\times 10^{23}\)
  • (D) \(3.01\times 10^{23}\)

Question 84:

Which of the following is the correct order of basicity of lanthoids in their common oxidation state?

  • (A) \(\text{La}^{3+}>\text{Lu}^{3+}>\text{Ce}^{3+}>\text{Eu}^{3+}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Ce}^{3+}>\text{Lu}^{3+}>\text{La}^{3+}>\text{Eu}^{3+}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Lu}^{3+}>\text{Ce}^{3+}>\text{Eu}^{3+}>\text{La}^{3+}\)
  • (D) \(\text{La}^{3+}>\text{Ce}^{3+}>\text{Eu}^{3+}>\text{Lu}^{3+}\)

Question 85:

Identify the geometry and magnetic behavior of the complex \([\text{Ni}(\text{CO})_{4}]\).

  • (A) square planar geometry and diamagnetic
  • (B) tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
  • (C) square planar geometry and paramagnetic
  • (D) tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic.

Question 86:

Identify homoleptic complex from following.

  • (A) Bis(ethylenediamine)dithiocyanatoplatinum(IV)
  • (B) Tetraamminecopper(II) ion
  • (C) Triamminetrinitrocobalt(III)
  • (D) Triamminetrithiocyanatorhodium(III)

Question 87:

Identify the product formed when the mixture of Phenol and Hydrogen is passed over nickel catalyst at 433 K.

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 88:

Phenols react with neutral ferric chloride, then which coloration is NOT produced?

  • (A) Purple
  • (B) violet
  • (C) green
  • (D) Black

Question 89:

Identify a final product obtained when Pent-3-enenitrile is treated with \(\text{AlH}(i\text{-Bu})_{2}\) followed by acid hydrolysis.

  • (A) Pent-3-enol
  • (B) Pentanoic acid
  • (C) But-3-enol
  • (D) Pent-3-enal

Question 90:

Which of the following undergoes Haloform reaction?

  • (A) \(\text{HCHO}\)
  • (B) \(\text{C}_{2}\text{H}_{5}\text{Cl}\)
  • (C) \((\text{CH}_{3})_{2}\text{CO}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{-O-CH}_{3}\)

Question 91:

Identify the product of acid hydrolysis of propane nitrile.

  • (A) Propanal
  • (B) Acetic acid
  • (C) Propionamide
  • (D) Propanoic acid

Question 92:

Which of the following amines has imino functional group?

  • (A) Ethyl amine
  • (B) Trimethyl amine
  • (C) Dimethyl amine
  • (D) Aniline

Question 93:

The chemical formula of Hinsberg reagent is:

  • (A) \(\text{C}_{6}\text{H}_{5}\text{SO}_{3}\text{Cl}\)
  • (B) \(\text{C}_{6}\text{H}_{5}\text{SO}_{2}\text{Cl}\)
  • (C) \(\text{C}_{2}\text{H}_{5}\text{SO}_{2}\text{Cl}\)
  • (D) \(\text{C}_{6}\text{H}_{5}\text{N}_{2}\text{Cl}\)

Question 94:

Identify product 'B' in the following sequence of reactions.
\(\text{Aniline}\xrightarrow{\text{NaNO}_{2}+\text{HCl},\ 273\ \text{K}}A\xrightarrow{\text{H}_{2}\text{O},\ \Delta }B+\text{N}_{2}\uparrow\)

  • (A) Sodium phenoxide
  • (B) Phenol
  • (C) Benzenediazonium chloride
  • (D) Nitrobenzene

Question 95:

Which of the following reagents is used to identify one primary alcoholic group of glucose?

  • (A) \(\text{Br}_{2}\) water
  • (B) dilute \(\text{HNO}_{3}\)
  • (C) Acetic anhydride
  • (D) \(\text{NH}_{2}\text{OH}\)

Question 96:

Match List I with List II

List I (CARBOHYDRATE)List II (TYPE)
(A). Glycogen(I). Oligosaccharide
(B). Stachyose(II). Monosaccharide
(C). Ribose(III). Polysaccharide
  • (A) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II)
  • (B) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II)
  • (C) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III)
  • (D) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I)

Question 97:

\(\text{O}_{2}\) gas has very low solubility in water. However, its solubility in blood is excessively high. This is because of

  • (A) water is less viscous than blood
  • (B) blood is colloidal mixture
  • (C) binding of \(\text{O}_{2}\) molecule to hemoglobin in blood.
  • (D) blood has low pressure

Question 98:

Which one of the following polymers is NOT obtained by condensation polymerisation?

