MHT CET 2026 May 15 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper is available for download here. Maharashtra State CET Cell conducted MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam on May 15 in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 12 PM in CBT mode.

The MHT CET 2026 PCM question paper includes the following:

  • The MHT CET 2026 PCM Question Paper consists of 150 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) totalling 200 marks divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with 50 questions in each subject.
  • Physics and Chemistry questions carry 1 mark each while Mathematics questions carry 2 marks each.
  • There is no negative marking for incorrect answers.

MHT CET 2026 May 15 Shift 1 PCM Question Paper with Solution PDF

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MHT CET 2026 May 15 Shift 1 PCM Questions with Solutions


Physics (Q1 - Q50)

Question 1:

If \(|\vec{A}\times \vec{B}|=\sqrt{3}(\vec{A}\cdot \vec{B})\) then the value of \(|\vec{A}+\vec{B}|\) is (\(\tan 60^{\circ }=\sqrt{3}\), \(\cos 60^{\circ }=\frac{1}{2}\))

  • (A) \(\left[A^{2}+B^{2}+\frac{AB}{\sqrt{3}}\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (B) \(A+B\)
  • (C) \((A^{2}+B^{2}+\sqrt{3}AB)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
  • (D) \((A^{2}+B^{2}+AB)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)

Question 2:

Angular velocity of hour hand of a watch is (in rad/s)

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi }{43200}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi }{30}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi }{21600}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi }{1800}\)

Question 3:

The maximum and minimum tensions in the string whirling in a circle of radius \(2.5\) m are in the ratio \(5:3\) then its velocity is (\(g=10\ \text{m/s}^{2}\))

  • (A) \(10\ \text{m/s}\)
  • (B) \(100\ \text{m/s}\)
  • (C) \(1\ \text{m/s}\)
  • (D) \(5\ \text{m/s}\)

Question 4:

A block of mass \(m\) moving on a frictionless surface at speed \(V\) collides elastically with a block of same mass, initially at rest. Now, the first block moves at an angle \(\theta\) with its initial direction and has speed \(V_{1}\). The speed of the second block after collision is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{V_{1}^{2}-V^{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{V^{2}-V_{1}^{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{V^{2}+V_{1}^{2}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{V-V_{1}}\)

Question 5:

A square frame ABCD is formed by 4 identical rods each of mass \(m\) and length \(\ell\). This frame is in XY plane such that side AB coincides with x-axis and side AD along y-axis. The moment of inertia of the frame about x-axis is

  • (A) \(\frac{5m\ell ^{2}}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2m\ell ^{2}}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4m\ell ^{2}}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{m\ell ^{2}}{12}\)

Question 6:

A thin uniform rod of length \(L\) and mass \(m\) is swinging freely about a horizontal axis passing through its end. Its maximum angular speed is \(\omega\). Its centre of mass rises to a maximum height of (\(g\) = acceleration due to gravity)

  • (A) \(\frac{L^{2}\omega ^{2}}{2g}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{L\omega }{6g}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{L\omega }{2g}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{L^{2}\omega ^{2}}{6g}\)

Question 7:

The kinetic energy of a revolving satellite (mass \(m\)) at a height equal to thrice the radius of the earth (\(R\)) is (\(g\) = acceleration due to gravity)

  • (A) \(\frac{mgR}{8}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{mgR}{16}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{mgR}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{mgR}{4}\)

Question 8:

A \(20\) cm long capillary is dipped vertically in water. Water rises to \(8\) cm. If the arrangement is put in a freely falling elevator, the length of water column in capillary tube will be

  • (A) \(8\ \text{cm}\)
  • (B) \(10\ \text{cm}\)
  • (C) \(4\ \text{cm}\)
  • (D) \(20\ \text{cm}\)

Question 9:

If terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density = \(19.5\ \text{kg/m}^{3}\)) is \(0.2\) m/s in viscous liquid (density = \(1.5\ \text{kg/m}^{3}\)), find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density = \(10.5\ \text{kg/m}^{3}\)) of the same size in the same liquid.

  • (A) \(0.4\ \text{m/s}\)
  • (B) \(0.133\ \text{m/s}\)
  • (C) \(0.1\ \text{m/s}\)
  • (D) \(0.2\ \text{m/s}\)

Question 10:

A water drop is divided into 8 equal droplets. The pressure difference between the inner and outer side of the big drop will be

  • (A) same as for smaller droplet
  • (B) half of that for smaller droplet
  • (C) \(\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^{th}\) of that for smaller droplet
  • (D) twice that for smaller droplet

Question 11:

An iron tyre is to be fitted on to a wooden wheel \(1.0\) m in diameter. The diameter of the tyre is \(6\) mm smaller than that of the wheel. The tyre should be heated so that its temperature increases by a minimum of
(coefficient of volume expansion of iron = \(3.6\times 10^{-5}/^{\circ }\)C)

  • (A) \(167^{\circ }\)C
  • (B) \(334^{\circ }\)C
  • (C) \(500^{\circ }\)C
  • (D) \(1000^{\circ }\)C

Question 12:

The temperature of a black body is increased by \(50\%\) then the percentage increase of radiation is nearly

  • (A) \(100\%\)
  • (B) \(25\%\)
  • (C) \(400\%\)
  • (D) \(500\%\)

Question 13:

We consider a thermodynamic system. If \(\Delta U\) is the increase in internal energy and \(W\) is the work done by the system, which one of the following statement is true?

  • (A) \(\Delta U=-W\) in an adiabatic process
  • (B) \(\Delta U=W\) in an isothermal process
  • (C) \(\Delta U=-W\) in an isothermal process
  • (D) \(\Delta U=W\) in an adiabatic process

Question 14:

One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path AB as shown. The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is

  • (A) \(20\ \text{kJ}\)
  • (B) \(-20\ \text{kJ}\)
  • (C) \(20\ \text{J}\)
  • (D) \(-12\ \text{kJ}\)

Question 15:

How much heat energy in joule must be supplied to \(14\) g of nitrogen at room temperature to raise its temperature by \(40^{\circ }\)C at constant pressure?
(molecular wt. of nitrogen = \(28\) g, \(R\) = gas constant) (gas is diatomic)

  • (A) \(50R\)
  • (B) \(60R\)
  • (C) \(70R\)
  • (D) \(80R\)

Question 16:

The gas in a vessel is subjected to a pressure of \(20\) atm. at \(27^{\circ }\)C. Now half of the gas is released from the vessel and the temperature is raised by \(50^{\circ }\)C. The pressure of a gas in a vessel is nearly

  • (A) \(8\) atm.
  • (B) \(11\) atm.
  • (C) \(12\) atm.
  • (D) \(17\) atm.

