is the global capacity to understand the world, think rationally, and use available resources effectively when faced with the challenges.
(A) Attitude
(B) Personality
(C) Intelligence
(D) Self-actualisation
Correct Answer: (C) Intelligence
View SolutionStep 1: Understand the question:
The sentence describes a global capacity. This capacity helps a person understand the world, think in a rational way and use resources well when a challenge comes up. We must name the term that matches this description.
This is a standard definition from the unit on intelligence.
Step 2: Recall the definition:
David Wechsler defined intelligence as the aggregate or global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with the environment. The question repeats this idea in simple words.
The words global capacity, think rationally and use resources effectively all point to intelligence.
Step 3: Check option 1 (Attitude):
An attitude is a learned way of thinking, feeling and behaving towards an object, person or idea. It is about liking or disliking something. It is not a capacity to understand the world. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option 2 (Personality):
Personality means the unique and fairly stable pattern of traits, feelings and behaviours of a person. It tells us how a person usually behaves. It does not describe a capacity to solve problems rationally. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option 3 (Intelligence):
Intelligence is the global ability to understand the world, reason well and use available resources when a person faces a challenge. This matches the given statement fully. So option 3 is correct.
Step 6: Check option 4 (Self-actualisation):
Self-actualisation is the highest need in Maslow's hierarchy. It means becoming all that one is capable of becoming. It is a motivational idea and not a global cognitive capacity. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
The blank is filled by intelligence, which is option 3.
\[ \boxed{\text{Option 3: Intelligence}} \]
Question 2:
Who was one of the first psychologists to work on intelligence?
(A) Alfred Binet
(B) David Weschler
(C) Francis Galton
(D) William Stern
Correct Answer: (A) Alfred Binet
View SolutionStep 1: Understand the question:
We need the name of an early psychologist who worked on intelligence. Several people did early work, so we must pick the one the textbook names as one of the first.
The expected answer comes from the NCERT unit on human intelligence.
Step 2: Recall the history:
Alfred Binet, a French psychologist, worked with Theodore Simon in the early 1900s. They built the first practical intelligence test to find school children who needed extra help. The NCERT text names Binet as one of the first psychologists to work on intelligence.
Step 3: Check option 1 (Alfred Binet):
Binet started the modern study of intelligence testing and introduced the idea of mental age. This fits the question well. So option 1 is correct.
Step 4: Check option 2 (David Weschler):
David Wechsler came later. He built the Wechsler scales, such as the WAIS and WISC, in the 1930s and after. He is a major name but he was not among the first. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option 3 (Francis Galton):
Galton studied individual differences and heredity of ability, but he is known for work on eugenics and sensory tests, not for the first intelligence test the textbook credits. In this question the expected answer is Binet. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4 (William Stern):
William Stern was a German psychologist who introduced the term intelligence quotient (IQ), the ratio of mental age to chronological age. He built on Binet's idea, so he came after Binet. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
The psychologist named as one of the first to work on intelligence is Alfred Binet.
\[ \boxed{\text{Option 1: Alfred Binet}} \]
Question 3:
The structure-of-intellect model classifies intellectual traits among three dimensions. How many factors have been classified under 'operations' dimension?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Correct Answer: (B) 6
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
In Guilford's structure-of-intellect model, intellect is classified by three dimensions: operations, contents and products. We must give the number of factors under operations.
Step 2: Use the NTA key:
The NTA final answer key marks option 2 (6) as correct for the operations dimension.
Step 3: Other options:
5, 7 and 8 are not accepted by the key.
Final Answer:
The number of factors under operations is 6, which is option 2 (as per the NTA final answer key). \[ \boxed{\text{6}} \]
Question 4:
Which of the following types of intelligences are included in Howard Gardner's Multiple Intelligences Theory? A. Musical B. Spatial C. Componential D. Logical-Mathematical
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B and D only
(B) A, B, C and D
(C) A, C and D only
(D) A, B and C only
Correct Answer: (A) A, B and D only
View SolutionStep 1: Understand the question:
We must decide which of the four listed types belong to Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences. Then we match that set to the options.
Step 2: Recall Gardner's list:
Gardner proposed several independent intelligences. These include linguistic, logical-mathematical, spatial, musical, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal and naturalistic intelligence.
Step 3: Check statement A (Musical):
Musical intelligence is on Gardner's list. It is the ability to produce and appreciate rhythm and tone. So A is TRUE.
Step 4: Check statement B (Spatial):
Spatial intelligence is also on the list. It is the ability to form and use mental images of space. So B is TRUE.
Step 5: Check statement C (Componential):
Componential intelligence is a part of Sternberg's triarchic theory, along with experiential and contextual intelligence. It is not part of Gardner's list. So C is FALSE.
Step 6: Check statement D (Logical-Mathematical):
Logical-mathematical intelligence is on Gardner's list. It means skill in reasoning and number work. So D is TRUE.
Step 7: Match with the options:
The true statements are A, B and D. Option 1 says A, B and D only, so it is correct. Option 2 wrongly adds C. Option 3 drops B and adds C. Option 4 drops D and adds C. So options 2, 3 and 4 are wrong.
Final Answer:
The correct set is A, B and D only, which is option 1.
\[ \boxed{\text{Option 1: A, B and D only}} \]
Question 5:
According to Robert Sternberg, Creative intelligence is also known as:
(A) Analytical intelligence
(B) Experiential intelligence
(C) Contextual intelligence
(D) Componential intelligence
Correct Answer: (B) Experiential intelligence
View SolutionStep 1: Understand the question:
Sternberg's triarchic theory has three kinds of intelligence. Each kind has two names. We need the second name of creative intelligence.
Step 2: Recall the triarchic theory:
The three types are componential or analytical, experiential or creative, and contextual or practical. Each pair describes the same ability in two ways.
Step 3: Check option 1 (Analytical):
Analytical intelligence is the same as componential intelligence. It is used when we analyse, compare and judge. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option 2 (Experiential):
Experiential intelligence is the ability to deal with new situations and to come up with new ideas. This is the creative type. So option 2 is correct.
Step 5: Check option 3 (Contextual):
Contextual intelligence is the practical, street smart type. It means adjusting to the surroundings. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4 (Componential):
Componential intelligence is another name for analytical intelligence, not creative. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
Creative intelligence is also called experiential intelligence.
\[ \boxed{\text{Option 2: Experiential intelligence}} \]
Question 6:
Twins separated early in childhood also show considerable similarity in their intellectual, personality and behavioural characteristics. The intelligence of identical twins reared in different environments correlate to about:
(A) 0.72
(B) 0.60
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.25
Correct Answer: (A) 0.72
View SolutionStep 1: Understand the question:
The question asks for the correlation between the intelligence scores of identical twins who grew up in different environments. This is a classic finding used to show the role of heredity.
Step 2: Recall the research data:
Studies of identical twins raised together give a correlation close to 0.86. When identical twins are raised apart, the correlation is about 0.72. This is still high, so heredity has a strong effect on intelligence.
Step 3: Check option 1 (0.72):
This matches the reported value for identical twins reared apart. So option 1 is correct.
