MHT CET 2026 May 20 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on May 20 in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 12 PM in CBT mode.

The MHT CET 2026 PCM question paper includes the following:

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

MHT CET 2026 May 20 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper with Solution PDF

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MHT CET 2026 May 20 Shift 1 PCM Questions with Solutions


Physics (Q1 - Q50)

Question 1:

Let \(\vec{P}=\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{Q}=-\hat{i}-\hat{j}-\hat{k}\). The angle between \((\vec{P}-\vec{Q})\) and \(\vec{P}\) is

  • (A) \(90^{\circ }\)
  • (B) \(30^{\circ }\)
  • (C) \(60^{\circ }\)
  • (D) \(0^{\circ }\)

Question 2:

Mass and volume of a body are found to be \((6.00\pm 0.03)\) kg and \((2.00\pm 0.02)\) m\({}^{3}\) respectively. Then the density of the body is

  • (A) \(3\pm 0.010\) kg/m\({}^{3}\)
  • (B) \(3\pm 0.015\) kg/m\({}^{3}\)
  • (C) \(3\pm 0.020\) kg/m\({}^{3}\)
  • (D) \(3\pm 0.045\) kg/m\({}^{3}\)

Question 3:

A body moving with uniform acceleration travel \(16\) m in the third second of its motion and \(24\) m in the fifth second of its motion. The velocity of the body in \(10\) second is

  • (A) \(42\) m/s
  • (B) \(46\) m/s
  • (C) \(50\) m/s
  • (D) \(56\) m/s

Question 4:

The kinetic energy of light body and a heavy body is same. Which one of the following statement is true?

  • (A) Both bodies have same momentum
  • (B) Heavy body has greater momentum
  • (C) Lighter body has greater momentum
  • (D) A body having high velocity has greater momentum

Question 5:

If 'm' is the mass of the body moving with velocity 'v' having kinetic energy 'E', then the linear momentum of the body is

  • (A) \(E\sqrt{m}\)
  • (B) \(m\sqrt{E}\)
  • (C) \(2E\sqrt{m}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{2mE}\)

Question 6:

At the corners of an equilateral triangle of side L, point masses, each of mass \(2\) kg are placed. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis along any one side is (in kg\(-\)m\({}^{2}\))

  • (A) \(\frac{3L^{2}}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{L^{2}}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3L^{2}}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4L^{2}}{3}\)

Question 7:

The moment of inertia of two rotating bodies 'X' and 'Y' are \(I_{1}\) and \(I_{2}\) respectively where \(I_{2}>I_{1}\). If \(K_{x}\) and \(K_{y}\) are their rotational kinetic energies and their angular momenta are equal, then

  • (A) \(K_{x}=K_{y}\)
  • (B) \(K_{x}>K_{y}\)
  • (C) \(K_{x}\lt K_{y}\)
  • (D) \(K_{x}=\frac{K_{y}}{2}\)

Question 8:

The geostationary satellite is revolving round the earth of mean radius \(R\). If \(g\) is the acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface, \(\omega\) is the angular speed of rotation of earth about its own axis and \(r\) is the radius of orbit of a satellite, then the correct relation between \(r\), \(\omega\), \(g\) and \(R\) is

  • (A) \(r^{2}=\frac{gR^{2}}{w^{3}}\)
  • (B) \(R^{2}=\frac{r^{3}w^{2}}{g}\)
  • (C) \(R^{3}=\frac{r^{2}w}{g^{2}}\)
  • (D) \(R=\sqrt{\frac{rw^{3}}{g}}\)

Question 9:

\(729\) water droplets of equal radii combine to form a big drop. The ratio of final surface energy to the total initial surface energy is

  • (A) \(729:1\)
  • (B) \(8:1\)
  • (C) \(1:81\)
  • (D) \(1:9\)

Question 10:

Water rises to a height of \(2.2\) cm in glass capillary tube. The height to which water will rise in another capillary having one-fourth area of cross-section as that of the first is.

  • (A) \(4.2\) cm
  • (B) \(4.4\) cm
  • (C) \(3.4\) cm
  • (D) \(5.2\) cm

Question 11:

If a capillary tube is immersed in water, rise of water in capillary is \(h_{1}\). When the whole arrangement is taken to a depth \(d\) in a mine, the water level rises to \(h_{2}\). The ratio \(\frac{h_{2}}{h_{1}}\) is (R=radius of earth)

  • (A) \(\frac{R+d}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{R-d}{R}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{R}{(R+d)}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{R}{(R-d)}\)

Question 12:

Temperature of two stars are in the ratio \(3:2\). If wavelength of maximum intensity of first star is \(4200\text{Å}\), the corresponding wavelength for second star is

  • (A) \(2100\text{Å}\)
  • (B) \(3000\text{Å}\)
  • (C) \(6300\text{Å}\)
  • (D) \(7000\text{Å}\)

Question 13:

Identify the INCORRECT statement about the black body radiation

  • (A) Intensity is same for all wavelengths.
  • (B) Intensity is maximum for a particular wavelength.
  • (C) Intensity is less for longer wavelengths.
  • (D) A black body emits all wavelengths.

Question 14:

\(540\) gram of ice at \(0^{\circ }\)C is mixed with \(540\) gram of water at \(90^{\circ }\)C. The final temperature of the mixture will be [Latent heat of fusion of water = 80 cal/g]

  • (A) \(10^{\circ }\)C
  • (B) \(15^{\circ }\)C
  • (C) \(5^{\circ }\)C
  • (D) \(30^{\circ }\)C

Question 15:

Two bodies 'X' and 'Y' at temperatures \(T_{1}\) K and \(T_{2}\) K respectively have the same dimensions. Their emissivities \(e_{1}\) and \(e_{2}\) are in the ratio of \(1:6\). If their emissive powers are same, the relation between their temperatures is

  • (A) \(T_{1}:T_{2}=4^{1/4}:1\)
  • (B) \(T_{1}:T_{2}=5^{1/4}:1\)
  • (C) \(T_{1}:T_{2}=6^{1/4}:1\)
  • (D) \(T_{1}:T_{2}=7^{1/4}:1\)

Question 16:

In case of 'free expansion', which one of the following statements is 'WRONG'?

  • (A) It is an instantaneous change.
  • (B) The system is not in thermodynamic equilibrium.
  • (C) Free expansion can be plotted in a p-v diagram.
  • (D) It is an uncontrolled change.

