CUET Biology Answer Key 2024 (Available): Download Question Paper with Solutions PDF

In the 'rivet popper hypothesis', the 'rivet' signifies:

• (1) Key species
• (2) Endemic species
• (3) Community
• (4) Species

The scientist who proved that species richness directly correlates with the stability of a community was:

• (1) Paul Ehrlich
• (2) David Tilman
• (3) Robert May
• (4) Edward Wilson

Among vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group?

• (1) Reptiles
• (2) Fishes
• (3) Insects
• (4) Mammals

The following are the hypotheses explaining the greatest biological diversity in tropics, except:

• (1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed.
• (2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture, helping diversity to flourish.
• (3) Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant.
• (4) There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher productivity and hence biodiversity.

Cells present in the mature pollen grains are:

• (1) Central cell and generative cell
• (2) Antipodal cell and vegetative cell
• (3) Vegetative cell and generative cell
• (4) Filiform cell and micropylar cell

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
(A) Filiform apparatus (I) Made up of sporopollenin
(B) Tapetum (II) Attachment of ovule to the placenta
(C) Exine (III) Guides pollen tube into the synergid
(D) Funicle (IV) Nourishes the pollen grain
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Primary Endosperm Nucleus is the product of:

• (1) Double fusion
• (2) Triple fusion
• (3) Parthenogenesis
• (4) Apomixis

In humans, mammary glands are divided into lobes:

• (1) 10-12
• (2) 25-30
• (3) 30-35
• (4) 15-20

Sex in a human embryo is determined by:

• (1) 'X' chromosome of the egg
• (2) 'X' or 'Y' chromosome of sperm
• (3) Only 'Y' chromosome of sperm
• (4) Health of the mother

Arrange the following stages of oogenesis in order of their occurrence:
(A) Ovum
(B) Oogonia
(C) Primary oocyte
(D) Secondary oocyte

• (1) (C), (B), (D), (A)
• (2) (B), (C), (D), (A)
• (3) (D), (C), (A), (B)
• (4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

Which of the following pair of contrasting traits was not studied by Mendel?

• (1) Pink and white flowers
• (2) Inflated and constricted pods
• (3) Axial and terminal flowers
• (4) Green and yellow pods

Failure of chromatids to segregate during cell division results in:

• (1) Polyploidy
• (2) Euploidy
• (3) Aneuploidy
• (4) Autopolyploidy

Select the correctly matched pair about sickle cell anemia:
Genotype : Phenotype
(A) HbA HbA : Diseased phenotype
(B) HbA HbS : Diseased phenotype
(C) HbS HbS : Diseased phenotype
(D) HbS HbA : Carrier of disease

• (1) (C) and (D) only
• (2) (A) and (C) only
• (3) (B), (C), and (D) only
• (4) (A), (B), and (C) only

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Scientists) List-II (Discovery)
(A) Sutton and Boveri (II) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
(B) Sturtevant (IV) Genetic maps
(C) Henking (I) X-Body
(D) Griffith (III) Transformation in bacteria
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides?
(A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases.
(B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules.
(C) Phosphate group is linked to –OH of 5’ C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.
(D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional –OH group present at 2’ position in the ribose.
(E) Thymine is an example of Pyrimidine.

• (1) (A), (B), and (E) only
• (2) (D) and (E) only
• (3) (B) and (D) only
• (4) (B) and (E) only

Arrange the given steps of DNA fingerprinting in the sequence from initiation to end:
(A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease
(B) Isolation of DNA
(C) Hybridisation using labeled VNTR probe
(D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane

• (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
• (2) (A), (D), (C), (B)
• (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
• (4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

Nucleosome is associated with molecules of histones:

• (1) Four
• (2) Nine
• (3) Two
• (4) Eight

Select the observations drawn from the human genome project that are correct:
(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp.
(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases.
(C) The total number of genes is estimated at 30,000.
(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes.
(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.