Step 4: Check option 2 (0.60):
A correlation of 0.60 is closer to the value for fraternal twins reared together (about 0.60). So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option 3 (0.50):
A value of 0.50 is close to the figure for siblings reared together. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4 (0.25):
A value of 0.25 is close to what is found for unrelated children reared together. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
The correlation for identical twins reared apart is about 0.72.
\[ \boxed{0.72} \]
Question 7:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
LIST-I (Levels of Intellectual Disability)
LIST-II (IQ Range)
A. Mild
I. (IQs 35-40 to approximately 50-55)
B. Moderate
II. (IQs 55 to approximately 70)
C. Severe
III. (IQs 20-25 to approximately 35-40)
D. Profound
IV. (IQs below 20-25)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Correct Answer: (A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Intellectual disability is graded by how low the IQ score falls. The deeper the deficit, the lower the IQ band. The four levels are mild, moderate, severe and profound.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the standard IQ bands from the textbook. Mild is the highest band, then moderate, then severe, and profound is the lowest. We match each level to its band and then compare the resulting code with the four options.
Step 3: Match A (Mild):
Mild disability has the highest IQ band, from 55 up to about 70. That is item II. So A goes with II.
Step 4: Match B (Moderate):
Moderate disability has an IQ from about 35-40 up to 50-55. That is item I. So B goes with I.
Step 5: Match C (Severe):
Severe disability has an IQ from about 20-25 up to 35-40. That is item III. So C goes with III.
Step 6: Match D (Profound):
Profound disability means an IQ below 20-25. That is item IV. So D goes with IV.
Step 7: Check option (1).
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV matches all four of our matches. So option (1) is correct.
Step 8: Why the other options are wrong.
Option (2) puts mild with I, which is the moderate band. Option (3) swaps C and D, giving severe the profound band. Option (4) puts mild with III, which is the severe band. So (2), (3) and (4) are wrong.
Final Answer:
The correct code is A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV, which is option (1).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (1)}} \]
Question 8:
Which of the following characteristic is NOT possessed by gifted children?
(A) Advanced logical thinking, questioning, and problem-solving behaviour
(B) A preference for solitary academic activities over extended periods
(C) Superior generalization and discrimination abilities
(D) Low level of intrinsic motivation and self-esteem
Correct Answer: (D) Low level of intrinsic motivation and self-esteem
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Gifted children are those with very high ability in one or more areas. Research on them lists a set of common traits. The question asks for the one trait they do NOT have.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the usual traits of gifted children: strong reasoning, wide knowledge, quick learning, high drive from within, and good self-esteem. Any option that says the opposite of these is the answer.
Step 3: Check option (1).
Gifted children think logically, ask many questions and solve problems well. So this trait is possessed. Option (1) is not the answer.
Step 4: Check option (2).
Many gifted children are happy to study alone for long periods because they are absorbed in the work. So this trait is possessed. Option (2) is not the answer.
Step 5: Check option (3).
Gifted children generalise a rule from a few cases and also tell similar things apart very well. So this trait is possessed. Option (3) is not the answer.
Step 6: Check option (4).
Gifted children are usually strongly self-driven and have good self-esteem. A low level of both is the opposite of this. So option (4) is NOT a trait of gifted children, and it is the answer.
Final Answer:
Low intrinsic motivation and low self-esteem are not found in gifted children. This is option (4).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (4)}} \]
Question 9:
Identify the Verbal Intelligence Tests developed in India: A. The Bihar Test of Intelligence by S. M. Mohsin B. Group Test of General Mental Ability by S. Jalota C. Test of General Mental Ability by M. C. Joshi D. Draw-a-Man Test by Parmila Pathak Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B and C only
(B) B, C and D only
(C) A, C and D only
(D) A, B, C and D
Correct Answer: (A) A, B and C only
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
A verbal intelligence test uses words, language and spoken or written answers. A non-verbal test uses pictures, drawings or shapes. The question asks which listed Indian tests are verbal.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
For each test, decide if the person must read or speak (verbal) or draw or handle figures (non-verbal). Then pick the option that lists only the verbal ones.
Step 3: Check test A.
The Bihar Test of Intelligence by Mohsin is a language-based test. So A is verbal.
Step 4: Check test B.
The Group Test of General Mental Ability by Jalota is a paper-and-pencil test with language items. So B is verbal.
Step 5: Check test C.
The Test of General Mental Ability by Joshi also uses language items. So C is verbal.
Step 6: Check test D.
The Draw-a-Man test by Pathak asks the child to draw a figure. It needs no language skill, so it is a non-verbal (performance) test. So D is NOT verbal.
Step 7: Choose the option.
The verbal tests are A, B and C only. That matches option (1). Options (2), (3) and (4) all include D, so they are wrong.
Final Answer:
The Indian verbal tests are A, B and C only. This is option (1).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (1)}} \]
Question 10:
The way we perceive ourselves and the ideas we hold about our competencies and attributes is called .
(A) Self-esteem
(B) Self-concept
(C) Self-efficacy
(D) Self-reinforcement
Correct Answer: (B) Self-concept
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question describes how a person sees himself or herself, including ideas about abilities and qualities. We need the term for this overall picture of the self.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the definitions of the four self-related terms. Then match the one that means the whole set of ideas about oneself.
Step 3: Check option (1): Self-esteem.
Self-esteem is the value or worth we give ourselves, which is a feeling of liking and respecting oneself. It is an evaluation, not the whole picture of the self. So (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2): Self-concept.
Self-concept is the organised set of ideas, beliefs and images a person holds about his or her own abilities and attributes. This matches the question exactly. So (2) is correct.
Step 5: Check option (3): Self-efficacy.
Self-efficacy is the belief that one can carry out a task or behave as a situation needs. It is narrower than the full picture of the self. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4): Self-reinforcement.
Self-reinforcement means rewarding oneself after reaching a goal. It is about rewards and has nothing to do with how we see ourselves. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The perception of ourselves and our competencies is the self-concept, option (2).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (2)}} \]
Question 11:
A person who believes that he or she has the ability or behaviors required by a particular situation demonstrates high .
(A) Self-efficacy
(B) Self-esteem
(C) Self-regulation
(D) Self-observation
Correct Answer: (A) Self-efficacy
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
The sentence describes a person who trusts that he or she can meet the demands of a situation. This belief about one's own capability has a specific name in psychology.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall Bandura's idea. The belief that one can perform the behaviours needed to handle a situation is called self-efficacy.
Step 3: Check option (1): Self-efficacy.
Self-efficacy is the belief that we have the ability and behaviours needed in a given situation. This is exactly the description. So (1) is correct.
Step 4: Check option (2): Self-esteem.
Self-esteem is how much we like and value ourselves. A person can value himself and still doubt his skill for a task. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3): Self-regulation.
Self-regulation is the control of one's own behaviour, using monitoring and rewards. It is not the belief about having the ability. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4): Self-observation.
Self-observation is watching and noting one's own behaviour, a step in self-regulation. It is not a belief about ability. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
High belief in one's ability for a situation is self-efficacy, option (1).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (1)}} \]
Question 12:
Personality is characterized by which of the following features? A. It has both physical and psychological components. B. It changes easily with time. C. It is dynamic in the sense that some of its features may change due to situational demands. D. Its expression in terms of behavior is fairly unique in a given individual. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B and D only
(B) A, C and D only
(C) C and D only
(D) A, B, C and D
Correct Answer: (B) A, C and D only
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Personality means the stable and unique pattern of a person's thoughts, feelings and behaviour. We must decide which of the four statements describe it correctly.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the main features of personality: it has body and mind parts, it is dynamic, it is organised, and its expression is unique to each person. It is also fairly stable over time.
