MHT CET 2026 May 12 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on May 12 in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 12 PM in CBT mode.

The MHT CET 2026 PCM question paper includes the following:

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

MHT CET 2026 May 12 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper with Solution PDF

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MHT CET 2026 May 12 Shift 1 PCM Questions with Solutions


Physics (Q1 - Q50)

Question 1:

If \(\vec{A}=5\hat{i}+2\hat{j}\) and \(\vec{B}=a\hat{i}+3\hat{j}\) are perpendicular to each other, the value of 'a' is

  • (A) \(\frac{-6}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{6}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-4}{5}\)

Question 2:

A particular physical quantity is given by \(X=2\pi \sqrt{\frac{a}{b}}\) and the measured value of 'a' is \(40\) unit with \(0.01\) unit accuracy. The value of 'b' is \(\frac{98}{10}\) unit with \(1\) unit accuracy. The % error in \(X\) is nearly

  • (A) \(4\%\)
  • (B) \(5\%\)
  • (C) \(6\%\)
  • (D) \(7\%\)

Question 3:

Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii \(r_{A}\) and \(r_{B}\) with speeds \(v_{A}\) and \(v_{B}\) respectively. \(T_{A}\) and \(T_{B}\) are the time periods of rotation of the particles respectively and their relation is \(T_{A}=3T_{B}\). The ratio of angular speed of B to that of A will be

  • (A) \(r_{B}:3r_{A}\)
  • (B) \(3r_{B}:r_{A}\)
  • (C) \(1:3\)
  • (D) \(3:1\)

Question 4:

Airplanes A and B are flying with constant velocity in the same vertical plane at angles \(30^{\circ }\) and \(60^{\circ }\) with respect to the horizontal as shown in the figure. The speed of A is \(100\sqrt{3}\) m/s. At time \(t=0\) s, an observer in A finds B at a distance of \(500\) m. This observer sees B moving with a constant velocity perpendicular to the line of motion of A. If at \(t=t_{0}\), A just escapes being hit by B, \(t_{0}\) in second is
\(\{\sin (30)^{\circ }=0.5,\,\cos (30)^{\circ }=3^{0.5}/2\}\)

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 5:

Four solid spheres, each of diameter \(\sqrt{5}\) cm and mass \(0.5\) kg are placed with their centres at the corners of a square of side \(4\) cm. The M.I. of the system about the diagonal of the square is \(N\times 10^{-4}\) kg-m\({}^{2}\), then \(N\) is

  • (A) \(9\)
  • (B) \(7\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 6:

In the case of rotational dynamics, which of the following statements is correct? {\(S\) = linear displacement, \(\alpha\) = angular acceleration, \(r\) = radius vector, \(a\) = linear acceleration, \(L\) = angular momentum, \(p\) = linear momentum, \(\theta\) = angular displacement}

1. \(S=r\times \theta ,a=r\times \alpha ,L=p\times r\)
2. \(S=\theta \times r,a=\alpha \times r,L=r\times p\)
3. \(S=r\cdot \theta ,a=r\cdot \alpha ,L=p\cdot r\)
4. \(S=\omega \times r,a=r\times p,L=r\times f\)

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 7:

Which of the following sentence is true?
a. Moment of a couple is independent of the axis of rotation or the points of application of forces.
b. Moment of a couple produces translational acceleration.
c. Moment of a couple can be balanced by single force.
d. Moment of a couple depends upon the axis of rotation or the points of application of forces.

  • (A) d
  • (B) c
  • (C) b
  • (D) a

Question 8:

Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant from each other, move along a circle of radius R under the action of their gravitational attraction, the speed of each particle is \(\{\sin (45)^{0}=\cos (45)^{\circ }=1/(2)^{0.5}\}\)

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{GM}{R}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2\sqrt{2}\frac{GM}{R}}\)
  • (C) \(v=\sqrt{\frac{GM}{R}(1+2\sqrt{2})}\)
  • (D) \(v=\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{\frac{GM}{R}(1+2\sqrt{2})}\)

Question 9:

A vessel contains oil (density\(=0.6\) g/cm\({}^{3}\)) over mercury (density\(=13.6\) g/cm\({}^{3}\)). A homogeneous sphere floats with half its volume immersed in mercury and the remaining half in oil. The density of the material of the sphere in g/cm\({}^{3}\) is

  • (A) \(6.8\)
  • (B) \(6.3\)
  • (C) \(7.1\)
  • (D) \(7.2\)

Question 10:

In a hydraulic press, the small cylinder has a diameter of \(d_{1}\) cm, while the large cylinder has a diameter of \(d_{2}\) cm. If a force \(F_{1}\) is applied to a piston of small cylinder, then the force on the piston of large cylinder \(F_{2}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{d_{1}^{2}}{d_{2}^{2}}\frac{1}{F_{1}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{d_{1}^{2}}{d_{2}^{2}}F_{1}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{d_{2}^{2}}{d_{1}^{2}}\frac{1}{F_{1}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{d_{2}^{2}}{d_{1}^{2}}F_{1}\)

Question 11:

A rectangular film of liquid is expanded from (\(6\) cm \(\times 5\) cm) to (\(8\) cm \(\times 9\) cm). If the work done is \(4\times 10^{-4}\) J, the surface tension of the liquid is

  • (A) \(0.04\frac{N}{m}\)
  • (B) \(0.05\frac{N}{m}\)
  • (C) \(0.06\frac{N}{m}\)
  • (D) \(0.07\frac{N}{m}\)

Question 12:

Three spheres, P, Q and R, having radii \(4\) m, \(5\) m and \(6\) m respectively, are coated with lamp black on their outer surfaces. The wavelengths corresponding to maximum intensity (radiated) are \(400\) nm, \(500\) nm and \(600\) nm respectively. If the powers radiated by them are \(P_{P}\), \(P_{Q}\) and \(P_{R}\) respectively, then \(P_{P}:P_{Q}:P_{R}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4}:\frac{1}{5}:\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{16}:\frac{1}{25}:\frac{1}{36}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{64}:\frac{1}{125}:\frac{1}{216}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{256}:\frac{1}{625}:\frac{1}{1296}\)

Question 13:

Three rods made of the same material and the same cross-sectional areas have been joined as shown in the figure. Each rod is of the same length. The temperature of the junction is

  • (A) \(60^{\circ }\text{C}\)
  • (B) \(45^{\circ }\text{C}\)
  • (C) \(30^{\circ }\text{C}\)
  • (D) \(20^{\circ }\text{C}\)

Question 14:

For any thermodynamic process, the work done by the system depends

  • (A) only on intial state of the system.
  • (B) both on initial and final state of the system.
  • (C) on the initial state and final state and on the path along which the change takes place.
  • (D) only on intermediate state.

Question 15:

One mole of a mono-atomic ideal gas is taken through a cycle ABCDA as shown in the P-V diagram, then

  • (A) for process A to B, heat is lost and internal energy increases.
  • (B) for process B to C, heat is lost and internal energy increases.
  • (C) for process C to D, heat is gained and internal energy increases.
  • (D) for process D to A, heat is gained and internal energy increases.