Question 17:

A body of mass \(64\) g is made to oscillate turn by turn on two different springs A and B. Spring A and B has force constant \(4\) N/m and \(16\) N/m respectively. If \(T_{1}\) and \(T_{2}\) are the period of oscillations of springs A and B respectively, then \((T_{1}+T_{2})/(T_{1}-T_{2})\) will be

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(1:3\)
  • (C) \(3:1\)
  • (D) \(2:1\)

Question 18:

Two simple pendulums, A of mass \(M_{1}\) and length \(L_{1}\), and B of mass \(M_{2}\) and length \(L_{2}\).
\(M_{1}=M_{2}\) and \(L_{1}=2L_{2}\). If vibrational energies of both are same then which one of the following is correct?

  • (A) Amplitude of B greater than A
  • (B) Amplitude of B is smaller than A
  • (C) Amplitude of both is equal
  • (D) Amplitude of A is twice that of B

Question 19:

The period of S.H.M. of a particle is \(12\)s. The phase difference between the positions at \(t=3\)s and \(t=4\)s will be

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi }{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3\pi }{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi }{6}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi }{2}\)

Question 20:

The equation of a wave is \(y=0.07\,\sin (12\pi x-3000\pi t)\) where \(x\) is in metre and \(t\) is in second then

  • (A) \(\lambda =\frac{1}{6}\ \text{m},\ v=250\ \frac{\text{m}}{\text{s}}\)
  • (B) \(a=0.07\ \text{m},\ v=500\ \frac{\text{m}}{\text{s}}\)
  • (C) \(n=1500\ \text{Hz},\ v=200\ \frac{\text{m}}{\text{s}}\)
  • (D) \(\lambda =\frac{1}{3}\ \text{m},\ v=500\ \frac{\text{m}}{\text{s}}\)

Question 21:

A transverse wave is propagating on the string. The linear density of vibrating string is \(10^{-3}\) kg/m. The equation of the wave is \(Y=0.05\,\sin (x+15t)\) where \(x\) and \(Y\) are in metre and time in second. The tension in the string is

  • (A) \(0.2\ \text{N}\)
  • (B) \(0.25\ \text{N}\)
  • (C) \(0.225\ \text{N}\)
  • (D) \(0.325\ \text{N}\)

Question 22:

A uniform wire of length \(L\), diameter \(D\) and density \(\rho\) is stretched under tension \(T\). The relation between its fundamental frequency \(f\), length \(L\) and diameter \(D\) is

  • (A) \(f\propto \frac{1}{LD}\)
  • (B) \(f\propto \frac{1}{\ell \sqrt{D}}\)
  • (C) \(f\propto \frac{1}{D^{2}}\)
  • (D) \(f\propto \frac{1}{\ell D^{2}}\)

Question 23:

The speed of a wave on a string is \(150\) m/s when the tension is \(120\) N. The percentage increase in the tension to raise the wave speed by \(20\%\) is

  • (A) \(44\%\)
  • (B) \(40\%\)
  • (C) \(20\%\)
  • (D) \(10\%\)

Question 24:

A large insulated sphere of radius \(r\), charged with \(Q\) C is placed in contact with a small insulated uncharged sphere of radius \(r_{1}\) and is then separated. The charge on the smaller sphere will now be

  • (A) \(Q(r+r_{1})\)
  • (B) \(Q(r-r_{1})\)
  • (C) \(\frac{Q}{(r+r_{1})}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{Qr_{1}}{(r+r_{1})}\)

Question 25:

Two charged identical metal spheres A and B repel each other with a force \(3\times 10^{-5}\) N. Another identical uncharged sphere C is touched with A and then placed at the mid-point between A and B. Net force on C is \(x\times 10^{-5}\) N. The value of \(x\) is

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(1.5\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 26:

A charge \(10\ \mu C\) exists at the centre of a square. The work done in moving a \(2\ \mu C\) point charge from corner A to corner B of a square ABCD is

  • (A) zero
  • (B) \(5\ \text{J}\)
  • (C) \(2\ \text{J}\)
  • (D) \(20\ \text{J}\)

Question 27:

The electrostatic force (\(F\)) between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor (\(C\)) having a charge \(Q\) and area \(A\) is (\(d\) = distance between the plates)

  • (A) \(F\propto \sqrt{d}\)
  • (B) \(F\propto d\)
  • (C) independent of \(d\)
  • (D) \(F\propto \frac{1}{d}\)

Question 28:

With resistance \(x\) in the left gap and resistance \(9\ \Omega\) in right gap of a meter bridge, the balance point is obtained at \(40\) cm from left end. In what way and to which resistance \(3\ \Omega\) resistance be connected to obtain the balance point at \(50\) cm from the left end?

  • (A) In series with \(9\ \Omega\)
  • (B) Parallel to \(x\ \Omega\)
  • (C) In series with \(x\ \Omega\)
  • (D) Parallel to \(9\ \Omega\)

Question 29:

Potentiometer wire of length \(1\)m is connected in series with \(490\ \Omega\) resistance and \(2\) V battery. If \(0.2\) mV/cm is the potential gradient then the resistance of the potentiometer wire is

  • (A) \(4.9\ \Omega\)
  • (B) \(7.9\ \Omega\)
  • (C) \(5.9\ \Omega\)
  • (D) \(6.9\ \Omega\)

Question 30:

A resistor of \(6\ \Omega\) with a tolerance of \(10\%\) and another of \(4\ \Omega\) with a tolerance of \(10\%\) are connected in series. The tolerance of combination is about

  • (A) \(5\%\)
  • (B) \(10\%\)
  • (C) \(12\%\)
  • (D) \(15\%\)

Question 31:

When an electron is kept in a strong magnetic field, then

  • (A) electron moves in opposite direction of applied magnetic field.
  • (B) electron moves in the direction of applied magnetic field.
  • (C) electron moves in the direction of perpendicular direction of magnetic field.
  • (D) electron remains stationary at the same position.