Step 3: Check statement (A).
Personality includes both physical parts (such as body build and health) and psychological parts (such as traits and motives). So (A) is TRUE.
Step 4: Check statement (B).
Personality is fairly stable over time. It does not change easily. So (B) is FALSE.
Step 5: Check statement (C).
Personality is dynamic. Some features can shift with the demands of a situation. So (C) is TRUE.
Step 6: Check statement (D).
Each person shows a fairly unique pattern of behaviour. So (D) is TRUE.
Step 7: Choose the option.
The true statements are A, C and D. That is option (2). Options (1) and (4) include B, which is false. Option (3) leaves out A, which is true.
Final Answer:
Statements A, C and D are correct, so the answer is option (2).
\[ \boxed{\text{A, C and D only}} \]
Question 13:
The Greek physician Hippocrates classified people into four types based on fluids or humors. Which one of the following is NOT a type proposed by him?
(A) Sanguine
(B) Phlegmatic
(C) Endomorphic
(D) Choleric
Correct Answer: (C) Endomorphic
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Hippocrates linked temperament to four body fluids called humors. Each fluid gave rise to one personality type. We need the option that is not one of these four.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the four types: sanguine (blood), phlegmatic (phlegm), choleric (yellow bile) and melancholic (black bile). Anything else is not from Hippocrates.
Step 3: Check option (1): Sanguine.
Sanguine is the type linked with blood. It is one of the four types of Hippocrates. So (1) is not the answer.
Step 4: Check option (2): Phlegmatic.
Phlegmatic is the type linked with phlegm. It is also one of the four. So (2) is not the answer.
Step 5: Check option (3): Endomorphic.
Endomorphic is a body type in the system of Sheldon, who classified people by body build. It was not proposed by Hippocrates. So (3) is the answer.
Step 6: Check option (4): Choleric.
Choleric is the type linked with yellow bile. It is one of the four. So (4) is not the answer.
Final Answer:
Endomorphic belongs to Sheldon's scheme, not to Hippocrates. This is option (3).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (3)}} \]
Question 14:
Which personality type is characterized by proneness to depression?
(A) Type-A personality
(B) Type-B personality
(C) Type-C personality
(D) Type-D personality
Correct Answer: (D) Type-D personality
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question asks which personality pattern is linked with a tendency toward depression. Personality types in health psychology are named by letters, and each letter is tied to a typical health risk.
Step 2: Recall the type-wise health links.
Type A is linked with heart disease. Type B is the relaxed pattern with low risk. Type C is linked with suppressed emotions and cancer risk. Type D is the 'distressed' pattern linked with negative moods and depression.
Step 3: Check option (1) Type-A.
Type A people are competitive, hurried and hostile. Their main risk is coronary heart disease, not depression. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) Type-B.
Type B people are relaxed, patient and easy-going. They are the low-risk group for stress illness. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) Type-C.
Type C people are cooperative, unassertive and hold back anger. This pattern is mostly tied to cancer risk in the textbooks. So option 3 is not the best match.
Step 6: Check option (4) Type-D.
Type D means 'distressed'. These people feel high negative emotion and also hold it in around others. This combination is tied to depression and anxiety. So option 4 is right.
Final Answer:
Type-D personality is the one marked by proneness to depression. This is option 4.\[ \boxed{\text{4}} \]
Question 15:
Which one of the following methods was NOT used by Sigmund Freud to understand the internal functioning of the mind:
(A) Fictional finalism
(B) Hypnosis
(C) Free-association
(D) Dream analysis
Correct Answer: (A) Fictional finalism
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Freud built psychoanalysis to explore the unconscious mind. He used several methods to bring hidden thoughts and wishes into awareness. The question asks for the one idea that was not his method.
Step 2: Recall Freud's methods.
Freud used hypnosis in his early work, then free association, then dream interpretation. He also studied slips of the tongue.
Step 3: Check option (1) Fictional finalism.
Fictional finalism is an idea of Alfred Adler. It says people are guided by imagined future goals. Freud did not use it, so option 1 is the answer.
Step 4: Check option (2) Hypnosis.
Freud used hypnosis early on, following Breuer and Charcot, to reach buried memories. So option 2 was used by him.
Step 5: Check option (3) Free association.
Here the patient says whatever comes to mind without editing. Freud used this as his main technique. So option 3 was used.
Step 6: Check option (4) Dream analysis.
Freud called dreams the royal road to the unconscious. He read their hidden meaning. So option 4 was used.
Final Answer:
Fictional finalism belongs to Adler, not Freud. The answer is option 1.\[ \boxed{\text{1}} \]
Question 16:
A person with strong sexual urges channels his or her energy into religious fervor. This is a classic example of:
(A) Reaction formation
(B) Repression
(C) Projection
(D) Displacement
Correct Answer: (A) Reaction formation
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
A person with strong sexual urges turns his or her energy into religious fervor. We must name the defence mechanism.
Step 2: Check option (1) Reaction formation:
In reaction formation the person adopts behaviour that is the opposite of the unacceptable urge. Intense religious fervor in place of sexual urges fits this and is the NTA key answer.
Step 3: Check option (2) Repression:
Repression pushes a thought out of awareness. It does not turn it into a contrary behaviour.
Step 4: Check option (3) Projection:
Projection places one's own unacceptable feelings on another person. It does not fit.
Step 5: Check option (4) Displacement:
Displacement shifts an urge to a different target. The key does not accept it here.
Final Answer:
The mechanism is Reaction formation, which is option 1 (as per the NTA final answer key). \[ \boxed{\text{Reaction formation}} \]
Question 17:
Jodhpur Multiphasic Personality Inventory (JMPI) was developed by:
(A) Chaudhury and Joshi
(B) Mallick and Joshi
(C) Uma Chaudhury
(D) Mohsin and Mehta
Correct Answer: (B) Mallick and Joshi
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
The JMPI is an Indian self-report personality test. It follows the style of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory but was built for Indian users. The question asks who built it.
Step 2: Recall the authors.
The Jodhpur Multiphasic Personality Inventory was made by Mallick and Joshi, who worked at Jodhpur.
Step 3: Check option (1) Chaudhury and Joshi.
This pairing is wrong. Joshi is right, but the first author is not Chaudhury. Option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) Mallick and Joshi.
This is the correct pair. Option 2 is right.
Step 5: Check option (3) Uma Chaudhury.
A single name does not match, since the test was built by two authors. Option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4) Mohsin and Mehta.
These two names are linked with other Indian scales, not with the JMPI. Option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
JMPI was developed by Mallick and Joshi, option 2.\[ \boxed{\text{2}} \]
Question 18:
Match LIST-I with LIST-II
LIST-I
LIST-II
A. Inkblot Test
I. Cattell
B. Picture-Frustration Study
II. Morgan and Murray
C. Thematic Apperception Test
III. Rorschach
D. 16 PF
IV. Rosenzweig
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Correct Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
We must pair each personality test with its author. Projective tests and questionnaires each have well-known creators.
Step 2: Match A.
The Inkblot Test is the Rorschach test, made by Hermann Rorschach. So A goes with III.
Step 3: Match B.
The Picture-Frustration Study was made by Saul Rosenzweig. So B goes with IV.
Step 4: Match C.
The Thematic Apperception Test was developed by Morgan and Murray. So C goes with II.
Step 5: Match D.
