MHT CET 2026 May 19 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on May 19 in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 12 PM in CBT mode.

The MHT CET 2026 PCM question paper includes the following:

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

MHT CET 2026 May 19 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper with Solution PDF

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MHT CET 2026 May 19 Shift 1 PCM Questions with Solutions


Physics (Q1 - Q50)

Question 1:

In a vector \(\vec{p}\), 'x' and 'y' components have magnitudes 2 units and 5 units respectively. A vector \(\vec{q}\), along negative Y axis has magnitude of 3 units. Then \(\vec{p}\cdot \vec{q}\) is

  • (A) \(-6\)
  • (B) \(-9\)
  • (C) \(-10\)
  • (D) \(-15\)

Question 2:

In a certain system, the quantities A and B are measured as \(8\pm 0.08\) and \(6\pm 0.06\) respectively. Let \(x=AB\), \(y=A+B\) and \(z=A-B\). The correct order of % error in \(x\), \(y\) and \(z\) is

  • (A) \(x=y>z\)
  • (B) \(x\lt z\lt y\)
  • (C) \(z>x>y\)
  • (D) \(x>z>y\)

Question 3:

A juggler throws balls into air. He throws one ball whenever the previous one is at its highest point. If he throws 4 balls in one second, the height from which each ball returns is nearly [acceleration due to gravity is \(9.8\text{ m/s}^{2}\)]

  • (A) \(30\text{ cm}\)
  • (B) \(40\text{ cm}\)
  • (C) \(50\text{ cm}\)
  • (D) \(60\text{ cm}\)

Question 4:

A particle moves along a circular path of radius '\(r\)' with uniform speed '\(v\)'. The angle described by the particle in two seconds in radians is

  • (A) \(vr^{2}\)
  • (B) \(v/r\)
  • (C) \(2v/r\)
  • (D) \(r/2v\)

Question 5:

On a dry curved (banked) road, with banking angle of zero, the maximum safe speed for a moving vehicle is '\(v\)'. After heavy rain, the maximum safe speed for the same road was reduced by 60%. The ratio of the coefficient of friction for the dry road to that of the wet road is

  • (A) \(25:9\)
  • (B) \(24:5\)
  • (C) \(24:9\)
  • (D) \(25:4\)

Question 6:

The bob of a simple pendulum of length 2m is kept at P. It is released and when it reaches Q, it losses 20% of its total energy due to air resistance. Its velocity at Q is [Take \(g=9.8\text{ m/s}^{2}\)]

  • (A) \(4.4\text{ m/s}\)
  • (B) \(5.2\text{ m/s}\)
  • (C) \(5.6\text{ m/s}\)
  • (D) \(6.2\text{ m/s}\)

Question 7:

A \(6\text{ kg}\) mass and \(1.5\text{ kg}\) mass are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their linear momenta is

  • (A) \(4:1\)
  • (B) \(2:1\)
  • (C) \(1:1\)
  • (D) \(1:3\)

Question 8:

A cricket ball of mass \(120\text{ g}\) is moving with a velocity of \(8\text{ m/s}\) and is hit by a bat so that the ball gets turned back with a velocity of \(12\text{ m/s}\). If the duration of contact between the ball and bat is \(0.02\text{ s}\), the impulse (in \(\text{Ns}\)) given to the ball by the bat is

  • (A) \(0.48\)
  • (B) \(1.2\)
  • (C) \(2.4\)
  • (D) \(3.6\)

Question 9:

A body of mass 'm' is raised to a height '\(10R\)' from the surface of the earth, where 'R' is the radius of the earth. Suppose it is released now. The speed with which it will strike the surface of the earth is nearly
[\(g\) = acceleration due to gravity]

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{20gR}{11}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{10gR}{11}}\)
  • (C) \(2\sqrt{gR}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{gR}\)

Question 10:

A metal wire of length '\(L\)' and density '\(d\)' rests horizontally on the free surface of water. The maximum radius of the wire so that the wire does not sink in water is
[\(T\) = surface tension of water, \(g\) = gravitational acceleration]

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{2dg}{\pi T}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{2T}{\pi dg}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{\pi dg}{2T}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{T}{\pi dg}}\)

Question 11:

'\(n\)' identical small drops of water are falling down vertically through a medium each with a terminal velocity '\(v\)'. If they combine to form a single drop, then its terminal velocity is \(xv\). The value of \(x\) is

  • (A) \(n^{1/3}\)
  • (B) \(n^{2/3}\)
  • (C) \(n^{2}\)
  • (D) \(n^{3}\)

Question 12:

Under isothermal conditions, a single drop of radius \(R\) is formed from two mercury drops of radii \(R_{1}\) and \(R_{2}\). After combination, the relation between \(R\), \(R_{1}\) and \(R_{2}\) is

  • (A) \(R=\frac{R_{1}+R_{2}}{2}\)
  • (B) \(R^{3}=R_{1}^{3}+R_{2}^{3}\)
  • (C) \(R^{2}=R_{1}^{2}+R_{2}^{2}\)
  • (D) \(R=R_{1}+R_{2}\)

Question 13:

A perfectly black body radiates power at temperature \(T_{1}\)K. If it is to radiate 16 times this power, its temperature should be increased by

  • (A) \((16T_{1})K\)
  • (B) \((4T_{1})K\)
  • (C) \((2T_{1})K\)
  • (D) \((T_{1})K\)

Question 14:

The length of mercury column in a mercury-in-glass thermometer is \(H_{1}\) mm at the ice point and \(H_{2}\) mm at the steam point. When the length is \(H\) mm, the temperature \(T\) is given in \({}^{\circ }\)C by (\(H_{1}\lt H_{2}\))

  • (A) \(\frac{100(H-H_{1})}{(H_{2}-H_{1})}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{100(H_{2}-H)}{(H_{2}-H_{1})}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{100(H_{2}-H_{1})}{(H-H_{1})}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{100(H_{2}-H)}{(H-H_{1})}\)

Question 15:

There is an expansion of a gas in a thermodynamic system. But this change cannot be plotted on a P-V diagram. Then it is

  • (A) an isothermal expansion.
  • (B) a free expansion
  • (C) an adiabatic expansion
  • (D) an isobaric expansion

Question 16:

When the temperature of 4 moles of a gas was increased from \(70^{\circ }\)C to \(90^{\circ }\)C, at constant volume, the change in internal energy was \(60\text{ J}\). The total heat capacity of the gas at constant volume is

  • (A) \(0.5\text{ J/K}\)
  • (B) \(2\text{ J/K}\)
  • (C) \(3\text{ J/K}\)
  • (D) \(4\text{ J/K}\)

Question 17:

The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is \(\frac{7}{2}R\). The gas is made up of molecules which are