Question 17:

An ideal gas having pressure P, volume V and temperature T undergoes a thermodynamic process in which \(dW=0\) and \(dQ\lt 0\). Then, for the gas

  • (A) V will increase
  • (B) T will increase
  • (C) P first decreases and then increases
  • (D) T will decrease

Question 18:

A spring of force constant \(180\) N/m is loaded with a mass \(0.20\) kg. The amplitude of oscillations is \(4\) cm. When mass comes to equillibrium position, its velocity in m/s is

  • (A) \(12\)
  • (B) \(1.2\)
  • (C) \(0.12\)
  • (D) \(0.012\)

Question 19:

The bob of a simple pendulum is a hollow sphere with a small hole in the bottom. It is filled with sand and set into oscillation. Its periodic time (T) is measured at regular intervals. As the sand starts coming out we find that.

  • (A) T increases with time
  • (B) T does not change with time
  • (C) T first decreases and then increases
  • (D) T first increases and then decreases

Question 20:

A simple pendulum performs simple harmonic motion about \(x=0\) with an amplitude 'A' and angular frequency \(\omega\). The speed of pendulum at \(x=\frac{A}{8}\) will be.

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{61}A\omega }{8}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{62}A\omega }{8}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{63}A\omega }{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\sqrt{65}A\omega }{8}\)

Question 21:

Two vibrating metal wires of the same material of length 'L' and '3L' and have radii '2r' and 'r' respectively. They are stretched under same tension. Both the wires vibrate in their fundamental modes. The ratio \(\frac{n_{1}}{n_{2}}\) is [\(n_{1}\) and \(n_{2}\) are the frequencies of first and second wire respectively]

  • (A) \(1:1\)
  • (B) \(1.5:1\)
  • (C) \(2:1\)
  • (D) \(2.5:1\)

Question 22:

A body sends waves \(150\) mm long through medium P and \(0.30\) m long in medium Q. If the velocity of wave in medium P is \(80\) cm/s, the velocity of wave in medium Q in m/s is

  • (A) \(1.6\)
  • (B) \(2.0\)
  • (C) \(3.2\)
  • (D) \(3.8\)

Question 23:

There are two wires vibrating with same frequency of \(500\) Hz. Tension in one wire is increased by 'x' % so that \(5\) beats per second are heard. The value of 'x' in % is

  • (A) \(5\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 24:

A pipe open at both ends has length \(1\) m. The air column in a pipe cannot resonate for a frequency (Neglect end correction, speed of sound in air \(=340\) m/s)

  • (A) \(510\) Hz
  • (B) \(340\) Hz
  • (C) \(170\) Hz
  • (D) \(85\) Hz

Question 25:

An electric charge of magnitude '\(2e\)' and mass '\(2m\)' is moving in an electric field 'E'. The acceleration imparted to the charge is

  • (A) \(\frac{2eE}{m}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{eE}{m}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{eE}{2m}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{me}{2E}\)

Question 26:

Polar molecules are those in which

  • (A) they have symmetric shape.
  • (B) centre of mass of positive charges does not coincide with centre of mass of negative charges.
  • (C) they have no permanent dipole moments.
  • (D) centre of mass of positive charges coincide with centre of mass of negative charges.

Question 27:

Three equal \((+q)\) charges are placed in air at the vertices of equilateral triangle. If the side of equilateral triangle is \(l\), the net potential energy of the system is \(\left[K=\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon _{0}}\right]\)

  • (A) \(\frac{kq^{2}}{l}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2kq^{2}}{l}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3kq^{2}}{l}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4kq^{2}}{l}\)

Question 28:

Air capacitor has capacitance \(C_{1}\). The space between two plates of capacitor is filled with two dielectric as shown in figure. The new capacitance of the capacitor is \(C_{2}\). Then \(\frac{C_{1}}{C_{2}}\) is [\(d\) = distance between two plates, \(K_{1}\) and \(K_{2}\) are dielectric constants of first and second dielectrics respectively]

  • (A) \(\frac{11}{30}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{8}{30}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{7}{30}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{13}{30}\)

Question 29:

A voltmeter with series resistance \(R\) has a range \((0-V_{1})\) volt. With a series resistance of \(4R\), its range becomes \((0-V_{2})\) volt. The relation between \(V_{1}\) and \(V_{2}\) is

  • (A) \(V_{2}=4V_{1}\)
  • (B) \(V_{2}\lt 4V_{1}\)
  • (C) \(V_{2}>4V_{1}\)
  • (D) \(V_{2}=\frac{V_{1}}{4}\)

Question 30:

A balanced meter bridge is shown in the circuit diagram. The meter bridge wire has resistance \(2\frac{\Omega }{cm}\). The current drawn from the battery is (Internal resistance of the battery is negligible)

  • (A) \(0.6\) A
  • (B) \(0.8\) A
  • (C) \(0.95\) A
  • (D) \(1.05\) A

Question 31:

A rectangular coil of \(n\) turns has area \(\vec{A}\) and it is placed in uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). If the current passing through the coil is 'I' then the torque acting on the coil is

  • (A) \(\frac{I}{n}(\vec{A}\times \vec{B})\)
  • (B) \(nI(\vec{A}\cdot \vec{B})\)
  • (C) \(nI(\vec{A}\times \vec{B})\)
  • (D) \(\frac{n}{I}(\vec{A}\cdot \vec{B})\)

Question 32:

A circular coil having n turns, each of radius 'r' carries a current I. The magnetic field at a distance \(x=\sqrt{8}r\) from its centre along the axis of the coil is (\(\mu _{0}\) = permeability of free space)

  • (A) \(\frac{\mu _{0}nI}{51r}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\mu _{0}nI}{52r}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\mu _{0}nI}{53r}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\mu _{0}nI}{54r}\)

Question 33:

A coil having effective area 'A' is held with its plane normal to a magnetic field of induction 'B'. The magnetic induction is quickly reduced to \(25\%\) of its initial value in \(2\) second. Then e.m.f. induced across the coil will be

  • (A) \(\frac{AB}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{AB}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3AB}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3AB}{8}\)

Question 34:

The current flowing through an inductor of self-inductance L is continuously increasing at constant rate. The variation of induced e.m.f. (e) versus time \(t\) is shown graphically by

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 35:

A long metal rod of length 'L' completes the circuit. The area of the coil is perpendicular to magnetic field 'B'. Total resistance of the circuit is 'R'. The force needed to move the rod in the direction as shown with constant speed 'V' is

  • (A) \(\frac{BL^{2}V^{2}}{2R}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{BL^{2}V}{4R}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{B^{2}VL^{2}}{R}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{BLV}{R}\)

Question 36:

A bar magnet falls from a height through a metal pipe. Its acceleration will be (\(g\) = acceleration due to gravity)

  • (A) less than \(g\)
  • (B) greater than \(g\)
  • (C) equal to \(g\)
  • (D) zero

Question 37:

The correct phasor diagram for an a.c. circuit containing only pure capacitor.