  • (A) Nylon 6,6
  • (B) Buna-N
  • (C) Bakelite
  • (D) Terylene

Question 99:

Identify the monomer of natural rubber.

  • (A) Acrylonitrile
  • (B) Isoprene
  • (C) Epsilon-caprolactam
  • (D) Tetrafluoroethylene

Question 100:

Which of the following are not used for the treatment of humans?

  • (A) Antiseptics
  • (B) Disinfectants
  • (C) Antimalarials
  • (D) Antibiotics

Biology (Q101 - Q200)

Question 101:

In the Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV), hereditary material is ________ .

  • (A) single stranded DNA
  • (B) single stranded RNA
  • (C) double stranded DNA
  • (D) double stranded RNA

Question 102:

Glycogen stored in animal body is converted into glucose through _________ .

  • (A) glycolysis
  • (B) hydrolysis
  • (C) reduction
  • (D) oxidation

Question 103:

Glucosinolates protect _________ plant from pest attack.

  • (A) tomato
  • (B) soyabean
  • (C) cabbage
  • (D) cotton

Question 104:

Which one of the following is the activator for enzyme Pyruvate Kinase?

  • (A) \(\text{Zn}^{++}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Mg}^{++}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Ca}^{++}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Mn}^{++}\)

Question 105:

Which one of the following is NOT an objection against capillarity theory of ascent of sap in plants?

  • (A) Xylem tracheids compared to capillary tube show closed end walls.
  • (B) The xylem is not in direct contact with soil water.
  • (C) Because of capillarity, water can be raised to tall trees.
  • (D) Tall trees have wider xylem vessels which do not support capillarity.

Question 106:

When a few plasmolysed cells are kept in ____________ solution, the cells become turgid.

  • (A) hypertonic
  • (B) hypotonic
  • (C) isotonic
  • (D) 20% sugar

Question 107:

Which one of the following is NOT needed for the facilitated diffusion in plants?

  • (A) Concentration gradient
  • (B) Aquaporins
  • (C) Ion channel
  • (D) Expenditure of energy

Question 108:

The term water potential is also used for ________ pressure.

  • (A) suction
  • (B) osmotic
  • (C) wall
  • (D) turgor

Question 109:

Stomatal transpiration takes place during day time in the following plants EXCEPT________.

  • (A) Lotus
  • (B) Mango
  • (C) Grass
  • (D) Cactus

Question 110:

Identify the INCORRECT match regarding the mineral element and its occurrence in living cell.
Mineral element — constituent of

  • (A) Nitrogen — protein
  • (B) Phosphorus — cell wall
  • (C) Magnesium — chlorophyll
  • (D) Calcium — middle lamella of cell wall

Question 111:

Which among the following represents amidation during nitrogen fixation in plants?

  • (A) \(\alpha\)-Ketoglutaric acid \(+\) \(\text{NH}_{4}^{+}\) \(+\) \(\text{NADPH}_{2}\) \(\rightarrow\) Glutamic acid \(+\) \(\text{H}_{2}\text{O}\) \(+\) NADP
  • (B) Glutamic acid \(+\) oxaloacetic acid \(\rightarrow\) \(\alpha\)-Ketoglutaric acid \(+\) Aspartic acid
  • (C) Glutamic acid \(+\) \(\text{NH}_{4}^{+}\) \(+\) ATP \(\rightarrow\) glutamine \(+\) ADP
  • (D) \(2\text{NH}_{3}+3\text{O}_{2}\rightarrow 2\text{HNO}_{2}+2\text{H}_{2}\text{O}\)

Question 112:

Total number of ATP molecules utilised in one glycolytic pathway is _________.

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8

Question 113:

Glycolysis occurs in _____________

  • (A) mitochondrion
  • (B) peroxisome
  • (C) cytoplasm
  • (D) nucleus

Question 114:

The ultimate electron acceptor in ETS in aerobic respiration is ___________ and it reacts with protons to form ________.