  • (A) polyatomic
  • (B) non-rigid diatomic
  • (C) rigid diamotic
  • (D) monoatomic

Question 18:

If '\(m\)' represents the mass of each molecule of a gas and '\(T\)' its absolute temperature respectively, then the root mean square velocity of the gaseous molecule is proportional to

  • (A) \(m^{-1/2}T^{-1/2}\)
  • (B) \(m^{-1/2}T^{1/2}\)
  • (C) \(m^{1/2}T^{-1/2}\)
  • (D) \(m^{1}T^{1}\)

Question 19:

Two simple harmonic motions are represented as \(y_{1}=10\,\sin \omega t\) and \(y_{2}=5\,\sin \omega t+5\,\cos \omega t\), both in cm. The ratio of the amplitudes of \(y_{2}\) (\(A_{2}\)) to that of \(y_{1}\) (\(A_{1}\)), is

  • (A) \(4:1\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2}:1\)
  • (C) \(1:1\)
  • (D) \(1:\sqrt{2}\)

Question 20:

The differential equation of a particle performing S.H.M. is \(\frac{d^{2}x}{dt^{2}}+64x=0\), where \(x\) is in meter. The period of oscillation of the particle is (in second)

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi }{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi }{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi }{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi }{8}\)

Question 21:

A stretched string of length '\(L\)' is fixed at both the ends, has '\(n\)' nodes (\(n>2\)). The length of the string in terms of \(n\) and wavelength \(\lambda\) is

  • (A) \((n+1)\frac{\lambda }{2}\)
  • (B) \(n\lambda\)
  • (C) \(\frac{n\lambda }{2}\)
  • (D) \((n-1)\frac{\lambda }{2}\)

Question 22:

Two simple harmonic sound waves travelling in the same direction are given by \(y_{1}(x,t)=A\sin (0.5\pi x-100\pi t)\) and \(y_{2}(x,t)=A\sin (0.46\pi x-92\pi t)\)
The number of times, a stationary listener can hear sound of maximum intensity in one second is

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 23:

For a stationary wave, \(y=10\,\cos (\pi x/15)\sin (48\pi t)\) cm, the distance between a node and the successive antinode is

  • (A) \(30\text{ cm}\)
  • (B) \(22.5\text{ cm}\)
  • (C) \(15\text{ cm}\)
  • (D) \(7.5\text{ cm}\)

Question 24:

The amplitude of a sound wave at a distance \(r\) from a point source is \(A\). The amplitude at a distance \(2r\) from the point source is

  • (A) \(\frac{A}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{A}{2}\)
  • (C) \(A\)
  • (D) \(2A\)

Question 25:

A semicircular arc of radius '\(R\)' is charged uniformly and has charge per unit length as \(\lambda\). The electric potential \(V\) at the centre of curvature is [\(\varepsilon _{0}\) = permittivity of vacuum]

  • (A) \(\frac{\lambda }{4\varepsilon _{0}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\lambda }{2\varepsilon _{0}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\lambda }{8\varepsilon _{0}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\lambda }{\varepsilon _{0}}\)

Question 26:

Two charged particles each having a charge '\(+q\)' and mass 'm' are kept at a distance 'd'. If they are in equilibrium under the gravitational force and the electric force between them, then the ratio \(\frac{q}{m}\) (specific charge) of each particle is (\(G\)- Universal gravitation constant, \(\varepsilon _{0}\) = permittivity of free space)

  • (A) \(G/4\pi \varepsilon _{0}\)
  • (B) \(4\pi \varepsilon _{0}G\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}G}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{4\pi \varepsilon _{0}}{G}}\)

Question 27:

Two parallel plate air capacitors of same capacity '\(C\)' are connected in series to a battery of emf '\(E\)'. Then one of the capacitors is completely filled with dielectric material of constant '\(K\)'. The change in the effective capacity of the series combination is

  • (A) \(\frac{C}{2}\left[\frac{K-1}{K+1}\right]^{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{C}{2}\left[\frac{K+1}{K-1}\right]^{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{C}\left[\frac{K-1}{K+1}\right]\)
  • (D) \(\frac{C}{2}\left[\frac{K-1}{K+1}\right]\)

Question 28:

Consider the earth to be a sphere, having charge \(Q\). Let \(R\), \(V\) and \(A\) be its radius, volume and area respectively. The capacitance of the earth is [\(\varepsilon _{0}\) = permittivity of free space]

  • (A) \(4\pi \varepsilon _{0}\frac{V}{A}\)
  • (B) \(4\pi \varepsilon _{0}\frac{A}{V}\)
  • (C) \(12\pi \varepsilon _{0}\frac{A}{V}\)
  • (D) \(12\pi \varepsilon _{0}\frac{V}{A}\)

Question 29:

In the following circuit, the current in the \(4\Omega\) resistance is \(1.2\text{ A}\). The total current (\(I\)) flowing in the circuit is

  • (A) \(1.6\text{ A}\)
  • (B) \(2.4\text{ A}\)
  • (C) \(2.8\text{ A}\)
  • (D) \(3.2\text{ A}\)

Question 30:

The potential gradient along the length of 1 metre wire of uniform cross section is \(6\text{ V/m}\). Let '\(B\)' and '\(C\)' be the two points at \(40\text{ cm}\) and \(60\text{ cm}\) marks respectively from one end. The potential difference between points B and C is

  • (A) \(1.2\text{ V}\)
  • (B) \(2.4\text{ V}\)
  • (C) \(3.5\text{ V}\)
  • (D) \(6.0\text{ V}\)

Question 31:

A magnetic dipole lying parallel to a magnetic field requires '\(W\)' units of work to turn it through \(30^{\circ }\). The torque required to keep this needle in this position is
\(\left[\sin 30^{\circ }=\cos 60^{\circ }=0.5,\,\sin 60^{\circ }=\cos 30^{\circ }=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2},\,\sin 0^{\circ }=\cos 90^{\circ }=1\right]\)

  • (A) \(\sqrt{3}W\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}W\)
  • (C) \(\frac{W}{(\sqrt{3}-1)}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{W}{(2-\sqrt{3})}\)

Question 32:

Two particles X and Y of masses '\(m_{1}\)' and '\(m_{2}\)' respectively, having equal charges after being accelerated through the same potential difference enter a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular paths of radii '\(r_{1}\)' and '\(r_{2}\)' respectively. The ratio of '\(r_{1}\)' and '\(r_{2}\)' is

  • (A) \(\left(\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}\right)^{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{m_{2}}{m_{1}}}\)

Question 33:

A rectangular coil of effective area \(0.04\text{ m}^{2}\) is suspended freely in a radial magnetic field of \(0.02\text{ Wb/m}^{2}\). The torsional constant of the suspension fibre is \(5\times 10^{-9}\text{ Nm/degree}\). If a current of \(250\ \mu \text{A}\) is passed through it, then the angle through which it rotates is