  • (A) (3)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (1)
  • (D) (4)

Question 38:

A resistor of \(200\Omega\), an inductor of self inductance \(\left(\frac{2}{\pi ^{2}}\right)\) H and a capacitor of unknown capacity are connected in series to an a.c. source of \(100\) V and \(50\) Hz. When the current and voltage are in phase the capacitance and the power dissipated is

  • (A) \(2\times 10^{-5}\) F, \(25\) W
  • (B) \(4\times 10^{-5}\) F, \(100\) W
  • (C) \(5\times 10^{-5}\) F, \(50\) W
  • (D) \(3\times 10^{-5}\) F, \(200\) W

Question 39:

The focal length of a glass convex lens in air is \(f_{a}\) and that in water is \(f_{w}\). The refractive index from air to glass is \(\frac{3}{2}\) and that from air to water is \(\frac{4}{3}\). The ratio \(f_{a}:f_{w}\) is

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(1:3\)
  • (C) \(1:4\)
  • (D) \(1:8\)

Question 40:

A beam of light is travelling from region I to region IV. The refractive indices in regions I, II, III and IV are \(n\), \(\frac{n}{2}\), \(\frac{n}{3}\) and \(\frac{n}{4}\) respectively. The angle of incidence for which the beam just misses entering region IV is [\(\sin 90^{\circ }=1\)]

  • (A) \(\sin ^{-1}(1)\)
  • (B) \(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)\)

Question 41:

In the Young's double slit experiment, when a glass plate of thickness 't' is introduced in the path of one of the slits, the intensity at the position where the central maximum occurred previously remains unchanged. The minimum thickness of glass plate is [refractive index of glass plate = 1.5, wavelength of light in vacuum is \(\lambda\)]

  • (A) \(2\lambda\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2\lambda }{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\lambda }{3}\)
  • (D) \(\lambda\)

Question 42:

The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity (\(I_{1}\) and \(I_{2}\)) ratio '\(\beta\)'. In the interference pattern, the ratio \(\left(\frac{I_{max}+I_{min}}{I_{max}-I_{min}}\right)\) will be \(\left(\beta =\frac{I_{2}}{I_{1}}\right)\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{\beta }}{\beta +1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{\beta }}{(\beta +1)^{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\beta +1}{2\sqrt{\beta }}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{(\beta +1)^{2}}{2(\sqrt{\beta })}\)

Question 43:

Light of incident frequency three times the threshold frequency is incident on a photo sensitive material. If the incident frequency is made \(\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{rd}\) and intensity is doubled then photoelectric current will

  • (A) be zero
  • (B) be halved
  • (C) be increased
  • (D) be decreased

Question 44:

The wavelength '\(\lambda\)' of photon and the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron have same value. The ratio of kinetic energy of electron to the energy of a photon is (m=mass of electron, h = Planck's constant, c = velocity of light)

  • (A) \(\frac{h}{2\lambda mc}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{h\lambda }{2mc}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2c}{hm\lambda }\)
  • (D) \(\frac{m\lambda }{2hc}\)

Question 45:

The relation between magnetic moment (M) of revolving electron of charge (e) and mass (m) having principle quantum number (n) is (h = Planck's constant)

  • (A) \(\frac{M}{n}=\frac{eh}{4\pi m}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{M}{n}=\frac{2\pi m}{eh}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{M}{4\pi }=\frac{nm}{eh}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{M}{eh}=4\pi nm\)

Question 46:

Which one of the following spectral series of hydrogen atom lies in ultraviolet region?

  • (A) Lyman
  • (B) Paschen
  • (C) Brackett
  • (D) Pfund

Question 47:

Which one of the following is possible nuclear reaction?

  • (A) \({}_{5}\text{B}^{10}+{}_{2}\text{He}^{4}\rightarrow {}_{7}\text{N}^{13}+{}_{1}\text{H}^{1}\)
  • (B) \({}_{11}\text{Na}^{23}+{}_{1}\text{H}^{1}\rightarrow {}_{10}\text{N}^{20}+{}_{2}\text{He}^{4}\)
  • (C) \({}_{93}\text{Np}^{239}\rightarrow {}_{94}\text{Pu}^{239}+{}_{-1}\text{e}^{0}\)
  • (D) \({}_{7}\text{N}^{11}+{}_{1}\text{H}^{1}\rightarrow {}_{6}\text{C}^{12}+{}_{-1}\text{e}^{0}\)

Question 48:

In case of thermistor, which one of the following statements is 'WRONG'?

  • (A) Resistance of NTC thermistor decreases with increase in its temperature.
  • (B) Resistance of PTC thermistor decreases with increase in its temperature.
  • (C) NTC thermistors are commonly used as temperature sensors.
  • (D) PTC thermistors are generally used as resettable fuses.

Question 49:

To get output zero for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is

  • (A) a and b
  • (B) c and d
  • (C) a and c
  • (D) b and d

Question 50:

In a two input logic gate, when one input is '1' and the other is '0' (zero), the output is '1'. But even if both inputs are '0' (zero), the output is '1'. The logic gate is

  • (A) an AND gate.
  • (B) an X-OR gate.
  • (C) a NAND gate.
  • (D) a NOR gate.

Chemistry (Q51 - Q100)

Question 51:

Which of the following gases has the maximum number of molecules?

  • (A) \(3.5\) g \(\text{N}_{2}\)
  • (B) \(0.5\) g \(\text{H}_{2}\)
  • (C) \(3.2\) g \(\text{O}_{2}\)
  • (D) \(4.6\) g \(\text{NO}_{2}\)

Question 52:

What is the energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom whose angular momentum is \(h/\pi\) ?

  • (A) \(-2.18\times 10^{-18}\) J
  • (B) \(-5.45\times 10^{-19}\) J
  • (C) \(-2.42\times 10^{-19}\) J
  • (D) \(-1.36\times 10^{-19}\) J

Question 53:

Which of the following is an example of diamagnetic species?

  • (A) Fe
  • (B) Gd
  • (C) \(\text{H}_{2}\text{O}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Fe}^{3+}\)

Question 54:

Which of the following compounds exhibits the highest boiling point?

  • (A) Propane.
  • (B) Dimethyl ether.
  • (C) Methyl chloride.
  • (D) Methyl cynide.