Question 32:

Two circular coils A and B are made from same wire but the radius of coil A is twice that of coil B. If the magnetic field at their centres is same then the ratio potential difference applied across them is

  • (A) \(3:1\)
  • (B) \(4:1\)
  • (C) \(6:1\)
  • (D) \(2:1\)

Question 33:

A magnetising field of \(5000\) A/m produces a magnetic flux of \(4\times 10^{-5}\) Wb in an iron rod of cross-sectional area \(0.4\ \text{cm}^{2}\). The permeability of the rod (in Wb/Am) is

  • (A) \(4\times 10^{-6}\)
  • (B) \(1\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (C) \(2\times 10^{-4}\)
  • (D) \(3\times 10^{-5}\)

Question 34:

A conducting rod AC of length \(4L\) is rotated counter-clockwise about a point O in a uniform magnetic field \(B\) directed into the paper. If \(AO=L\) and \(OC=3L\) then (\(\omega\) = angular speed)

  • (A) \(V_{A}-V_{O}=\frac{B\omega L^{2}}{2}\)
  • (B) \(V_{O}-V_{C}=\frac{7B\omega L^{2}}{2}\)
  • (C) \(V_{A}-V_{C}=4B\omega L^{2}\)
  • (D) \(V_{C}-V_{O}=\frac{7B\omega L^{2}}{2}\)

Question 35:

Two similar circular loops carry equal currents in the same direction. On moving coils further apart, the electric current will

  • (A) increase in both
  • (B) decrease in both
  • (C) remain unchanged
  • (D) increase in one coil and decrease in second coil

Question 36:

An alternating voltage \(V=200\sqrt{2}\sin (100t)\) volt is connected to \(1\ \mu F\) capacitor through a.c. ammeter. The reading of ammeter is

  • (A) \(5\ \text{mA}\)
  • (B) \(10\ \text{mA}\)
  • (C) \(15\ \text{mA}\)
  • (D) \(20\ \text{mA}\)

Question 37:

The natural frequency of L-C circuit is \(125000\) Hz. Then the capacitor C is replaced by another capacitor with a dielectric medium of dielectric constant K. Now the frequency decreases by \(25\) KHz. The value of K is

  • (A) \(3.0\)
  • (B) \(2.1\)
  • (C) \(1.56\)
  • (D) \(1.7\)

Question 38:

Which one of the following graph represents the correct variation of inductive reactance (\(X_{L}\)) with angular frequency (\(\omega\))?

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) C
  • (D) D

Question 39:

If a transformer of an amplifier has output impedance \(8000\ \Omega\) and the speaker has input impedance of \(8\ \Omega\), the primary and secondary turns of this transformer connected between the output of amplifier and to loudspeaker should have the ratio

  • (A) \(1000:1\)
  • (B) \(100:1\)
  • (C) \(1:32\)
  • (D) \(32:1\)

Question 40:

An achromatic convergent doublet of two lenses in contact has a power of \(+2D\). The convex lens has power \(+5D\). What is the ratio of the dispersive powers of the convergent and divergent lenses?

  • (A) \(2:5\)
  • (B) \(3:5\)
  • (C) \(5:2\)
  • (D) \(5:3\)

Question 41:

In Young's experiment, one of the slit is covered with a transparent sheet of thickness \(3.6\times 10^{-3}\) cm due to which position of central image shifts to a position originally occupied by \(30^{th}\) bright fringe. The refractive index of the sheet is (\(\lambda =6000\ \text{Å}\))

  • (A) \(1.5\)
  • (B) \(1.2\)
  • (C) \(1.3\)
  • (D) \(1.7\)

Question 42:

In double slit experiment, the angular width of the fringes is \(0.20^{\circ }\) for sodium light (\(\lambda =5890\ \text{Å}\)). To increase the angular width of the fringes by \(10\%\), the necessary change in wavelength is

  • (A) zero
  • (B) increase by \(6479\ \text{Å}\)
  • (C) decrease by \(589\ \text{Å}\)
  • (D) increase by \(589\ \text{Å}\)

Question 43:

According to Huygens principle, a wave front propagates through a medium by

  • (A) pushing particles of the medium
  • (B) propagating through medium with speed of light
  • (C) carrying particles of same phase along with it
  • (D) creating secondary wavelets which forms a new wave front

Question 44:

An electron of mass \(m\) and charge \(e\) initially at rest gets accelerated by a constant electric field \(E\). The rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of the electron at time \(t\) is
(\(h\) = Planck's constant)

  • (A) \(-\frac{h}{eEt^{2}}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{eEt}{h}\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{mh}{eEt^{2}}\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{h}{eE}\)

Question 45:

Light of wavelength \(\lambda\) strikes a photoelectric surface and electrons are ejected with an energy \(E\). If \(E\) is to be increased to exactly twice its original value, the wavelength changes to \(\lambda _{1}\) where

  • (A) \(\lambda _{1}\lt \frac{\lambda }{2}\)
  • (B) \(\lambda _{1}>\lambda\)
  • (C) \(\lambda _{1}>\frac{\lambda }{2}\lt \lambda\)
  • (D) \(\lambda _{1}=\frac{\lambda }{2}\)

Question 46:

An electron of stationary hydrogen atom jumps from 4th energy level to ground level. The recoil velocity of the atom as a result of electron transition will be
(\(h\) = Planck's constant, \(R\) = Rydberg's constant, \(m=\text{mass of hydrogen atom}\))

  • (A) \(\frac{9Rh}{16m}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{11Rh}{16m}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{13Rh}{16m}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{15Rh}{16m}\)

Question 47:

A radioactive sample \(S_{1}\) having activity \(A_{1}\) has twice the number of nuclei as another sample of \(S_{2}\) of activity \(A_{2}\). If \(A_{2}=2A_{1}\) then the ratio of half life of \(S_{1}\) to the half life of \(S_{2}\) is

  • (A) \(4\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(0.25\)
  • (D) \(0.75\)

Question 48:

In semiconductors, at room temperature the

  • (A) valance band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled.
  • (B) valance band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled.
  • (C) valance band is completely filled.
  • (D) conduction band is completely empty.

Question 49:

In an n-p-n transistor in common emitter configuration when \(V_{BE}\) is increased by small amount then

  • (A) \(I_{B}\) increases and \(I_{C}\) increases proportionally
  • (B) \(I_{B}\) increases and \(I_{C}\) remain constant
  • (C) \(I_{B}\) remain constant and \(I_{C}\) increases
  • (D) both \(I_{B}\) and \(I_{C}\) remain nearly constant

Question 50:

If an alternating voltage is applied across a diode in series with a load resistance then

  • (A) a d.c. voltage appears across load
  • (B) an a.c. voltage appears across load
  • (C) a pulsating voltage appears across load
  • (D) no voltage appears across load

Chemistry (Q51 - Q100)

Question 51:

Calculate the atomic mass in terms of \(u\) if the mass of an atom is \(4.9817\times 10^{-23}\) g.
[\(1\) amu = \(1.66056\times 10^{-24}\) g]

  • (A) \(12\ u\)
  • (B) \(30\ u\)
  • (C) \(25.4\ u\)
  • (D) \(8.35\ u\)

Question 52:

Calculate the longest wavelength in the hydrogen emission spectrum of the Balmer series. [\(\tilde{v}=109677\ \text{cm}^{-1}\)]

  • (A) \(6.565\times 10^{-5}\ \text{cm}\)
  • (B) \(3.647\times 10^{-5}\ \text{cm}\)
  • (C) \(4.377\times 10^{-5}\ \text{cm}\)
  • (D) \(1.824\times 10^{-5}\ \text{cm}\)

Question 53:

Which of the following pair of species has bond order one?