Question 16:

The difference between two molar specific heats of a gas is \(7000\) J-kg\({}^{-1}\)-K\({}^{-1}\). If the ratio of two specific heats of gas is \(7/5\), the molar specific heat of the gas at constant pressure in J-kg\({}^{-1}\)-K\({}^{-1}\) is

  • (A) \(17500\)
  • (B) \(18500\)
  • (C) \(24500\)
  • (D) \(25500\)

Question 17:

The pressure of a given mass of a gas is decreased by \(20\%\) at constant temperature, then its volume will

  • (A) decrease by \(20\%\).
  • (B) increase by \(20\%\).
  • (C) decrease by \(25\%\).
  • (D) increase by \(25\%\)

Question 18:

A particle performing S.H.M., has a period of \(12\) s. The particle starts from a mean position. The ratio of distances travelled by the particle in the first and second second is \(\{\cos (\pi /6)=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\}\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}-1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}-1}\)

Question 19:

A simple harmonic oscillator having four identical springs (as shown in figure) has a time period \(T_{1}\). Another similar simple harmonic oscillator of the same mass \(m\) but the four identical springs with spring constants \(2k\) has a time period \(T_{2}\), then \(\frac{T_{1}}{T_{2}}\) is

  • (A) \(2:1\)
  • (B) \(1:\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{2}:1\)
  • (D) \(1:2\)

Question 20:

Two particles performing simple harmonic motions of maximum accelerations, \(1\) m/s\({}^{2}\) and \(100\) m/s\({}^{2}\), have the same amplitudes. The ratio of their angular frequencies is

  • (A) \(1:100\)
  • (B) \(1:10\)
  • (C) \(1:1000\)
  • (D) \(1:1\)

Question 21:

A simple harmonic progressive wave is given by the equation \(y=a\sin 2\pi \left(nt-\frac{x}{\lambda }\right)\). If the wave velocity is equal to \(\frac{1}{6}\times\) (maximum particle velocity), then the wavelength \(\lambda\) is \(\{a=\) amplitude, \(n=\) frequency, \(t=\) time, \(y=\) displacement, \(x=\) distance\(\}\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi a}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi a}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3\pi a}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2\pi a}{3}\)

Question 22:

Two simple harmonic progressive waves have displacements \(y_{1}=5\,\sin \left(\frac{2\pi x}{\lambda }-\omega t\right)\) and \(y_{2}=5\,\cos \left(\frac{2\pi x}{\lambda }-\omega t+\frac{\pi }{6}\right)\). The phase difference between the two waves is

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi }{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi }{6}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2\pi }{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3\pi }{2}\)

Question 23:

A pipe closed at one end vibrating in the sixth overtone is in unison with the open pipe vibrating in its sixth overtone. The ratio \(l_{c}:l_{o}\) is \(\{l_{c}=\) vibrating length of pipe closed at one end, \(l_{o}=\) vibrating length of pipe open at both ends\(\}\)

  • (A) \(13:14\)
  • (B) \(14:13\)
  • (C) \(11:12\)
  • (D) \(12:11\)

Question 24:

A whistle giving out \(400\) Hz approaches a stationary observer at a speed of \(34\) m/s. The frequency heard by the observer (in Hz) is nearly (speed of sound\(=340\) m/s)

  • (A) \(400\)
  • (B) \(500\)
  • (C) \(444\)
  • (D) \(555\)

Question 25:

The equal charges (say 'q') are placed at a distance of \(4r\) and a third charge \((-2q)\) is placed at a mid-point. The potential energy of the system is (\(\epsilon _{0}=\) permittivity of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{-9q^{2}}{8\pi \epsilon _{0}r}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{9q^{2}}{8\pi \epsilon _{0}r}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{-7q^{2}}{16\pi \epsilon _{0}r}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{7q^{2}}{16\pi \epsilon _{0}r}\)

Question 26:

A charge \(q\) is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges \(Q\). The system of the three charges will be in equilibrium if \(q\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\frac{-Q}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{-Q}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{Q}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{Q}{2}\)

Question 27:

A parallel plate air capacitor consists of two metal plates of area \(A\) and separation \(d\). A slab of thickness \(t\) and dielectric constant \(2k\) is inserted between the plates with its faces parallel to the plates. The effective capacitance of the system is (\(\epsilon _{0}=\) permittivity of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{\epsilon _{0}A}{(d-t)+\frac{t}{2k}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\epsilon _{0}A}{(d-t)-\frac{t}{k}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\epsilon _{0}A}{(2d-t)-\frac{t}{2k}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\epsilon _{0}A}{(d-2t)-\frac{t}{k}}\)

Question 28:

When the dielectric is placed in an external electric field, the electric field inside the dielectric is

  • (A) larger than the external electric field.
  • (B) less than the external electric field.
  • (C) equal to the external electric field.
  • (D) equal to or greater than external electric field.

Question 29:

Two cells of e.m.f.s approximately \(5\) V and \(10\) V are to be compared using a potentiometer (sum and difference method) of length \(400\) cm, then,

  • (A) first portion of \(110\) cm of wire should have a potential difference of \(10\) V.
  • (B) a battery that runs the potentiometer should have a voltage of \(5\) V.
  • (C) a battery that runs the potentiometer should have a voltage of more than \(15\) V.
  • (D) a battery that runs the potentiometer should have a voltage of \(10\) V.

Question 30:

The value of shunt resistance that allows \(5\%\) of the main current through the galvanometer of \(100\Omega\) is nearly

  • (A) \(4\Omega\).
  • (B) \(5\Omega\).
  • (C) \(7\Omega\).
  • (D) \(8\Omega\).

Question 31:

An electron is moving with initial velocity \(\vec{v}=a\hat{k}\) in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}=b\hat{j}\). Its de-Broglie wavelength will

  • (A) decrease and increase periodically.
  • (B) increase with time.
  • (C) decrease with time.
  • (D) remain constant.

Question 32:

A charge \(q\) is circulating at a constant speed \(v\) with a semicircular loop of radius \(r\). The magnetic moment of this loop is

  • (A) \((qv\pi r)/(\pi +2)\)
  • (B) \(qvr/3\)
  • (C) \((\pi rqv)/2(\pi +2)\)
  • (D) \(qvr\)

Question 33:

A charged particle of mass \(m\) and charge \(q\) travels on a circular path, (of radius \(5\) unit) is perpendicular to a magnetic field \(B\). The time taken by a particle to complete \(10\) revolutions is

  • (A) \(10\pi m/qB\)
  • (B) \(20\pi m/qB\)
  • (C) \(\pi m/qB\)
  • (D) \(5\pi m/qB\)

Question 34:

Two long straight parallel wires are separated by a distance of \(20\) cm. Each wire carries current \(5\) mA in the same direction. The magnetic field at a point P midway between them is \(\{\mu _{0}=\) permeability of free space\(\}\)

  • (A) \(0.05\mu _{0}\) Wb/m\({}^{2}\)
  • (B) \((0.05/8)\mu _{0}\) Wb/m\({}^{2}\)
  • (C) \((0.05/4)\mu _{0}\) Wb/m\({}^{2}\)
  • (D) zero.