Question 55:

Which of the following pair of compounds consists equal number of lone pair of electrons in the valence shell of central atom?

  • (A) \(\text{BrF}_{5}\) and \(\text{XeF}_{6}\)
  • (B) \(\text{ICl}\) and \(\text{H}_{2}\text{S}\)
  • (C) \(\text{ClF}_{3}\) and \(\text{XeF}_{2}\)
  • (D) \(\text{IF}_{7}\) and \(\text{XeF}_{4}\)

Question 56:

Find the entropy change of the surrounding if the standard enthalpy of formation of a substance is \(-447\) kJ mol\({}^{-1}\)

  • (A) \(1500\) J K\({}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(-1500\) J K\({}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(1000\) J K\({}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(-1000\) J K\({}^{-1}\)

Question 57:

Calculate the amount of heat evolved when \(33\) g. \(\text{CO}_{2}(g)\) formed if the reaction is
\(\text{CH}_{2}\text{O}(g)+\text{O}_{2}(g)\rightarrow \text{CO}_{2}(g)+\text{H}_{2}\text{O}(g);\ \Delta H=-527\) kJ

  • (A) \(527\) kJ
  • (B) \(395.3\) kJ
  • (C) \(263.5\) kJ
  • (D) \(131.8\) kJ

Question 58:

Which of the following statements is correct about temperature and internal energy ?

  • (A) Both are extensive properties of the system.
  • (B) Both are the intensive properties of the system.
  • (C) Intensive and extensive properties of the system respectively.
  • (D) Extensive and intensive properties of the system respectively.

Question 59:

What is the pH of \(0.01\) M acetic acid that is \(1\%\) ionized?

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 60:

Determine the \([\text{OH}^{-}]\) of a solution of weak base BOH having its pH \(9.75\) at \(298\) K.

  • (A) \(6.512\times 10^{-5}\) M
  • (B) \(5.623\times 10^{-5}\) M
  • (C) \(4.647\times 10^{-5}\) M
  • (D) \(3.540\times 10^{-5}\) M

Question 61:

Which from following buffers is used as highly effective stabilizer in the preparation of penicillin?

  • (A) Ammonium hydroxide and ammonium chloride
  • (B) Acetic acid and sodium acetate
  • (C) Formic acid and sodium acetate
  • (D) Citric acid and sodium citrate

Question 62:

Find out the oxidation state of oxygen in \(\text{H}_{2}\text{O}_{2}\)

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(-2\)
  • (C) \(+1\)
  • (D) \(+2\)

Question 63:

Which element from group \(2\) of periodic table resembles with lithium for different properties ?

  • (A) Ca
  • (B) Be
  • (C) Ba
  • (D) Mg

Question 64:

What type of oxide the \(\text{Al}_{2}\text{O}_{3}\) is?

  • (A) Acidic oxide
  • (B) Basic oxide
  • (C) Amphoteric oxide
  • (D) Neutral oxide

Question 65:

Number of optically active stereoisomer are possible for butane-2,3-diol

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 66:

Identify optically inactive compound from the following.

  • (A) Lactic acid
  • (B) Glucose
  • (C) Isopropyl alcohol
  • (D) 2-chlorobutane

Question 67:

What type of isomerism is shown by the following pair of compounds?
\(\text{CH}_{3}-\text{CH}_{2}-\text{NH}-\text{CH}_{2}-\text{CH}_{3}\) and \(\text{CH}_{3}-\text{NH}-\text{CH}_{2}-\text{CH}_{2}-\text{CH}_{3}\)

  • (A) Chain isomerism
  • (B) Position isomerism
  • (C) Functional isomerism
  • (D) Metamerism

Question 68:

Identify the reaction when toluene is converted to benzaldehyde by using chromyl chloride.

  • (A) Etard reaction
  • (B) Gattermann-Koch reaction
  • (C) Cannizzaro reaction
  • (D) Wurtz reaction

Question 69:

Ethene reacts with cold and dilute alkaline potassium permanganate to from

  • (A) Ethanol
  • (B) Ethane-1,2-diol
  • (C) Ethanoic acid
  • (D) Ethanal

Question 70:

Green chemistry helps to protect the presence of the ozone layer in,

  • (A) atmosphere
  • (B) stratosphere
  • (C) lithosphere
  • (D) homosphere

Question 71:

Calculate the density of fcc crystal structure having molar mass \(58.5\) g mol\({}^{-1}\) and edge length \(564\) pm (\(N_{A}=6.022\times 10^{23}\))

  • (A) \(2.17\) g/cm\({}^{3}\)
  • (B) \(1.89\) g/cm\({}^{3}\)
  • (C) \(4.12\) g/cm\({}^{3}\)
  • (D) \(3.22\) g/cm\({}^{3}\)

Question 72:

Which of the following statement is correct in the context of defects in a crystal?

  • (A) AgCl as well as \(\text{CaF}_{2}\) has a schottky defect.
  • (B) AgCl as well as \(\text{CaF}_{2}\) have anion Frenkel defect.
  • (C) AgCl has cation Frenkel defect and \(\text{CaF}_{2}\) has anion Frenkel defect.
  • (D) AgCl has cation Frenkel defect and \(\text{CaF}_{2}\) has schottky defect.

Question 73:

What is degree of dissociation of \(\text{K}_{2}\text{SO}_{4}\) if the observed elevation in boiling point of electrolytic solution is \(0.1352^{\circ }\)C and normal elevation in boiling point of a non-electrolytic solution of same concentration is \(0.052^{\circ }\)C ?

  • (A) \(0.5\)
  • (B) \(0.6\)
  • (C) \(0.7\)
  • (D) \(0.8\)

Question 74:

Which of the following solutions is isotonic to \(0.1\) M NaCl solution at the same temperature, assuming complete dissociation of NaCl ? (Molar mass of glucose = \(180\) g/mol)

  • (A) A solution containing \(18\) g glucose in \(500\) ml solution.
  • (B) A solution containing \(1.8\) g glucose in \(1000\) ml solution.
  • (C) A solution containing \(3.6\) g glucose in \(500\) ml solution.
  • (D) A solution containing \(7.2\) g glucose in \(250\) ml solution.

Question 75:

Identify the correct order of solubility of NaCl, \(\text{Na}_{2}\text{SO}_{4}\) and \(\text{NaNO}_{3}\) in water with increase in temperature.