The 16 PF is Cattell's Sixteen Personality Factor questionnaire. So D goes with I.
Step 6: Compare with the options.
Option 1 gives B-II and D-IV, which are wrong. Option 2 gives C-I and D-II, which are wrong. Option 3 gives A-I, which is wrong. Option 4 gives A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I, which matches all four pairs.
Final Answer:
The correct pairing is A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I, option 4.\[ \boxed{\text{4}} \]
Question 19:
Which of the following tests can be grouped under self-report measures? A. Rosenzweig's Picture-Frustration Study B. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory C. Sentence Completion Test D. Eysenck Personality Questionnaire Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) B, C and D only
(B) B and D only
(C) A, B and C only
(D) A, B, C and D
Correct Answer: (B) B and D only
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Self-report measures ask people to answer direct questions about themselves, usually in a questionnaire. Projective tests show vague stimuli and let people respond freely.
Step 2: Check statement (A).
The Picture-Frustration Study shows cartoon scenes and asks the person to fill in the reply. This is a projective technique. So A is not self-report.
Step 3: Check statement (B).
The MMPI is a long list of true or false items answered by the person. It is a self-report test. So B is included.
Step 4: Check statement (C).
The Sentence Completion Test gives sentence stems that the person completes freely. It is a projective test. So C is not self-report.
Step 5: Check statement (D).
The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire has yes or no items about the person's habits and feelings. It is a self-report test. So D is included.
Step 6: Pick the option.
Only B and D are self-report, so option 2 is correct. Options 1, 3 and 4 add A or C, which are projective.
Final Answer:
Only B and D are self-report measures. The answer is option 2.\[ \boxed{\text{2}} \]
Question 20:
What level of stress is suitable for optimal performance?
(A) High level of stress
(B) Low level of stress
(C) Moderate level of stress
(D) No stress
Correct Answer: (C) Moderate level of stress
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Stress affects performance in a curve shaped like an upside-down U. Too little stress leaves us bored. Too much stress overwhelms us. The best results come in between.
Step 2: Recall the idea.
This is the Yerkes-Dodson idea. Performance is highest at a middle level of arousal, which here is a middle level of stress.
Step 3: Check option (1) High stress.
Heavy stress causes anxiety and poor focus. Performance drops. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) Low stress.
With low stress there is little motivation to work hard. Performance stays below its best. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) Moderate stress.
A moderate level gives enough alertness and drive without overload. This is the best level. So option 3 is right.
Step 6: Check option (4) No stress.
With no stress there is no push to act, so results are poor. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
Performance peaks at a moderate level of stress, option 3.\[ \boxed{\text{3}} \]
Question 21:
During stressful situations, the adrenal gland releases large amounts of into the blood stream.
(A) Catecholamines
(B) Monoamines
(C) GABA
(D) Dopamine
Correct Answer: (A) Catecholamines
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
The body reacts to a threat through the sympathetic nervous system and the adrenal glands. The inner part of the adrenal gland (the adrenal medulla) is the part that responds first.
Step 2: Key Fact:
When a person feels stressed, the adrenal medulla pours out the hormones adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine). These two hormones together are called catecholamines. They raise the heart rate and blood pressure and prepare the body for fight or flight.
Step 3: Check option (1) Catecholamines.
This is the group that contains adrenaline and noradrenaline, which the adrenal gland releases in large amounts under stress. So option (1) is correct.
Step 4: Check option (2) Monoamines.
Monoamines is a wide chemical class of neurotransmitters (it includes serotonin and the catecholamines). It is not the name the textbook gives for the adrenal stress hormones, so (2) is not the best answer.
Step 5: Check option (3) GABA.
GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain. It calms nerve activity and is not released by the adrenal gland, so (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4) Dopamine.
Dopamine is a single catecholamine that works mainly as a brain neurotransmitter linked to reward and movement. The large stress release from the adrenal gland is described as catecholamines, so (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The adrenal gland releases catecholamines (adrenaline and noradrenaline) during stress. This is option (1).
Question 22:
Which of the following is NOT considered as a dimension of stress?
(A) Controllability
(B) Complexity
(C) Predictability
(D) Duration
Correct Answer: (A) Controllability
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
We must find the option that is not a dimension of stress.
Step 2: Check option (1) Controllability:
The NTA final answer key marks Controllability as the option that is NOT counted as a dimension of stress in this question.
Step 3: Check the other options:
Complexity, predictability and duration are accepted as dimensions of stress in the key.
Final Answer:
The option that is not a dimension is Controllability, which is option 1 (as per the NTA final answer key). \[ \boxed{\text{Controllability}} \]
Question 23:
In which stage of Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome, the presence of noxious stimulus or stressor leads to the activation of the adrenal-pituitary-cortex system?
(A) Resistance stage
(B) Exhaustion stage
(C) Alarm reaction stage
(D) Burnout stage
Correct Answer: (C) Alarm reaction stage
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Hans Selye described the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) as the body's three stage reply to long lasting stress. The stages are alarm reaction, resistance and exhaustion.
Step 2: Key Fact.
In the alarm reaction stage the body first meets the stressor. The hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland, which signals the adrenal cortex, and stress hormones are released. This is the activation of the adrenal-pituitary-cortex system.
Step 3: Check option (1) Resistance stage.
In this stage the body tries to cope and adapt to the continuing stressor. The system is already active, so it is not where activation begins. (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) Exhaustion stage.
Here the body's energy is used up after long stress and illness can appear. This is the end of the process, so (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) Alarm reaction stage.
The first meeting with the stressor switches on the adrenal-pituitary-cortex system. So (3) is correct.
Step 6: Check option (4) Burnout stage.
Burnout is not one of the three stages of Selye's model. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The adrenal-pituitary-cortex system is switched on in the alarm reaction stage, option (3).
Question 24:
Identify the correct statement related to stress and its impact on immune system: A. Stress can cause illness by impairing the function of the immune system. B. Stress can affect natural killer cell cytotoxicity. C. Stress hormones weaken the immune system and thereby affect mental and physical health. D. Optimal Stress always enhances the functioning of immune system. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B and D only
(B) A, B and C only
(C) A, C and D only
(D) A, B, C and D
Correct Answer: (B) A, B and C only
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Psychoneuroimmunology studies how stress and the immune system affect each other. Long or heavy stress lowers the body's defence.
Step 2: Check statement A.
Stress can weaken the immune system, and a weak immune system can lead to illness. So A is TRUE.
Step 3: Check statement B.
Natural killer cells are immune cells that destroy infected or abnormal cells. Studies show stress lowers their killing power (cytotoxicity). So B is TRUE.
Step 4: Check statement C.
Stress hormones such as cortisol suppress immune activity over time. This hurts both physical and mental health. So C is TRUE.
Step 5: Check statement D.
The word always makes this statement false. A moderate level of stress may help for a short while, but it does not always improve the immune system. So D is FALSE.
Step 6: Match with the options.
The true statements are A, B and C. Option (2) lists exactly these. Options (1), (3) and (4) all include D, so they are wrong.
Final Answer:
Statements A, B and C are correct. This is option (2).
Question 25:
The "Hardiness" trait of personality was given by:
(A) Rosenman
(B) Friedman
(C) Kobasa
(D) Hans Eysenck
Correct Answer: (C) Kobasa
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Hardiness is a personality style that helps people stay healthy under stress. It is made of commitment, control and challenge.
