MHT CET 2026 May 10 Shift 1 PCB Question Paper will be available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell is conducting MHT CET 2026 PCB Exam on May 10 in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 12 PM in CBT mode.

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCB Question Paper consists of 200 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics (50 questions), Chemistry (50 questions), and Biology (100 questions).
  • All questions carry 1 mark each. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

MHT CET 2026 May 10 Shift 1 PCB Question Paper PDF Download

MHT CET 2026 May 10 Shift 1 Question Paper Download PDF Check Solution
MHT CET 2026 May 10 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

The species-area relationship is represented on a log scale as

  • (A) a hyperbola
  • (B) a straight line
  • (C) a parabola
  • (D) a circle

Question 2:

Industrial melanism is one of the best example for

  • (A) Natural selection
  • (B) Artificial selection
  • (C) Genetic drift
  • (D) Gene flow

Question 3:

Which of the following statements about DNA packaging in eukaryotes are correct?

i. The negatively charged DNA helix wraps around a positively charged histone octamer to form a nucleosome.

ii. The histone octamer consists of eight molecules, two of each of the four types: H2A, H2B, H3, and H4 .

iii. One nucleosome contains approximately 200 base pairs (bp) of DNA helix.

iv. The chromatin fiber is further organized into a solenoid structure of 30 nm diameter, needing additional NHC (Non-Histone Chromosomal) proteins for higher-level packaging.

  • (A) i, ii, and iii only
  • (B) ii, iii, and iv only
  • (C) i, iii, and iv only
  • (D) All i, ii, iii, and iv

Question 4:

Which of the following statements about Pollination by Water (Hydrophily) are correct?

i. It is found only in some 30 genera of aquatic monocots.

ii. In Hypohydrophily, the pollen grains are lighter than water and float on the water surface to reach the stigma.

iii. In Vallisneria (Epihydrophily), the female flowers reach the water surface temporarily to ensure pollination, and the male flowers float on the surface.

iv. Pollen grains of hydrophilous flowers are long and unwettable due to the presence of mucilage, and they lack exine in some species like Zostera (sea grass).

  • (A) i, ii, and iii only
  • (B) i, iii, and iv only
  • (C) ii, iii, and iv only
  • (D) All i, ii, iii, and iv

Question 5:

What is the term for genetically identical progeny produced from a single organism through asexual reproduction?

  • (A) Somaclones
  • (B) Hybrids
  • (C) Clones
  • (D) Gametophytes

Question 6:

Which structure in the anther wall is the innermost, immediately enclosing the sporogenous tissue, and primarily functions in providing nutrition?

  • (A) Epidermis
  • (B) Endothecium
  • (C) Middle layer
  • (D) Tapetum

Question 7:

The process where a diploid sporophyte cell produces a diploid gametophyte without undergoing meiosis is called:

  • (A) Apogamy
  • (B) Parthenogenesis
  • (C) Apospory
  • (D) Diplospory

Question 8:

Match the type of linkage with the percentage of recombination observed in Drosophila.
Column I (Linkage Type)
Column II (Recombination % / Example)
P. Strong Linkage
1. 37.2% Recombination
Q. Weak Linkage
2. 1.3% Recombination
R. Genes for yellow body and white eye
3. Incompletely linked genes
S. Genes for white body and miniature wing
4. Completely linked genes

  • (A) P-2, Q-1, R-2, S-1
  • (B) P-1, Q-2, R-1, S-2
  • (C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
  • (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Question 9:

In the development of the female gametophyte, the lower megaspore toward the centre of the nucellus remains functional. This functional megaspore undergoes successive mitotic divisions. This entire method of embryo sac development is called:

  • (A) Tetrasporic
  • (B) Monosporic
  • (C) Bisporic
  • (D) Diplosporic

Question 10:

A cross of the F1 progeny with the homozygous recessive parent (e.g., F1 tall x pure dwarf, Tt x tt) is specifically called a:

  • (A) Back cross
  • (B) Dihybrid cross
  • (C) Monohybrid cross
  • (D) Test cross

Question 11:

Match the plant growth hormone with its primary chemical nature.

% Matching Table

\renewcommand{\arraystretch{1.4

\begin{tabular{|c|l|c|l|
\hline
Column I & Hormone & Column II & Chemical Nature/Precursor

\hline
P & Auxin & 1 & Simple gaseous hydrocarbon

\hline
Q & Gibberellin & 2 & Tryptophan is the primary precursor

\hline
R & Ethylene & 3 & 15-carbon sesquiterpenoid

\hline
S & Abscisic Acid & 4 & Cyclic diterpene/Mevalonic acid precursor

\hline
\end{tabular

  • (A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
  • (B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
  • (C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
  • (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Question 12:

Fine soil particles imbibe or absorb water and hold it. This is called as

  • (A) Percolation
  • (B) Adhesion
  • (C) Imbibition
  • (D) Cohesion

Question 13:

The pH of 0.001 M HCl solution is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 14:

Which among the following is an ambidentate ligand?

  • (A) \(CN^-\)
  • (B) \(NH_3\)
  • (C) \(H_2O\)
  • (D) \(NO_2^-\)

Question 15:

An electric dipole is placed at an angle of \(30^\circ\) in an electric field of intensity \(2 \times 10^5\) N/C. It experiences a torque of \(0.03\) Nm. If the dipole length is 2 cm, find the charge on the dipole.

