CUET Economics Question Paper 2024 (Set A) is available here. NTA conducted CUET 2024 Economics paper on 16 May in Shift 1A from 10 AM to 11 AM. CUET Economics Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). Candidates get 60 minutes to solve 40 MCQs out of 50 in CUET 2024 question paper for Economics.

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CUET Economics Question Paper with Solution

Question 1:

___________ depicts what has actually happened?

  • (1) Ex-Ante
  • (2) Ex-Post
  • (3) Prediction
  • (4) Forecast
Correct Answer: (2) Ex-Post View Solution

Question 2:

If the value of Investment Multiplier is 5 and the increased income is ₹800 crore, then find the value of change in the investment in the economy.

  • (1) ₹4000 crore
  • (2) ₹120 crore
  • (3) ₹400 crore
  • (4) ₹160 crore
Correct Answer: (3) ₹400 crore
View Solution

Question 3:

Which of the following statements are true?
(A) Quantitative tools control the extent of money supply by changing the CRR.
(B) There are two types of open market operations – outright and upright.
(C) A fall in the bank rate can decrease the money supply.
(D) Selling of a bond by RBI leads to a reduction in the quantity of reserves.
(E) The RBI can influence money supply by changing the rate at which it gives loans to commercial banks.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :​

  • (1) (A), (C), and (D)
  • (2) (A), (B), and (D)
  • (3) (B), (D), and (E)
  • (4) (A), (D), and (E)
Correct Answer: (4) (A), (D), and (E)
View Solution

Question 4:

Paradox of Thrift means:

  • (1) If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of investment in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged.
  • (2) If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they spend, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged.
  • (3) If all the people of the economy decrease the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged.
  • (4) If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged.
Correct Answer: (4) If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged.
View Solution

Question 5:

Match List-I with List-II:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
View Solution

Question 6:

Which of the following is not a function of the Central Bank?

  • (1) It controls the money supply in the economy through different rates.
  • (2) It acts as a banker to the government
  • (3) It accepts deposits and gives loans to people
  • (4) It issues the currency of the country.
Correct Answer: (3) It accepts deposits and gives loans to people.
View Solution

Question 7:

Article 112 deals with:

  • (1) Consolidated Fund of India
  • (2) Public Account
  • (3) Union Budget
  • (4) Contingency Fund
Correct Answer: (3) Union Budget
View Solution

Question 8:

All those elements which create liability and decrease the assets of government are known as:

  • (1) Capital Receipts
  • (2) Capital Payments
  • (3) Revenue Receipts
  • (4) Revenue Payments
Correct Answer: (1) Capital Receipts
View Solution

Question 9:

Arrange the following elements in correct chronological sequence (earliest to latest):
(A) Smithsonian Agreement
(B) Bretton Woods Conference
(C) Establishment of WTO
(D) Gold Standard

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :​

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (D), (B), (A), (C)
  • (3) (D), (A), (B), (C)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (2) (D), (B), (A), (C)
View Solution

Question 10:

Under a flexible exchange rate, when the price of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency increases, it is called:

  • (1) Depreciation of domestic currency
  • (2) Appreciation of domestic currency
  • (3) Devaluation of domestic currency
  • (4) Revaluation of domestic currency
Correct Answer: (2) Appreciation of domestic currency
View Solution

Question 11:

Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :​

  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
View Solution

Question 12:

Casualization of the workforce would result in:

  • (1) Decrease in the vulnerability of the workforce.
  • (2) Increase in the vulnerability of the workforce.
  • (3) Increase in the number of regular workers.
  • (4) Income and employment stability.
Correct Answer: (2) Increase in the vulnerability of the workforce.
View Solution

Question 13:

Choose the correct chronological sequence in ascending order (earliest to latest):
(A) Establishment of NABARD
(B) FRBMA
(C) Third Five Year Plan
(D) Nationalization of RBI

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (3) (D), (A), (B), (C)
  • (4) (D), (C), (A), (B)
Correct Answer: (4) (D), (C), (A), (B)
View Solution

Question 14:

__________ implies that resource extraction is not above the rate of regeneration of resources and the wastes generated are within the assimilating capacity of the environment.

  • (1) Absorptive capacity
  • (2) Carrying capacity
  • (3) Subsistence capacity
  • (4) Exhaustive capacity
Correct Answer: (2) Carrying capacity
View Solution

Question 15:

The Government of India enacted the Right to Education Act in 2009 to make free education a Fundamental Right of all children in the age group of __________ years.