  • (A) \(\text{NaCl}>\text{Na}_{2}\text{SO}_{4}>\text{NaNO}_{3}\)
  • (B) \(\text{NaNO}_{3}>\text{NaCl}>\text{Na}_{2}\text{SO}_{4}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Na}_{2}\text{SO}_{4}>\text{NaCl}>\text{NaNO}_{3}\)
  • (D) \(\text{NaCl}>\text{Na}_{2}\text{SO}_{4}=\text{NaNO}_{3}\)

Question 76:

Calculate the standard emf of Zn-Cu cell if \(E^{\circ }(\text{Zn}^{2+}/\text{Zn})=-0.76\) V and \(E^{0}(\text{Cu}^{2+}/\text{Cu})=0.34\) V

  • (A) \(0.42\) V
  • (B) \(0.76\) V
  • (C) \(1.1\) V
  • (D) \(1.52\) V

Question 77:

The molar conductivities of NaCl, HCl and \(\text{C}_{2}\text{H}_{5}\text{COONa}\) at infinite dilution are \(126.45\), \(426.16\) and \(91\) ohm\({}^{-1}\)cm\({}^{2}\). The molar conductivity of \(\text{C}_{2}\text{H}_{5}\text{COOH}\) is

  • (A) \(201.28\) ohm\({}^{-1}\)cm\({}^{2}\)
  • (B) \(698.28\) ohm\({}^{-1}\)cm\({}^{2}\)
  • (C) \(540.48\) ohm\({}^{-1}\)cm\({}^{2}\)
  • (D) \(390.71\) ohm\({}^{-1}\)cm\({}^{2}\)

Question 78:

Identify the FALSE statement from the following.

  • (A) Standard cell potential of galvanic cell is an extensive property.
  • (B) Standard electrode potential is an intensive property.
  • (C) For spontaneous cell reaction in galvanic cell, free energy change should be negative.
  • (D) For spontaneous cell reaction in galvanic cell equilibrium constant of reaction should be greater than 1.

Question 79:

The half life of a first order reaction is \(13.86\) minutes. Calculate the time required for the reactant to be reduced to \(20\%\).

  • (A) \(8.05\) min.
  • (B) \(16.1\) min.
  • (C) \(32.2\) min.
  • (D) \(48.3\) min.

Question 80:

What is the role of \(\text{MnO}_{2}\) during the thermal decomposition of \(\text{KClO}_{3}\)?

  • (A) It increases the reaction's enthalpy.
  • (B) It increases the energy of activation of the reaction.
  • (C) It decreases the energy of activation of the reaction.
  • (D) It reduces the rate of collisions between reactant molecules.

Question 81:

Which of the following statements is NOT true for the reaction, \(4A+B\rightarrow 2C+2D\)?

  • (A) The rate of consumption of B is \((1/4)^{\text{th}}\) the rate of consumption of A.
  • (B) The rate of formation of D is half the rate of consumption of A.
  • (C) The rate of formation of C is half the rate of consumption of B.
  • (D) The rate of formation of C and D are equal.

Question 82:

Identify false statement among the following regarding adsorption.

  • (A) It is a surface phenomenon.
  • (B) It is an exothermic process.
  • (C) Gases having low critical temperature can be readily adsorbed by solid adsorbent.
  • (D) Colloidal substances acts as good adsorbents.

Question 83:

Sulfuric acid is used as a dehydrating agent in the following reaction. Identify the term used for carbon left.
\(\text{C}_{12}\text{H}_{22}\text{O}_{11}\xrightarrow{\text{H}_{2}\text{SO}_{4}}12\text{C}+11\text{H}_{2}\text{O}\)

  • (A) sugar charcoal
  • (B) charring
  • (C) graphite
  • (D) fused mixture

Question 84:

Identify the most stable oxidation state of iron by following.

  • (A) \(+2\)
  • (B) \(+3\)
  • (C) \(+6\)
  • (D) \(+4\)

Question 85:

Identify the number of lanthanoids among the following, exhibiting the \(+4\) oxidation state.
Ce, Pr, Nd, Pm, Sm, Eu, Gd, Tb, Dy

  • (A) \(5\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(6\)

Question 86:

Which of the following coordination compounds exhibits optical isomerism?

  • (A) Pentaamminenitrocobalt (III) iodide
  • (B) Diamminedichloroplatinum (II)
  • (C) trans-Dicyanobis (ethyleneddiamine) chromium (III) chloride
  • (D) Tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III) bromide.

Question 87:

Identify the isomerism exhibited by complex compounds \([\text{Co}(\text{NH}_{3})_{5}\text{SO}_{4}]\text{Br}\) and \([\text{Co}(\text{NH}_{3})_{5}\text{Br}]\text{SO}_{4}\)

  • (A) coordination isomers
  • (B) geometrical isomers
  • (C) optical isomers
  • (D) ionisation isomers

Question 88:

The reactivity order of halides for dehydrohalogenation is.

  • (A) \(\text{R-F}>\text{R-Cl}>\text{R-Br}>\text{R-I}\)
  • (B) \(\text{R-I}>\text{R-Br}>\text{R-Cl}>\text{R-F}\)
  • (C) \(\text{R-I}>\text{R-Cl}>\text{R-Br}>\text{R-F}\)
  • (D) \(\text{R-F}>\text{R-I}>\text{R-Br}>\text{R-Cl}\)

Question 89:

What is the product formed when a primary alcohol undergoes catalytic dehydrogenation by passing its vapor over heated copper at \(573\) K ?

  • (A) Ketone
  • (B) Aldehyde
  • (C) Alkene
  • (D) Ether

Question 90:

Identify the product of the following reaction.
\(\text{CH}_{3}\text{CH}_{2}\text{CH}_{2}\text{OH}+\text{SOCl}_{2}\rightarrow \text{P}\)

  • (A) \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{CH}_{2}\text{CH}_{2}\text{Cl}+\text{SO}_{2}+\text{HCl}\)
  • (B) \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{CH}_{2}\text{CH}_{2}\text{Br}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{CH}_{2}\text{OH}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{CH}_{2}\text{CH}_{2}\text{OCl}\)

Question 91:

In haloform reaction of acetaldehyde and all methyl ketones (\(\text{CH}_{3}\text{COR}\)), methyl group is converted to

  • (A) sodium salt
  • (B) haloform
  • (C) sodium hydroxide
  • (D) sodium hypohalite

Question 92:

Which of the following compounds shows Silver mirror test ?

  • (A) Acetone
  • (B) Acetaldehyde
  • (C) Ethanol
  • (D) Benzophenone

Question 93:

Identify the false statement regarding amide from the following.