  • (A) Cytochrome a, water
  • (B) Molecular oxygen, metabolic water
  • (C) Glucose, Carbon di-oxide
  • (D) Hydrogen, acetaldehyde

Question 115:

Given below are two statements:
Statement (I): There is accumulation of lactic acid in skeletal muscles during vigorous exercise.
Statement (II): Lactic acid is reconverted into pyruvic acid during resting stage of skeletal muscles.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (A) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (B) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 116:

Gibberellins promote bolting prior to flowering in plants like _________.

  • (A) tomato
  • (B) cabbage
  • (C) apple
  • (D) pear

Question 117:

Intrinsic plasticity is observed in the leaves of __________.

  • (A) coriander
  • (B) butter cup
  • (C) Hibiscus
  • (D) mango

Question 118:

Geometric growth can be expressed mathematically by the equation \(W_{1}=W_{0}e^{rt}\). '\(W_{1}\)' stands for ________.

  • (A) initial size
  • (B) final size
  • (C) time of growth
  • (D) growth rate

Question 119:

The hardest substance of human body is _________

  • (A) enamel
  • (B) dentin
  • (C) cementum
  • (D) histone

Question 120:

Vitamin \(\text{B}_{12}\) is synthesised in (A) and intrinsic factor present in (B) helps in absorption of vit \(\text{B}_{12}\) from food.

  • (A) (A) - Stomach ; (B) - Bile juice
  • (B) (A) - Liver; (B) – Gastric juice
  • (C) (A) - Liver ; (B) Succus entericus
  • (D) (A) - Duodenum ; (B) - Pancreatic juice

Question 121:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I - Degradation of fats increases formation of ketone bodies in diabetes insipidus.
Statement II - Entero-gastrone slows gastric contractions and inhibits secretion of gastric juice.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 122:

Which one of the following is NOT the role of bile?

  • (A) Emulsification of fat
  • (B) Activation of lipid digesting enzymes
  • (C) Imparting colour to faecal matter
  • (D) Secretion of trypsinogen enzyme.

Question 123:

Absorption of Aspirin takes place in ________.

  • (A) stomach
  • (B) mouth
  • (C) small intestine
  • (D) large intestine

Question 124:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I - Portal area is present at the junction of adjacent hepatic lobules.
Statement II - Portal area shows presence of hepatic cords, sinusoid and Kupffer cells.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 125:

The oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve shifts towards left due to increase in ___________.

  • (A) pH
  • (B) temperature
  • (C) DPG
  • (D) \(\text{ppCO}_{2}\)

Question 126:

________ is a common respiratory illness characterized by inflammation of the lungs, cough and fever, chills, shortness of breath.

  • (A) Sinusitis
  • (B) Bronchitis
  • (C) Laryngitis
  • (D) Pneumonia

Question 127:

Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Intrathoracic pressure decreases during inspiration.
(B) Activation of pneumotaxic center stimulates inspiration.
(C) During expiration, pressure gradient operates from lungs to the atmosphere.
(D) Cavity of lungs decreases during expiration.
(E) Diaphragm contracts during expiration.
Select the correct option

  • (A) C, D and E only
  • (B) A and B only
  • (C) A, C and D only
  • (D) D and E only

Question 128:

Select the INCORRECT statement.

  • (A) Blood pressure is directly proportional to the viscosity of blood.
  • (B) In women, usually the BP increases after menopause.
  • (C) The hormone ADH reduces BP.
  • (D) Blood loss in an accident decreases the BP.

Question 129:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I - Acidophils secrete histamines.
Statement II - Cyanophils show anti-histaminic property.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 130:

With reference to human plasma, select the CORRECT match.

  • (A) Anticoagulant – Prothrombin
  • (B) Regulators - Antibodies
  • (C) Waste - Heparin
  • (D) Protein - Properdin

Question 131:

Select the INCORRECT statement with reference to silent heart attack.

  • (A) It is also known as silent myocardial infarction.
  • (B) Extreme chest pain, hypertension and shortness of breath are not seen in the patient.
  • (C) Extreme chilling is experienced.
  • (D) The patient feels discomfort.

Question 132:

Haemolytic disease of the new born can occur in case a __________.