Step 2: Key Fact.
The concept of hardiness was put forward by Suzanne Kobasa in her studies of stressed business executives.
Step 3: Check option (1) Rosenman.
Rosenman, with Friedman, described Type A and Type B behaviour patterns, not hardiness. So (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) Friedman.
Friedman worked with Rosenman on Type A behaviour linked to heart disease. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) Kobasa.
Kobasa gave the hardiness trait, so (3) is correct.
Step 6: Check option (4) Hans Eysenck.
Eysenck is known for his dimensions of personality such as extraversion and neuroticism. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Kobasa gave the hardiness trait. This is option (3).
Question 26:
The 'four Ds' of abnormality are:
(A) Deviance, Dysfunction, Distress, Danger
(B) Deviance, Disruption, Dysfunction, Danger
(C) Deviance, Disruption, Danger, Distress
(D) Deviance, Dysfunction, Distress, Disturbance
Correct Answer: (A) Deviance, Dysfunction, Distress, Danger
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Psychologists use four features to decide if behaviour is abnormal. They all begin with the letter D, so they are called the four Ds.
Step 2: Recall the four Ds.
They are Deviance (behaviour far from the social norm), Dysfunction (it blocks daily life), Distress (it causes suffering) and Danger (risk to self or others).
Step 3: Check option (1).
It lists Deviance, Dysfunction, Distress and Danger. This matches exactly, so (1) is correct.
Step 4: Check option (2).
It uses Disruption in place of Distress. Disruption is not one of the four Ds, so (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3).
It has Disruption and lacks Dysfunction. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4).
It ends with Disturbance instead of Danger. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The four Ds are Deviance, Dysfunction, Distress and Danger. This is option (1).
Question 27:
International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10) was prepared by:
(A) Amercian Psychological Association
(B) American Psychiatric Association
(C) UNICEF
(D) World Health Organisation
Correct Answer: (D) World Health Organisation
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
ICD-10 is a standard system for naming and grouping diseases and mental disorders. It is used by doctors and health workers across the world.
Step 2: Key Fact.
The ICD is prepared and published by the World Health Organisation (WHO). ICD-10 is its tenth edition.
Step 3: Check option (1).
The American Psychological Association does not publish ICD. So (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2).
The American Psychiatric Association publishes a different system, the DSM. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3).
UNICEF works for the welfare of children and does not prepare disease lists. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4).
WHO prepares the ICD, so (4) is correct.
Final Answer:
ICD-10 was prepared by the World Health Organisation. This is option (4).
Question 28:
Low activity of gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) neurotransmitter has been linked to:
(A) Paralysis
(B) Depression
(C) Anxiety disorders
(D) Physical impairment
Correct Answer: (C) Anxiety disorders
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
GABA is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the brain. It slows down nerve firing and helps the brain stay calm.
Step 2: Key Fact.
When GABA activity is low, the brain is less calm and nerve cells fire too easily. This is linked with anxiety disorders, which is why anti anxiety drugs raise GABA action.
Step 3: Check option (1) Paralysis.
Paralysis is linked with damage to nerves or the spinal cord, or with low acetylcholine action. It is not tied to low GABA. So (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) Depression.
Depression is linked mainly with low serotonin and noradrenaline. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) Anxiety disorders.
Low GABA is linked with anxiety disorders, so (3) is correct.
Step 6: Check option (4) Physical impairment.
This is a general term and has no direct link with GABA. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Low GABA activity is linked to anxiety disorders. This is option (3).
Question 29:
The A-B-C analysis in Rational Emotive Therapy stands for:
(A) Application-behavior-consequence
(B) Analysis-behavior-consequence
(C) Antecedent-belief-consequence
(D) Affect-behavior-cognition
Correct Answer: (C) Antecedent-belief-consequence
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Rational Emotive Therapy (RET) was developed by Albert Ellis. It says that emotional distress does not come straight from events. It comes from the way a person thinks about those events.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Ellis explained this with the A-B-C model. A is the antecedent (the event), B is the belief (how the person interprets it) and C is the consequence (the emotion or behaviour that follows).
Step 3: Check option (1).
Application-behavior-consequence does not match any term in the model. There is no stage called application. So option (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2).
Analysis-behavior-consequence is also not part of the model. In RET the middle letter stands for belief, not behaviour. So option (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3).
Antecedent-belief-consequence is exactly the model Ellis gave. The therapist looks at the event, the irrational belief about it, and the resulting feeling. So option (3) is correct.
Step 6: Check option (4).
Affect-behavior-cognition is the list of the three components of an attitude, not the RET model. So option (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The A-B-C analysis in RET means Antecedent, Belief and Consequence, which is option (3).
Question 30:
Identify the ethical standards that need to practiced by professional psychotherapists: A. Confidentiality of the client should be maintained. B. Informed consent needs to be taken. C. Respect for human rights and dignity D. Alleviating personal distress and suffering should be the goal of all therapists. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B and C only
(B) B, C and D only
(C) A, B and D only
(D) A, B, C and D
Correct Answer: (D) A, B, C and D
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Psychotherapists work with people who are distressed and vulnerable. So the profession follows a code of ethics that protects the client and keeps the therapy honest.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
We check each statement and see whether it is an accepted ethical standard of psychotherapy. Then we pick the option that lists all the true ones.
Step 3: Check statement (A).
Therapy involves private details of a person's life. The therapist must keep these secret unless the law or safety demands otherwise. So (A) is a genuine ethical standard.
Step 4: Check statement (B).
Before treatment begins, the client must be told about the nature of the therapy and agree to it freely. This is informed consent, and it is a basic ethical requirement. So (B) is a genuine standard.
Step 5: Check statement (C).
A therapist must treat every client with respect and must not violate the client's rights or dignity. So (C) is a genuine standard.
Step 6: Check statement (D).
The overall purpose of therapy is to reduce the client's personal distress and suffering and help the person function better. Making this the aim of the practice is an accepted ethical position. So (D) is also correct.
Step 7: Match with the options.
All four statements are accepted standards. Options (1), (2) and (3) each leave out one true statement, so they are wrong. Option (4) includes all four.
Final Answer:
All four statements are ethical standards for psychotherapists, so the answer is option (4).
Question 31:
Which of the following is NOT a significant feature of attitudes?
(A) Motivation
(B) Valence
(C) Extremeness
(D) Multiplexity
Correct Answer: (A) Motivation
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
An attitude is a lasting evaluation of a person, object or idea. Psychologists describe an attitude using a few key features.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
The main features are valence (positive or negative direction), extremeness (how strong it is), simplicity or complexity (also called multiplexity) and centrality (how important it is in the person's belief system). We find which option is not in this list.
Step 3: Check option (1).
Motivation is the push behind behaviour. It is not one of the standard features used to describe an attitude. So option (1) is the one that is NOT a feature.
Step 4: Check option (2).
Valence tells whether the attitude is favourable or unfavourable. It is a main feature, so option (2) is wrong for this question.
Step 5: Check option (3).
Extremeness tells how strongly favourable or unfavourable the attitude is. It is a main feature, so option (3) is wrong for this question.
Step 6: Check option (4).
Multiplexity means whether an attitude is simple (one element) or complex (many elements). It is a main feature, so option (4) is wrong for this question.
Final Answer:
Motivation is not a feature of attitudes, so the answer is option (1).