Question 35:

Two inductors, \(L_{1}\) and \(L_{2}\), are connected in parallel and time-varying current flows the combination. If \(I_{1}\) and \(I_{2}\) are the currents passing through the inductor \(L_{1}\) and \(L_{2}\) respectively, the ratio \(\frac{I_{2}}{I_{1}}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{L_{1}}{L_{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{L_{1}}{L_{2}^{2}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{L_{2}}{L_{1}^{2}}\)

Question 36:

Two conducting circular loops of radii \(r\) and \(2r\) are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. The mutual inductance \(M\) between them is {same current is passing through both the coils} (\(\mu _{0}=\) permeability of free space)

  • (A) \(\pi \mu _{0}r\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\mu _{0}\pi r}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\mu _{0}\pi r}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\mu _{0}\pi r}{8}\)

Question 37:

A conducting rod AB of length \(l\) is rotated about point O which lies between point A and B in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) directed into the paper. If length \(AO=\frac{l}{3}\), then \((V_{A}-V_{B})\) is \(\{\omega =\) angular velocity\(\}\)

  • (A) \(\frac{5Bl^{2}\omega }{6}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{6Bl^{2}\omega }{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{Bl^{2}\omega }{6}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{Bl^{2}\omega }{3}\)

Question 38:

By combining three inductances, \(2\) H, \(4\) H and \(6\) H, the minimum value of effective inductance that can be obtained is (in H)

  • (A) \(12/11\)
  • (B) \(11/12\)
  • (C) \(5/12\)
  • (D) \(12/5\)

Question 39:

An e.m.f. \(e=E_{0}\cos \omega t\) is applied to a circuit containing L, C and R in series where \(X_{L}=4R\) and \(X_{C}=R\). The average power dissipated in the circuit is

  • (A) \(\frac{E_{0}^{2}}{20R}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{E_{0}^{2}}{10R}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{E_{0}^{2}}{5R}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{E_{0}^{2}}{2R}\)

Question 40:

In a series LCR circuit, the inductance \(L=20\) mH, capacitor \(C=2\mu\)F and resistance \(R=100\) ohm. The frequency at which resonance occurs is

  • (A) \(\frac{(10)^{2}}{2\pi }\)
  • (B) \(\frac{(10)^{3}}{3\pi }\)
  • (C) \(\frac{(10)^{4}}{4\pi }\)
  • (D) \(\frac{10}{\pi }\)

Question 41:

A bi-convex lens is formed with two thin plano-convex lenses as shown in the figure. Refractive index of the first lens is \(1.5\) and that of second is \(1.2\). Both the curved surfaces are of the same radius of curvature \(R=14\) cm. For an object distance of \(40\) cm, the image distance will be

  • (A) \(280.0\) cm
  • (B) \(13.3\) cm
  • (C) \(21.5\) cm
  • (D) \(40.0\) cm

Question 42:

Resolving power of a telescope can be increased by

  • (A) increasing the diameter of objective.
  • (B) decreasing the diameter of the objective
  • (C) increasing the distance between the objects which have to be seen through the telescope.
  • (D) decreasing the the distance between the objects which have to be seen through the telescope.

Question 43:

Unpolarized light with intensity \(I_{0}\) passes through three polaroids such that the transmission axis of the last polaroid is crossed with the first. If the intensity of emerging light is \(I_{1}\left(I_{1}=\frac{3}{32}I_{0}\right)\). The angle between the first two polaroids and the angle for which the transmitted intensity is maximum are respectively \(\{\)given, \(\cos (90)=0\}\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\sin ^{-1}\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) and \(45^{\circ }\)
  • (B) \(\sin ^{-1}\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) and \(90^{\circ }\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\cos ^{-1}\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) and \(45^{\circ }\)
  • (D) \(\cos ^{-1}\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) and \(90^{\circ }\)

Question 44:

In Young's double slit experiment, the fringe width is \(2.4\) mm with light of wavelength \(9000\) A.U. If the light of wavelength \(5400\) A.U. is used, with no other change in the experimental set up. The change in fringe width is

  • (A) \(0.86\) mm
  • (B) \(0.96\) mm
  • (C) \(0.86\) cm
  • (D) \(0.96\) cm

Question 45:

A photon of energy \(10\) units ejects a photo-electron from a metal surface whose work function is \(\Phi _{0}\). If an electron(e) having maximum kinetic energy enters into a uniform magnetic field of induction(B) in a direction perpendicular to the field and describes a circular path of radius R, then radius R is {\(m=\)mass of electron}

  • (A) \(R=\frac{\sqrt{2m(15-\Phi _{0})}}{eB}\)
  • (B) \(R=\frac{\sqrt{m(10-\Phi _{0})}}{eB}\)
  • (C) \(R=\frac{\sqrt{2m(10-\Phi _{0})}}{eB}\)
  • (D) \(R=\frac{\sqrt{2m(10-\Phi _{0})}}{5eB}\)

Question 46:

Which of the following transition in hydrogen atom emits photon of highest frequency?

  • (A) \(n=5\) to \(n=2\)
  • (B) \(n=2\) to \(n=5\)
  • (C) \(n=2\) to \(n=3\)
  • (D) \(n=3\) to \(n=2\)

Question 47:

In transition 'a', three \(\alpha\) particles and two \(\beta\) particles are emitted in succession from the element \({}_{86}X^{226}\). In transition 'b', two gamma rays, one \(\beta\) particle and two \(\alpha\) particles are emitted in succession from element \({}_{96}Y^{236}\). The atomic number and the mass number of the new elements formed respectively are

  • (A) a) for first transition:- atomic number \(=83\), mass number \(=216\) b) for the second transition:- atomic number \(=82\), mass number \(=214\)
  • (B) a) for first transition:- atomic number \(=80\), mass number \(=225\) b) for the second transition:- atomic number \(=90\), mass number \(=220\)
  • (C) a) for first transition:- atomic number \(=82\), mass number \(=214\) b) for the second transition:- atomic number \(=93\), mass number \(=228\)
  • (D) a) for first transition:- atomic number \(=80\), mass number \(=214\) b) for the second transition:- atomic number \(=90\), mass number \(=226\)

Question 48:

The truth table for the system of four NAND gates as shown in the figure is

  • (A)
    ABY
    001
    011
    100
    110
  • (B)
    ABY
    001
    010
    100
    111
  • (C)
    ABY
    000
    011
    101
    110
  • (D)
    ABY
    000
    010
    101
    111

Question 49:

A LED emits visible light when its

  • (A) junction is hot.
  • (B) holes and electrons recombine.
  • (C) depletion region widens.
  • (D) junction is reverse biased.

Question 50:

In one branch, \(40\Omega\) resistance and a p-n junction diode are connected in series and in another branch, \(40\Omega\) resistance is connected. Both the branches are connected in parallel to each other. The total resistance of the circuit when a) diode is forward biased and when b) diode is reverse biased respectively are {consider the p-n junction diode as an ideal diode}

  • (A) \(40\Omega\) and \(20\Omega\)
  • (B) \(60\Omega\) and \(30\Omega\)
  • (C) \(20\Omega\) and \(40\Omega\)
  • (D) \(30\Omega\) and \(60\Omega\)

Chemistry (Q51 - Q100)

Question 51:

Which of the following substances contains the maximum number of atoms?
(molar mass in g mol\({}^{-1}\) - \(\text{CO}_{2}=44\), \(\text{H}_{2}=2\), \(\text{Cr}=51.99\), \(\text{Cl}_{2}=71\))

  • (A) \(14.0\) g of Carbon dioxide.
  • (B) \(2.0\) g of dihydrogen
  • (C) \(12.0\) g of Chromium
  • (D) \(35.5\) g of chlorine gas

Question 52:

Identify a set of isoelectronic species from the following.