• (1) (A), (B), (C), and (D) only
• (2) (A), (C), (D), and (E) only
• (3) (A), (C), and (E) only
• (4) (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E)

Analogous structures are a result of

• (1) Convergent evolution
• (2) Divergent evolution
• (3) Parallel evolution
• (4) Retrogressive evolution

Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

• (1) Natural selection
• (2) Genetic drift
• (3) Gene pool
• (4) Gene migration

Which of the following primates was more like an ape?

• (1) Homo erectus
• (2) Dryopithecus
• (3) Australopithecines
• (4) Ramapithecus

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
Placental mammals Counterpart Marsupials
(A) Anteater
(B) Bobcat
(C) Lemur
(D) Flying squirrel
List-II
Marsupials
(I) Spotted cuscus
(II) Numbat
(III) Flying Phalanger
(IV) Tasmanian tiger cat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Identify the incorrect statement/s:
(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection.
(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses.
(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish in severe cases of pneumonia.
(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.
(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by the Widal test.

• (1) (A), (C), and (D) only
• (2) (B) and (E) only
• (3) (D) only
• (4) (A) and (D) only

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
Types of barriers Examples
(A) Cytokine barriers
(B) Physical barriers
(C) Cellular barriers
(D) Physiological barriers
List-II
Examples
(I) Mucus coating
(II) Tears from eyes
(III) Phagocytosis
(IV) Interferons
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Cells present in the mature pollen grains are:

• (1) Central cell and generative cell
• (2) Antipodal cell and vegetative cell
• (3) Vegetative cell and generative cell
• (4) Filiform cell and micropylar cell

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Structures) List-II (Functions)
(A) Filiform apparatus (I) Made up of sporopollenin
(B) Tapetum (II) Attachment of ovule to the placenta
(C) Exine (III) Guides pollen tube into the synergid
(D) Funicle (IV) Nourishes the pollen grain
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Primary Endosperm Nucleus is the product of:

• (1) Double fusion
• (2) Triple fusion
• (3) Parthenogenesis
• (4) Apomixis

In humans, mammary gland is divided into lobes:

• (1) 10 – 12
• (2) 25 – 30
• (3) 30 – 35
• (4) 15 – 20

Sex in human embryo is determined by:

• (1) 'X' chromosome of egg
• (2) 'X' or 'Y' chromosome of sperm
• (3) Only 'Y' chromosome of sperm
• (4) Health of mother

Arrange the following stages of oogenesis in order of their occurrence:
(A) Ovum
(B) Oogonia
(C) Primary oocyte
(D) Secondary oocyte
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (C), (B), (D), (A)
• (2) (B), (C), (D), (A)
• (3) (D), (C), (A), (B)
• (4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

Which of the following pair of contrasting traits was not studied by Mendel?

• (1) Pink and white flowers
• (2) Inflated and constricted pods
• (3) Axial and terminal flowers
• (4) Green and yellow pods

Failure of chromatids to segregate during cell division cycle results in:

• (1) Polyploidy
• (2) Euploidy
• (3) Aneuploidy
• (4) Autopolyploidy

Select the correctly matched pair about sickle cell anemia:
Genotype: Phenotype
(A) HbA HbA : Diseased phenotype
(B) HbA HbS : Diseased phenotype
(C) HbS HbS : Diseased phenotype
(D) HbS HbA : Carrier of disease
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (C) and (D) only
• (2) (A) and (C) only
• (3) (B), (C) and (D) only
• (4) (A), (B) and (C) only

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Scientists) List-II (Discovery)
(A) Sutton and Boveri (II) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
(B) Sturtevant (IV) Genetic maps
(C) Henking (I) X-Body
(D) Griffith (III) Transformation in bacteria
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides?
(A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases.
(B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules.
(C) Phosphate group is linked to – OH of 5′ C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.
(D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional – OH group present at 2′ position in the ribose.
(E) Thymine is an example of Pyrimidine.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A), (B) and (E) only
• (2) (D) and (E) only
• (3) (B) and (D) only
• (4) (B) and (E) only

Arrange the given steps of DNA fingerprinting in the sequence from initiation to end:
(A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease
(B) Isolation of DNA
(C) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
(D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
• (2) (A), (D), (C), (B)
• (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
• (4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

Nucleosome is associated with molecules of histones.
(1) Four
(2) Nine
(3) Two
(4) Eight

Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct.
(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp.
(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases.
(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000.
(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes.
(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
• (2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only
• (3) (A), (C) and (E) only
• (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

Analogous structures are a result of:

• (1) Convergent evolution
• (2) Divergent evolution
• (3) Parallel evolution
• (4) Retrogressive evolution

Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

• (1) Natural selection
• (2) Genetic drift
• (3) Gene pool
• (4) Gene migration

Which of the following primates was more like an ape?