Question 32:
Choose the correct statements based on P-O-X triangle (Fritz Heider) in describing the process of attitude change: A. Imbalance is found when all three sides of P-O-X triangle are negative. B. Balance is found when all three sides of P-O-X triangle are positive. C. Imbalance is found when two sides are positive and one side is negative. D. Balance is found when two sides are negative and one side is positive.
(A) A, B and D only
(B) A, B and C only
(C) B, C and D only
(D) A, B, C and D
Correct Answer: (D) A, B, C and D
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Fritz Heider's balance theory uses a triangle with three elements: P (the person), O (another person) and X (an object or idea). Each side shows a liking (positive) or disliking (negative) link.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Multiply the three signs. If the product is positive the triangle is balanced. If the product is negative it is imbalanced. An imbalanced triangle creates tension and pushes the person to change an attitude.
Step 3: Check statement (A).
Three negative sides give (-)(-)(-) = negative. So the triangle is imbalanced. Statement (A) is TRUE.
Step 4: Check statement (B).
Three positive sides give (+)(+)(+) = positive. So the triangle is balanced. Statement (B) is TRUE.
Step 5: Check statement (C).
Two positive sides and one negative give (+)(+)(-) = negative. So the triangle is imbalanced. Statement (C) is TRUE.
Step 6: Check statement (D).
Two negative sides and one positive give (-)(-)(+) = positive. So the triangle is balanced. Statement (D) is TRUE.
Step 7: Match with the options.
All four statements are correct, so only option (4) is right.
Final Answer:
All four statements follow Heider's balance rule, so the answer is option (4).
Question 33:
Who proposed the concept of cognitive dissonance?
(A) Leon Festinger
(B) Richard LaPiere
(C) Fritz Heider
(D) Tajfel and Turner
Correct Answer: (A) Leon Festinger
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Cognitive dissonance is the uncomfortable mental state a person feels when two of their beliefs, attitudes or actions clash with each other.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
We match this concept with the psychologist who introduced it in the study of attitude change.
Step 3: Check option (1).
Leon Festinger proposed the theory of cognitive dissonance in 1957. He said the discomfort pushes people to change an attitude or action to feel consistent again. So option (1) is correct.
Step 4: Check option (2).
Richard LaPiere is known for his study on the gap between attitude and behaviour, based on hotel and restaurant visits with a Chinese couple. It is not about dissonance. So option (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3).
Fritz Heider proposed balance theory with the P-O-X triangle. It is a different theory of consistency. So option (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4).
Tajfel and Turner are linked with social identity theory and intergroup relations. So option (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Cognitive dissonance was proposed by Leon Festinger, option (1).
Question 34:
Arrange the following statements in the order of cognitive, behavioural and affective components of attitude: A. Your view towards a 'green environment' movement is positive. B. You feel sad and angry when you see trees being cut down. C. You actively participate in the tree plantation campaign. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-C-B
(B) B-C-A
(C) C-B-A
(D) B-A-C
Correct Answer: (A) A-C-B
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
An attitude has three parts. The cognitive part is what a person thinks or believes. The behavioural part is how the person acts. The affective part is what the person feels.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
We label each statement as cognitive, behavioural or affective. Then we arrange them in the order asked: cognitive, behavioural, affective.
Step 3: Check statement (A).
Having a positive view of the green movement is an opinion or evaluation. This is the cognitive component.
Step 4: Check statement (B).
Feeling sad and angry when trees are cut is an emotion. This is the affective component.
Step 5: Check statement (C).
Taking part in the tree plantation campaign is an action. This is the behavioural component.
Step 6: Arrange and match the options.
The required order is cognitive (A), behavioural (C), affective (B), which gives A-C-B. Option (1) is A-C-B, so it is correct. Options (2), (3) and (4) put the statements in other orders, so they are wrong.
Final Answer:
The order is A-C-B, so the answer is option (1).
Question 35:
Who proposed the two-step concept of attitude change?
(A) Fritz Heider
(B) Leon Festinger
(C) S. M. Mohsin
(D) Richard Lapiere
Correct Answer: (C) S. M. Mohsin
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
The question asks who proposed a two-step idea of how attitudes change. Attitude change means a person moves from an old view to a new one, usually because of influence from another person or source.
Step 2: Recall the concept:
In the Indian psychology literature, the psychologist S. M. Mohsin described attitude change as happening in two steps. In the first step the person starts liking or identifying with the source of influence. In the second step the person takes on the attitude of that source.
Step 3: Check option (1) Fritz Heider.
Heider is known for balance theory. It says people like their attitudes, feelings and relations to stay in harmony. It is a theory of balance, not a two-step process of change. So (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) Leon Festinger.
Festinger proposed cognitive dissonance theory. It says people feel discomfort when two beliefs clash, and they change an attitude to remove that discomfort. This is a one-factor tension idea, not a two-step concept. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) S. M. Mohsin.
Mohsin is the name linked with the two-step concept of attitude change, first identification with the source and then adoption of the source's attitude. So (3) is correct.
Step 6: Check option (4) Richard Lapiere.
Lapiere is famous for his study on the gap between stated attitude and real behaviour toward Chinese couples at hotels. It is about attitude and behaviour, not about attitude change in two steps. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The two-step concept of attitude change is credited to S. M. Mohsin, which is option (3).\[ \boxed{3} \]
Question 36:
Arrange the following stages of group formation in correct sequence: A. Storming B. Norming C. Performing D. Forming E. Adjourning Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) D-C-B-A-E
(B) A-B-D-C-E
(C) D-A-B-C-E
(D) D-C-E-A-B
Correct Answer: (C) D-A-B-C-E
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Groups usually grow through set stages. The widely used model names five stages: forming, storming, norming, performing and adjourning. We have to put the five given stages in this order.
Step 2: Place Forming (D).
Forming is the first stage. Members meet, get to know each other and feel unsure about their roles. So D comes first.
Step 3: Place Storming (A).
Next comes storming. Members disagree, compete for roles and conflicts show up. So A comes second.
Step 4: Place Norming (B).
After the conflicts settle, the group makes rules and shared norms. So B comes third.
Step 5: Place Performing (C).
With norms in place, the group works smoothly towards its goal. So C comes fourth.
Step 6: Place Adjourning (E).
When the task is over, the group breaks up. So E comes last. The full order is D-A-B-C-E.
Step 7: Compare with the options.
Option (1) D-C-B-A-E puts performing before storming, which is wrong. Option (2) A-B-D-C-E starts with storming, which is wrong. Option (3) D-A-B-C-E matches our order. Option (4) D-C-E-A-B places the break up in the middle, which is wrong.
Final Answer:
The correct sequence is Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning, which is D-A-B-C-E, option (3).\[ \boxed{3} \]
Question 37:
Match LIST-I with LIST-II
LIST-I Intelligence test
LIST-II Psychologist
A.
Draw-a-Man Test
I.
M. C. Joshi
B.
The Bihar Test of Intelligence
II.
Pramila Pathak
C.
Test of General Mental Ability (Hindi)
III.
Prayag Mehta
D.
Group Test of Intelligence
IV.
S. M. Mohsin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Correct Answer: (D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is a matching question on Indian intelligence tests and the psychologists who built or adapted them. We match each test in List-I with its author in List-II.
Step 2: Match A, Draw-a-Man Test.
The Draw-a-Man test was adapted for Indian children by Pramila Pathak. So A matches II.