  • (A) \(1.5 \times 10^{-5}\) C
  • (B) \(2.0 \times 10^{-5}\) C
  • (C) \(2.5 \times 10^{-5}\) C
  • (D) \(3.0 \times 10^{-5}\) C

Question 16:

A solution of 8 g of a certain organic compound in 2 dm³ water develops osmotic pressure 0.6 atm at 300 K. Calculate the molar mass of compound.
[R = 0.082\ atm dm^3\ K^{-1}\ mol^{-1}]

  • (A) \(148\ g mol^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(164\ g mol^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(172\ g mol^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(180\ g mol^{-1}\)

Question 17:

What is the value of ΔH – ΔU for the following reaction?
2C(s) + 3H₂(g) → C₂H₆(g)

  • (A) 4RT
  • (B) -5RT
  • (C) RT
  • (D) -2RT

Question 18:

Volume of a gas at NTP is 1.12 × 10⁻⁷ cm³. The number of molecules in it is :

  • (A) 3.01 × 10¹²
  • (B) 3.01 × 10²⁴
  • (C) 3.01 × 10²³
  • (D) 3.01 × 10²⁰

Question 19:

The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when an electron falls from infinity to stationary state 1, would be (Rydberg constant = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹)

  • (A) 406 nm
  • (B) 192 nm
  • (C) 91 nm
  • (D) 9.1 × 10⁻⁸ nm

Question 20:

In NO₃⁻ ion, the number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons on nitrogen atom are

  • (A) 2, 2
  • (B) 3, 1
  • (C) 1, 3
  • (D) 4, 0

Question 21:

In which of the compounds does 'manganese' exhibit highest oxidation number?

  • (A) MnO₂
  • (B) Mn₃O₄
  • (C) K₂MnO₄
  • (D) MnSO₄

Question 22:

Alkali metals are powerful reducing agents because

  • (A) they are metals
  • (B) they are monovalent
  • (C) their ionic radii are large
  • (D) their ionisation energies are low

Question 23:

A balloon filled with an air sample occupies 3 L volume at 35°C. On lowering the temperature to T, the volume decreases to 2.5 L. The temperature T is? [Assume p-constant]

  • (A) 16°C
  • (B) -16°C
  • (C) 24°C
  • (D) -20°C

Question 24:

Eight identical spherical liquid drops, each falling with a terminal velocity v, coalesce to form a single large drop. The terminal velocity of the new large drop is

  • (A) 2v
  • (B) 4v
  • (C) 8v
  • (D) 16v

Question 25:

A uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius R is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. It is struck by a horizontal cue at a height h above the center. For the sphere to roll without slipping immediately after the impact, the value of h must be:

  • (A) R/2
  • (B) 2R/5
  • (C) 2R/3
  • (D) 3R/5

Question 26:

A disc of mass M and radius R has a concentric hole of radius R/2. Its moment of inertia about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to its plane is:

  • (A) 15/32 MR²
  • (B) 13/32 MR²
  • (C) 5/16 MR²
  • (D) 3/8 MR²

Question 27:

The work done in increasing the radius of a soap bubble from R to 2R is W. The work done in further increasing its radius from 2R to 3R will be:

  • (A) 5/3 W
  • (B) 4/3 W
  • (C) 7/3 W
  • (D) W

Question 28:

Water flows through a horizontal pipe. At one point, the velocity is 2 m/s and the pressure is 2 m of water column. What is the press another point where the velocity is 3 m/s? (Density of water = 10³ kg/m³)

  • (A) 1.75 m of water
  • (B) 1.2 m of water
  • (C) 1 m of water
  • (D) 1.5 m of water

Question 29:

The rms velocity of hydrogen molecules at 27°C is v. At what temperature will the rms velocity of oxygen molecules equal v ?

  • (A) 4800 K
  • (B) 4527°C
  • (C) 1200 K
  • (D) 27°C

Question 30:

An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process ABCA wherein AB is an isothermal expansion, BC is an isochoric pressure drop, and CA is an adiabatic compression. The work done by the gas in the complete cycle is:

  • (A) Zero
  • (B) Positive
  • (C) Negative
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 31:

A Carnot engine operates between temperatures T₁ and T₂ (T₁ > T₂). If T₁ is increased by ∆T and T₂ is decreased by ∆T, its efficiency will:

  • (A) Increase
  • (B) Decrease
  • (C) Remain constant
  • (D) Depend on the working substance

Question 32:

A particle executes simple harmonic motion of amplitude A and time period T. The time taken by the particle to travel from the mean position to a distance of A/2 is:

  • (A) T/4
  • (B) T/8
  • (C) T/12
  • (D) T/6

Question 33:

% Question
A pendulum clock gives correct time at \(20^\circ\)C. If the coefficient of linear expansion of the pendulum's material is \hspace{0.2cm \alpha = 1.2 \times 10^{-5\ /^\circ\text{C, the clock will lose time per day at \(40^\circ\)C by approximately:

  • (A) 10.4 s
  • (B) 5.2 s
  • (C) 20.8 s
  • (D) 2.6 s

Question 34:

An open pipe resonates with a tuning fork of frequency 500 Hz. It is observed that two successive nodes are separated by 34 cm. The velocity of sound in air is:

  • (A) 330 m/s
  • (B) 340 m/s
  • (C) 350 m/s
  • (D) 360 m/s

Question 35:

A train moving at 20 m/s approaches a stationary observer. The frequency of the whistle emitted by the train is 640 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 340 m/s, the apparent frequency heard by the observer is:

  • (A) 680 Hz
  • (B) 600 Hz
  • (C) 720 Hz
  • (D) 640 Hz

MHT CET PCB Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCB (Physics, Chemistry, Biology) for Pharmacy and Agriculture
Total Questions

200

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marking Scheme 1 mark for each correct answer
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT-CET 2026 PCB Exam Strategy