  • (A) Amide is obtained on reaction of amines with acetyl chloride.
  • (B) Amide is more basic than amine
  • (C) Acylation of amine is a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
  • (D) The acylation reaction is carried out in presence of base.

Question 94:

Which of the following compounds on respective treatment form salfanilic acid ?

  • (A) Sulfuric acid and benzaldehyde
  • (B) Sulfuric acid and aniline
  • (C) Sulfuric acid and ethyl amine
  • (D) Sulfuric acid and acetanilide

Question 95:

Identify A in the following reaction.

  • (A) Cumene hydroperoxide
  • (B) Sodium benzene sulfonate
  • (C) Sodium phenoxide
  • (D) Benzene diazonium chloride

Question 96:

Which of the following arrangements represents the primary structure of proteins?

  • (A) The three - dimensional folding of the polypeptide chain.
  • (B) The sequence of amino acids linked by peptide bond.
  • (C) The interactions between different polypeptide chains.
  • (D) The formation of alpha helix and beta pleated sheets,

Question 97:

Which of the following is Polysachharide?

  • (A) Cellulose
  • (B) Sucrose
  • (C) Galactose
  • (D) Maltose

Question 98:

Which of the following polymers is obtained from-hexamethylene diammonium adipate?

  • (A) Nylon 6
  • (B) Nylon 6,6
  • (C) Dacron
  • (D) Melamine

Question 99:

Among the given polymers, the transparent polymer used in safety Equipments like helmets is

  • (A) PVC
  • (B) BUNA-N
  • (C) Perspex
  • (D) Polycarbonate

Question 100:

An antibiotic that contains arsenic is

  • (A) prontosil
  • (B) chloramphenicol
  • (C) salvarsan
  • (D) thymol

Mathematics (Q101 - Q150)

Question 101:

The digit present at the unit place of the sum \((1!+2!+3!+4!+\ldots +2026!)\) is

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 102:

If \(f(x)=\log _{e}\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right)\), \(|x|\lt 1\), then \(f\left(\frac{4x}{4+x^{2}}\right)\) is equal to

  • (A) \(2f(x)\)
  • (B) \(-2f(x)\)
  • (C) \(2f\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)\)
  • (D) \(-2f\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)\)

Question 103:

In \(\triangle ABC\), with usual notations, if \(\sin 2A+\sin 2B=\sin 2C\), then the type of the triangle is

  • (A) Isosceles triangle
  • (B) Equilateral triangle
  • (C) Right angled triangle
  • (D) Scalene triangle

Question 104:

If \(\sec 2\theta =p+\tan 2\theta\) then, the value of \(\cos ^{2}\theta\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{(p-1)^{2}}{2(p^{2}+1)}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{(p+1)^{2}}{2(p^{2}+1)}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{p^{2}+1}{2(p+1)^{2}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{p^{2}+1}{2(p-1)^{2}}\)

Question 105:

In \(\triangle ABC\), with usual notations, if \(A=60^{\circ }\) and \(a=4\), then the maximum possible area (in sq. units) of \(\triangle ABC\) is...

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(4\sqrt{3}\)
  • (C) \(8\)
  • (D) \(8\sqrt{3}\)

Question 106:

If \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are complex cube roots of unity, then the difference between the values of \(\alpha ^{2}+\beta ^{2}+\alpha \beta\) and \(\alpha ^{4}+\beta ^{4}+\alpha ^{-1}\beta ^{-1}\) is

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(-2\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 107:

If two sides of a triangle are the roots of the equation \(x^{2}-\sqrt{10}x+2=0\) and angle between them is \(60^{\circ }\), then the third side is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 108:

If \(p_{1}\) and \(p_{2}\) are the lengths of perpendiculars from the origin to the lines \(x\sec \theta +y\csc \theta =a\) and \(x\cos \theta -y\sin \theta =a\cos (2\theta )\) respectively, then \(4p_{1}^{2}+p_{2}^{2}=\)

  • (A) \(2a^{2}\)
  • (B) \(4a^{2}\)
  • (C) \(a^{2}\)
  • (D) \(3a^{2}\)

Question 109:

If the equation \(ax^{2}-y^{2}+2y+c=1\) represents a pair of perpendicular lines, then the values of \(a\) and \(c\) respectively are...

  • (A) \(1,-1\)
  • (B) \(0,1\)
  • (C) \(1,0\)
  • (D) \(2,3\)

Question 110:

The area of the triangle (in sq. units) formed by the pair of lines \(x^{2}-4y^{2}-8x+16=0\) and the line \(x=2\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(4\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 111:

If the length of the tangent segment from the point \((8,-3)\) to the circle \(x^{2}+y^{2}-2x+ky-23=0\) is \(\sqrt{10}\), then the value of \(k\) is

  • (A) \(10\)
  • (B) \(8\)
  • (C) \(24\)
  • (D) \(34\)

Question 112:

If the line \(4x-3y+k=0\) touches the ellipse \(5x^{2}+9y^{2}=45\), then the value of \(k\) is

  • (A) \(21\)
  • (B) \(\pm 3\sqrt{21}\)
  • (C) \(\pm 3\)
  • (D) \(63\)

Question 113:

If \(f(x)=\frac{10^{x}+7^{x}-14^{x}-5^{x}}{1-\cos x}\), for \(x\neq 0\) and \(f(0)=k\) is continuous at \(x=0\), then the value of \(k\) is _____

  • (A) \(\log 4\log \frac{7}{5}\)
  • (B) \(\log 4\log \frac{5}{7}\)
  • (C) \(\log \frac{5}{7}\)
  • (D) \(\log 2\log \frac{5}{7}\)

Question 114:

If \(f(9)=36\), \(u(9)=9\), \(f'(9)=12\), \(u'(9)=4\), then \(\lim _{x\rightarrow 9}\frac{\sqrt{f(x)}-2\sqrt{u(x)}}{\sqrt{x}-3}=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(-2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) Does not exist

Question 115:

The logical statement \(\sim [(p\rightarrow q)\leftrightarrow (p\wedge \sim q)]\) is

  • (A) a fallacy
  • (B) equivalent to \(p\wedge q\)
  • (C) equivalent to \(p\vee q\)
  • (D) a tautology

Question 116:

If \(p,q,r\) are statements with truth values F, T, F respectively then the truth values of \((p\wedge q)\leftrightarrow \sim p\) and \(q\rightarrow (p\vee \sim r)\) are respectively _____

  • (A) T, F
  • (B) T, T
  • (C) F, F
  • (D) F, T

Question 117:

If \(\sum _{x=1}^{2025}\tan ^{2}(\sec ^{-1}x)=\frac{2024\times 2025\times k}{6}\), then \(k=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(2027\)
  • (B) \(2030\)
  • (C) \(4055\)
  • (D) \(4061\)

Question 118:

Let \(X=\begin{bmatrix} 4 & 2 \\ -1 & 3 \end{bmatrix}\), \(Y=\begin{bmatrix} -1 & 2 \\ 1 & -3 \end{bmatrix}\), then \((XY)^{-1}\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\begin{bmatrix} \frac{11}{14} & \frac{-2}{14} \\ \frac{-4}{14} & \frac{-2}{14} \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (B) \(\begin{bmatrix} \frac{-11}{14} & \frac{2}{14} \\ \frac{-4}{14} & \frac{-2}{14} \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (C) \(\begin{bmatrix} \frac{-11}{14} & \frac{-2}{14} \\ \frac{4}{14} & \frac{-2}{14} \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (D) \(\begin{bmatrix} \frac{-11}{14} & \frac{-2}{14} \\ \frac{-4}{14} & \frac{-2}{14} \end{bmatrix}\)

Question 119:

If \(A=\begin{bmatrix} 1 & -1 & 1 \\ 2 & -1 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix}\), then which of the following is not true?

  • (A) \(A^{-1}=A^{2}\)
  • (B) \(A^{2}\) is a triangular matrix.
  • (C) \(A\) is a non-singular matrix.
  • (D) \(A^{3}\) is an identity matrix.

Question 120:

If \(y=f\left(\frac{2x-1}{x^{2}+1}\right)\) and \(f'(x)=\sin x^{2}\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\sin \left(\frac{2x-1}{x^{2}+1}\right)^{2}\left[\frac{2+2x+x^{2}}{(x^{2}+1)^{2}}\right]\)
  • (B) \(\sin \left(\frac{2x-1}{x^{2}+1}\right)^{2}\left[\frac{2+2x-2x^{2}}{(x^{2}+1)^{2}}\right]\)
  • (C) \(\sin \left(\frac{2x-1}{x^{2}+1}\right)^{2}\left[\frac{2+2x-x^{2}}{(x^{2}+1)^{2}}\right]\)
  • (D) \(\sin \left(\frac{2x-1}{x^{2}+1}\right)^{2}\left[\frac{2+2x+2x^{2}}{(x^{2}+1)^{2}}\right]\)

Question 121:

If \(h(x)=2g\{3g[4g(5g(x))]\}\) such that \(g(0)=0\) and \(g'(0)=2\) then \(h'(0)=\)

  • (A) \(1920\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(120\)
  • (D) \(1900\)

Question 122:

If \(y^{1/n}+y^{-1/n}=2x\), then \((x^{2}-1)\frac{d^{2}y}{dx^{2}}+x\frac{dy}{dx}=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(n^{2}y\)
  • (B) \(-n^{2}y\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(y\)

Question 123:

Let \(y^{2}=a\cos ^{2}x+b\sin ^{2}x\) be such that \(a+b=2024\) and \(a>0,b>0\) follows \(y^{4}+y^{3}y^{''}=k\). If \(\lambda\) is the maximum possible value of \(k\), then \(\lambda =\)

  • (A) \((506)^{2}\)
  • (B) \(506\)
  • (C) \((1012)^{2}\)
  • (D) \(1012\)

Question 124:

Let \(f(x)=(a+2)x^{3}-3ax^{2}+9ax-5\). If \(f(x)\) is strictly decreasing for all \(x\in R\), then the interval in which \(a\) lies is

  • (A) \((-\infty ,-3)\)
  • (B) \((-\infty ,-2)\)
  • (C) \((0,\infty )\)
  • (D) \((-\infty ,-5)\)

Question 125:

If \(f(x)=5x^{3}+2x^{2}-3x+1\) has a local maxima and a local minima at \(x=\sin \theta ,\pi \lt \theta \lt \frac{3\pi }{2}\) and \(x=\cos \phi ,\frac{3\pi }{2}\lt \phi \lt 2\pi\) respectively, then \((\tan \theta )(\tan \phi )=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{-3\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3\sqrt{2}}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-3\sqrt{2}}{2}\)

Question 126:

Let the curve \(y=e^{2x}+x^{2}\) cuts the Y-axis at the point P. If the tangent and normal to the curve at point P intersect the X-axis at points R and Q respectively, the area of triangle PQR is.....

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5}{2}\)

Question 127:

If \(\int \frac{\cos \frac{x}{2}-\sin \frac{x}{2}}{\sqrt{8-\sin x}}dx=2\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{\phi (x)}{3}\right)+c\), then \([\phi (x)]^{2}\) is equal to _____

  • (A) \(1+\cos x\)
  • (B) \(1+\sin x\)
  • (C) \(1-\sin x\)
  • (D) \(1-\cos x\)

Question 128:

If \(\int \frac{x+1}{x(1+xe^{x})^{2}}dx=\log |\frac{xe^{x}}{1+xe^{x}}|+f(x)+c\), then \(f(x)=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{1+xe^{x}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x}{1+xe^{x}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{xe^{x}}{1+x}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{xe^{x}}{1+e^{x}}\)

Question 129:

If \(\int g(x)dx=f(x)\) then \(\int \frac{g(x)}{9-[f(x)]^{2}}dx\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{6}\log |\frac{3-g(x)}{3-f(x)}|+c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{3}\log |\frac{3+f(x)}{3-f(x)}|+c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{6}\log |\frac{3+f(x)}{3-f(x)}|+c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{3}\log |\frac{3+f(x)}{3+g(x)}|+c\)

Question 130:

If \(\int \frac{2\,\tan x+3}{3\,\tan x+4}dx=Ax+B\log |3\,\sin x+4\,\cos x|+c\), then the values of \(A\) and \(B\) respectively are

  • (A) \(-\frac{18}{25},\frac{1}{25}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{18}{25},-\frac{1}{25}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{18}{25},-\frac{1}{25}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{18}{25},\frac{1}{25}\)

Question 131:

If \(\int _{\alpha }^{2026-\alpha }\frac{(2026-x)^{2}}{x^{2}+(2026-x)^{2}}dx=100\), then \(\alpha =\)

  • (A) \(913\)
  • (B) \(1013\)
  • (C) \(1113\)
  • (D) \(1213\)

Question 132:

\(\int _{0}^{2}|4x-5|dx=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{17}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{-17}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{17}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-4}{17}\)

Question 133:

The area bounded by the curves \(y=|x|\) and \(y=4-|x|\) is ..... sq units.