  • (A) \(\text{Na}^{+},\text{Cl}^{-},\text{O}^{-},\text{NO}^{+}\)
  • (B) \(\text{N}_{2}\text{O},\text{N}_{2}\text{O}_{4},\text{NO}^{+},\text{NO}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Na}^{+},\text{Mg}^{2+},\text{O}^{-},\text{F}^{-}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Ca}^{2+},\text{Ar},\text{K}^{+},\text{Cl}^{-}\)

Question 53:

Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is incorrect for an electron in an atom?

  • (A) \(n=1,l=0,m=0,s=+1/2\)
  • (B) \(n=2,l=1,m=0,s=-1/2\)
  • (C) \(n=3,l=1,m=0,s=-1/2\)
  • (D) \(n=2,l=2,m=1,s=+1/2\)

Question 54:

Which of the following elements of group \(17\) has the highest negative electron gain enthalpy?

  • (A) Fluorine
  • (B) Chlorine
  • (C) Bromine
  • (D) Iodine

Question 55:

A hot air balloon has a volume of \(2800\) dm\({}^{3}\) at \(100{}^{\circ }\)C. What is the volume if air cools to \(27{}^{\circ }\)C?

  • (A) \(2252\) dm\({}^{3}\).
  • (B) \(2450\) dm\({}^{3}\).
  • (C) \(2656\) dm\({}^{3}\).
  • (D) \(2912\) dm\({}^{3}\)

Question 56:

For a certain reaction, change in enthalpy is \(-225\) kJ and entropy change \(=-150\) JK\({}^{-1}\). Find the temperature so that \(\Delta G\) is zero.

  • (A) \(350\) K
  • (B) \(1500\) K
  • (C) \(105\) K
  • (D) \(1800\) K

Question 57:

Calculate \(\Delta _{f}H\) for \(\text{C}(s)+2\text{H}_{2}(g)\rightarrow \text{CH}_{4}(g)\)
i. \(\text{C}(s)+\text{O}_{2}(g)\rightarrow \text{CO}_{2}(g);\Delta H_{1}=-393.5\) kJ/mol
ii. \(\text{H}_{2}(g)+1/2\text{O}_{2}(g)\rightarrow \text{H}_{2}\text{O}(l);\Delta H_{2}=-285.8\) kJ/mol
iii. \(\text{CH}_{4}(g)+2\text{O}_{2}(g)\rightarrow \text{CO}_{2}(g)+2\text{H}_{2}\text{O}(l);\Delta H_{3}=-890.3\) kJ/mol

  • (A) \(-1855.4\) kJ/mol
  • (B) \(-211\) kJ/mol
  • (C) \(-74.8\) kJ/mol
  • (D) \(1068.4\) kJ/mol

Question 58:

Which of the following enthalpy change is negative?

  • (A) Enthalpy of fusion
  • (B) Enthalpy of condensation
  • (C) Enthaly of vaporization
  • (D) Enthalpy of sublimation

Question 59:

Calculate the pH of \(10^{-8}\) M HCl solution at \(25{}^{\circ }\)C.

  • (A) \(8.0\)
  • (B) \(7.0\)
  • (C) \(6.9586\)
  • (D) \(7.0414\)

Question 60:

What is the \(\text{P}^{OH}\) of solution having \([\text{H}_{3}\text{O}^{+}]1\times 10^{-4}\) at \(298\) K?

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(10\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(12\)

Question 61:

Which of the following is a strong electrolyte?

  • (A) Acetic acid
  • (B) Ammonium hydroxide
  • (C) Sodium chloride
  • (D) Carbonic acid

Question 62:

Which among \(\text{F}_{2}\), \(\text{Cl}_{2}\), \(\text{Br}_{2}\) and \(\text{I}_{2}\) exhibit disproportionation reaction?

  • (A) \(\text{F}_{2}\) and \(\text{Cl}_{2}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Cl}_{2},\text{Br}_{2}\) and \(\text{I}_{2}\)
  • (C) Only \(\text{I}_{2}\)
  • (D) \(\text{F}_{2},\text{Cl}_{2}\) and \(\text{Br}_{2}\)

Question 63:

Consider the following compounds : \(\underline{\text{K}}\text{O}_{2}\), \(\text{H}_{2}\underline{\text{O}}_{2}\) and \(\text{H}_{2}\underline{\text{S}}\text{O}_{4}\). The oxidation state of the underlined elements in them are, respectively,

  • (A) \(+1,-2\) and \(+4\)
  • (B) \(+4,-4\) and \(+6\)
  • (C) \(+1,-1\) and \(+6\)
  • (D) \(+2,-2\) and \(+6\)

Question 64:

What is the number of neutrons present in tritium?

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 65:

What type of isomerism is exhibited by compounds \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{-CH}_{2}\text{-O-CH}_{2}\text{-CH}_{3}\) and \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{-CH}_{2}\text{-CH}_{2}\text{-O-CH}_{3}\)?

  • (A) Metamerism
  • (B) Tautomerism
  • (C) Chain isomerism
  • (D) Position isomerism

Question 66:

Which of the following catalysts is used in the hydrogenation of vegetable oil?

  • (A) \(\text{NO}_{(g)}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Fe}_{(s)}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Ni}_{(s)}\)
  • (D) \(\text{K}_{2}\text{O},\text{Al}_{2}\text{O}_{3(s)}\)

Question 67:

A compound is formed by two elements A and B. The elements B forms cubic close packed structure and atoms of A occupy \(1/3\)rd of tetrahedral voids. If the formula of the compound is \(A_{x}B_{y}\), then find the value of \((x+y)\).

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 68:

What is the maximum number of nearest neighbors for a given lattice point in the hcp structure?

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(8\)
  • (D) \(12\)

Question 69:

Calculate the amount of KCl that should be added to \(100\) g of pure water to decrease the freezing point of water by \(0.3535\) K, if \(K_{f}\) for water is \(1.86\) K kg mol\({}^{-1}\).
[Degree of dissociation of KCl (\(\alpha\)) \(=0.9\), Molar mass of KCl \(=74.5\) g/mol]

  • (A) \(7.45\) g
  • (B) \(0.745\) g
  • (C) \(3.725\) g
  • (D) \(0.3725\) g

Question 70:

Calculate the temperature of the solution in which a solution containing \(10\) g solute in \(0.4\) dm\({}^{3}\) has an osmotic pressure of \(3.4\) atm.
[Molar mass of solute \(=180\) g mol\({}^{-1}\), \(R=0.082\) atm dm\({}^{3}\) K\({}^{-1}\)mol\({}^{-1}\)]

  • (A) \(25.5{}^{\circ }\)C.
  • (B) \(20.2{}^{\circ }\)C.
  • (C) \(27.5{}^{\circ }\)C.
  • (D) \(30.7{}^{\circ }\)C.

Question 71:

Which of the following binary solution exhibits higher vapor pressure than the vapour pressure of its pure components at same temprecure?

  • (A) Benzene + Toluene
  • (B) Phenol + aniline
  • (C) ethanol + acetone
  • (D) chloroform + acetone

Question 72:

What is the mole fraction of ethanol in solution containing \(46\) g of ethanol and \(180\) g of water?
(Molar mass of ethanol \(=46\) g mol\({}^{-1}\), Molar mass of water \(=18\) g mol\({}^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(0.25\)
  • (B) \(0.09\)
  • (C) \(0.15\)
  • (D) \(0.05\)

Question 73:

What is the SI unit of molar conductivity?