  • (A) \(\text{N}_{2},\ \text{CO}\)
  • (B) \(\text{N}_{2},\ \text{NO}^{+}\)
  • (C) \(\text{O}_{2}^{2-},\ \text{F}_{2}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CO},\ \text{NO}^{+}\)

Question 54:

Which of the following gases exhibits positive deviation from ideal behavior at all pressures?

  • (A) \(\text{H}_{2}\)
  • (B) \(\text{O}_{2}\)
  • (C) \(\text{CH}_{4}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CO}_{2}\)

Question 55:

For the following reaction,
\(\text{C}(s)+2\text{H}_{2}(g)\rightarrow \text{CH}_{4}(g);\ \Delta _{r}H^{0}=-75\ \text{kJ}\).
Calculate \(\Delta G^{0}\) if \(\Delta S^{0}\) is \(185\ \text{JK}^{-1}\).

  • (A) \(-130.13\ \text{kJ}\)
  • (B) \(130.13\ \text{kJ}\)
  • (C) \(19.87\ \text{kJ}\)
  • (D) \(-19.87\ \text{kJ}\)

Question 56:

Calculate the work done in the following reaction
\(\text{NH}_{4}\text{NO}_{3(s)}\rightarrow \text{N}_{2}\text{O}_{(g)}+2\text{H}_{2}\text{O}_{(g)}\) at \(300\) K.
[\(R=8.314\ \text{J K}^{-1}\ \text{mol}^{-1}\)]

  • (A) \(-7.483\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(-3.741\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(-11.224\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(-14.966\ \text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)

Question 57:

Which of the following processes uses the total heat absorbed by system to perform work on the surrounding?

  • (A) Adiabatic
  • (B) Isothermal
  • (C) Isochoric
  • (D) Isobaric

Question 58:

Calculate the \([\text{CH}_{3}\text{COO}^{-}]\) in \(0.1\)M solution of acetic acid if \(K_{a}\) for acetic acid is \(1.8\times 10^{-5}\).

  • (A) \(1.34\times 10^{-3}\ \text{M}\)
  • (B) \(1.68\times 10^{-3}\ \text{M}\)
  • (C) \(2.12\times 10^{-3}\ \text{M}\)
  • (D) \(2.34\times 10^{-3}\ \text{M}\)

Question 59:

Calculate the pH of buffer solution containing \(0.02\) M weak acid and \(0.04\) M its salt with a strong base.
[\(K_{a}=7.2\times 10^{-4}\)]

  • (A) \(3.14\)
  • (B) \(3.44\)
  • (C) \(3.76\)
  • (D) \(3.96\)

Question 60:

If the dissociation constant of \(\text{NH}_{4}\text{OH}\) is \(1.8\times 10^{-5}\), calculate its degree of dissociation in \(0.01\) M.

  • (A) \(0.01215\)
  • (B) \(0.0357\)
  • (C) \(0.06132\)
  • (D) \(0.04242\)

Question 61:

Identify the correct stock notation for manganese dioxide.

  • (A) \(\text{Mn(I)O}_{2}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Mn(II)O}_{2}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Mn(III)O}_{2}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Mn(IV)O}_{2}\)

Question 62:

Identify the structure of phenyl methanamine.

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 63:

What type of compound the benzophenone is?

  • (A) aliphatic aldehyde
  • (B) aliphatic ketone
  • (C) aromatic aldehyde
  • (D) aromatic ketone

Question 64:

What is IUPAC name of \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{CHO}\)?

  • (A) Acetaldehyde
  • (B) Methylaldehyde
  • (C) Ethanol
  • (D) Ethanal

Question 65:

Which of the following hydrocarbons has most acidic H atom?

  • (A) Methane
  • (B) Ethene
  • (C) Ethyne
  • (D) Ethane

Question 66:

Identify a compound used as green solvent from following.

  • (A) \(\text{CH}_{2}\text{Cl}_{2}\)
  • (B) \(\text{CHCl}_{3}\)
  • (C) Super critical \(\text{CO}_{2}\)
  • (D) \(\text{CCl}_{4}\)

Question 67:

What is the mass of 5 unit cells of sodium element having bcc structure
(molar mass of \(\text{Na}=23\) g/mol)?

  • (A) \(1.05\times 10^{-22}\ \text{g}\)
  • (B) \(4.123\times 10^{-23}\ \text{g}\)
  • (C) \(7.638\times 10^{-23}\ \text{g}\)
  • (D) \(3.819\times 10^{-22}\ \text{g}\)

Question 68:

In a solid, oxide ions are arranged in ccp. Cation A occupies \(1/8\)th of the tetrahedral voids and cation B occupies \(1/4\)th of the octahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?

  • (A) \(\text{ABO}_{4}\)
  • (B) \(\text{AB}_{2}\text{O}_{3}\)
  • (C) \(\text{A}_{2}\text{BO}_{4}\)
  • (D) \(\text{AB}_{2}\text{O}_{4}\)

Question 69:

What is the relationship between the radius of a particle (\(r\)) and edge length (\(a\)) for bcc unit cell?

  • (A) \(r=a/2\)
  • (B) \(r=\sqrt{3}a/4\)
  • (C) \(r=\sqrt{2}a/4\)
  • (D) \(r=a/\sqrt{2}\)

Question 70:

Calculate the percent of dissociation of \(0.01\)m aqueous solution of \(\text{K}_{3}[\text{Fe(CN)}_{6}]\) that freezes at \(-0.062^{\circ }\)C. [\(K_{f}=1.8\) K kg \(\text{mol}^{-1}\)]

  • (A) \(81.47\%\)
  • (B) \(83.51\%\)
  • (C) \(79.15\%\)
  • (D) \(85.61\%\)

Question 71:

A solution is prepared by dissolving \(136.8\) g sucrose in \(1\) kg of water. Find the vapor pressure of solution at \(298\) K. [Molar mass of sucrose = \(342\) g \(\text{mol}^{-1}\), Vapour pressure of water = \(18\) mm Hg]

  • (A) \(17.75\ \text{mm Hg}\)
  • (B) \(17.79\ \text{mm Hg}\)
  • (C) \(17.95\ \text{mm Hg}\)
  • (D) \(17.87\ \text{mm Hg}\)

Question 72:

Which of following is the colligative property of a solution?

  • (A) Vapour pressure
  • (B) Boiling point
  • (C) Osmotic pressure
  • (D) Freezing point

Question 73:

Calculate the mass of cobalt deposited when \(10\) ampere current is passed for \(109\) minutes through cobalt chloride solution. (Molar mass of \(\text{Co}=59\) g/mol)

  • (A) \(4.0\ \text{g}\)
  • (B) \(20.0\ \text{g}\)
  • (C) \(40.0\ \text{g}\)
  • (D) \(6.6\ \text{g}\)

Question 74:

Identify the \(E_{red}\) value from following, if \(\text{CuSO}_{4}\) solution dipped with Cu rod is diluted to \(10\) times.