  • (A) Rh+ve woman marries Rh-ve man.
  • (B) Rh-ve woman marries Rh+ve man.
  • (C) Rh+ve woman marries O+ve man.
  • (D) Rh-ve woman marries O-ve man.

Question 133:

In Birds, ammonia is converted into 'A' in 'B' by 'C' and excreted through kidney.
Identify A, B and C

  • (A) A- uric acid, B-pancreas and C-urea cycle.
  • (B) A- urea, B-kidney and C-ornithine cycle
  • (C) A- urea, B-liver and C-Krebs cycle
  • (D) A- uric acid, B-liver and C-inosinic acid pathway

Question 134:

Counter current multiplier system occurs between ________ and ________.

  • (A) Loop of Henle and Bowman's Capsule
  • (B) Vasa recta and Loop of Henle
  • (C) Collecting ducts and Loop of Henle
  • (D) Vasa recta and glomerulus

Question 135:

Urethral internal sphincter present between urinary bladder and urethra is made up of _________ muscles and is _________ in nature.

  • (A) skeletal and involuntary
  • (B) smooth and involuntary
  • (C) skeletal and voluntary
  • (D) smooth and voluntary

Question 136:

Which one of the following pair is ammonotelic?

  • (A) Birds and protozoa
  • (B) Spiders and molluscs
  • (C) Land snails and protozoa
  • (D) Aquatic invertebrates and bony fishes

Question 137:

Match the pair.

Column I (Type of pressure during ultrafiltration)Column II (values)
(A) Glomerular hydrostatic pressure(I) 30 mm of Hg
(B) Opposing osmotic pressure of blood(II) 15 mm of Hg
(C) Opposing capsular pressure(III) 10 mm of Hg
(D) Net filtration pressure(IV) 55 mm of Hg
  • (A) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
  • (B) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
  • (C) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
  • (D) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

Question 138:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I - The lens and cornea divide the cavity of eyeball into two chambers.
Statement II - The ability of the lens by which the light rays from far or near objects are focused on the retina is called accommodation.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 139:

Select the INCORRECT statement regarding cerebrum from the following.

  • (A) Cerebral cortex is made up of grey matter and white matter lies inside it.
  • (B) Gyri and sulci of cerebral cortex increase surface area of grey matter.
  • (C) Two lateral ventricles are connected to diocoel by the duct of Sylvius.
  • (D) Grey matter shows presence of cell bodies, dendrons and non medullated fibres.

Question 140:

Which one of the following nerves is NOT a part of Dentist's nerve?

  • (A) Ophthalmic
  • (B) Maxillary
  • (C) Abducens
  • (D) Mandibular

Question 141:

The cranial nerve III is ___________.

  • (A) Facial
  • (B) Trigeminal
  • (C) Oculomotor
  • (D) Vagus

Question 142:

Rate of saltatory conduction of nerve impulse in mammalian myelinated nerve fibers is ________.

  • (A) 120 m/sec
  • (B) 100 m/sec
  • (C) 60 m/sec
  • (D) 20 m/sec

Question 143:

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Cushing's disease?

  • (A) High BP
  • (B) Obesity
  • (C) Glucosuria
  • (D) Natriuresis

Question 144:

Human ovary secretes ______ types of hormones.

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5

Question 145:

Which one of the following is NOT endodermal in origin?

  • (A) Thymus gland
  • (B) Thyroid gland
  • (C) Parathyroid gland
  • (D) Pineal gland

Question 146:

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT with reference to hypophyseal portal vein?

  • (A) It starts with hypothalamus and ends into neurohypophysis.
  • (B) It starts with hypothalamus and ends into adenohypophysis.
  • (C) It starts with hypophysis and ends into hypothalamus.
  • (D) It starts with hypophysis and ends into heart via superior vena cava.

Question 147:

If the osmolarity of blood increases due to sweating, osmoreceptors trigger release of ______ .

  • (A) renin from JGA
  • (B) ADH from neurohypophysis
  • (C) ANP from Heart
  • (D) calcitriol from kidney

Question 148:

Select the correct statement.

  • (A) In Hydra, the bud is developed within the body.
  • (B) In Spongilla, internal bud develops during favourable season.
  • (C) Corals reproduce asexually by formation of gametes.
  • (D) The process of budding is observed in some ascidians.