  • (A) \(30^{\circ }\)
  • (B) \(40^{\circ }\)
  • (C) \(45^{\circ }\)
  • (D) \(50^{\circ }\)

Question 34:

The magnetic flux through a coil of resistance '\(R\)' changes by an amount \(\Delta \phi\) in the time \(\Delta t\). The total quantity of induced current and charge is respectively

  • (A) \(\frac{\Delta \phi }{\Delta t}\) and \(\frac{\Delta \phi }{R}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\Delta \phi }{\Delta t}\times R\) and \(\frac{\Delta \phi }{\Delta t}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\Delta \phi }{R\Delta t}\) and \(\frac{\Delta \phi }{R}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{R\Delta t}{\Delta \phi }\) and \(R\Delta \phi\)

Question 35:

Whenever a magnet is moved either towards or away from a conducting coil, magnetic flux linked with the coil changes. This change is dependent on
(a) the strength of the magnetic field.
(b) the area of cross-section of the coil.
(c) the resistance of the coil.
(d) the number of turns in the coil.

  • (A) (a), (b), (c)
  • (B) (a), (c), (d)
  • (C) (a), (b), (d)
  • (D) (b), (c), (d)

Question 36:

In a discharging series L-C-R circuit, \(C=2\ \mu \text{F}\), \(L=1\text{ mH}\) and \(R=10\ \Omega\). The ratio of the energies stored in the inductor and in the capacitor, when the maximum current flows in the circuit, is

  • (A) \(2:1\)
  • (B) \(3:1\)
  • (C) \(3:2\)
  • (D) \(5:1\)

Question 37:

An inductor of inductance \(L\) and a resistor of resistance \(R\) are joined in series and connected to an a.c. source of frequency \(\omega\). The power dissipated in the circuit is

  • (A) \(\frac{(R^{2}+\omega ^{2}L^{2})}{V}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{V}{(R^{2}+\omega ^{2}L^{2})}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{V^{2}R}{(R^{2}+\omega ^{2}L^{2})}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{R^{2}+\omega ^{2}L^{2}}{V^{2}}}\)

Question 38:

An alternating voltage is given by \(V=V_{0}\sin \left(\omega t+\frac{\pi }{4}\right)\). The time when the voltage is maximum for the first time is
(\(T\) = periodic time of the alternating voltage, \(\cos 0^{\circ }=\sin 90^{\circ }=1\))

  • (A) \(\frac{T}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{T}{6}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{T}{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{T}{12}\)

Question 39:

A transformer having an efficiency 80% is working on \(200\text{ V}\) and \(4\text{ kW}\) power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is \(5\text{ A}\), the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil, respectively, are

  • (A) \(10\text{ A},600\text{ V}\)
  • (B) \(20\text{ A},640\text{ V}\)
  • (C) \(25\text{ A},680\text{ V}\)
  • (D) \(40\text{ A},700\text{ V}\)

Question 40:

A ray of light takes time '\(t\)' to travel a distance '\(d\)' in air and it travels a distance '\(4d\)', in time '\(T\)' in a certain medium. If \(T=8t\), the critical angle for the pair of media is
\(\left[\sin \left(\frac{\pi }{6}\right)=0.5,\,\sin \left(\frac{\pi }{4}\right)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}},\,\sin \left(\frac{\pi }{3}\right)=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2},\,\sin \left(\frac{\pi }{2}\right)=1\right]\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi ^{c}}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi ^{c}}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi ^{c}}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi ^{c}}{6}\)

Question 41:

The radii of curvature of both the surfaces of a convex lens are equal. One of the surfaces is made plane by grinding. The new focal length and power of the lens, respectively, are

  • (A) \(\frac{f}{2}\) and \(2P\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2}f\) and \(\frac{P}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (C) \(2f\) and \(\frac{P}{2}\)
  • (D) \(f\) and \(P\)

Question 42:

In a biprism experiment, using a light of wavelength \(4800\text{ Å}\), a steady interference pattern was obtained on a screen \(1\text{ m}\) away from the source. Now the source is replaced by another of wavelength \(6400\text{ Å}\) and the screen is moved away from it by \(20\text{ cm}\). The fringewidth will

  • (A) decrease by 40%.
  • (B) decrease by 60%.
  • (C) increase by 60%.
  • (D) increase by 40%.

Question 43:

In the diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width '\(a\)' with incident light of wavelength '\(\lambda\)', at an angle of diffraction '\(\theta\)', the condition for the second maximum is

  • (A) \(a\sin \theta =2\lambda\)
  • (B) \(2\lambda \sin \theta =3a\)
  • (C) \(5\lambda \sin \theta =3a\)
  • (D) \(2a\sin \theta =5\lambda\)

Question 44:

In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the stopping potential \(V_{0}\) is plotted against the frequency \(\nu\) of the incident light. Considering \(e\) as the electronic charge, the work function of the photoelectric surface is given by

  • (A) \(OA\) in eV
  • (B) \(OB\) in volt
  • (C) multiplication of \((OB)\) and \((e)\) in joules
  • (D) The slope of the line AB

Question 45:

The moment of inertia of the electron moving in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is [\(m\) = mass of electron, \(h\) = Planck's constant, \(e\) = charge on electron, \(\varepsilon _{0}\) = permittivity of free space]

  • (A) \(\frac{\varepsilon _{0}^{2}h^{4}}{8\pi ^{2}me^{4}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{16\varepsilon _{0}^{2}h^{4}}{\pi ^{2}me^{4}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2\varepsilon _{0}^{2}h^{4}}{\pi ^{2}me^{4}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4\varepsilon _{0}^{2}h^{2}m}{\pi ^{2}e^{4}}\)

Question 46:

The de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving in the \(n^{th}\) Bohr orbit of radius '\(r\)' is

  • (A) \(n\pi r\)
  • (B) \(\frac{nr}{\pi }\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2\pi r}{n}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{nr}{2\pi }\)

Question 47:

Initially \(8\times 10^{10}\) atoms are present in a radioactive sample. The half-life of the sample is 1 hour. The number of atoms that will decay in the time interval \(t=2\) hour to \(t=5\) hour, is

  • (A) \(0.25\times 10^{10}\)
  • (B) \(1.5\times 10^{10}\)
  • (C) \(1.75\times 10^{10}\)
  • (D) \(2\times 10^{10}\)

Question 48:

In the following circuit, the current through the Zener diode is

  • (A) \(5.00\text{ mA}\)
  • (B) \(6.25\text{ mA}\)
  • (C) \(11.25\text{ mA}\)
  • (D) \(16.25\text{ mA}\)

Question 49:

If two inputs of a NOR gate are shorted, the resulting gate is

  • (A) a NAND gate.
  • (B) an OR gate.
  • (C) an AND gate.
  • (D) a NOT gate.