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(8\)
  • (C) \(4\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(16\)

Question 134:

The area between the parabola \(y=2x-x^{2}\) and the X-axis is .....

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{8}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{16}{3}\)

Question 135:

If \(x\frac{dy}{dx}=y(\log y-\log x+1)\) and its solution is \(y=[h(x)]e^{cx}\), then \(h(x)=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(2x\)
  • (B) \(x\)
  • (C) \(\log x\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{x}\)

Question 136:

The solution of the differential equation \(x^{2}ydx-(x^{3}+y^{3})dy=0\) is

  • (A) \(\log |y|-\frac{x^{3}}{2y^{3}}=c\)
  • (B) \(\log |y|+\frac{x^{3}}{2y^{3}}=c\)
  • (C) \(\log |y|-\frac{x^{3}}{4y^{3}}=c\)
  • (D) \(\log |y|-\frac{x^{3}}{3y^{3}}=c\)

Question 137:

The differential equation which represents the family of curves \((a+bx)e^{y/x}=x\), (where \(a\) and \(b\) are arbitrary constants); is

  • (A) \(x\frac{d^{2}y}{dx^{2}}=x\frac{dy}{dx}-y\)
  • (B) \(x^{3}\frac{d^{2}y}{dx^{2}}=\left(x\frac{dy}{dx}-y\right)^{2}\)
  • (C) \(x^{2}\frac{d^{2}y}{dx^{2}}=x\frac{dy}{dx}-y\)
  • (D) \(x^{3}\frac{d^{2}y}{dx^{2}}=\left(x\frac{dy}{dx}-y\right)^{3}\)

Question 138:

If \(\vec{a},\vec{b},\vec{c}\) are unit vectors satisfying \(\vec{a}-(\sqrt{3})\vec{b}+\vec{c}=\vec{0}\), then the angle between \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{c}\) is...

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi }{6}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi }{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi }{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi }{2}\)

Question 139:

In \(\triangle ABC\), \(P\) is a point on side \(BC\) such that \(BP:PC=4:1\) and \(Q\) is a point on the segment \(AP\) such that \(AQ:QP=3:2\). If \(\vec{BQ}\) is expressed as \(\vec{BQ}=x\vec{BA}+y\vec{BC}\), then the value of \(x+y\) is:

  • (A) \(\frac{22}{25}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{17}{25}\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 140:

If \(8\overline{AB}-3\overline{AC}-5\overline{AD}=\overline{O}\), then the ratio in which the point \(B\) divides segment \(CD\) is ....

  • (A) \(8:3\)
  • (B) \(8:5\)
  • (C) \(5:3\)
  • (D) \(3:4\)

Question 141:

If a parallelogram is constructed on vectors \(\vec{a}=3\vec{p}-\vec{q}\), \(\vec{b}=\vec{p}+3\vec{q}\) and \(|\vec{p}|=|\vec{q}|=2\) and the angle between \(\vec{p}\) and \(\vec{q}\) is \(\frac{\pi }{3}\), then \(|\vec{a}|:|\vec{b}|=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\sqrt{5}:\sqrt{13}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{7}:\sqrt{13}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{13}:\sqrt{7}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{13}:\sqrt{5}\)

Question 142:

If \(\vec{r}=4\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+7\hat{k}+\lambda (3\hat{i}-5\hat{k})\) is the vector equation of the line passing through \((7,2,2)\), where \(\lambda\) is parameter, then the value of \(\lambda\) is...

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(-2\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 143:

If the line \(\frac{x-2}{3}=\frac{y-1}{-5}=\frac{z+2}{2}\) lies in the plane \(x+3y+\alpha z+\beta =0\), then \((\alpha ,\beta )\) is

  • (A) \((6,7)\)
  • (B) \((-6,7)\)
  • (C) \((6,-7)\)
  • (D) \((-6,-7)\)

Question 144:

The coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular and the length of perpendicular drawn from \((0,2,3)\) to the line \(\frac{x+3}{5}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z+4}{3}\) are respectively

  • (A) \((2,3,-1),\sqrt{31}\)
  • (B) \((2,3,1),\sqrt{21}\)
  • (C) \((2,3,-1),\sqrt{21}\)
  • (D) \((2,3,1),\sqrt{31}\)

Question 145:

The position vector of the point at which the line joining the points \(\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-\hat{k}\) and \(3\hat{i}+4\hat{j}-2\hat{k}\) cuts the plane \(\vec{r}\cdot (\hat{j}-\hat{k})=-1\) is

  • (A) \(-\frac{5}{3}\hat{i}-\frac{2}{3}\hat{j}+\frac{1}{3}\hat{k}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{5}{3}\hat{i}-\frac{2}{3}\hat{j}-\frac{1}{3}\hat{k}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{3}\hat{i}-\frac{2}{3}\hat{j}+\frac{1}{3}\hat{k}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5}{3}\hat{i}-\frac{2}{3}\hat{j}-\frac{1}{3}\hat{k}\)

Question 146:

The direction cosines \(l,m,n\) of the two lines are connected by the relations \(l+m+n=0\) and \(lm=0\), then the angle between the lines is....

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(45^{\circ }\)
  • (C) \(60^{\circ }\)
  • (D) \(90^{\circ }\)

Question 147:

The correct constraints for the given feasible region are ...

  • (A) \(x+2y-2\geq 0,3x+5y-15\geq 0,2x-3y+6\geq 0,x\geq 0,y\geq 0\)
  • (B) \(x+2y-2\leq 0,3x+5y-15\leq 0,2x-3y+6\leq 0,x\geq 0,y\geq 0\)
  • (C) \(x+2y-2\leq 0,3x+5y-15\geq 0,2x-3y+6\geq 0,x\geq 0,y\geq 0\)
  • (D) \(x+2y-2\geq 0,3x+5y-15\leq 0,2x-3y+6\geq 0,x\geq 0,y\geq 0\)

Question 148:

If the random variable \(X\sim B(4,0.5)\), then probability \(P(X\lt 3/X\geq 1)=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 149:

Two numbers are selected without replacement from the first six positive integers. Let X denote the number of prime numbers obtained. The mean value of X is .......

  • (A) \(0.6\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(1.2\)
  • (D) \(0.8\)

Question 150:

Let \(a\) and \(b\) be the numbers obtained in two trials of tossing a fair die. The probability that the matrix \(\begin{bmatrix} a & 2 \\ 6 & b \end{bmatrix}\) is not invertible is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{18}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{12}\)

MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT CET 2026 May 20 Shift 1 PCM Paper Analysis