  • (A) \(\text{S m}^{2}\text{mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(\Omega ^{-1}\text{cm}^{2}\text{mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Sm}^{-2}\text{mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(\Omega ^{-1}\text{cm}^{-2}\text{mol}^{-1}\)

Question 74:

Calculate \(E_{cell}^{o}\) of the following cell at \(298\) K.
\(\text{Pb}_{(s)}|\text{Pb}_{(aq)}^{+2}||\text{Ag}_{(aq)}^{+}|\text{Ag}_{(s)}\)
\(E^{o}\text{Pb}^{+2}/\text{Pb}=-0.126\) V, \(E^{o}\text{Ag}^{+}/\text{Ag}=+0.799\) V

  • (A) \(-0.925\) V
  • (B) \(0.936\) V
  • (C) \(0.925\) V
  • (D) \(0.673\) V

Question 75:

The standard electrode potential for \(\text{Ag}_{(aq)}^{+}+e^{-}\rightarrow \text{Ag}_{(s)}\) is \(0.79\) V. What is the standard potential for the reaction: \(2\text{Ag}_{(s)}\rightarrow 2\text{Ag}_{(aq)}^{+}+2e^{-}\).

  • (A) \(+1.58\) V
  • (B) \(-1.58\) V
  • (C) \(+0.79\) V
  • (D) \(-0.79\) V

Question 76:

In a reaction, \(2A_{(g)}\rightarrow\) Products, the rate law is \(r=k[A]^{2}\). Calculate the rate constant if the rate of reaction is \(6.5\times 10^{-6}\) mol L\({}^{-1}\) S\({}^{-1}\) and \([A]\) is \(2\times 10^{-3}\) mol/L.

  • (A) \(1.625\) mol\({}^{-1}\)L s\({}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(2.521\) mol\({}^{-1}\)L s\({}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(3.125\) mol\({}^{-1}\)L s\({}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(2.015\) mol\({}^{-1}\)L s\({}^{-1}\)

Question 77:

What is the half life of a first order reaction if the value of the rate constant is \(3.0\times 10^{-2}\text{s}^{-1}\)?

  • (A) \(0.231\) s
  • (B) \(2.31\) s
  • (C) \(23.1\) s
  • (D) \(231\) s

Question 78:

Which of the following types of nanostructures, the thin film is?

  • (A) zero dimensional nano structure
  • (B) one dimensional nano structure
  • (C) two dimensional nano structure
  • (D) three dimensional nano structure

Question 79:

What is the number of metallic allotrops of polonium?

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 80:

Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism?

  • (A) \(\text{MnO}_{4}^{-}\)
  • (B) \(\text{MnO}_{4}^{-2}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CrO}_{4}^{-2}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Cr}_{2}\text{O}_{7}^{-2}\)

Question 81:

Which of the following electronic configurations is of an element lanthanum?

  • (A) \([\text{Xe}]4f^{3}5d^{0}6s^{2}\)
  • (B) \([\text{Rn}]5f^{4}6d^{1}7s^{2}\)
  • (C) \([\text{Xe}]4f^{7}5d^{1}6s^{2}\)
  • (D) \([\text{Xe}]4f^{0}5d^{1}6s^{2}\)

Question 82:

Which of the following type of isomerism is found in compounds \([\text{Co}(\text{NH}_{3})_{5}(\text{NO}_{2})]\) and \([\text{Co}(\text{NH}_{3})_{5}(\text{ONO})]\)?

  • (A) Geometrical isomerism
  • (B) linkage isomerism
  • (C) Optical isomerism
  • (D) Coordination isomerism

Question 83:

What is the number of electron pairs involved in the formation of coordinate bonds in cisplatin?

  • (A) \(6\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 84:

Why does Chlorobenzene exhibit very low reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?

  • (A) Formation of phenyl cation is highly stable.
  • (B) It contains a strong C-Cl bond with partial double-bond character.
  • (C) It easily forms \(SN^{1}\) intermediate.
  • (D) The C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene is very weak.

Question 85:

Which of the following compounds is obtained using Wurtz synthesis?

  • (A) \(\text{R}_{2}\text{C}=\text{CR}_{2}\)
  • (B) \(\text{H}_{3}\text{C-CH}_{3}\)
  • (C) R-COOH
  • (D) R-OH

Question 86:

Identify the product obtained when alkyl magnesium halides are reacted with water.

  • (A) Haloforms
  • (B) Alkyl halides
  • (C) Alcohols
  • (D) Alkanes

Question 87:

Identify false statements regarding the properties of alcohol and phenol.

  • (A) Aqueous solution of alcohol is neutral to litmus.
  • (B) An aqueous solution of phenol turns blue litmus red.
  • (C) Alcohols and phenols do not form intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
  • (D) Phenols and lower alcohols have appreciable solubility in water.

Question 88:

Identify the increasing order of boiling points for the compounds stated below.
(A) n-Propyl alcohol
(B) n-Butyl alcohol
(C) Isopropyl alcohol
(D) Isobutyl alcohol

  • (A) \((A)\lt (B)\lt (C)\lt (D)\).
  • (B) \((C)\lt (A)\lt (D)\lt (B)\).
  • (C) \((B)\lt (D)\lt (A)\lt (C)\).
  • (D) \((C)\lt (A)\lt (B)\lt (D)\).

Question 89:

Which of the following reactions is NOT used for preparation of alkyl halide?

  • (A) \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{-CH}_{2}\text{-OH}+\text{HBr}\xrightarrow{\text{NaBr}/\text{H}_{2}\text{SO}_{4}}\)
  • (B) \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{-CH}_{2}\text{-OH}+\text{HCl}\) (anhydrous \(\text{ZnCl}_{2}\)) \(\rightarrow\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{-CH}_{2}\text{-OH}+\text{NaCl}\rightarrow\)
  • (D) \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{-CH}_{2}\text{-OH}+\text{PCl}_{3}\rightarrow\)

Question 90:

\(\text{C}=\text{O}_{\text{(Carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones)}}+4[H]\xrightarrow[\Delta ]{\text{Zn-Hg, conc. HCl}}\underset{\text{(Methylene group)}}{-\text{CH}_{2}}+\text{H}_{2}\text{O}\)
Identify the name of above reaction.

  • (A) Mendius reduction
  • (B) Clemmensen Reduction
  • (C) Wolf-Kishner reduction
  • (D) Hofmann degradation

Question 91:

Which of the following statements regarding aldol condensation is TRUE?

  • (A) It is a nucleophilic addition elimination reaction.
  • (B) It is self redox reaction.
  • (C) It is a disproportionation reaction.
  • (D) It is exhibited by lower aldehydes only.

Question 92:

Which of the following aldehydes exhibits Cannizzaro reaction when heated with strong alkali?

  • (A) Benzaldehyde
  • (B) Acetaldehyde
  • (C) Propionaldehyde
  • (D) Butyraldehyde

Question 93:

Which of the following reagents forms semicarbazone when treated with ketones?

  • (A) Hydroxyl amine
  • (B) Hydrazine
  • (C) Phenyl hydrazine
  • (D) Semicarbazide

Question 94:

Which of the following amines is obtained by using Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?

  • (A) \(\text{Ar-NH}_{2}\)
  • (B) \(\text{R-NH}_{2}\)
  • (C) \((\text{R})_{2}\text{-NH}\)
  • (D) \((\text{R})_{3}\text{-N}\)

Question 95:

Identify IUPAC name for aniline.