Question 50:

The band diagrams of three semiconductors p, n and intrinsic are given in the figures (1), (2) and (3). C and V are the conduction and valence bands and \(E_{F}\) is the Fermi level. Figures, from (2),(1) and (3) respectively represent the type of semiconductors as

  • (A) intrinsic, n and p
  • (B) p, intrinsic and n
  • (C) intrinsic, p and n
  • (D) n, intrinsic and p

Chemistry (Q51 - Q100)

Question 51:

Calculate the volume occupied by \(64\text{ g}\) dioxygen at STP.

  • (A) \(22.4\text{ L}\)
  • (B) \(44.8\text{ L}\)
  • (C) \(11.2\text{ L}\)
  • (D) \(33.6\text{ L}\)

Question 52:

What is the frequency of violet light if its wavelength is \(400\text{ nm}\)?

  • (A) \(4.0\times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}\)
  • (B) \(5.4\times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}\)
  • (C) \(7.5\times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}\)
  • (D) \(4.7\times 10^{14}\text{ Hz}\)

Question 53:

Identify the compound having lowest boiling point.

  • (A) \(\text{H}_{2}\text{O}\)
  • (B) \(\text{CH}_{2}(\text{OH})\text{-CH}_{2}(\text{OH})\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_{3}-\text{O}-\text{C}_{2}\text{H}_{5}\)
  • (D) \(\text{C}_{3}\text{H}_{7}-\text{OH}\)

Question 54:

What types of intermolecular forces are present in \(\text{N}_{2}\) molecules?

  • (A) London dispersion forces
  • (B) Dipole-dipole interactions
  • (C) Dipole-induced dipole interactions
  • (D) Hydrogen bonding

Question 55:

Which of the following is the correct order of lattice energy?

  • (A) \(\text{AlCl}_{3}>\text{CaCl}_{2}>\text{NaCl}\)
  • (B) \(\text{AlCl}_{3}>\text{NaCl}>\text{CaCl}_{2}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CaCl}_{2}>\text{AlCl}_{3}>\text{NaCl}\)
  • (D) \(\text{NaCl}>\text{CaCl}_{2}>\text{AlCl}_{3}\)

Question 56:

2 moles of an ideal gas expand isothermally and reversibly from \(10\text{ L}\) to \(50\text{ L}\) at \(298\text{ K}\). Calculate the work done during this expansion. (\(R=8.314\text{ JK}^{-1}\text{ mol}^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(-79.756\text{ J}\)
  • (B) \(-7.9756\text{ J}\)
  • (C) \(-7975\text{ kJ}\)
  • (D) \(-7.975\text{ kJ}\)

Question 57:

A gas expands by \(2500\text{ cm}^{3}\) against constant external pressure \(1.5\text{ atm}\) at constant temperature of \(300\text{ K}\). Calculate the work of expansion in kJ.

  • (A) \(-0.380\)
  • (B) \(-0.350\)
  • (C) \(-0.42\)
  • (D) \(-0.45\)

Question 58:

Which of the following is NOT the state function?

  • (A) Gibbs energy
  • (B) Temperature
  • (C) Heat
  • (D) Heat transfer at constant volume (\(Q_{v}\))

Question 59:

If \(pK_{b}\) value for fluoride ion at \(25^{\circ }\)C is \(10.83\), calculate the ionisation constant of hydrofluoric acid in water at this temperature.

  • (A) \(1.74\times 10^{-5}\)
  • (B) \(3.52\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (C) \(6.75\times 10^{-4}\)
  • (D) \(5.38\times 10^{-2}\)

Question 60:

Phosphoric acid dissociates upto 80% in its \(0.02\text{ M}\) solution at \(25^{\circ }\)C. Calculate the pH of the solution.

  • (A) \(1.319\)
  • (B) \(1.651\)
  • (C) \(1.101\)
  • (D) \(1.921\)

Question 61:

Which of the following salts does not undergo hydrolysis?

  • (A) Ammonium chloride .
  • (B) Sodium carbonate .
  • (C) Ammonium cyanide .
  • (D) Potassium nitrate .

Question 62:

Which of the following compounds has the lowest oxidation state of carbon?

  • (A) \(\text{CH}_{4}\)
  • (B) \(\text{CCl}_{4}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CF}_{4}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CO}_{2}\)

Question 63:

Identify unstable isotope of hydrogen from the following.

  • (A) Hydrogen
  • (B) Deuterium
  • (C) Tritium
  • (D) Deuterium and Tritium

Question 64:

What is IUPAC name of catechol?

  • (A) Benzene-1,3-diol
  • (B) 4-Methylphenol
  • (C) 4-Hydroxybenzaldehyde
  • (D) Benzene-1,2-diol

Question 65:

Identify the name of the isomerism in rapid equilibrium with each other in the following reaction.

  • (A) Geometrical isomerism
  • (B) Metamerism
  • (C) Tautomerism
  • (D) Functional isomerism

Question 66:

Which of the following compounds is obtained in the first step of Wolf - Kishner reduction when alkyl aryl ketones are reduced to alkyl benzene?

  • (A) Acids
  • (B) Alcohols
  • (C) Hydrazones
  • (D) Alkenes

Question 67:

Identify the reagent used in Etard reaction.

  • (A) \(\text{SnCl}_{2}\text{.HCl}\)
  • (B) \(\text{CrO}_{3}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Pd-BaSO}_{4}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CrO}_{2}\text{Cl}_{2}\)

Question 68:

Which reaction is used to synthesize straight-chain alkylbenzenes?

  • (A) Etard
  • (B) Rosenmund reduction
  • (C) Stephen's reaction
  • (D) Wolf kishner reduction

Question 69:

Identify the the major product of bromination of anisole in presence of acetic acid.

  • (A) o-bromoanisole
  • (B) p-bromoanisole
  • (C) m-bromoanisole
  • (D) di-orthobromoanisole

Question 70:

Which of the following reagents is used to convert benzene into glyoxal?

  • (A) \(\text{O}_{3}\) followed by Fe and \(\text{H}_{2}\text{O}_{2}\)
  • (B) \(\text{O}_{3}\) followed by Zn and \(\text{H}_{2}\text{O}\)
  • (C) \(\text{H}_{2}\) with nickel at 473K
  • (D) \(\text{KMnO}_{4}\)

Question 71:

Which of the following processes is according to principles of green chemistry?

  • (A) Running reactions at high temperatures to maximize production
  • (B) Burning chemical waste for quick disposal
  • (C) Replacing hazardous solvents with water or ethanol in synthesis
  • (D) Increasing the use of petroleum-based feedstocks

Question 72:

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Frenkel defects?