Question 149:

The process of sexual reproduction in animals involves

  • (A) meiosis only
  • (B) mitosis only and fusion of gametes to form a diploid zygote
  • (C) meiosis and fusion of gametes to form diploid zygote
  • (D) mitosis only

Question 150:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I - Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin.
Statement II - In most of the angiospermic plants, the pollen grains are shed from the anther at 2-celled stage.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 151:

Which one of the following does NOT promote cross pollination?

  • (A) Herkogamy
  • (B) Self sterility
  • (C) Heteromorphy
  • (D) Cleistogamy

Question 152:

In an ovule, one of the male gamete fuses with haploid female gamete to produce a diploid zygote, the process is called

  • (A) chalazogamy
  • (B) mesogamy
  • (C) syngamy
  • (D) siphonogamy

Question 153:

Match type of outbreeding device given in Column I with respective example given in Column II

Column (I)Column (II)
(A) Protogyny(I) Calotropis
(B) Herkogamy(II) Primula
(C) Self sterility(III) Gloriosa
(D) Heterostyly(IV) Thea
  • (A) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
  • (B) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
  • (D) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

Question 154:

Match type of pollinating agent given in Column I with respective example given in Column II

Column (I)Column (II)
(A) Sunbirds(I) Chiropterophily
(B) Bats(II) Entomophily
(C) Insects(III) Ornithophily
  • (A) A - II, B - III, C - I
  • (B) A - III, B - II, C - I
  • (C) A - III, B - I, C - II
  • (D) A - I, B - III, C - II

Question 155:

The prostate gland is composed of _________ lobes.

  • (A) 5 - 10
  • (B) 10 - 15
  • (C) 20 - 30
  • (D) 35 - 45

Question 156:

The secretion of estrogen is carried out by the ________ under the influence of FSH.

  • (A) Primordial follicle
  • (B) Secondary follicle
  • (C) Primary follicle
  • (D) Oogonia

Question 157:

Complete the following analogy:
Cu-T : Suppress sperm motility
LNG-20 : ___________

  • (A) Phagocytosis of sperms
  • (B) Makes cervix hostile to the sperm
  • (C) Inhibition of ovulation
  • (D) Alters the quality of cervical mucus

Question 158:

Deficiency of clotting factor VIII or IX in the blood causes _________.

  • (A) thalassemia
  • (B) sickle-cell anaemia
  • (C) nephritis
  • (D) haemophilia

Question 159:

Hypertrichosis is _____________ character.

  • (A) X - linked
  • (B) Y - linked
  • (C) autosomal dominant
  • (D) autosomal recessive

Question 160:

Which type of sex determination is seen in honey bees?

  • (A) ZZ-ZW type
  • (B) XX male - XY female type
  • (C) Haplo-diploid type
  • (D) XX female - XY male type

Question 161:

Which one of the following disorder shows symptoms of excess of phenylalanine in urine of humans?

  • (A) Albuminuria
  • (B) Gout arthritis
  • (C) Urinary tract infection
  • (D) Phenylketonuria

Question 162:

Identify the chromosomal aberration from the given diagram

  • (A) Deletion
  • (B) Duplication
  • (C) Inversion
  • (D) Translocation

Question 163:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I - Only males can suffer from haemophilia.
Statement II - The gene for normal clotting of blood in human is recessive.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 164:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I - RNA acts as biocatalyst and catalytic RNA is ribozyme.
Statement II - Due to repeated replication and mutation, varieties of RNA molecules of varying sizes are formed.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 165:

Along with Histone like DNA binding proteins which enzyme maintains supercoiled state in packaging of DNA in prokaryotes?

  • (A) DNA polymerase and RNA primase
  • (B) DNA ligase and helicase
  • (C) DNA gyrase and topoisomerase I
  • (D) Phosphorylase and RNA polymerase

Question 166:

The repressor protein in lac operon is produced by the action of ________.

  • (A) operator gene
  • (B) regulator gene
  • (C) promoter gene
  • (D) structural gene

Question 167:

In protein synthesis, during elongation of a polypeptide chain, the charged tRNA carrying the aminoacid is received at ___ site and uncharged tRNA is released from ___ site of the ribosome respectively.