• (1) Homo erectus
• (2) Dryopithecus
• (3) Australopithecines
• (4) Ramapithecus

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
Placental mammals | Counterpart Marsupials
(A) Anteater
(B) Bobcat
(C) Lemur
(D) Flying squirrel
List-II
Marsupials
(I) Spotted cuscus
(II) Numbat
(III) Flying Phalanger
(IV) Tasmanian tiger cat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Identify the incorrect statement/s:
(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection.
(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses.
(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia.
(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.
(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A), (C) and (D) only
• (2) (B) and (E) only
• (3) (D) only
• (4) (A) and (D) only

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I | List-II
Types of barriers | Examples
(A) Cytokine barriers | (I) Mucus coating
(B) Physical barriers | (II) Tears from eyes
(C) Cellular barriers | (III) Phagocytosis
(D) Physiological barriers | (IV) Interferons
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Smack is chemically:

• (1) Diacetyl morphine
• (2) Cocaine
• (3) Benzodiazepine
• (4) Amphetamine

Antibodies are secreted by:

• (1) T-Cells
• (2) B-Cells
• (3) α-Cells
• (4) β-Cells

In sewage treatment, flocs are:

• (1) The solids that settle during sedimentation.
• (2) The supernatant that is formed above the primary sludge.
• (3) The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.
• (4) The bacteria which grow anaerobically and are also called anaerobic sludge digesters.

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I | List-II
Products | Organisms
(A) Statin | (I) Streptococcus
(B) Clot buster | (II) Trichoderma
(C) Swiss cheese | (III) Monascus
(D) Cyclosporin-A | (IV) Propionibacterium
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
• (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is:

• (1) Trichoderma
• (2) Dragonflies
• (3) Ladybird
• (4) Silver fish

Downstream processing method involves:

• (1) Identification
• (2) Amplification
• (3) Fermentation
• (4) Purification

Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organism and its respective cell wall-degrading enzyme?

• (1) Fungi – Chitinase
• (2) Algae – Methylase
• (3) Plant cells – Cellulase
• (4) Bacteria – Lysozyme

Arrange the following steps involved in the transformation of bacteria in a sequence from initiation to end:
(A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cell on ice
(B) Treatment with divalent cations
(C) Heat shock treatment
(D) Selection on antibiotic containing agar plate
(E) Placed them again on ice
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)
• (2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)
• (3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E)
• (4) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)

Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(A) Fragments of DNA can be separated by ELISA.
(B) Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium.
(C) Recombinant DNA technology does not involve isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
(D) DNA ligases are used for stitching DNA fragments into a vector.
Choose the answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) and (C) only
• (2) (A) and (B) only
• (3) (B) and (C) only
• (4) (A), (C) and (D) only

Which of the following statements are true?
(A) Milk obtained from ‘Rosie’ is nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural human milk.
(B) Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources without proper authorization from MNCs.
(C) GEAC is the decisive body for safety and validity of GMOs and GM research respectively.
(D) Transgenic animals help us to understand the contribution of genes in the development of disease.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) and (C) only
• (2) (C) and (D) only
• (3) (A) and (D) only
• (4) (B) and (C) only

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I | List-II
Transgene | Used for/Products
(A) α-1-antitrypsin | (I) Meloidegyne incognitia
(B) cryIAc | (II) Corn borer
(C) Antisense RNA | (III) Treat emphysema
(D) cryIAb | (IV) Cotton bollworms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Expand "GEAC":