  • (A) It arises due to an equal number of actions and anions are missing from their regular poisons in the crystal lattice.
  • (B) It arises when an ion of an ionic compound is missing from its regular site and occupies an interstitial position.
  • (C) After the defect density of substance decreases.
  • (D) In this, electrical neutrality of the compound is not maintained.

Question 73:

Calculate the radius of a particle present in fcc unit cell having edge length \(200\text{ pm}\).

  • (A) \(7.07\times 10^{-9}\text{ cm}\)
  • (B) \(3.535\times 10^{-9}\text{ cm}\)
  • (C) \(1.4140\times 10^{-9}\text{ cm}\)
  • (D) \(8.71\times 10^{-9}\text{ cm}\)

Question 74:

Which of the following metals has simple cubic structure?

  • (A) Potassium
  • (B) Polonium
  • (C) Calcium
  • (D) Magnesium

Question 75:

A solution containing \(0.6\text{ g}\) nonelectrolyte solute in \(30\text{ g}\) water freezes at \(-0.6\ ^{\circ }\text{C}\). Calculate the molar mass of solute if cryoscopic constant of water is \(1.8\text{ K kg mol}^{-1}\).

  • (A) \(54\text{ g mol}^{-1}\).
  • (B) \(60\text{ g mol}^{-1}\).
  • (C) \(66\text{ g mol}^{-1}\).
  • (D) \(72\text{ g mol}^{-1}\).

Question 76:

Calculate the osmotic pressure of a solution containing \(3.42\text{ g}\) of fructose (molar mass = \(180\text{ g/mol}\)) in 1 litre of water at \(400\text{ K}\).

  • (A) \(0.624\text{ atm}\)
  • (B) \(0.180\text{ atm}\)
  • (C) \(0.340\text{ atm}\)
  • (D) \(0.420\text{ atm}\)

Question 77:

Identify from following equimolar solutions that has maximum boiling point elevation. (Assuming complete dissociation)

  • (A) Potassium chloride
  • (B) Lithium sulfate
  • (C) Aluminium sulphate .
  • (D) Ammonium phosphate

Question 78:

A battery delivers a steady current of \(3.00\) ampere for \(10.0\) hours. Calculate the number of moles of electrons passed.

  • (A) \(3.6\)
  • (B) \(1.12\)
  • (C) \(4.5\)
  • (D) \(2.7\)

Question 79:

The molar conductivity of \(0.01\text{M}\) acetic acid at \(25^{\circ }\)C is \(16\text{ S m}^{2}\text{ mol}^{-1}\). Find its percent dissociation in the \(0.01\text{M}\) solution if molar conductivity of acetic acid at zero concentration is \(390\text{ S m}^{2}\text{ mol}^{-1}\).

  • (A) \(1\%\)
  • (B) \(2.2\%\)
  • (C) \(3\%\)
  • (D) \(4.1\%\)

Question 80:

What is the common unit of molar conductivity?

  • (A) \(\text{S m}^{2}\text{ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(\text{ohm}^{-1}\text{ cm}^{2}\text{ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(\text{ohm cm}^{2}\text{ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(\text{ohm}^{-1}\text{ cm}^{2}\text{ mol}\)

Question 81:

Identify the nature of the graph obtained when rate versus initial concentration is plotted for first order reaction.

  • (A) A straight line passing through the origine having -ve slope.
  • (B) A straight line parallel to X axis.
  • (C) A straight line passing through the origine having +ve slope.
  • (D) A straight line intercepting X and Y axes.

Question 82:

Calculate the activation energy when the rate of chemical reaction doubles with an increase of \(10\text{ K}\) in absolute temperature from \(298\text{ K}\). (\(R\times 2.303=19.15\text{ J K}^{-1}\text{ mol}^{-1}\)).

  • (A) \(35.85\text{ KJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(52.89\text{ KJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(42.36\text{ KJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(26.14\text{ KJ mol}^{-1}\)

Question 83:

The rate law for a reaction is Rate \(=k[A]^{2}[B]^{0}\). The overall order is

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 84:

Identify a positively charged sol from the following.

  • (A) Antimony trisulfide
  • (B) Eosin
  • (C) Gum
  • (D) Hemoglobin

Question 85:

Which of following reactions occur at zone of reduction in blast furnace for extraction of iron?

  • (A) \(\text{C}+\frac{1}{2}\text{O}_{2}\rightarrow \text{CO}_{(g)}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Fe}_{2}\text{O}_{3}+3\text{CO}\rightarrow 2\text{Fe}+3\text{CO}_{2}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CaCO}_{3}\text{ (heat)}\rightarrow \text{CaO}+\text{CO}_{2}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CaO}+\text{SiO}_{2}\rightarrow \text{CaSiO}_{3}\)

Question 86:

Which of the following factors is responsible for the anomalous behavior of oxygen?
(A). small atomic size.
(B). higher electronegativity.
(C). low O - O bond dissociation energy.
(D). absence of d - orbital
(E). presence of vaccant d - orbitals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) (A), (B), (C) and (E) only.
  • (B) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 87:

Find the number of allotropic forms of Tellurium under normal conditions.

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(6\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 88:

Identify the position of lanthanum in terms of the following blocks in the modern periodic table?

  • (A) f block
  • (B) p block
  • (C) s block
  • (D) d block

Question 89:

What is the effective atomic number of Cu in \([\text{Cu(NH}_{3})_{4}]^{2+}\)?

  • (A) \(18\)
  • (B) \(33\)
  • (C) \(35\)
  • (D) \(36\)

Question 90:

What type of isomerism is exhibited by the following coordinate complexes?
\([\text{CO(NH}_{3})_{6}][\text{Cr(CN)}_{6}]\) and \([\text{Cr(NH}_{3})_{6}][\text{CO(CN)}_{6}]\)

  • (A) Solvate isomerism.
  • (B) Co-ordinate Isomerism.
  • (C) Ionisation Isomerism.
  • (D) Linkage Isomerism.

Question 91:

Identify the products formed when benzenediazonium chloride reacts with CuCl / HCl
\(\text{C}_{6}\text{H}_{5}\text{N}_{2}^{+}\text{Cl}^{-}+\text{CuCl}\rightarrow\)

  • (A) \(\text{C}_{6}\text{H}_{5}\text{Cl}+\text{N}_{2}\)
  • (B) \(\text{C}_{6}\text{H}_{5}\text{Br}+\text{N}_{2}\)
  • (C) \(\text{C}_{6}\text{H}_{6}+\text{N}_{2}\)
  • (D) \(\text{C}_{6}\text{H}_{5}\text{OH}\)

Question 92:

When R-X is treated with KCN (alcoholic, heat), find the type of attack found, when the major product is formed in this reaction?