  • (A) 'A' and 'P'
  • (B) 'P' and 'A'
  • (C) 'A' and 'E'
  • (D) 'P' and 'E'

Question 168:

During replication the enzyme that forms double helix to form daughter DNA molecule is ___________.

  • (A) topoisomerase
  • (B) ligase
  • (C) permease
  • (D) helicase

Question 169:

If the number of adenine nitrogenous base in a given DNA segment is 25 and the number of guanine is 45, What would be the total number of nucleotides in that segment?

  • (A) 50
  • (B) 70
  • (C) 90
  • (D) 140

Question 170:

The nucleotide sequence of anticodon is complementary to nucleotide sequence present on________.

  • (A) DNA
  • (B) tRNA
  • (C) mRNA
  • (D) rRNA

Question 171:

Correct sequence of epochs of coenozoic era from ancient to recent is _________.

  • (A) Miocene, Pliocene, Palaeocene, Pleistocene
  • (B) Pleistocene, Pliocene, Oligocene, Miocene
  • (C) Pliocene, Pleistocene, Oligocene, Miocene
  • (D) Oligocene, Miocene, Pliocene, Pleistocene

Question 172:

Identify the fossil of man who showed following characteristics.
A) Cranial capacity is 900 cc
B) Fossil was obtained in Peking
C) Existed about 1.5 mya
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer.

  • (A) Homo erectus
  • (B) Neanderthal man
  • (C) Homo habilis
  • (D) Australopithecus

Question 173:

Potential mates do not meet though live in same geographic region but occupy separate habitat. This type of isolation is _________.

  • (A) Ethological
  • (B) Ecological
  • (C) Temporal
  • (D) Mechanical

Question 174:

Metastasis is ___________

  • (A) uncontrolled division of cells and formation of lumps of tissue.
  • (B) spreading of cells from one organ to another via blood.
  • (C) treatment and prevention of AIDS.
  • (D) treatment of Cancer by radiation.

Question 175:

Widal Test is used for diagnosis of _________.

  • (A) Pneumonia
  • (B) AIDS
  • (C) Typhoid
  • (D) Malaria

Question 176:

Which of the following is NOT a vector borne disease?

  • (A) Malaria
  • (B) Dengue
  • (C) Filariasis
  • (D) Ascariasis

Question 177:

Men over 'X' yrs. of age and have daily high consumption of 'Y' have increased risk of prostate cancer.
The 'X' and 'Y' are

  • (A) 40, carbohydrate
  • (B) 50, vit B
  • (C) 40, Proteins
  • (D) 50, fat

Question 178:

In which of the following disorders of bacterial origin, use of vapourizer is recommended?
(A) Pneumonia
(B) Emphysema
(C) Acute bronchitis
(D) Sinusitis
Select the correct option.

  • (A) B and C only
  • (B) C and D only
  • (C) A and D only
  • (D) A and C only

Question 179:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I - There is no need of agitation in callus culture however it is necessary in suspension culture.
Statement II - During tissue culture techniques, the temperature of the lab is maintained between 18 to 20°C.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 180:

Match the object given in Column I with respective sterilizing agent given in Column II

Column (I)Column (II)
(A) Nutrient medium(I) 20% ethyl alcohol treatment
(B) Glass wares(II) autoclaving
(C) Explant(III) use of hot air oven
  • (A) A - II, B - I, C - III
  • (B) A - II, B - III, C - I
  • (C) A - I, B - II, C - III
  • (D) A - III, B - II, C - I

Question 181:

Which one of the following biofertilizer makes the plant associated with them grow luxuriantly in less irrigated lands?

  • (A) Rhizobium
  • (B) Vesiculo Arbuscular Mycorrhizae
  • (C) Anabaena
  • (D) Azospirillum

Question 182:

Which one of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?

  • (A) Phosphate Solubilizing bio fertilizer — Agrobacterium
  • (B) Symbiotic nitrogen fixing microbe — Frankia
  • (C) Non symbiotic nitrogen fixing microbe — Beijerinckia
  • (D) Free living mycoherbicide — Bacillus thuringiensis

Question 183:

Dosa, Dhokla and Idli are the fermented preparations of rice and black Gram with ________ species of bacteria.