• (1) Genetic and Environmental Advisory Committee
• (2) Gene Establishment Approval Committee
• (3) Genetic Engineering Advisory Committee
• (4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

When an insect feeds on the Bt plant, the insect dies due to the conversion of inactive protein to active protein in:

• (1) Alkaline pH of the gut
• (2) Acidic pH of the gut
• (3) Acidic pH of saliva
• (4) Alkaline pH of saliva

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I | List-II
Interspecies Relationships | Features
(A) Commensalism | (I) One species is benefitted at the expense of the other
(B) Mutualism | (II) One species is harmed and the other is unaffected
(C) Amensalism | (III) Both the species are benefitted
(D) Parasitism | (IV) One species benefits and other remains unaffected
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

In a country, at any time, the population has the same number of young and mature individuals. What type of growth does it reflect?

• (1) Expanding
• (2) Declining
• (3) Stable
• (4) S-shaped

Two closely related species can co-exist indefinitely and violate Gause's ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ by:

• (1) Eliminating the inferior species.
• (2) Resource partitioning.
• (3) Interacting symbiotically.
• (4) Changing grazing areas.

The process of mineralization by microorganisms helps in the release of:

• (1) Inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus.
• (2) Organic nutrients from humus.
• (3) Inorganic nutrients from humus.
• (4) Organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus.

In which ecosystem is the biomass of primary consumers greater than producers?

• (1) Forests
• (2) Grasslands
• (3) Desert
• (4) Sea

Choose the correct statements with respect to decomposition from the following:
(A) Decomposition is an anaerobic process.
(B) Decomposition rate of detritus depends upon the chemical nature of it.
(C) Water-soluble organic nutrients go into the soil and get precipitated in the process of leaching.
(D) Humification follows mineralisation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (B) and (D) only
• (2) (A) and (C) only
• (3) (B) and (C) only
• (4) (A) and (D) only

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Concepts) | List-II (Explanation)
(A) Standing state | (IV) Amount of mineral nutrients in the soil at a given time
(B) Secondary productivity | (II) Rate of formation of organic matter by consumers
(C) Standing crop | (III) Mass of living matter in a trophic level at a given time
(D) Net primary productivity | (I) Available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?

• (1) Chlamydia
• (2) Filariasis
• (3) Genital herpes
• (4) Trichomoniasis

Question 42:

Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Medical Termination of Pregnancy?

• (1) Safe during the first trimester.
• (2) Legalized in India since 1971.
• (3) MTPs can be performed after 24 weeks with medical opinions.
• (4) 20% of global pregnancies undergo MTP annually.

Correct Answer: (4) 20% of global pregnancies undergo MTP annually

View Solution

The statement ”About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally” is incorrect. The actual percentage is much lower, with MTP usually being performed in the first trimester.

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Question 43:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Assisted Reproductive Technologies) | List-II (Process Involved)
(A) ZIFT | (I) Transfer of semen from a healthy donor
(B) ICSI | (II) Transfer of fertilised egg up to 8 blastomeres
(C) IUI | (III) Formation of embryo in vitro by injecting sperm
(D) IUT | (IV) Transferring of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

• (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
• (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
• (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)

View Solution

(A) ZIFT involves transferring fertilized egg (up to 8 blastomeres) into the fallopian tube. (B) ICSI involves injecting sperm directly into the ovum in vitro. (C) IUI refers to the artificial insemination of sperm into the uterus. (D) IUT involves transferring embryos with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus

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Question 44:

Which of the following methods of contraception is not meant for females?

• (1) IUDs
• (2) Lactational amenorrhea
• (3) Vasectomy
• (4) Condoms

Correct Answer: (3) Vasectomy

View Solution

Vasectomy is a method of male sterilization that involves cutting the vas deferens. All other options refer to contraception methods used by or for females.

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Question 45:

'Saheli' – an oral contraceptive pill, also known as the 'Once a week' pill, was developed by:

• (1) AIIMS
• (2) NBRI
• (3) CDRI
• (4) NBPGR

Correct Answer: (3) CDRI

View Solution

The oral contraceptive pill ‘Saheli’, taken once a week, was developed by CDRI (Central Drug Research Institute) in India.