  • (A) Attack occurs through nitrogen \(\rightarrow\) Forming isocyanide.
  • (B) Attack occurs through carbon \(\rightarrow\) Forming nitrile.
  • (C) Free radical substitution
  • (D) Elimination

Question 93:

\(\text{CH}_{3}\text{-CH}_{2}\text{-Cl}+\text{NaI}\xrightarrow{\text{acetone}}\text{CH}_{3}\text{-CH}_{2}\text{-I}+\text{NaCl}\downarrow\)
The above reaction is known as:

  • (A) Swartz reaction
  • (B) Finkelstein reaction
  • (C) Wurtz reaction
  • (D) Sandmeyer reaction

Question 94:

Identify the product of reaction between alcoholic silver nitrite and ethyl bromide.

  • (A) Ethene
  • (B) Ethane
  • (C) Ethane nitrile
  • (D) Nitro ethane

Question 95:

Which of the following amines exhibits the Carbylamine test?

  • (A) Primary amine
  • (B) Secondary amine
  • (C) Tertiary amine
  • (D) Quaternary ammonium salt

Question 96:

What is the number of chiral carbon atoms in the open chain structure of glucose and fructose respectively?

  • (A) 4 carbon atoms in each
  • (B) 3 carbon atoms in each
  • (C) 4 carbon atoms in glucose and 3 carbon atoms in fructose
  • (D) 3 carbon atoms in glucose and 4 carbon atoms in fructose

Question 97:

Which of the following is NOT a disaccharide ?

  • (A) Cane sugar
  • (B) Raffinose
  • (C) Lactose
  • (D) Maltose

Question 98:

Which of the following statements is true regarding fats?

  • (A) These are polyesters of fatty acids and ethylene glycol.
  • (B) These are triesters of fatty acids and glycerols.
  • (C) These are esters of inorganic acids and bases.
  • (D) triester of unsaturated fatty acids and ethyl alcohol

Question 99:

Identify a monomer of natural rubber.

  • (A) Styrene
  • (B) Butadiene
  • (C) Vinyl chloride
  • (D) Isoprene

Question 100:

Identify a polymer containing nitrogen.

  • (A) Bakelite
  • (B) Dacron
  • (C) Rubber
  • (D) Nylon-6,6

Mathematics (Q101 - Q150)

Question 101:

If \(f(x)=\{x\}\) represents the fractional part function, then for any \(x\notin \mathbb{Z}\), the expression \(f(x)+f(-x)\) is equal to...

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\{x\}\)
  • (D) \(x\)

Question 102:

If \(\cos A=\frac{3}{4}\), then the value of \(2\,\sin \frac{A}{2}\cdot \sin \frac{5A}{2}=...\)

  • (A) \(\frac{11}{16}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{11}}{16}\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{\sqrt{11}}{16}\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{11}{16}\)

Question 103:

The general solution of the equation \(4\,\sin x\cos x+2\,\sin x+2\,\cos x+1=0\), where \(n\in Z\) is:

  • (A) \(x=2n\pi \pm \frac{2\pi }{3}\) or \(n\pi +(-1)^{n}\frac{7\pi }{6}\)
  • (B) \(x=2n\pi \pm \frac{\pi }{3}\) or \(n\pi -(-1)^{n}\frac{5\pi }{6}\)
  • (C) \(x=2n\pi +\frac{\pi }{3}\) or \(n\pi +(-1)^{n}\frac{7\pi }{6}\)
  • (D) \(x=2n\pi -\frac{\pi }{3}\) or \(n\pi +(-1)^{n}\frac{7\pi }{6}\)

Question 104:

If \(P\) and \(P'\) denote respectively the circumcenter and the orthocenter of \(\triangle ABC\), then \(\overline{PA}+\overline{PB}+\overline{PC}=\)

  • (A) \(\overline{PP'}\)
  • (B) \(\overline{P'P}\)
  • (C) \(2\overline{P'P}\)
  • (D) \(2\overline{PP'}\)

Question 105:

The adjacent sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are 2 and 5, and the angle between them is \(60^{\circ }\). If the area of the quadrilateral is \(4\sqrt{3}\) sq. units then the perimeter of quadrilateral (in units) is:

  • (A) \(14\)
  • (B) \(13\)
  • (C) \(12\)
  • (D) \(10\)

Question 106:

In \(\Delta ABC\), with the usual notations, if \(\frac{a+b}{7}=\frac{b+c}{8}=\frac{c+a}{6}=1\), then \(\frac{\sin A}{\sin B}=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{7}{8}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{9}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{8}{7}\)

Question 107:

If \(w=-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{i\sqrt{3}}{2}\), then the value of \(\begin{vmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 \\ 1 & -1-w^{2} & w^{2} \\ 1 & w^{2} & w^{4} \end{vmatrix}\) is...

  • (A) \(3w(w+1)\)
  • (B) \(3w(w-1)\)
  • (C) \(-3w(w-1)\)
  • (D) \(-3w(w+1)\)

Question 108:

Everyone in the room handshakes with everyone else. If the total number of handshakes is 66, then the number of persons in the room is...

  • (A) \(10\)
  • (B) \(6\)
  • (C) \(11\)
  • (D) \(12\)

Question 109:

There are 4 boys and 6 girls to be seated in a circle for a photograph. The probability that no two boys are sitting together is...

  • (A) \(\frac{5}{42}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{14}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{210}\)

Question 110:

The equation of the line which passes through the point of intersection of lines \(x+2y+6=0\), \(2x-y=2\) and which makes intercept 5 on Y - axis is

  • (A) \(39x-2y+10=0\)
  • (B) \(39x+2y+10=0\)
  • (C) \(39x+2y-10=0\)
  • (D) \(39x-2y-10=0\)

Question 111:

If one of the lines given by \(6x^{2}-xy+4ky^{2}=0\) is \(3x+4y=0\), then \(k\) lies in the interval:

  • (A) \((-3,0)\)
  • (B) \([0,1]\)
  • (C) \([-1,1]\)
  • (D) \([-3,0)\)

Question 112:

The equation of the director circle of the circle \(x^{2}+y^{2}+3x-8y-3=0\) is:

  • (A) \(4x^{2}+4y^{2}+12x-32y-12=0\)
  • (B) \(4x^{2}+4y^{2}+12x-32y-97=0\)
  • (C) \(x^{2}+y^{2}+12x-32y-\frac{97}{4}=0\)
  • (D) \(x^{2}+y^{2}+3x-8y-12=0\)

Question 113:

The area (in sq.units) of a triangle formed by joining the vertex and the endpoints of the latus rectum of the parabola \(x^{2}=-20y\) is...