  • (A) Phenyl amine
  • (B) Amino benzene
  • (C) Benzyl amine
  • (D) Benzenamine

Question 96:

Which of the following statements regarding proteins are correct?
(A) Serum albumin is a globular protein.
(B) Myosin is a globular protein.
(C) Insulin is a fibrous protein.
(D) Legumelin is a globular protein.

  • (A) (A) and (D) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (C) and (D) only.

Question 97:

Which of the following compounds exists as dipolar ion?

  • (A) Ketones
  • (B) \(\alpha\)-Amino acids
  • (C) Carbohydrates
  • (D) Fatty acids

Question 98:

Which of the following compounds is used to obtain bakelite?

  • (A) Melamine and formaldehyde
  • (B) \(1,3\) - butadiene and styrene
  • (C) Phenol and formaldehyde
  • (D) Chloroprene and neoprene

Question 99:

Which of the following polymers is known as nylon?

  • (A) polyesters
  • (B) polythene
  • (C) polystyrene
  • (D) Polyamide polymers

Question 100:

Which of the following is used as pain-killer?

  • (A) dettol
  • (B) chloroxylenol
  • (C) paracetamol
  • (D) \(2,4,6\)-trichlorophenol

Mathematics (Q101 - Q150)

Question 101:

The Range of the function \(y=\log (\sin x)\), defined for all \(x\) such that \(\sin x>0\) is ...

  • (A) \((-\infty ,0]\)
  • (B) \((-\infty ,0)\)
  • (C) \(R\)
  • (D) \((0,\infty )\)

Question 102:

If \(\sin x\cos x=\frac{1}{4}\), then the general solution of the equation is ...

  • (A) \(x=\frac{n\pi }{2}+(-1)^{n}\frac{\pi }{6},n\in Z\)
  • (B) \(x=\frac{n\pi }{2}+(-1)^{n}\frac{\pi }{12},n\in Z\)
  • (C) \(x=\frac{n\pi }{4}+(-1)^{n}\frac{\pi }{12},n\in Z\)
  • (D) \(x=\frac{n\pi }{2}+(-1)^{n}\frac{\pi }{3},n\in Z\)

Question 103:

If \(\tan \theta +\tan 2\theta +\tan 3\theta =\tan \theta \tan 2\theta \tan 3\theta\), then the most general value of \(\theta\) for which all terms in the equation are defined is ...

  • (A) \(\theta =\frac{n\pi }{6},n\in Z\)
  • (B) \(\theta =\frac{n\pi }{3},n\in Z\)
  • (C) \(\theta =\frac{n\pi }{2},n\in Z\)
  • (D) \(\theta =n\pi \pm \frac{\pi }{3},n\in Z\)

Question 104:

In \(\Delta ABC\), with usual notations, if \(\sin B-\cos C=\cos A\), then

  • (A) \(a^{2},b^{2},c^{2}\) form an Arithmetic Progression
  • (B) \(b^{2},c^{2},a^{2}\) form a Geometric Progression
  • (C) \(a^{2}=b^{2}+c^{2}\)
  • (D) \(b^{2}=a^{2}+c^{2}\)

Question 105:

In \(\Delta ABC\), with usual notations, if \(1-\tan \frac{A}{2}\cdot \tan \frac{C}{2}=\frac{b}{k}\), then \(k=\) ...

  • (A) \(s\)
  • (B) \(2s\)
  • (C) \((s-a)\)
  • (D) \((s-a)(s-b)\)

Question 106:

If \(n\in Z\), then the expression \(\frac{2^{n}}{(1-i)^{2n}}+\frac{(1+i)^{2n}}{2^{n}}\) is equal to ...

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \([1+(-1)^{n}]i^{n}\)
  • (D) \(2i^{n}\)

Question 107:

If \(\frac{(n+3)!}{(n^{2}-4)(n+1)!}=\frac{11}{6}\), for \(n\in N,n\neq 2\), then the value of \(3n-20\) is equal to ...

  • (A) \(8\)
  • (B) \(10\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 108:

A line passes through the points \(O(0,0),A(3,3)\). Then the polar coordinates of point A are ...

  • (A) \(\left(3\sqrt{3},\frac{\pi ^{c}}{4}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\left(3\sqrt{2},\frac{\pi ^{c}}{3}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\left(3\sqrt{2},\frac{\pi ^{c}}{4}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\left(2\sqrt{2},\frac{\pi ^{c}}{4}\right)\)

Question 109:

The coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular from the point \((2,3)\) on the line \(x+y-11=0\) are ...

  • (A) \((-6,5)\)
  • (B) \((5,6)\)
  • (C) \((-5,6)\)
  • (D) \((6,5)\)

Question 110:

If the sum of the slopes of the line represented by \(x^{2}+kxy-3y^{2}=0\) is twice their product, then the acute angle between the lines \(x^{2}+kxy\cos ec\alpha +y^{2}=0\) is ...

  • (A) \(\alpha\)
  • (B) \(2\alpha\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi }{2}+\alpha\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi }{2}-\alpha\)

Question 111:

The standard parametric equations of the circle \(x^{2}+y^{2}-4x-6y-12=0\) are ...

  • (A) \(x=2+5\,\cos \theta ,y=3+5\,\sin \theta\)
  • (B) \(x=-2+5\,\cos \theta ,y=-3+5\,\sin \theta\)
  • (C) \(x=2+12\,\cos \theta ,y=3+12\,\sin \theta\)
  • (D) \(x=3+5\,\cos \theta ,y=2+5\,\sin \theta\)

Question 112:

The area of the triangle formed by the vertex and the endpoints of the latus rectum of the parabola \(x^{2}=-18y\) is ...

  • (A) \(\frac{81}{4}\) square units.
  • (B) \(\frac{81}{2}\) square units
  • (C) \(\frac{81}{3}\) square units
  • (D) \(81\) square units

Question 113:

\(\lim _{x\rightarrow 1}\left[\frac{2^{2x-2}-2^{x}+1}{\sin ^{2}(x-1)}\right]=\)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \((\log 2)^{2}\)
  • (C) \(\log 2\)
  • (D) \(2\,\log 2\)

Question 114:

Symbolic form of the circuit

  • (A) \(p\rightarrow q\)
  • (B) \(p\vee q\)
  • (C) \(\sim (p\wedge q)\)
  • (D) \(q\rightarrow p\)

Question 115:

The dual statement of "\(x=1\) only if \(x^{2}=x\)" is

  • (A) \(x=1\) and \(x^{2}=x\)
  • (B) \(x\neq 1\) or \(x^{2}=x\)
  • (C) \(x\neq 1\) and \(x^{2}=x\)
  • (D) \(x=1\) or \(x^{2}\neq x\)

Question 116:

If the truth values of \(p,q,r,s\) are respectively \(T,F,F,T\) then the truth values of the compound statements \(\sim (p\rightarrow \sim q)\) and \((\sim r\wedge s)\rightarrow (p\wedge \sim q)\) are respectively ... and .....

  • (A) \(F,F\)
  • (B) \(T,T\)
  • (C) \(F,T\)
  • (D) \(T,F\)

Question 117:

If \(A=\begin{bmatrix} \sin \alpha & -\cos \alpha \\ \cos \alpha & \sin \alpha \end{bmatrix}\) and \(S=\left\{\alpha :\alpha \in \left(\frac{\pi }{2},\frac{3\pi }{2}\right),A+A^{-1}=I\right\}\), then \(\alpha =\) ...