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Question 46:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a stable biological community?

• (1) Resistant to alien species
• (2) Should not show too much variation in productivity
• (3) All species are equally important for stability
• (4) Resilient to occasional disturbances

Correct Answer: (3) All species are equally important for stability
View Solution

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Question 47:

In the 'rivet popper hypothesis,' the 'rivet' signifies:

• (1) Key species
• (2) Endemic species
• (3) Community
• (4) Species

Correct Answer: (1) Key species
View Solution

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Question 48:

The scientist who proved that species richness directly correlates with the stability of a community was:

• (1) Paul Ehrlich
• (2) David Tilman
• (3) Robert May
• (4) Edward Wilson

Correct Answer: (2) David Tilman
View Solution

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Question 49:

Among the vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group?

• (1) Reptiles
• (2) Fishes
• (3) Insects
• (4) Mammals

Correct Answer: (2) Fishes
View Solution

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Question 50:

The following are the various hypotheses proposed in explaining the greatest biological diversity in tropics except:

• (1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed.
• (2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture.
• (3) Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant.
• (4) There is more solar energy available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity.

Correct Answer: (1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations
View Solution

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CUET 2024 Biology Set D Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

In a country, at any time, the population has the same number of young and mature ones. What type of growth does it reflect?

• (1) Expanding
• (2) Declining
• (3) Stable
• (4) S-shaped

Correct Answer: (3) Stable
View Solution

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Question 2:

Two closely related species can co-exist indefinitely and violate Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ by:

• (1) eliminating the inferior species.
• (2) resource partitioning.
• (3) interacting with each other symbiotically.
• (4) changing the area of grazing.

Correct Answer: (2) resource partitioning
View Solution

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Question 3:

The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in the release of:

• (1) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus.
• (2) organic nutrients from humus.
• (3) inorganic nutrients from humus.
• (4) organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus.

Correct Answer: (1) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus
View Solution

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Question 4:

In which ecosystem is the biomass of primary consumers greater than producers?

• (1) Forests
• (2) Grassland
• (3) Desert
• (4) Sea

Correct Answer: (4) Sea
View Solution

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Question 5:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Interspecies Relationships)
(A) Commensalism
(B) Mutualism
(C) Amensalism
(D) Parasitism
List-II (Features)
(I) One species is benefitted at the expense of the other
(II) One species is harmed and the other is unaffected
(III) Both species are benefitted
(IV) One species benefits and the other remains unaffected
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
View Solution

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Question 6:

Choose the correct statements with respect to decomposition from the following:
(A) Decomposition is an anaerobic process.
(B) Decomposition rate of detritus depends upon the chemical nature of it.
(C) Water-soluble organic nutrients go into the soil and get precipitated in the process of leaching.
(D) Humification follows mineralisation.
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (B) and (D) only
• (2) (A) and (C) only
• (3) (B) and (C) only
• (4) (A) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (1) (B) and (D) only
View Solution

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Question 7:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Concepts)
(A) Standing state
(B) Secondary productivity
(C) Standing crop
(D) Net primary productivity
List-II (Explanation)
(I) Available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs
(II) Rate of formation of organic matter by consumers
(III) Mass of living matter in a trophic level at a given time
(IV) Amount of mineral nutrients in the soil at a given time
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
• (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
• (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)

Correct Answer: (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
View Solution

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Question 8:

Which of the following is not a Sexually Transmitted Disease?

• (1) Chlamydiasis
• (2) Filariasis
• (3) Genital herpes
• (4) Trichomoniasis

Correct Answer: (2) Filariasis

View Solution

Filariasis is not a sexually transmitted disease. It is caused by parasitic worms
and transmitted by mosquitoes, whereas the other options are sexually transmitted
diseases

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Question 9:

Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Medical Termination of Pregnancy?

• (1) They are considered safe during the first trimester.
• (2) It is legalised in India from 1971.
• (3) MTPs can be performed even after 24 weeks, but with the opinion of 2 registered medical practitioners on specific grounds.
• (4) About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally.