  • (A) More by \(0.02958\) V, than \(E_{red}^{0}\)
  • (B) Less by \(0.02958\) V, than \(E_{red}^{0}\)
  • (C) More by \(0.0592\) V, than \(E_{red}^{0}\)
  • (D) Less by \(0.0592\) V, than \(E_{red}^{0}\)

Question 75:

Which of the following is the correct expression for molar conductivity of \(\text{Na}_{2}\text{SO}_{4}\) at infinite dilution?

  • (A) \(\Lambda _{0}(\text{Na}_{2}\text{SO}_{4})=2\lambda _{(\text{Na}^{+})}^{0}+\lambda ^{0}(\text{SO}_{4}^{2-})\)
  • (B) \(\Lambda _{0}(\text{Na}_{2}\text{SO}_{4})=\lambda _{(\text{Na}^{+})}^{0}+2\lambda ^{0}(\text{SO}_{4}^{2-})\)
  • (C) \(\Lambda _{0}(\text{Na}_{2}\text{SO}_{4})=\lambda ^{0}(\text{Na}^{+})+\lambda ^{0}(\text{SO}_{4}^{2-})\)
  • (D) \(\Lambda _{0}(\text{Na}_{2}\text{SO}_{4})=(1/2)\lambda ^{0}(\text{Na}^{+})+\lambda ^{0}(\text{SO}_{4}^{2-})\)

Question 76:

For the first order reaction, the half life period is \(10\) minutes. What quantity of reactant remains after \(30\) minutes if the initial quantity of reactant taken is \(1\) g?

  • (A) \(0.25\ \text{g}\)
  • (B) \(0.33\ \text{g}\)
  • (C) \(0.125\ \text{g}\)
  • (D) \(0.0625\ \text{g}\)

Question 77:

If time required for \(99\%\) completion of a first order reaction is \(t\) minutes, find the time required for \(99.9\%\) completion.

  • (A) \(t\) minutes.
  • (B) \(2t\) minutes.
  • (C) \(3t/2\) minutes.
  • (D) \(t/2\) minutes.

Question 78:

Identify the correct representation of Arrhenius equation from following.

  • (A) \(k=A\cdot e^{E_{a}/T}\)
  • (B) \(k=A\cdot e^{E_{a}/RT}\)
  • (C) \(k=A\cdot e^{-E_{a}/R}\)
  • (D) \(k=A\cdot e^{-E_{a}/RT}\)

Question 79:

Identify radioactive element from the following.

  • (A) \(\text{Fr}\)
  • (B) \(\text{K}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Rb}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Li}\)

Question 80:

Which of the following statements is NOT True with respect to physisorption?

  • (A) It is reversible
  • (B) It is multimolecular.
  • (C) \(\Delta H\lt 0\)
  • (D) \(\Delta S>0\)

Question 81:

Which of the following molecules has highest bond dissociation enthalpy?

  • (A) \(\text{Cl}_{2}\)
  • (B) \(\text{F}_{2}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Br}_{2}\)
  • (D) \(\text{I}_{2}\)

Question 82:

Which of the following elements does not belong to Lanthanoids?

  • (A) \(\text{Nd}\)
  • (B) \(\text{Lu}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Pa}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Pr}\)

Question 83:

Identify the geometry of the \([\text{CoF}_{6}]^{3-}\) complex ion.

  • (A) Triagonal bipyramidal
  • (B) Tetrahedral
  • (C) Octahedral
  • (D) Square planar

Question 84:

Which of the following complexes is homoleptic?

  • (A) Diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum (II)
  • (B) Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (III) chloride
  • (C) Triamminetriaquachromium (III) chloride
  • (D) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)

Question 85:

Cobalt chloride, when dissolved in water, forms a pink-colored solution. Identify the reason.

  • (A) The formation of \([\text{Co(H}_{2}\text{O)}_{6}]^{2+}\) complex that has octahedral geometry.
  • (B) The formation of \([\text{Co(H}_{2}\text{O)}_{6}]^{2+}\) complex that has tetrahedral geometry.
  • (C) The formation of \([\text{Co(H}_{2}\text{O)}_{6}]^{2-}\) complex that has tetrahedral geometry.
  • (D) The formation of \([\text{Co(H}_{3}\text{O)}_{6}]^{2+}\) complex that has octahedral geometry.

Question 86:

Which of the following compounds is obtained when alkyl halides reacted with silver nitrite?

  • (A) Nitroalkanes
  • (B) Alkyl nitrite
  • (C) Alkyl isocyanide
  • (D) Alkyl cyanide

Question 87:

Which of the following is an halogen exchange reaction?

  • (A) \(RX+\text{NaI}\rightarrow RI+\text{NaX}\)
  • (B) \(R-OH+HX\xrightarrow{\text{ZnCl}_{2}}R-X+\text{H}_{2}\text{O}\)
  • (C)
  • (D) \(>C=C\lt +HX\rightarrow >C_{{}^{|}}-C_{{}^{|}}\lt\)

Question 88:

Identify the major product obtained when chlorobenzene is reacted with chlorine in the presence of anhydrous \(\text{FeCl}_{3}\).

  • (A) 1,2-Dichlorobenzene
  • (B) Benzene hexachloride
  • (C) 1,4-Dichlorobenzene
  • (D) 2,4,6-Trichlorobenzene

Question 89:

Which of the following compounds cannot be prepared by Williamson's synthesis?

  • (A) \(\text{C}_{6}\text{H}_{5}\text{OCH}_{2}\text{CH}_{3}\)
  • (B) \(\text{CH}_{3}\text{CH}_{2}\text{O CH}_{2}\text{CH}_{3}\)
  • (C) \((\text{CH}_{3})_{3}\text{C-O-CH}_{2}\text{CH}_{3}\)
  • (D) \((\text{CH}_{3})_{3}\text{C-O-C(CH}_{3})_{3}\)

Question 90:

Which of the following compounds is obtained when phenol is heated with Zn dust?

  • (A) Benzene
  • (B) Cyclohexanol
  • (C) Zinc phenoxide
  • (D) Benzoic acid

Question 91:

Identify the reagent used for preparation of p-Benzoquinone from phenol.

  • (A) Concentrated \(\text{H}_{2}\text{SO}_{4}\)
  • (B) Dilute \(\text{H}_{2}\text{SO}_{4}\)
  • (C) \(\text{Na}_{2}\text{Cr}_{2}\text{O}_{7}/\text{H}_{2}\text{SO}_{4}\)
  • (D) \(\text{Cu}/573\ \text{K}\)

Question 92:

Identify the type of compounds obtained when methanol is reacted with R-Mg-X.