  • (A) \(\frac{2\pi }{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3\pi }{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5\pi }{6}\)
  • (D) \(\pi\)

Question 118:

Let \(A\) be an invertible matrix. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following.
(I) \(A(\text{adj }A^{-1})=\frac{1}{|A|}A^{2}\) (II) \((\text{adj }A^{-1})^{-1}=\frac{1}{|A|}A^{-1}\) (III) \((\text{adj }A)=\frac{1}{|A|}A^{-1}\)

  • (A) only (I)
  • (B) only (I) and (II)
  • (C) only (III)
  • (D) only (II) and (III)

Question 119:

Let \(f(x)\) be a function defined by \(f(x)=\begin{cases} \int _{0}^{x}(|t-2|+3)dt, & x>4 \\ 2x+8, & x\leq 4 \end{cases}\) then \(f(x)\) is ...

  • (A) continuous and differentiable everywhere
  • (B) neither continuous nor differentiable at \(x=4\)
  • (C) continuous everywhere, but not differentiable at \(x=4\)
  • (D) Differentiable at \(x=4\), but not continuous.

Question 120:

If the function defined by

\(f(x)=\begin{cases} ax^{2}+bx+1, & |2x-3|\geq 2 \\ 3x+2, & \frac{1}{2}\lt x\lt \frac{5}{2} \end{cases}\)

is continuous in its domain, then the values of \(a\) and \(b\) respectively are

  • (A) \(\frac{-4}{5},\frac{27}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{5}{4},-\frac{27}{5}\)
  • (C) \(1,\frac{27}{5}\)
  • (D) \(3,11\)

Question 121:

If \(x=at^{2}\) and \(y=2at,t\neq 0\) then ...

  • (A) \(x\frac{d^{2}x}{dy^{2}}+a=0\)
  • (B) \(2a\frac{d^{2}x}{dy^{2}}-1=0\)
  • (C) \(\frac{d^{2}x}{dy^{2}}-2a=0\)
  • (D) \(\frac{d^{2}x}{dy^{2}}-1=0\)

Question 122:

If \(x=a\sin t-b\cos t,y=a\cos t+b\sin t\) and it is given that \(\frac{d^{2}y}{dx^{2}}=0\), then

  • (A) \(x^{2}+y^{2}=a\)
  • (B) \(x^{2}+y^{2}=b\)
  • (C) \(x^{2}+y^{2}=1\)
  • (D) \(x^{2}+y^{2}=0\)

Question 123:

If \(y=(x-1)(x-2)(x-3)\cdots (x-100)\) and the value of \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) at \(x=5\) is equal to \(\lambda \left(\frac{100!}{{}^{100}C_{5}}\right)\), then \(\lambda =\) ...

  • (A) \(-5\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (C) \(5\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{5}\)

Question 124:

A man of height \(2\) meters walks at a uniform speed of \(6\) km/hr away from a lamp post of height \(6\) meters, then the rate at which the length of the shadow is increasing is ...

  • (A) \(7\) km/hr
  • (B) \(10\) km/hr
  • (C) \(3\) km/hr
  • (D) \(23\) km/hr

Question 125:

The sum of abscissa of the points on the curve \(y=x^{3}-3x^{2}+x-2\) at which the tangent is parallel to the line \(y=x\) is ___

  • (A) \(-6\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(6\)

Question 126:

For which of the following functions is Rolle's theorem not applicable?

  • (A) \(f(x)=\log (x^{2}+2)-\log 3,on[-1,1]\)
  • (B) \(f(x)=3+(x-1)^{2/3},on[0,3]\)
  • (C) \(f(x)=e^{1-x^{2}},on[-1,1]\)
  • (D) \(f(x)=\sqrt{4-x^{2}},on[-2,2]\)

Question 127:

For \(x\neq 0\), the value of \(I=\int \frac{x^{2}-1}{(x^{4}+3x^{2}+1)\tan ^{-1}\left(x+\frac{1}{x}\right)}dx\) is ...

  • (A) \(\log \left(\tan ^{-1}\left(x+\frac{1}{x}\right)\right)+c\)
  • (B) \(\log \left(\tan ^{-1}\left(x-\frac{1}{x}\right)\right)+c\)
  • (C) \(\tan ^{-1}\left(x+\frac{1}{x}\right)+c\)
  • (D) \(\log \left(\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{x}-x\right)\right)+c\)

Question 128:

If \(I_{1}=\int \frac{e^{x}}{e^{2x}+e^{x}+1}dx\) and \(I_{2}=\int \frac{1}{e^{-2x}+e^{-x}+1}dx\), then \(I_{1}-I_{2}=\)

  • (A) \(-\frac{1}{2}\log |e^{2x}+e^{x}+1|+\sqrt{3}\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{2e^{x}+1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)+c\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{1}{2}\log |e^{2x}+e^{x}+1|+\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\log |\frac{2e^{x}+1-\sqrt{3}}{2e^{x}+1+\sqrt{3}}|+c\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{1}{2}\log |e^{2x}+e^{x}+1|-\sqrt{3}\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{2e^{x}+1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)+c\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{1}{2}\log |e^{2x}+e^{x}+1|-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\log |\frac{2e^{x}+1-\sqrt{3}}{2e^{x}+1+\sqrt{3}}|+c\)

Question 129:

If \(f(x)=\int \frac{x^{2}}{(1-x^{2})(1+\sqrt{1-x^{2}})}dx\) and \(f(0)=2\), then \(f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=\) ...

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\log 3-\frac{\pi }{3}+2\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\log 3+\frac{\pi }{3}+2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\log 3-\frac{\pi }{6}+2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\log 3+\frac{\pi }{6}+2\)

Question 130:

If \(\int \sin ^{4}x\cdot e^{\log (\cos x)}dx=\frac{1}{k}\sin ^{k}x+C\), for \(x\in \left(-\frac{\pi }{2},\frac{\pi }{2}\right)\), then ...

  • (A) \(k=4\)
  • (B) \(k=0\)
  • (C) \(k=1\)
  • (D) \(k=5\)

Question 131:

\(\int _{0}^{4}\sqrt{\frac{4-x}{4+x}}dx=\)

  • (A) \(2\pi -4\)
  • (B) \(2\pi +4\)
  • (C) \(2\pi -2\)
  • (D) \(2\pi +2\)

Question 132:

If \(n\) is an odd natural number and \(I_{n}=\int _{0}^{1}e^{x}(x-1)^{n}dx\), then the value of \(I_{n}+nI_{n-1}\) is equal to ...

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(-1\)

Question 133:

The area (in sq. units) of the region bounded by the line \(7x-5y=35\), the x-axis and the lines \(x=-2\) and \(x=3\) is ...

  • (A) \(\frac{63}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{315}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{63}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{65}{2}\)

Question 134:

The parabolas \(y^{2}=4x\) and \(x^{2}=4y\) divide the square region bounded by the lines \(x=4,y=4\) and the coordinate axes. If \(A1,A2,A3\) are respectively the areas of these parts numbered from top to bottom, then \(A1:A2:A3\) is ...

  • (A) \(1:2:3\)
  • (B) \(3:2:1\)
  • (C) \(1:1:1\)
  • (D) \(1:1:2\)

Question 135:

The differential equation of the family of all straight lines touching the circle \(x^{2}+y^{2}=1\) is ...