Correct Answer: (4) About 20%

View Solution

The statement ”About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally” is incorrect. The actual percentage is much lower, with MTP usually being performed in the first trimester.

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Question 10:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Assisted Reproductive Technologies)
(A) ZIFT
(B) ICSI
(C) IUI
(D) IUT
List-II (Process)
(I) Formation of embryo in vitro by injecting sperm directly into ovum
(II) Transferring of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus
(III) Transferring of fertilized egg up to 8 blastomeres into fallopian tube
(IV) Transfer of semen from a healthy donor into the uterus artificially
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
• (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

View Solution

(A) ZIFT involves transferring fertilized egg (up to 8 blastomeres) into the fallopian tube. (B) ICSI involves injecting sperm directly into the ovum in vitro. (C) IUI refers to the artificial insemination of sperm into the uterus. (D) IUT involves transferring embryos with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus

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Question 11:

Which of the following methods of contraception is not meant for females?

• (1) IUDs
• (2) Lactational amenorrhea
• (3) Vasectomy
• (4) Condoms

Correct Answer: (3) Vasectomy

View Solution

Vasectomy is a method of male sterilization that involves cutting the vas deferens. All other options refer to contraception methods used by or for females.

---

Question 12:

‘Saheli’ – an oral contraceptive pill, also known as the ‘Once a week’ pill, was developed by:

• (1) AIIMS
• (2) NBRI
• (3) CDRI
• (4) NBPGR

Correct Answer: (3) CDRI

View Solution

The oral contraceptive pill ‘Saheli’, taken once a week, was developed by CDRI (Central Drug Research Institute) in India.

---

Question 13:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a stable biological community?

• (1) It must be resistant to invasions by alien species.
• (2) It should not show too much variation in productivity from year to year.
• (3) All the species are equally important in a stable community and absence of any one leads to its instability.
• (4) It is resilient to occasional disturbances, whether natural or man-made.

Correct Answer: (3) All the species are equally important
View Solution

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Question 14:

In the ‘rivet popper hypothesis’, the ‘rivet’ signifies:

• (1) Key species
• (2) Endemic species
• (3) Community
• (4) Species

Correct Answer: (4) Species
View Solution

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Question 15:

The scientist who proved that species richness directly correlates with the stability of a community was:

• (1) Paul Ehrlich
• (2) David Tilman
• (3) Robert May
• (4) Edward Wilson

Correct Answer: (2) David Tilman
View Solution

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Question 16:

Among the vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group?

• (1) Reptiles
• (2) Fishes
• (3) Insects
• (4) Mammals

Correct Answer: (2) Fishes
View Solution

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Question 17:

The following are the various hypotheses proposed in explaining the greatest biological diversity in the tropics except:

• (1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed.
• (2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture which helps the diversity to flourish.
• (3) Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant.
• (4) There is more solar energy available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity and hence, biodiversity.

Correct Answer: (2) Tropical environments have more humidity
View Solution

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Question 18:

Cells present in the mature pollen grains are:

• (1) Central cell and generative cell
• (2) Antipodal cell and vegetative cell
• (3) Vegetative cell and generative cell
• (4) Filiform cell and micropylar cell

Correct Answer: (3) Vegetative cell and generative cell
View Solution

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Question 19:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Structures)
(A) Filiform apparatus
(B) Tapetum
(C) Exine
(D) Funicle
List-II (Functions)
(I) Made up of sporopollenin
(II) Attachment of ovule to the placenta
(III) Guides pollen tube into the synergid
(IV) Nourishes the pollen grain
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
View Solution

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Question 20:

Primary Endosperm Nucleus is the product of:

• (1) Double fusion
• (2) Triple fusion
• (3) Parthenogenesis
• (4) Apomixis

Correct Answer: (2) Triple fusion
View Solution

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Question 21:

In humans, the mammary gland is divided into lobes:

• (1) 10 – 12
• (2) 25 – 30
• (3) 30 – 35
• (4) 15 – 20

Correct Answer: (4) 15 – 20
View Solution

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Question 22:

Sex in human embryo is determined by:

• (1) ‘X’ chromosome of egg
• (2) ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm
• (3) Only ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm
• (4) Health of mother

Correct Answer: (2) ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm
View Solution

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Question 23:

Arrange the following stages of oogenesis in order of their occurrence:
(A) Ovum
(B) Oogonia
(C) Primary oocyte
(D) Secondary oocyte

• (1) (C), (B), (D), (A)
• (2) (B), (C), (D), (A)
• (3) (D), (C), (A), (B)
• (4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

Correct Answer: (2) (B), (C), (D), (A)
View Solution

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Question 24:

Which of the following pair of contrasting traits was not studied by Mendel?