  • (A) \(100\)
  • (B) \(200\)
  • (C) \(50\)
  • (D) \(10\)

Question 114:

\(\lim _{x\rightarrow \frac{\pi }{2}}\frac{[1-\tan (\frac{x}{2})](1-\sin x)}{[1+\tan (\frac{x}{2})](\pi -2x)^{3}}=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{32}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{16}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 115:

The statement pattern \(p\rightarrow (q\rightarrow p)\equiv\)

  • (A) \(p\rightarrow (p\rightarrow q)\)
  • (B) \(p\rightarrow (p\wedge q)\)
  • (C) \(p\rightarrow (p\leftrightarrow q)\)
  • (D) \(p\rightarrow (p\vee q)\)

Question 116:

The negation of the inverse of \(\sim p\rightarrow q\) is equivalent to:

  • (A) \(\sim q\rightarrow p\)
  • (B) \(\sim q\wedge p\)
  • (C) \(\sim p\wedge \sim q\)
  • (D) \(p\wedge q\)

Question 117:

If \(\alpha \leq 2\sin ^{-1}x+\cos ^{-1}x\leq \beta\), then the values of \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are

  • (A) \(\alpha =0,\beta =2\pi\)
  • (B) \(\alpha =\pi ,\beta =2\pi\)
  • (C) \(\alpha =0,\beta =\pi\)
  • (D) \(\alpha =-\pi ,\beta =\pi\)

Question 118:

If \(A=\begin{bmatrix} -\frac{1}{2} & -\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \\ \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} & -\frac{1}{2} \end{bmatrix}\), the value of \(|\text{Adj}(A^{2026})|\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 119:

Let \(A=\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ -5 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\) and \(A^{-1}=xA+yI\), then the pair \((x,y)=\cdots\)

  • (A) \(\left(\frac{1}{11},\frac{2}{11}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\left(\frac{1}{11},-\frac{2}{11}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\left(-\frac{1}{11},-\frac{2}{11}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\left(-\frac{1}{11},\frac{2}{11}\right)\)

Question 120:

If \(A=\begin{bmatrix} 2 & -3 \\ 5 & -7 \end{bmatrix}\), then \(A-A^{-1}=\)

  • (A) \(\begin{bmatrix} -9 & 6 \\ -10 & 9 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (B) \(\begin{bmatrix} 9 & -6 \\ 10 & -9 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (C) \(\begin{bmatrix} -9 & 10 \\ -6 & 9 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (D) \(\begin{bmatrix} 9 & -10 \\ 6 & -9 \end{bmatrix}\)

Question 121:

If \(f(x)=\begin{cases} \frac{1-\sin ^{5}x}{5\cos ^{2}x} & ,x\lt \frac{\pi }{2} \\ a & ,\text{at }x=\frac{\pi }{2} \\ \frac{b(1-\sin x)}{8(\pi -2x)^{2}} & ,x>\frac{\pi }{2} \end{cases}\) is continuous at \(x=\frac{\pi }{2}\), then \(\left(\frac{b}{a}\right)^{\frac{5}{3}}=\ldots\)

  • (A) \((4)^{4}\)
  • (B) \((64)^{2}\)
  • (C) \((32)^{2}\)
  • (D) \((16)^{3}\)

Question 122:

Let \(3f(x)-2f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=x\) for \(x\neq 0\). Then the value of \(f'(2)\) is:

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{7}{2}\)

Question 123:

If \(g\) is a differentiable function of \(x\) such that \(g(x^{5})=3x^{7}\), for \(x\neq 0\), \(x\in \mathbb{R}\) then \(g'(3125)=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(125\)
  • (B) \(210\)
  • (C) \(105\)
  • (D) \(441\)

Question 124:

If \(y=\sin ^{-1}(y\cdot \cos 2x)\) such that \(\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{2y\cdot f(x)}{g(x)-\cos y}\) then \(\{f(x)\}^{2}-\{g(x)\}^{2}=\)

  • (A) \(-\cos 4x\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(\sin 4x\)
  • (D) \(\cos 4x\)

Question 125:

Let \(f(x)\) be a twice differentiable function such that \(f^{''}(x)=-f(x)\), and \(f'(x)=g(x)\).
Let \(h(x)=\{f(x)\}^{2}+\{g(x)\}^{2}\). If \(h(2)=7\), then \(h(8)\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(7\)
  • (B) \(14\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) not defined

Question 126:

The tangent to the curve \(y=e^{2x}\) is drawn at the point \(P(0,1)\). If this tangent intersects the \(x\)-axis at point \(A\) and the \(y\)-axis at point \(B\), then the area of \(\triangle OAB\) (where \(O\) is the origin) in square units is:

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 127:

The equation of the line tangent to the curve \(y^{2}=4x\) with an inclination of \(60^{\circ }\) is:

  • (A) \(3x-\sqrt{3}y-1=0\)
  • (B) \(3x-\sqrt{3}y+1=0\)
  • (C) \(3x+\sqrt{3}y+1=0\)
  • (D) \(3x+\sqrt{3}y-1=0\)

Question 128:

A student learned 100 Math formulae for an examination. The number of formulae the student can remember in '\(t\)' days after learning is given by \(f(t)=100(1-0.1t)^{2}\). Then, the magnitude of the rate at which the student forgets the formula 3 days after learning is:

  • (A) \(-14\)
  • (B) \(16\)
  • (C) \(14\)
  • (D) \(10\)

Question 129:

\(\int \frac{x^{3}+x^{2}+2x+1}{x^{2}-x+1}dx=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{x^{2}}{2}-2x-\frac{3}{2}\log |x^{2}-x+1|+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{2x-1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)+c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x^{2}}{2}+2x+\frac{3}{2}\log |x^{2}-x+1|+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{2x-1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)+c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{x^{2}}{2}+2x-\frac{3}{2}\log |x^{2}-x+1|-\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{2x-1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)+c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{x^{2}}{2}-2x-\frac{3}{2}\log |x^{2}-x+1|-\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{2x-1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)+c\)

Question 130:

\(\int \tan ^{-1}\sqrt{x}dx=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(x\tan ^{-1}x-\frac{1}{2}\log (1+x^{2})+c\)
  • (B) \(x\tan ^{-1}x+\frac{1}{2}\log (1+x^{2})+c\)
  • (C) \((x+1)\tan ^{-1}\sqrt{x}+\sqrt{x}+c\)
  • (D) \((x+1)\tan ^{-1}\sqrt{x}-\sqrt{x}+c\)

Question 131:

If \(\int [\sin (\log x)-\cos (\log x)]dx=xf(x)+c\), then the value of \(f(x)\) is:

  • (A) \(\sin (\log x)\)
  • (B) \(-\cos (\log x)\)
  • (C) \(-\sin (\log x)\)
  • (D) \(\cos (\log x)\)