  • (1) 4 – 10
  • (2) 6 – 12
  • (3) 6 – 14
  • (4) 8 – 15
Correct Answer: (3) 6 to 14
View Solution

Question 16:

Following are the sources of electricity generation in India. Arrange them in correct sequence on the basis of total power generation capacity (higher to lower):
(A) Nuclear
(B) Thermal
(C) New and renewable energy
(D) Hydro

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :​

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (3) (B), (C), (D), (A)
  • (4) (B), (D), (C), (A)
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (D), (C), (A)
View Solution

Question 17:

Arrange the following items in the correct sequence:
(A) Competition Act
(B) FEMA
(C) FERA
(D) MRTP
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (3) (D), (C), (B), (A)
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (3) (D), (C), (B), (A)
View Solution

Question 18:

The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign was initiated in __________.

  • (1) 1948
  • (2) 1938
  • (3) 1958
  • (4) 1942
Correct Answer: (3) 1958
View Solution

Question 19:

Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
View Solution

Question 20:

The second phase of the Green Revolution is termed from:

  • (1) mid 1960s to mid 1970s
  • (2) mid 1970s to mid 1980s
  • (3) mid 1950s to mid 1960s
  • (4) mid 1980s to mid 1990s
Correct Answer: (2) mid 1970s to mid 1980s
View Solution

Question 21:

During the 1980s, the growth rate in Pakistan improved on account of which of the following reasons?

  • (1) Institutionalised process of technical change
  • (2) A good harvest
  • (3) Sustainable export of manufactured goods
  • (4) High amount of foreign direct investment inflow
Correct Answer: (2) A good harvest
View Solution

Question 22:

When there is an unexpected rise in sales __________.

  • (1) Aggregate demand would decline.
  • (2) There will be unplanned accumulation of inventories.
  • (3) There will be unplanned decumulation of inventories.
  • (4) Normal profit would be lower
Correct Answer: (3) There will be unplanned decumulation of inventories.
View Solution

Question 23:

During the festive season, the currency deposit ratio __________.

  • (1) decreases
  • (2) increases
  • (3) has no impact on it
  • (4) first decreases then increases
Correct Answer: (2) increases
View Solution

Question 24:

European Monetary Union was created in __________.

  • (1) 1996
  • (2) 1994
  • (3) 1999
  • (4) 2002
Correct Answer: (3) 1999
View Solution

Question 25:

Identify the correct statement in the context of Circular Flow of Income in a two-sector economy:

  • (1) Household receives factor services from firms.
  • (2) Household invests while firm saves.
  • (3) Firms produce goods and services.
  • (4) Household supplies factor services to Government
Correct Answer: (3) Firms produce goods and services
View Solution

Question 26:

Identify the correct set of statements:
(A) Ex Ante Saving represents what is actually planned to save.
(B) Ex Post Saving represents what is actually planned to save.
(C) Ex Post Saving depicts what has actually happened.
(D) Ex Ante Post Saving represents what is actually saved.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A) and (D) only
  • (2) (A) and (C) only
  • (3) (B) and (D) only
  • (4) (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (A) and (C) only
View Solution

Question 27:

Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
View Solution

Read the following passage and answer the next five questions :

In our quest to increase agricultural production during the last five decades or so, we almost totally neglected the use of compost and completely switched over to chemical fertilizers. The result is that large tracts of productive land have been adversely affected, water bodies including ground water system have suffered due to chemical contamination and demand for irrigation has been going up year after year. Farmers, in large numbers all over the country, have again started using compost made from organic wastes of different types. In certain parts of the country, cattle are maintained only because they produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner. Earthworms can convert organic matter into compost faster than the normal composting process. This process is now being widely used. Indirectly, the civic authorities are benefitted too as they have to dispose reduced quantity of waste.

Question 28:

How is civic authority getting benefited due to biocomposting?

  • (1) They have to dispose increased quantity of waste.
  • (2) They don’t have to dispose any waste.
  • (3) Because civic authority has no role in waste management.
  • (4) They have to dispose reduced quantity of waste.
Correct Answer: (4) They have to dispose reduced quantity of waste.
View Solution

Question 29:

Choose the correct statement concerned with the passage:

  • (1) Earthworm takes equal time to convert organic matter into compost with respect to normal composting process.
  • (2) Earthworm takes more time to convert organic matter into compost with respect to normal composting process.
  • (3) Earthworm takes less time to convert organic matter into compost with respect to normal composting process.
  • (4) Comparison between earthworm based composting and normal composting cannot be made.
Correct Answer: (3) Earthworm takes less time to convert organic matter into compost with respect to normal composting process.
View Solution

Question 30:

Water bodies, including the groundwater system, have suffered due to:

  • (1) Biocomposting
  • (2) Chemical contamination and increased demand for irrigation
  • (3) Organic farming
  • (4) Increased fertility of land
Correct Answer: (2) Chemical contamination and increased demand for irrigation
View Solution

Question 31:

In certain parts of the country, cattle are maintained only because they __________.