Step 3: Match B, The Bihar Test of Intelligence.
This test was developed by S. M. Mohsin, who worked at Patna. So B matches IV.
Step 4: Match C, Test of General Mental Ability (Hindi).
This Hindi test of general mental ability is credited to M. C. Joshi. So C matches I.
Step 5: Match D, Group Test of Intelligence.
The Group Test of Intelligence is credited to Prayag Mehta. So D matches III.
Step 6: Compare with the options.
Our pairs are A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III. Option (1) pairs B with I and C with IV, so it is wrong. Option (2) pairs A with I, so it is wrong. Option (3) pairs A with III, so it is wrong. Option (4) is A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III, which matches fully.
Final Answer:
The correct matching is A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III, which is option (4).\[ \boxed{4} \]
Question 38:
When you find others also favoring capital punishment, you feel that your favorable view on capital punishment is validated by the public. This is an example of:
(A) Social facilitation
(B) Bandwagon effect
(C) Hasty generalization
(D) Conformity
Correct Answer: (B) Bandwagon effect
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
The situation is that a person sees other people also supporting capital punishment and then feels that the public has confirmed his or her own view. We need the social psychology term for this.
Step 2: Key idea:
The bandwagon effect is the tendency to hold or strengthen a belief because many others hold it. Popularity of a view makes it feel more correct.
Step 3: Check option (1) Social facilitation.
Social facilitation means that the presence of others improves performance on a simple or well learned task. It is about task performance, not about belief validation. So (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) Bandwagon effect.
The person feels validated because the public seems to agree. This is exactly the bandwagon effect. So (2) is correct.
Step 5: Check option (3) Hasty generalization.
Hasty generalization means drawing a broad conclusion from very few cases. Nothing like that is described here. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4) Conformity.
Conformity means changing behaviour to match the group because of real or imagined pressure. Here the person already holds the view and only feels supported, so it is not conformity. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Feeling that a view is right because many others share it is the bandwagon effect, option (2).\[ \boxed{2} \]
Question 39:
Identify a correct explanation for the occurrence of social loafing:
(A) Group members feel less responsible for the overall task being performed and therefore exert less effort.
(B) Motivation of the members increases because they realise that their contribution will be evaluated on individual basis.
(C) There is proper coordination among group members.
(D) Belonging to the same group is important for the members.
Correct Answer: (A) Group members feel less responsible for the overall task being performed and therefore exert less effort.
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Social loafing means that people put in less effort when they work in a group than when they work alone. The question asks for the correct reason behind this.
Step 2: Key idea:
In a group, the work is shared and individual contribution is hard to see. Each member feels less personally responsible, so effort drops.
Step 3: Check option (1).
It says members feel less responsible for the whole task and so try less. This is the standard explanation of social loafing. So (1) is correct.
Step 4: Check option (2).
It says motivation rises because each person will be judged individually. When contribution is individually evaluated, social loafing goes down, so this explains the absence of loafing. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3).
Proper coordination among members is a sign of an efficient group. Loafing is a drop in effort, not a coordination matter. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4).
Feeling that belonging to the group is important points to cohesiveness, which usually reduces loafing. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Social loafing occurs because members feel less responsible for the overall task, option (1).\[ \boxed{1} \]
Question 40:
Which of the following is NOT an important condition for group formation?
(A) Proximity
(B) Similarity
(C) Common motives
(D) Individual goals
Correct Answer: (D) Individual goals
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
We need the option that is not an important condition for forming a group. So three options are real conditions and one is not.
Step 2: Key idea:
People form groups mainly because they are near each other, are alike, and share needs or aims. Groups form around shared, not separate, purposes.
Step 3: Check option (1) Proximity.
People who live, study or work close to each other meet often and form groups. So proximity is an important condition and (1) is not the answer.
Step 4: Check option (2) Similarity.
People like others with similar views, background and interests, so similarity brings them together. So (2) is not the answer.
Step 5: Check option (3) Common motives.
Shared motives or needs push people to join hands, for example a team for a common goal. So (3) is not the answer.
Step 6: Check option (4) Individual goals.
A group needs shared goals. Purely individual goals do not bring people together and may split them. So (4) is the one that is not an important condition.
Final Answer:
Individual goals are not an important condition for group formation, option (4).\[ \boxed{4} \]
Question 41:
Identify the psychological disorder Seema suffers from based on given diagnosis:
(A) Post-traumatic stress disorder
(B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
(C) Bipolar disorder
(D) Conversion disorder
Correct Answer: (B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept
The passage describes a person with repeated thoughts and repeated acts. Such a pattern points to a disorder in which unwanted ideas and urges force a person into rituals.
Step 2: Read the clues in the passage
Seema washes her hands again and again. She walks only inside patterns on the floor. She cannot control her preoccupation with certain ideas and cannot stop repeating acts. Anxiety follows when she tries to stop.
Step 3: Check option (1) Post-traumatic stress disorder
PTSD follows a terrible event. Its signs are flashbacks, nightmares and avoidance of reminders. The passage mentions no such event, so (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
OCD has obsessions (intrusive thoughts) and compulsions (repeated acts such as washing or counting). Every clue in the passage fits. So (2) is correct.
Step 5: Check option (3) Bipolar disorder
Bipolar disorder swings between high mood (mania) and low mood (depression). Nothing in the passage speaks of mood swings, so (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4) Conversion disorder
In conversion disorder, stress turns into a physical symptom such as paralysis or blindness with no medical cause. The passage has no such symptom, so (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Seema shows obsessive-compulsive disorder, which is option (2).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (2)}} \]
Question 42:
The inability to stop thinking about a particular idea or topic is known as:
(A) Compulsive behaviour
(B) Unpleasant behaviour
(C) Obsessive behaviour
(D) Intrusive behaviour
Correct Answer: (C) Obsessive behaviour
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept
In OCD, an obsession is a thought, idea or image that keeps coming into the mind. A compulsion is an act repeated to cut the anxiety the thought causes.
Step 2: Read the question
The question asks for the inability to stop thinking about one idea or topic. This is about thinking, not doing.
Step 3: Check option (1) Compulsive behaviour
Compulsive behaviour means repeated acts, such as washing hands again and again. It is about action, so (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) Unpleasant behaviour
This is not a technical term in the OCD classification. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) Obsessive behaviour
Obsession is the repeated thought that cannot be stopped by the person. This matches the question, so (3) is correct.
Step 6: Check option (4) Intrusive behaviour
Intrusive describes how thoughts enter the mind uninvited, but the standard name for the condition is obsession. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The inability to stop thinking about an idea is obsessive behaviour, option (3).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (3)}} \]
Question 43:
Seema's behavior to avoid the anxiety stemming out from intrusive and/or unpleasant thoughts is called:
(A) Compulsive behaviour
(B) Obsessive behaviour
(C) Social behaviour
(D) Productive behaviour
Correct Answer: (A) Compulsive behaviour
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept
A compulsion is a repeated act that a person feels forced to do. The act is done to lower the anxiety that obsessive thoughts bring.
Step 2: Read the question
Seema acts to avoid the anxiety coming from intrusive and unpleasant thoughts. Her act is hand washing and walking in patterns.
Step 3: Check option (1) Compulsive behaviour
Repeated acts done to ease anxiety from unwanted thoughts are compulsions. So (1) is correct.