  • (A) \(\left(x-y\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{2}=1+\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{2}\)
  • (B) \(\left(y-x\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{2}=1+\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{2}\)
  • (C) \(\left(x+y\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{2}=1+\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{2}\)
  • (D) \(\left(y+x\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{2}=1+\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{2}\)

Question 136:

If the function \(y=f(x)\) satisfies the differential equation \(x\frac{dy}{dx}=xy+y\) and \(y(1)=e\), then which of the following is true?

  • (A) \(f(x)\) is not continuous at \(x=0\)
  • (B) \(f(x)\) is decreasing in \((-1,\infty )\)
  • (C) \(f(x)\) is increasing in \((-1,\infty )\)
  • (D) \(f(x)\) has maxima at \(x=1\)

Question 137:

If \(yf(x)=g(x)+c\) where \(c\) is an arbitrary constant such that \(\frac{dy}{dx}+yg(x)=f(x)\) and \([f(x)]^{2}-[g(x)]^{2}=1\), then \(\int f(x)\cdot g(x)dx=\) ...

  • (A) \(g(x)+c\)
  • (B) \(-g(x)+c\)
  • (C) \(f(x)+c\)
  • (D) \(-f(x)+c\)

Question 138:

Let \(\bar{a}=\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}\) and \(\bar{b}=\hat{i}-\hat{j}+2\hat{k}\). If a vector \(\bar{c}\) is coplanar with \(\bar{a}\) and \(\bar{b}\) such that \(\bar{c}\cdot \bar{a}=1\) and \(\bar{c}\) is perpendicular to \(\bar{b}\), then \(\bar{c}\) is equal to ...

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{3}(2\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k})\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{5}(2\hat{i}-\hat{j}+4\hat{k})\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{7}(2\hat{i}+4\hat{j}+\hat{k})\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{7}(2\hat{i}-4\hat{j}-\hat{k})\)

Question 139:

If \(4\hat{i}+7\hat{j}+8\hat{k},2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}+4\hat{k}\) and \(2\hat{i}+5\hat{j}+7\hat{k}\) are the position vectors of the vertices A, B and C respectively of the triangle ABC, then the largest angle of the triangle is (are) ...

  • (A) A
  • (B) C
  • (C) A and C
  • (D) B and C

Question 140:

For any vector, \(\bar{a}\) if \(\hat{i}\times (\bar{a}\times \hat{i})+\hat{j}\times (\bar{a}\times \hat{j})+\hat{k}\times (\bar{a}\times \hat{k})=m\bar{a}\), then the value of \(m\) is ...

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(-1\)

Question 141:

Let \(O\) be the origin in 3D space. If the vertices \(A(2,p,-3),B(q,-2,5)\), and \(C(-5,1,r)\) of a triangle satisfy the vector relation \(\overline{PA}+\overline{PB}+\overline{PC}=3\overline{PO}\) for any point \(P\) in space, then the values of \((p,q,r)\) respectively are ...

  • (A) \((1,3,2)\)
  • (B) \((1,3,-2)\)
  • (C) \((1,2,3)\)
  • (D) \((1,-2,3)\)

Question 142:

If \(\bar{a},\bar{b}\) and \(\bar{c}\) are three non-coplanar vectors and \(\lambda\) is a real number such that \([\lambda (\bar{a}+\bar{b})\lambda ^{2}\bar{b}\lambda \bar{c}]=[\bar{a}\bar{b}+\bar{c}\bar{b}]\), then there is (are) ...

  • (A) exactly three values of \(\lambda\)
  • (B) exactly two values of \(\lambda\)
  • (C) exactly one value of \(\lambda\)
  • (D) no value of \(\lambda\)

Question 143:

Let \(\bar{a}=\lambda \hat{i}+4\hat{j}\) and \(\bar{b}=\hat{i}+\lambda \hat{j}\) where \(\lambda \in Z\) such that \(|\bar{a}|\lt 6\). The number of possible values of \(\lambda\) for which \(\bar{a}\) and \(\bar{b}\) are non-collinear is ___

  • (A) \(7\)
  • (B) \(9\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 144:

A line passing through \(A(1,3,2)\) and parallel to the line \(\frac{x-2}{1}=\frac{y-4}{2}=\frac{z-6}{1}\) intersects the plane \(x-y+3z-6=0\) at point B. Another line through B and perpendicular to the plane \(x-y+3z-6=0\) intersects the plane \(2x-y+z+4=0\) at the point C. Then the equation of median of \(\Delta ABC\) through the vertex A is ...

  • (A) \(\frac{x-1}{5}=\frac{y-3}{1}=\frac{z-2}{-1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x-1}{1}=\frac{y-3}{5}=\frac{z-2}{-1}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{x-1}{2}=\frac{y-3}{3}=\frac{z-2}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{x-1}{3}=\frac{y-3}{-5}=\frac{z-2}{2}\)

Question 145:

The ratio in which the plane \(\bar{r}\cdot (\hat{i}-2\hat{j}+3\hat{k})=17\) divides the line segment joining the points \((-1,4,7)\) and \((3,-5,8)\) is ...

  • (A) \(1:5\)
  • (B) \(2:7\)
  • (C) \(3:8\)
  • (D) \(1:4\)

Question 146:

If the lines \(\bar{r}=(\hat{i}-\hat{j}+2\hat{k})+\lambda (\hat{i}+2\hat{k})\) and \(\frac{x-p}{2}=y+2=z+1\) intersect, then the value of \(p\) is ...

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(-2\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 147:

A company sells two types of notebooks, A and B. Each notebook requires two processes: printing and binding. Notebook A requires \(2\) minutes for printing and \(1\) minute for binding. Notebook B requires \(4\) minutes for printing and \(2\) minutes for binding. The company can spend \(6\) hours on printing and \(2\) hours on binding. If the profit made on notebooks A and B is Rs. \(2\) and Rs. \(5\) respectively, then the Linear Programming Problem (LPP) to maximize the total profit \(z\) is ...

  • (A) maximize \(z=2x+5y\) subject to \(2x+y\leq 360,4x+2y\leq 120,x\geq 0,y\geq 0\)
  • (B) maximize \(z=2x+5y\) subject to \(2x+y\leq 120,4x+2y\leq 360,x\geq 0,y\geq 0\)
  • (C) maximize \(z=2x+5y\) subject to \(2x+4y\leq 360,x+2y\leq 120,x\geq 0,y\geq 0\)
  • (D) maximize \(z=2x+5y\) subject to \(2x+4y\leq 120,x+2y\leq 360,x\geq 0,y\geq 0\)

Question 148:

Given that \(X\sim B(20,p)\) if \(E(X)=8\) then \(Var(X)\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{8}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{24}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4}{5}\)

Question 149:

If \(P(X)\) and \(F(X)\) are the probability mass function and cumulative distribution function of discrete random variable \(X\) where \(X=\{0,1,2,3,\ldots ,10\}\) and \(a,b\) are integers such that \(0\lt a\lt b\lt 10\), then the conditional probability \(P(X\geq a/X\leq b)\) is equal to ...

  • (A) \(1-\frac{F(a-1)}{F(b)}\)
  • (B) \(1-\frac{F(a)}{F(b)}\)
  • (C) \(1-\frac{F(a)}{F(b-1)}\)
  • (D) \(1-\frac{F(a-1)}{F(b-1)}\)

Question 150:

The number is selected randomly from the integers \(1\) to \(100\). The probability that the number selected has exactly three factors is ...

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{25}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{20}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{9}{100}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{10}\)

MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT CET 2026 May 12 Shift 1 PCM Paper Analysis