  • (1) Produce milk to increase income of farmers
  • (2) Produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner
  • (3) Work as insect repellants
  • (4) Are a symbol of traditional ethics and values
Correct Answer: (2) Produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner
View Solution

Question 32:

What should be the suitable title for the above passage?

  • (1) Biocomposting
  • (2) Biopest Control
  • (3) Traditional Knowledge and Practice
  • (4) Uses of Chemical Fertilizers
Correct Answer: (1) Biocomposting
View Solution

Read the following passage and answer the next five questions.

India had an independent economy before the advent of the British rule. Though agriculture was the main source of livelihood for most people, yet, the country’s economy was characterised by various kinds of manufacturing activities. India was particularly well known for its handicraft industries in the fields of cotton and silk textiles, metal and precious stone works etc. These products enjoyed a worldwide market based on the reputation of the fine quality of material used and the high standards of craftsmanship seen in all imports from India. The economic policies pursued by the colonial government in India were concerned more with the protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country than with the development of the Indian economy. Such policies brought about a fundamental change in the structure of the Indian economy — transforming the country into a supplier of raw materials and consumer of finished industrial products from Britain. Obviously, the colonial government never made any sincere attempt to estimate India’s national and per capita income. Some individual attempts which were made to measure such incomes yielded conflicting and inconsistent results. Among the notable estimators — Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai — it was Rao, whose estimates during the colonial period were considered very significant. However, most studies did find that the country’s growth of aggregate real output during the first half of the twentieth century was less than two per cent coupled with a meagre half per cent growth in per capita output per year.

Question 33:

Before the British rule, India was well known for which manufacturing industries’ products?

  • (1) Cotton and Silk or Khadi textiles
  • (2) Cotton and Engineering products
  • (3) Cotton and Silk textiles, metal and precious stones, etc
  • (4) Engineering goods and precious metals
Correct Answer: (3) Cotton and Silk textiles, metal, and precious stones, etc.
View Solution

Question 34:

What kind of interests was the colonial government concerned with in the economic policy for Indian industries?

  • (1) To promote the handicraft industries of India
  • (2) Promote and protect small scale industries of India
  • (3) Protect and promote the economic interests of Indian industry along with their home country
  • (4) Provide protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country
Correct Answer: (4) Provide protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country
View Solution

Question 35:

Choose the economists who estimated India's National Income and Per Capita Income:

  • (1) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Bernier, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai
  • (2) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai
  • (3) Dadabhai Naoroji, Jagdish Bhagwati, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai
  • (4) Dadabhai Naoroji, Findlay Shrirras and V.K.R.V. Rao
Correct Answer: (2) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai
View Solution

Question 36:

What was the country’s growth of aggregate real output during the first half of the 20th century?

  • (1) The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than two percent coupled with a meagre one percent growth in per capita output per year.
  • (2) The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than two percent coupled with a meagre one and a half percent growth in per capita output per year.
  • (3) The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than two and a half percent coupled with a meagre half percent growth in per capita output per year.
  • (4) The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than two percent coupled with a meagre half percent growth in per capita output per year.
Correct Answer: (4) The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than two percent coupled with a meagre half percent growth in per capita output per year.
View Solution

Question 37:

According to the passage, which of the following statements was true about Indian industries’ products?

  • (1) Indian products were of inferior quality and cheap in the worldwide market.
  • (2) Indian products were promoted by the colonial government and competed with other countries’ markets also.
  • (3) Indian products enjoyed a worldwide market based on quality of material used and the high standard of craftsmanship.
  • (4) Indian products’ raw material for primary goods was imported from the other countries and it helped to increase export.
Correct Answer: (3) Indian products enjoyed a worldwide market based on quality of material used and the high standard of craftsmanship.
View Solution

Question 38:

___________ is a market where economic agents can freely exchange their endowments with each other.

  • (1) Market economy
  • (2) Centrally planned economy
  • (3) Aggregate demand based economy
  • (4) Aggregate supply based economy
Correct Answer: (1) Market economy
View Solution

Question 39:

Which of the following are correct statements?
(A) Marginal Utility is the change in Total Utility due to consumption of one additional unit of a commodity.
(B) Two Indifference Curves intersect each other.
(C) Marginal Utility becomes zero when Total Utility remains constant.
(D) Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution does not affect the Indifference Curve.
(E) Indifference Curve slopes downward from left to right.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A), (B) and (E) only
  • (2) (A), (C) and (E) only
  • (3) (A), (D) and (E) only
  • (4) (B), (D) and (E) only
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (C), and (E)
View Solution

Question 40:

Match List-I with List-II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
View Solution

Question 41:

In certain parts of the country, cattle are maintained only because they __________.