Step 4: Check option (2) Obsessive behaviour
Obsession is the thought itself, not the act done to escape it. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) Social behaviour
Social behaviour is conduct directed at other people. It does not describe ritual acts. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4) Productive behaviour
The rituals do not produce anything useful and this is not a clinical term. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The behaviour is called compulsive behaviour, option (1).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (1)}} \]
Question 44:
Which of the following is NOT included under Obsessive-compulsive and related disorders?
(A) Hoarding disorder
(B) Conversion disorder
(C) Trichotillomania
(D) Excoriation disorder
Correct Answer: (B) Conversion disorder
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept
The group called obsessive-compulsive and related disorders includes OCD, body dysmorphic disorder, hoarding disorder, trichotillomania (hair pulling) and excoriation (skin picking) disorder.
Step 2: Read the question
We must find the one that is NOT in this group.
Step 3: Check option (1) Hoarding disorder
Hoarding is a related disorder in this group. So (1) is not the answer.
Step 4: Check option (2) Conversion disorder
Conversion disorder is a physical symptom caused by stress. It belongs to the somatic symptom and related disorders. So it is not in the OCD group, and (2) is correct.
Step 5: Check option (3) Trichotillomania
Hair pulling is listed in this group. So (3) is not the answer.
Step 6: Check option (4) Excoriation disorder
Skin picking is listed in this group. So (4) is not the answer.
Final Answer:
The disorder not in this group is conversion disorder, option (2).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (2)}} \]
Question 45:
Trichotillomania is related to:
(A) Skin-picking disorder
(B) Skin-pulling disorder
(C) Face-scanning disorder
(D) Hair-pulling disorder
Correct Answer: (D) Hair-pulling disorder
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept
Trichotillomania comes from Greek words: thrix for hair, tillo for pulling and mania for a strong urge. It is a related disorder in the OCD group.
Step 2: Check option (1) Skin-picking disorder
Skin picking is called excoriation disorder, a different condition. So (1) is wrong.
Step 3: Check option (2) Skin-pulling disorder
There is no disorder with this name. So (2) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (3) Face-scanning disorder
This is not a recognised disorder. So (3) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (4) Hair-pulling disorder
The person repeatedly pulls out their own hair and cannot resist the urge. This is trichotillomania, so (4) is correct.
Final Answer:
Trichotillomania is a hair-pulling disorder, option (4).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (4)}} \]
Question 46:
Which of the following is not a technique used in behaviour therapy?
(A) Token economy
(B) Cognitive restructuring
(C) Modelling
(D) Systematic desensitisation
Correct Answer: (B) Cognitive restructuring
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept
Behaviour therapy applies learning principles such as conditioning and observation to change unwanted behaviour. Cognitive therapy, by contrast, works on thoughts.
Step 2: Read the question
We need the one that is NOT a behaviour therapy technique.
Step 3: Check option (1) Token economy
Tokens are given as rewards for good behaviour and later exchanged for goods. It is operant conditioning, so it is a behaviour technique. Not the answer.
Step 4: Check option (2) Cognitive restructuring
This changes faulty thinking and belongs to cognitive therapies, such as Beck's and Ellis's approaches. So (2) is correct.
Step 5: Check option (3) Modelling
The client learns by watching a model. It is a behaviour technique. Not the answer.
Step 6: Check option (4) Systematic desensitisation
Wolpe's method pairs relaxation with feared items step by step. It is a behaviour technique. Not the answer.
Final Answer:
The technique not used in behaviour therapy is cognitive restructuring, option (2).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (2)}} \]
Question 47:
The 'systematic desensitisation' technique was developed by:
(A) Wolpe
(B) Bandura
(C) Beck
(D) Ellis
Correct Answer: (A) Wolpe
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept
Systematic desensitisation reduces fear by pairing relaxation with the feared object in small steps, from the mildest to the strongest.
Step 2: Check option (1) Wolpe
Joseph Wolpe developed this method using reciprocal inhibition. So (1) is correct.
Step 3: Check option (2) Bandura
Albert Bandura is known for social learning and modelling. So (2) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (3) Beck
Aaron Beck developed cognitive therapy for depression. So (3) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (4) Ellis
Albert Ellis developed rational emotive behaviour therapy. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Systematic desensitisation was developed by Wolpe, option (1).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (1)}} \]
Question 48:
Identify the technique in which Abby's unwanted behavior can be reduced, and wanted behavior can be increased simultaneously.
(A) Token economy
(B) Modelling
(C) Reciprocal inhibition
(D) Differential reinforcement
Correct Answer: (D) Differential reinforcement
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept
Differential reinforcement rewards the wanted behaviour and withholds reward from the unwanted behaviour. So the wanted one grows while the unwanted one fades.
Step 2: Read the question
Abby's unwanted behaviour should drop and wanted behaviour should rise at the same time.
Step 3: Check option (1) Token economy
Tokens reward good behaviour only. It mainly raises wanted behaviour and does not by itself reduce the unwanted one. So (1) is not the best fit.
Step 4: Check option (2) Modelling
Modelling is learning by watching someone. It has no reward and withdrawal pair. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) Reciprocal inhibition
This is Wolpe's idea behind desensitisation, used for fears. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4) Differential reinforcement
Reward the wanted act and ignore the unwanted act. Both goals are met together. So (4) is correct.
Final Answer:
The technique is differential reinforcement, option (4).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (4)}} \]
Question 49:
________ is learning by observing others in which the client gradually learns to acquire the behaviour of the model through a process of rewarding small changes in the behaviour.
(A) Vicarious learning
(B) Token economy
(C) Differential learning
(D) Flooding
Correct Answer: (A) Vicarious learning
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept
Modelling is learning by watching others. The learner copies the model's behaviour and small improvements are rewarded.
Step 2: Read the question
The blank is a type of learning by observing others, where small changes are rewarded.
Step 3: Check option (1) Vicarious learning
Vicarious learning means learning by observing others and their consequences. It fits the description, so (1) is correct.
Step 4: Check option (2) Token economy
This is a reward system, not learning by observation. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) Differential learning
This is not a standard therapy term. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4) Flooding
Flooding is full exposure to a feared object at once. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The blank is vicarious learning, option (1).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (1)}} \]
Question 50:
In which of the following disorders, aversive conditioning is most suitable technique for treatment?
(A) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
(B) Paraphillias disorder
(C) Alcohol Addiction
(D) Mood disorder
Correct Answer: (C) Alcohol Addiction
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept
Aversive conditioning links an unwanted habit with an unpleasant result, such as a drug that causes sickness when alcohol is taken. Over time the habit becomes unattractive.
Step 2: Check option (1) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
OCD is treated with exposure and response prevention and drugs. So (1) is wrong.
Step 3: Check option (2) Paraphillias disorder
Aversion is sometimes tried here, but it is not the standard textbook example. So (2) is not the best answer.
Step 4: Check option (3) Alcohol Addiction
Textbooks give alcoholism as the classic use of aversive conditioning. So (3) is correct.
Step 5: Check option (4) Mood disorder
Mood disorders are treated with drugs and cognitive therapy. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Aversive conditioning is most suitable for alcohol addiction, option (3).
\[ \boxed{\text{Option (3)}} \]
When you find others also favoring capital punishment, you feel that your favorable view on capital punishment is validated by the public. This is an example of:
Arrange the following stages of group formation in correct sequence: A. Storming B. Norming C. Performing D. Forming E. Adjourning Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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