• (1) Pink and white flowers
• (2) Inflated and constricted pods
• (3) Axial and terminal flowers
• (4) Green and yellow pods

Correct Answer: (1) Pink and white flowers
View Solution

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Question 25:

Failure of chromatids to segregate during the cell division cycle results in:

• (1) Polyploidy
• (2) Euploidy
• (3) Aneuploidy
• (4) Autopolyploidy

Correct Answer: (3) Aneuploidy
View Solution

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Question 26:

Select the correctly matched pair about sickle cell anaemia: Genotype : Phenotype

• (1) HbA HbA : Diseased phenotype
• (2) HbA HbS : Diseased phenotype
• (3) HbS HbS : Diseased phenotype
• (4) HbS HbA : Carrier of disease

Correct Answer: (1) (C) and (D) only
View Solution

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Question 27:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Scientists)
(A) Sutton and Boveri
(B) Sturtevant
(C) Henking
(D) Griffith
List-II (Discovery)
(I) X-Body
(II) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
(III) Transformation in bacteria
(IV) Genetic maps
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
View Solution

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Question 28:

Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides?
(A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases.
(B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules.
(C) Phosphate group is linked to – OH of 5’ C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.
(D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional – OH group present at 2’ position in the ribose.
(E) Thymine is an example of Pyrimidine.
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A), (B) and (E) only
• (2) (D) and (E) only
• (3) (B) and (D) only
• (4) (B) and (E) only

Correct Answer: (4) (B) and (E) only
View Solution

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Question 29:

Arrange the given steps of DNA fingerprinting in the sequence from initiation to end:
(A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease
(B) Isolation of DNA
(C) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
(D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
• (2) (A), (D), (C), (B)
• (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
• (4) (C), (A), (B), (D)

Correct Answer: (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
View Solution

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Question 30:

Nucleosome is associated with molecules of histones:

• (1) Four
• (2) Nine
• (3) Two
• (4) Eight

Correct Answer: (4) Eight
View Solution

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Question 31:

Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct:
(A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp.
(B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases.
(C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000.
(D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes.
(E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
• (2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only
• (3) (A), (C) and (E) only
• (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)

Correct Answer: (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
View Solution

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Question 32:

Analogous structures are a result of:

• (1) Convergent evolution
• (2) Divergent evolution
• (3) Parallel evolution
• (4) Retrogressive evolution

Correct Answer: (1) Convergent evolution
View Solution

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Question 33:

Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

• (1) Natural selection
• (2) Genetic drift
• (3) Gene pool
• (4) Gene migration

Correct Answer: (3) Gene pool
View Solution

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Question 34:

Which of the following primates was more like an ape?

• (1) Homo erectus
• (2) Dryopithecus
• (3) Australopithecines
• (4) Ramapithecus

Correct Answer: (2) Dryopithecus
View Solution

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Question 35:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Placental mammals)
(A) Anteater
(B) Bobcat
(C) Lemur
(D) Flying squirrel
List-II (Counterpart Marsupials)
(I) Spotted cuscus
(II) Numbat
(III) Flying Phalanger
(IV) Tasmanian tiger cat
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
View Solution

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Question 36:

Identify the incorrect statement/s:
(A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection.
(B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses.
(C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia.
(D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella.
(E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A), (C) and (D) only
• (2) (B) and (E) only
• (3) (D) only
• (4) (A) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (3) (D) only
View Solution