  • (1) Produce milk to increase income of farmers
  • (2) Produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner
  • (3) Work as insect repellants
  • (4) Are a symbol of traditional ethics and values
Correct Answer: (2) Produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner
View Solution

Question 42:

What should be the suitable title for the above passage?

  • (1) Biocomposting
  • (2) Biopest Control
  • (3) Traditional Knowledge and Practice
  • (4) Uses of Chemical Fertilizers
Correct Answer: (1) Biocomposting
View Solution

Question 43:

Before the British rule, India was well known for which manufacturing industries’ products?

  • (1) Cotton and Silk or Khadi textiles
  • (2) Cotton and Engineering products
  • (3) Cotton and Silk textiles, metal and precious stones, etc
  • (4) Engineering goods and precious metals
Correct Answer: (3) Cotton and Silk textiles, metal, and precious stones, etc.
View Solution

Question 44:

What kind of interests was the colonial government concerned with in the economic policy for Indian industries?

  • (1) To promote the handicraft industries of India
  • (2) Promote and protect small scale industries of India
  • (3) Protect and promote the economic interests of Indian industry along with their home country
  • (4) Provide protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country
Correct Answer: (4) Provide protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country
View Solution

Question 45:

Choose the economists who estimated India's National Income and Per Capita Income:

  • (1) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Bernier, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai
  • (2) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai
  • (3) Dadabhai Naoroji, Jagdish Bhagwati, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai
  • (4) Dadabhai Naoroji, Findlay Shrirras and V.K.R.V. Rao
Correct Answer: (2) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao and R.C. Desai
View Solution

Question 46:

What was the country’s growth of aggregate real output during the first half of the 20th century?

  • (1) The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than two percent coupled with a meagre one percent growth in per capita output per year.
  • (2) The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than two percent coupled with a meagre one and a half percent growth in per capita output per year.
  • (3) The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than two and a half percent coupled with a meagre half percent growth in per capita output per year.
  • (4) The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than two percent coupled with a meagre half percent growth in per capita output per year.
Correct Answer: (4) The country’s growth of aggregate real output was less than two percent coupled with a meagre half percent growth in per capita output per year.
View Solution

Question 47:

According to the passage, which of the following statements was true about Indian industries’ products?

  • (1) Indian products were of inferior quality and cheap in the worldwide market.
  • (2) Indian products were promoted by the colonial government and competed with other countries’ markets also.
  • (3) Indian products enjoyed a worldwide market based on quality of material used and the high standard of craftsmanship.
  • (4) Indian products’ raw material for primary goods was imported from the other countries and it helped to increase export.
Correct Answer: (3) Indian products enjoyed a worldwide market based on quality of material used and the high standard of craftsmanship.
View Solution

Question 48:

___________ is a market where economic agents can freely exchange their endowments with each other.

  • (1) Market economy
  • (2) Centrally planned economy
  • (3) Aggregate demand based economy
  • (4) Aggregate supply based economy
Correct Answer: (1) Market economy
View Solution

Question 49:

Which of the following are correct statements?
(A) Marginal Utility is the change in Total Utility due to consumption of one additional unit of a commodity.
(B) Two Indifference Curves intersect each other.
(C) Marginal Utility becomes zero when Total Utility remains constant.
(D) Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution does not affect the Indifference Curve.
(E) Indifference Curve slopes downward from left to right.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A), (B) and (E) only
  • (2) (A), (C) and (E) only
  • (3) (A), (D) and (E) only
  • (4) (B), (D) and (E) only
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (C), and (E)
View Solution

Question 50:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I:
(A) Equilibrium
(B) Excess supply
(C) Inferior good
(D) Price ceiling
List-II:
(I) Plans of all the consumers and firms in the market match
(II) Demand decreases with an increase in income
(III) Supply is greater than market demand
(IV) Imposition of an upper limit by the government
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
View Solution