  • (A) Leuconostoc and Streptococcus
  • (B) Lactobacillus and Streptococcus
  • (C) Bacillus and Streptomyces
  • (D) Pseudomonas and Streptomyces

Question 184:

In genetic engineering, the term chimeric DNA is applied to _________.

  • (A) passenger DNA
  • (B) vehicle DNA
  • (C) rDNA
  • (D) complementary DNA

Question 185:

The restriction endonuclease responsible for cleaving the given restriction site is ___________.

  • (A) Alu I
  • (B) Bam HI
  • (C) Eco RI
  • (D) Hind II

Question 186:

The enzyme Taq polymerase during PCR cycle is actually involved in which of the following steps?

  • (A) Both denaturation and annealing
  • (B) Both annealing and primer extension
  • (C) Annealing only
  • (D) Primer extension only

Question 187:

'PAGE, SDS PAGE' are the methods of which of the following?

  • (A) Electrophoresis
  • (B) PCR
  • (C) Fermentation
  • (D) Traditional biotechnology

Question 188:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I - In germline gene therapy, the healthy genes are introduced into germ cells like sperms, eggs and early embryo for the transmission of modified genetic information to the next generation.
Statement II - Somatic cell gene therapy is the only feasible option for the treatment of acquired disorders such as cancer, rheumatoid arthritis and thalassemia etc.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 189:

Which one of the following is NOT an example of prey-predator interaction?

  • (A) Sparrows and seeds
  • (B) Frogs and Locusts
  • (C) Monarch butterfly and birds
  • (D) Clown fish and sea anemone

Question 190:

Density of population of a species decreases in case of which of the following phenomena?
A. Increase in immigration
B. Decrease in birth rate
C. Decrease in emigration
D. Increase in death rate.

  • (A) A and B only
  • (B) B and C only
  • (C) B and D only
  • (D) C and D only

Question 191:

In a population, the most common evolutionary stable strategy for a sex ratio is when _________.

  • (A) Number of males exceeds the number of females.
  • (B) Number of females exceeds the number of males.
  • (C) males and females are in a ratio of 1:1
  • (D) females are economically independent from males.

Question 192:

Basic unit of ecological hierarchy is ___________.

  • (A) Biome
  • (B) Community
  • (C) Population
  • (D) Organism

Question 193:

Which one of the following is a sedimentary ecological cycle?

  • (A) Carbon
  • (B) Nitrogen
  • (C) Phosphorus
  • (D) Oxygen

Question 194:

Choose the INCORRECT statement with respect to Pyramid of energy.

  • (A) When energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step.
  • (B) In smaller food chains, more energy is available than in the longer food chains.
  • (C) Energy increases while passing from producers to consumers.
  • (D) It is never inverted.

Question 195:

Which one of the following processes does NOT help in nutrient cycling?

  • (A) Photosynthesis
  • (B) Respiration
  • (C) Decomposition
  • (D) Evaporation

Question 196:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I - Exchange of phosphorus between organism and the environment is very high.
Statement II - Atmospheric inputs of carbon through rainfall are much smaller than phosphorus.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
  • (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

Question 197:

Which one of the following is NOT a biodiversity hot spot in India?

  • (A) Eastern Himalayas
  • (B) Western Ghats
  • (C) Indo-Burma region
  • (D) Rann of Kutch

Question 198:

Which of the following are sacred groves found in India?
A. Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya.
B. Western Ghat regions of Maharashtra
C. Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan
D. Ladakh region of Himalayas
E. Chanda and Sarguja areas of Madhya Pradesh
Choose the correct option given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) A, B and E only
  • (C) A, B, C and D only
  • (D) A, B, C and E only

Question 199:

Which one of the following is also known as 'Terror of Bengal'?

  • (A) Tiger
  • (B) Eichhornia crassipes
  • (C) Carrot grass
  • (D) Commelina benghalensis

Question 200:

The water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) is a native of ______.

  • (A) Central Europe
  • (B) Central Africa
  • (C) Amazon basin
  • (D) South Africa

MHT CET 2026 PCB Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCB (Physics, Chemistry, Biology) for Pharmacy and Agriculture
Total Questions

200

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marking Scheme 1 mark for each correct answer
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT CET 2026 April 24 Shift 1 PCB Paper Analysis