Question 132:

\(\int \sec ^{2}2x\cdot \text{cosec}^{2}2xdx=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\tan x+c\)
  • (B) \(\cot 2x+\tan 2x+c\)
  • (C) \(\sec 2x+c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}(\tan 2x-\cot 2x)+c\)

Question 133:

Let \(f(x)\) be odd and continuous on \([-a,a]\). Then the value of \(\int _{-a}^{a}xf(x^{2})dx\) is:

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(f(a)\)
  • (C) \(2f(a)\)
  • (D) \(2a\)

Question 134:

The value of \(\lim _{n\rightarrow \infty }\left(\frac{n}{(n+1)\sqrt{2n+1}}+\frac{n}{(n+2)\sqrt{2(2n+2)}}+\frac{n}{(n+3)\sqrt{3(2n+3)}}+\cdots +\frac{1}{2n\sqrt{3}}\right)\) is:

  • (A) \(\pi /3\)
  • (B) \(\pi /2\)
  • (C) \(\pi /4\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 135:

If \(\int _{0}^{f(x)}dt=x\cos (\pi x)\) then \(f'(4)=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(4\pi\)

Question 136:

The value of \(\int _{0}^{\pi /2}\frac{\cos 3x+1}{2\,\cos x-1}dx\) is

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 137:

A body cools from \(100^{\circ }\)C to \(80^{\circ }\)C in 5 minutes in air at \(20^{\circ }\)C. The time taken to cool from \(80^{\circ }\)C to \(60^{\circ }\)C will be:

  • (A) Less than 5 minutes
  • (B) Equal to 5 minutes
  • (C) Greater than 5 minutes
  • (D) Cannot be determined

Question 138:

If the general solution of the differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx}=\cos (2x-3y)-\cos (2x+3y)\) is \(\cos 2x=g(y)+c\), then \(g(y)=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\cos 2x+\cos 2y\)
  • (B) \(\sec y+\tan y\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{1}{3}\log |\tan \left(\frac{3y}{2}\right)|\)
  • (D) \(2\,\log |\text{cosec}3y-\cot 3y|\)

Question 139:

The solution of the differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{xy+y}{xy+x}\) is

  • (A) \(y-x=\log \left(\frac{x}{y}\right)+c\)
  • (B) \(x-y=\log \left(\frac{x}{y}\right)+c\)
  • (C) \(y+x=\log \left(\frac{x}{y}\right)+c\)
  • (D) \(y+x=\log \left(\frac{y}{x}\right)+c\)

Question 140:

The scalar triple product of the vectors \([2\bar{a}+3\bar{b}\ \ 3\bar{b}+\bar{c}\ \ \bar{c}+2\bar{a}]\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(6[\bar{a}\ \ \bar{b}\ \ \bar{c}]\)
  • (B) \(12[\bar{a}\ \ \bar{b}\ \ \bar{c}]\)
  • (C) \(5[\bar{a}\ \ \bar{b}\ \ \bar{c}]\)
  • (D) \(24[\bar{a}\ \ \bar{b}\ \ \bar{c}]\)

Question 141:

If the vector \(\bar{r}\) is perpendicular to \(\hat{i}-\hat{k}\) and \(\bar{r}\times (\hat{i}+x\hat{j}-\hat{k})=\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+3\hat{k}\), then the value of \(\bar{r}\cdot (\hat{i}+x\hat{j}-\hat{k})=\)

  • (A) \(-2\)
  • (B) \(-1\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 142:

\(A(1,2)\), \(B(1,0)\) and \(C(0,2)\) are vertices of \(\Delta ABC\). The position vector of the point in which the bisector of angle \(A\) cuts \(BC\) is .....

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{3}\hat{i}+\frac{4}{3}\hat{j}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{3}\hat{i}+\frac{4}{3}\hat{j}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{3}\hat{i}+\frac{2}{3}\hat{j}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{3}\hat{i}+\frac{5}{3}\hat{j}\)

Question 143:

The equation of the plane that perpendicularly bisects the line segment joining the points \(A(2,-1,3)\) and \(B(3,1,0)\) is:

  • (A) \(x+2y-3z+2=0\)
  • (B) \(x+2y-3z-2=0\)
  • (C) \(x-3z+2=0\)
  • (D) \(x+2y-3z=0\)

Question 144:

The angle between the line \(\frac{x+1}{1}=\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{z-3}{3}\) and the plane \(3x+4y+z+5=0\) is:

  • (A) \(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{7}}{3}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{14}}{\sqrt{26}}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{21}}{14}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{28}}{21}\right)\)

Question 145:

The equation of the plane containing the line \(\frac{x+1}{4}=\frac{y-2}{-1}=\frac{z+5}{3}\) and parallel to the vector \(\hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k}\) is \(ax+by+cz=9\). Then, the value of \(a+b-c\) is:

  • (A) \(14\)
  • (B) \(-10\)
  • (C) \(-14\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 146:

The distance of the point \((1,1,1)\) from the line passing through the point \((2,3,4)\) whose direction ratios are \(2,-3,6\) is:

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{290}}{7}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{390}}{7}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{490}}{7}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\sqrt{590}}{7}\)

Question 147:

The position vector of a point \(P\), such that \(OP\) inclined to the X axis at \(45^{\circ }\) and to the Y axis at \(60^{\circ }\) and \(|OP|=12\) units is:

  • (A) \(\vec{r}=6\sqrt{2}\hat{i}-6\hat{j}+6\hat{k}\)
  • (B) \(\vec{r}=6\sqrt{2}\hat{i}\pm 6\hat{j}\pm 6\hat{k}\)
  • (C) \(\vec{r}=6\sqrt{2}\hat{i}+6\hat{j}\pm 6\hat{k}\)
  • (D) \(\vec{r}=6\sqrt{2}\hat{i}-6\hat{j}-6\hat{k}\)

Question 148:

The minimum value of \(Z=4x+6y\), subject to constraint \(x+2y\geq 80,3x+y\geq 75,x\geq 0,y\geq 0\) is:

  • (A) \(320\)
  • (B) \(450\)
  • (C) \(254\)
  • (D) \(180\)

Question 149:

The sum and product of mean and variance of a binomial distribution are 3 and 2 respectively. Then, \(P(X>0)=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{15}{16}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{16}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{11}{16}\)

Question 150:

A random variable X takes the values 0, 1, 2, 3 and its mean is \(1.3\). If \(P(X=3)=2P(X=1)\) and \(P(X=2)=0.3\), then \(P(X=0)\) is

  • (A) \(0.2\)
  • (B) \(0.1\)
  • (C) \(0.3\)
  • (D) \(0.4\)

MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT CET 2026 May 19 Shift 1 PCM Paper Analysis