  • (A) Alkane
  • (B) Alkene
  • (C) Ether
  • (D) Ester

Question 93:

Which of the following compounds is used to prepare aliphatic aldehydes by Rosenmund reduction?

  • (A) \(R-\text{COOH}\)
  • (B) \(R-\text{CN}\)
  • (C) \(R-\text{COCl}\)
  • (D) \(R-O-R\)

Question 94:

Which of the following reactions is used to prepare acid anhydride?

  • (A) By heating sodium salt of carboxylic acid with NaOH in the presence of CaO.
  • (B) By heating carboxylic acid in excess with \(\text{P}_{2}\text{O}_{5}\).
  • (C) By reacting carboxylic acids with \(\text{LiAlH}_{4}\).
  • (D) By heating Carboxylic acids with \(\text{SOCl}_{2}\).

Question 95:

What type of amines exhibits diazotization reaction?

  • (A) Aliphatic primary amine
  • (B) Aromatic primary amine
  • (C) Aliphatic secondary amine
  • (D) Aromatic secondary amine

Question 96:

Which of the following nitrogen bases in nucleic acids contains two keto groups?

  • (A) Adenine
  • (B) Guanine
  • (C) Thymine
  • (D) Cytosine

Question 97:

Which of the following is non-reducing sugar?

  • (A) Lactose
  • (B) Fructose
  • (C) Sucrose
  • (D) Maltose

Question 98:

What type of polymer is the polystyrene?

  • (A) a thermoplastic polymer
  • (B) a thermosetting polymer
  • (C) an elastomer
  • (D) a cross-linked polymer

Question 99:

Find monomers of PHBV.

  • (A) \(\beta\) - hydroxy Butyric acid and \(\beta\) - hydroxy Valeric acid
  • (B) Glycine and \(\epsilon\) amino caproic acid
  • (C) \(\alpha\) - hydroxy Butyric acid and \(\beta\) - hydroxy Valeric acid
  • (D) \(\beta\) - hydroxy Butyric acid and caproic acid

Question 100:

Which of the following elements is not present in salvarsan?

  • (A) \(\text{As}\)
  • (B) \(\text{N}\)
  • (C) \(\text{O}\)
  • (D) \(\text{P}\)

Mathematics (Q101 - Q150)

Question 101:

Let \(f:R\rightarrow R\) be defined by \(f(x)=\frac{x^{2}+2x+3}{x^{2}+x+1}\). If the range of \(f(x)\) is \([a,b]\), then \(a+b=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (D) \(2\sqrt{3}\)

Question 102:

The value of the expression \(\cos \left(\frac{\pi }{24}\right)\cos \left(\frac{\pi }{12}\right)\cos \left(\frac{\pi }{6}\right)\cos \left(\frac{\pi }{3}\right)\) is:

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{16}\sin \left(\frac{\pi }{24}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{32}\csc \left(\frac{\pi }{24}\right)\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{16}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{32}\sec \left(\frac{\pi }{12}\right)\)

Question 103:

In \(\triangle ABC\), if \(b=\sqrt{3}+1\), \(c=\sqrt{3}-1\) and \(A=\frac{\pi }{3}\), then \(B-C=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi }{18}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi }{12}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi }{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi }{2}\)

Question 104:

If \(n\in Z\), then the value of \(\frac{2^{n}}{(1+i)^{2n}}+\frac{2^{n}}{(1-i)^{2n}}+\frac{(1+i)^{2n}+(1-i)^{2n}}{2^{n}}\) is equal to

  • (A) \(4\,\cos \left(\frac{n\pi }{2}\right)\)
  • (B) \(2(n+1)\cos \left(\frac{n\pi }{2}\right)\)
  • (C) \(2[1+(-1)^{n}]\)
  • (D) \(2(n+2)\)

Question 105:

How many numbers (without repetition) between \(400\) and \(1000\) can be made with the digits \(2,3,4,5,6,\) and \(0\)?

  • (A) \(120\)
  • (B) \(720\)
  • (C) \(60\)
  • (D) \(24\)

Question 106:

The sum of the ordinates of the points on the line \(4x+3y=10\) whose distance from the line \(x+y-4=0\) is \(\sqrt{2}\) is equal to ...

  • (A) \(-4\)
  • (B) \(-10\)
  • (C) \(12\)
  • (D) \(18\)

Question 107:

If the equation \(mx^{2}-y^{2}+2y+n=3\) represents a pair of perpendicular lines, then the values of \(m\) and \(n\) respectively are...

  • (A) \(1,3\)
  • (B) \(1,2\)
  • (C) \(1,-3\)
  • (D) \(1,-2\)

Question 108:

The equation of a circle whose center is at \((3,-4)\) and the line \(12x-5y-17=0\) cuts the circle at \(A\) and \(B\), where \(l(AB)=6\) is ...

  • (A) \(x^{2}+y^{2}-6x+8y+7=0\)
  • (B) \(x^{2}+y^{2}-6x+8y-7=0\)
  • (C) \(x^{2}+y^{2}+6x+8y+7=0\)
  • (D) \(x^{2}+y^{2}-6x-8y-7=0\)

Question 109:

The tangent to the parabola \(x^{2}=2y\) at point P makes an angle of \(45^{\circ }\) with the X-axis, then the coordinates of P are:

  • (A) \(\left(1,\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
  • (B) \((2,2)\)
  • (C) \((-2,2)\)
  • (D) \(\left(-1,\frac{1}{2}\right)\)

Question 110:

One of the tangents at the end of the latus rectum of the parabola \(y^{2}=12x\) is

  • (A) \(x-y+3=0\)
  • (B) \(2x+y=0\)
  • (C) \(3x+y-3=0\)
  • (D) \(x+3y-3=0\)

Question 111:

\(\lim _{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{\log _{e}(1+2h)-2\log _{e}(1+h)}{h^{2}}\)

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(\infty\)
  • (C) \(e\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 112:

Let \(p\): switch \(S_{1}\) is closed, \(q\): switch \(S_{2}\) is closed.
Then, the equivalent symbolic form for the following circuit is:

  • (A) \(\sim p\wedge \sim q\)
  • (B) \(p\wedge q\)
  • (C) \(p\vee q\)
  • (D) \(\sim p\vee \sim q\)

Question 113:

If \(p\rightarrow (\sim p\vee q)\) is false, then the truth values of \(p,q\) are:

  • (A) \(T,F\)
  • (B) \(F,T\)
  • (C) \(F,F\)
  • (D) \(T,T\)

Question 114:

The logical expression \([\sim (p\rightarrow q)\wedge (q\rightarrow p)]\vee \sim (p\leftrightarrow q)\) is equivalent to:

  • (A) \(p\leftrightarrow q\)
  • (B) \((p\vee q)\wedge \sim (p\wedge q)\)
  • (C) \(\sim p\vee \sim q\)
  • (D) \(p\wedge q\)

Question 115:

If \(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{y}{2}\right)=\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{2}\right),\ |y|\lt 2\), such that \(\frac{dx}{dy}=k(4+x^{2})\), then \(k=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(\frac{x}{2y}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x}{4y}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{x}{y}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{y}{x}\)

Question 116:

The solutions of the equation \(\sin [2\cos ^{-1}\{\cot (2\tan ^{-1}x)\}]=0\) are

  • (A) \(\pm 3\)
  • (B) \(1\pm \sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(2\pm \sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(\pm \sqrt{2}\)

Question 117:

If \(\tan ^{-1}\left[\frac{\sqrt{5+2\sqrt{6}}}{1-\sqrt{6}}\right]=a+\tan ^{-1}(\sqrt{2})\), then \(\csc (a)=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(-2\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-2}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 118:

If \(\cos ^{-1}x+\cos ^{-1}y+\cos ^{-1}z=3\pi\), then \(xy+yz+zx\) is equal to

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(-3\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(-2\)

Question 119:

If \(A=\begin{bmatrix} 1 & -1 & 1 \\ 0 & 2 & -3 \\ 2 & 1 & 0 \end{bmatrix}\), \(B=\text{adj}\ A\) and \(C=5A\), then the value of \(\frac{|\text{adj}\ B|}{|C|}\) is:

  • (A) \(25\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(5\)

Question 120:

If \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 \\ 2 & -1 & 7 \\ 3 & 1 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \\ z \end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 7 \\ 2 \end{bmatrix}\) then \(\begin{bmatrix} x \\ y \\ z \end{bmatrix}=\)

  • (A) \(\begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ -1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (B) \(\begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (C) \(\begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (D) \(\begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \\ 2 \end{bmatrix}\)

Question 121:

Let \(f(x)=\frac{12^{x}-4^{x}-3^{x}+1}{1-\cos 2x}\), for \(x\neq 0\). If \(f(x)\) is continuous at \(x=0\) and \(f(0)=\frac{(\log a)\cdot (\log 3)}{4k}\), then the value of \(a\) in terms of \(k\) is:

  • (A) \(a=2^{4k}\)
  • (B) \(a=2^{3k}\)
  • (C) \(a=3^{4k}\)
  • (D) \(a=4^{4k}\)

Question 122:

If \(f(x)=\sin (\tan ^{-1}x)\), then \(\int _{0}^{1}xf^{''}(x)dx\) is:

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 123:

The derivative of \(f(\cos x)\) with respect to \(g(\tan x)\) at \(x=\frac{\pi }{6}\), given that \(f'\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)=4\) and \(g'\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)=2\) is:

  • (A) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 124:

If \(y=x^{x^{x\cdot \cdot \cdot \infty }}\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) is:

  • (A) \(yx^{y-1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{y^{2}}{x(1-y\log x)}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{y}{x(1+y\log x)}\)
  • (D) \(yx^{y+1}\)

Question 125:

If \(y=(\log x)^{\log x}\) and \(\frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{y}{x}\times f(x)\) then \(f(x)=\ldots\)

  • (A) \((\log x)^{x}\)
  • (B) \(\log (\log x)\)
  • (C) \(x^{\log x}\)
  • (D) \(\log (\log x^{e})\)

Question 126:

A man of height \(1.2\) m is moving away from the lamp post at the rate \(0.6\) m/sec. If the height of the lamp post is \(4.8\) m, then the rate at which the shadow of the man is lengthening is:

  • (A) \(0.02\ \text{m/s}\)
  • (B) \(1.8\ \text{m/s}\)
  • (C) \(0.2\ \text{m/s}\)
  • (D) \(2.0\ \text{m/s}\)

Question 127:

The approximate surface area of a sphere of radius \(2.01\) cm is

  • (A) \(16.16\pi \ \text{cm}^{2}\)
  • (B) \(16.15\pi \ \text{cm}^{2}\)
  • (C) \(16.14\pi \ \text{cm}^{2}\)
  • (D) \(16.17\pi \ \text{cm}^{2}\)

Question 128:

\(\int \frac{2x}{4-3x-x^{2}}\ dx=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(-\frac{8}{5}\log |4-x|-\frac{2}{5}\log |1+x|+c\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{2}{5}\log |4+x|-\frac{8}{5}\log |1-x|+c\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{2}{5}\log |4-x|-\frac{8}{5}\log |1+x|+c\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{8}{5}\log |4+x|-\frac{2}{5}\log |1-x|+c\)

Question 129:

The integral \(\int \frac{\csc x}{\cos ^{2}[1+\log (\tan \frac{x}{2})]}\ dx\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(\tan [1+\log (\tan \frac{x}{2})]+c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\tan [1+\log (\tan \frac{x}{2})]+c\)
  • (C) \(2\,\tan [1+\log (\tan \frac{x}{2})]+c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4}\tan [1+\log (\tan \frac{x}{2})]+c\)

Question 130:

\(\int e^{x}\left(\log (\sin x)+\sqrt{\frac{1+\cos 2x}{1-\cos 2x}}\right)dx=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(e^{x}\cot x+C\)
  • (B) \(e^{x}\log \sin x+C\)
  • (C) \(e^{x}\log \sin x+\tan x+C\)
  • (D) \(e^{x}+\sin x+C\)

Question 131:

\(\int \frac{x}{x^{5/2}+4x^{3/2}}\ dx=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(3\,\log |x^{5/2}+4x^{3/2}|+c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\log |x+4|+c\)
  • (C) \(4\,\sec (x^{3/2})+\log \left(\tan \left(\frac{x}{2}\right)\right)+c\)
  • (D) \(\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{x}}{2}\right)+c\)

Question 132:

If \(\int _{-1}^{4}f(x)dx=9\) and \(\int _{2}^{4}(7-f(x))dx=10\), then \(\int _{2}^{-1}f(x)dx=\)

  • (A) \(13\)
  • (B) \(19\)
  • (C) \(-19\)
  • (D) \(-5\)

Question 133:

\(\int _{\pi /6}^{\pi /3}\sin 2x\log (\tan x)\ dx=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}-1\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}+\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}-1}{2}\right)-\sqrt{3}\)

Question 134:

The area of the region bounded by the line \(4x+3y=12\), the X-axis, and the lines \(x=-1\) and \(x=2\) (in sq units) is:

  • (A) \(10\)
  • (B) \(12\)
  • (C) \(30\)
  • (D) \(15\)

Question 135:

An ice ball melts. The rate at which it melts is proportional to the amount of the ice at that time. If half quantity of ice melts in \(20\) minutes, then the time when \((1/8)^{th}\) part of original amount of the ice is left is:

  • (A) \(60\ \text{minutes}\)
  • (B) \(30\ \text{minutes}\)
  • (C) \(20\ \text{minutes}\)
  • (D) \(40\ \text{minutes}\)

Question 136:

The solution of the differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx}+1=e^{x+y}\) is

  • (A) \((x+y+C)e^{x+y}=0\)
  • (B) \((x+C)e^{x+y}=0\)
  • (C) \((x-C)e^{x+y}=0\)
  • (D) \((x+C)e^{x+y}+1=0\)

Question 137:

The order and degree of the differential equation \(e^{\frac{dy}{dx}}+\frac{dy}{dx}=x\) is

  • (A) order = 1 and degree = 1
  • (B) order = 1 and degree = 2
  • (C) order = 1 and degree = not defined
  • (D) order = not defined and degree = 1

Question 138:

Let \(\bar{a}=2\hat{i}+\hat{k},\ \bar{b}=\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k},\) and \(\bar{c}=4\hat{i}-3\hat{j}+7\hat{k}\). If \(\bar{r}\) is a vector such that \(\bar{r}\times \bar{b}=\bar{c}\times \bar{b}\) and \(\bar{r}\cdot \bar{a}=0\), then the value of the scalar product \(\bar{r}\cdot \hat{i}\) is:

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(-3\)

Question 139:

If the scalar products of a vector \(\bar{a}=x\hat{i}+y\hat{j}+z\hat{k}\) with \(2\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k},\ \hat{i}-\hat{j}+\hat{k},\ \hat{i}+2\hat{j}+3\hat{k}\) are \(5,3,\) and \(5\) respectively, then \(x+y+z=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 140:

If \(|\bar{a}|=24\), \(|\bar{b}|=7\), \(\bar{a}\cdot \bar{b}=0\), \(\bar{a}+\bar{b}+\bar{c}=\bar{0}\), then \(|\bar{c}|=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(31\)
  • (B) \(17\)
  • (C) \(40\)
  • (D) \(25\)

Question 141:

If \(\bar{a}=\hat{i}+2\hat{j}+2\hat{k}\), \(\bar{b}=2\hat{i}-2\hat{j}+\hat{k}\) and \(\bar{c}\) is a vector projection of \(\bar{a}\) on the line of \(\bar{b}\), then the value of \([2\bar{a}\ 3\bar{b}\ \sqrt{3}\bar{c}]\) is

  • (A) \(6\sqrt{3}\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) \(1\)

Question 142:

If the angle between the line \(x=\frac{y-5}{2}=\frac{z+8}{k}\) and the plane \(2x-3y+3z=9\) is \(\cos ^{-1}\left(\sqrt{\frac{13}{22}}\right)\), then \(k=\ldots\)

  • (A) \(-\frac{24}{29}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{24}{29}\)
  • (C) \(-\frac{29}{24}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{29}{24}\)

Question 143:

If the lines \(\frac{1-x}{3}=\frac{3y-1}{2\lambda +1}=4-z\) and \(\frac{x+2}{2\mu }=\frac{1-2y}{6}=\frac{5-z}{7}\) are perpendicular, then \(3\mu +\lambda =\ldots\)

  • (A) \(-4\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(8\)
  • (D) \(6\)

Question 144:

Consider the lines
\(L_{1}:\frac{x}{2}=\frac{y}{2}=-z,\)
\(L_{2}:\frac{x-1}{1}=\frac{y-1}{2}=\frac{z-3}{2}.\)
The unit vector perpendicular to both \(L_{1}\) and \(L_{2}\) is:

  • (A) \(\frac{-6\hat{i}-5\hat{j}+2\hat{k}}{\sqrt{65}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{6\hat{i}-5\hat{j}+2\hat{k}}{\sqrt{65}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{6\hat{i}+5\hat{j}+2\hat{k}}{\sqrt{65}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{6\hat{i}-5\hat{j}-2\hat{k}}{\sqrt{65}}\)

Question 145:

The coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point \(P(-1,3,2)\) to the line formed by the intersection of the planes \(x+y+z=1\) and \(2x-y+z=2\) are:

  • (A) \(\left(0,-\frac{1}{2},\frac{3}{2}\right)\)
  • (B) \((1,0,0)\)
  • (C) \(\left(-\frac{1}{2},0,\frac{3}{2}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\left(0,\frac{1}{2},-\frac{3}{2}\right)\)

Question 146:

The Incenter of the triangle whose vertices are \(A(0,3,0)\), \(B(0,0,4)\), and \(C(0,3,4)\) is;

  • (A) \(2\hat{i}+3\hat{k}\)
  • (B) \(2\hat{i}-3\hat{k}\)
  • (C) \(2\hat{j}-3\hat{k}\)
  • (D) \(2\hat{j}+3\hat{k}\)

Question 147:

The L.P.P. Maximize \(Z=0.75x+0.5y\) subject to \(3x+2y\leq 6\), \(x+4y\leq 4\), \(x\geq 0\), \(y\geq 0\) has

  • (A) unique solution
  • (B) no solution
  • (C) two solutions
  • (D) infinite solutions

Question 148:

If \(X\sim B(10,0.4)\), then the probability that \(X\) takes a value at least 2 is:

  • (A) \(1-5(0.4)(0.6)^{9}\)
  • (B) \(1-(0.6)^{9}(4.6)\)
  • (C) \(1-(0.4)^{10}\)
  • (D) \(0.66\)

Question 149:

The probability mass function (p.m.f.) of a random variable X is as follows:
\(P(X=0)=3k^{3},\ P(X=1)=4k-10k^{2},\ P(X=2)=5k-1,\ P(X=x)=0\) for any value of \(x\), then the value of \(k\) is:

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 150:

Two fair dice are tossed simultaneously. Let \(A\) be the event that the sum of the numbers is prime, and \(B\) be the event that at least one die shows a number 5. The odds against the occurrence of event \(B\) given that event \(A\) has already occurred is:

  • (A) \(11:4\)
  • (B) \(11:15\)
  • (C) \(11:7\)
  • (D) \(4:11\)

MHT CET 2026 PCM Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Parameter Details
Conducting Body Maharashtra Common Entrance Test Cell (Maharashtra CET Cell)
Exam Mode Online (Computer-Based Test)
Duration 180 minutes (3 hours)
Groups / Subjects PCM (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) for Engineering
Total Questions

150

Total Marks 200
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Marks Distribution
  • Mathematics – 2 marks/question
  • Physics and Chemistry – 1 mark/question
Negative Marking No
Syllabus Weightage
  • Class 12 – 80%
  • Class 11 – 20%

MHT CET 2026 May 15 Shift 1 PCM Paper Analysis