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Question 37:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Types of barriers)
(A) Cytokine barriers
(B) Physical barriers
(C) Cellular barriers
(D) Physiological barriers
List-II (Examples)
(I) Mucus coating
(II) Tears from eyes
(III) Phagocytosis
(IV) Interferons
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
• (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
View Solution

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Question 38:

Smack is chemically:

• (1) Diacetyl morphine
• (2) Cocaine
• (3) Benzodiazepine
• (4) Amphetamine

Correct Answer: (1) Diacetyl morphine
View Solution

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Question 39:

Antibodies are secreted by:

• (1) T-Cells
• (2) B-Cells
• (3) α-Cells
• (4) β-Cells

Correct Answer: (2) B-Cells
View Solution

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Question 40:

In sewage treatment, flocs are:

• (1) the solids that settle during sedimentation.
• (2) the supernatant that is formed above the primary sludge.
• (3) the masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.
• (4) the bacteria which grow anaerobically and are also called anaerobic sludge digesters.

Correct Answer: (3) the masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments
View Solution

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Question 41:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Products)
(A) Statin
(B) Clot buster
(C) Swiss cheese
(D) Cyclosporin-A
List-II (Organisms)
(I) Streptococcus
(II) Trichoderma
(III) Monascus
(IV) Propionibacterium
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
• (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
• (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
View Solution

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Question 42:

The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is:

• (1) Trichoderma
• (2) Dragonflies
• (3) Ladybird
• (4) Silver fish

Correct Answer: (3) Ladybird
View Solution

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Question 43:

Downstream processing method involves:

• (1) Identification
• (2) Amplification
• (3) Fermentation
• (4) Purification

Correct Answer: (4) Purification
View Solution

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Question 44:

Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organism and its respective cell wall degrading enzyme?

• (1) Fungi – Chitinase
• (2) Algae – Methylase
• (3) Plant cells – Cellulase
• (4) Bacteria – Lysozyme

Correct Answer: (2) Algae – Methylase
View Solution

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Question 45:

Arrange the following steps involved in transformation of bacteria in a sequence from initiation to end:
(A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cell on ice
(B) Treatment with divalent cations
(C) Heat shock treatment
(D) Selection on antibiotic containing agar plate
(E) Placed them again on ice
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)
• (2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)
• (3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E)
• (4) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)

Correct Answer: (2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)
View Solution

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Question 46:

Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(A) Fragments of DNA can be separated by ELISA.
(B) Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium.
(C) Recombinant DNA technology does not involve isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
(D) DNA ligases are used for stitching DNA fragments into a vector.
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) and (C) only
• (2) (A) and (B) only
• (3) (B) and (C) only
• (4) (A), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (1) (A) and (C) only
View Solution

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Question 47:

Which of the following statements are true?
(A) Milk obtained from ‘Rosie’ is nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural human milk.
(B) Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources without proper authorisation from MNCs.
(C) GEAC is the decisive body for safety and validity of GMOs and GM research respectively.
(D) Transgenic animals help us to understand the contribution of genes in the development of disease.
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) and (C) only
• (2) (C) and (D) only
• (3) (A) and (D) only
• (4) (B) and (C) only

Correct Answer: (2) (C) and (D) only
View Solution

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Question 48:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Transgene)
(A) α-1-antitrypsin
(B) cryIAc
(C) Antisense RNA
(D) cryIAb
List-II (Used for/Products)
(I) Meloidegyne incognitia
(II) Corn borer
(III) Treat emphysema
(IV) Cotton bollworms
Choose the correct answer:

• (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
• (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
• (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
• (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
View Solution

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Question 49:

Expand “GEAC”:

• (1) Genetic and Environmental Advisory Committee
• (2) Gene Establishment Approval Committee
• (3) Genetic Engineering Advisory Committee
• (4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

Correct Answer: (4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
View Solution

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Question 50:

When an insect feeds on the Bt plant, the insect dies due to the conversion of inactive protein to active protein in:

• (1) Alkaline pH of the gut
• (2) Acidic pH of the gut
• (3) Acidic pH of saliva
• (4) Alkaline pH of saliva

Correct Answer: (1) Alkaline pH of the gut
View Solution

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