CUET 2026 May 15 Shift 1 Sociology Question Paper is available for download here. NTA conducted the CUET 2026 exam from 11th May to 31st May.

  • CUET 2026 Sociology exam consists of 50 questions for 250 marks to be attempted in 60 minutes.
  • As per the marking scheme, 5 marks are awarded for each correct answer, and 1 mark is deducted for incorrect answer.

Candidates can download CUET 2026 May 15 Shift 1 Sociology Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from links provided below.

CUET 2026 Sociology May 15 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

CUET May 15 Shift 1 Sociology Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

What is Social Demography?

  • (A) It is concerned with measurement and analysis of the components of population change.
  • (B) It is concerned with the wider causes and consequences of population structure and change.
  • (C) It is concerned with the changes in the population due to genetic influence.
  • (D) It studies the changes in the population due to climatic conditions.
Correct Answer: (B) It is concerned with the wider causes and consequences of population structure and change.
View Solution

Concept:
Demography is the systematic study of population, which is broadly divided into formal demography and social demography.

Step 1: Understanding Formal Demography:
Formal demography is primarily concerned with the quantitative measurement and mathematical analysis of population components.
It focuses on numerical changes, gathering statistical data on birth rates, death rates, migration, and sex ratios.

Step 2: Analyzing Social Demography:
Social demography goes beyond pure statistical analysis to explore the social, economic, and political factors that drive population changes.
It investigates the wider causes and consequences of population structure and change within a society, linking demographic trends to social institutions.

Step 3: Evaluating the Options:
Option (A) defines formal demography, not social demography.
Option (B) accurately describes social demography as it links population changes to broader social consequences and causes.
Options (C) and (D) are incorrect as they refer to genetic and climatic studies, which fall outside the primary scope of sociological demography.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) It is concerned with the wider causes and consequences of population structure and change.

Quick Tip: Remember that "Formal" demography equals quantitative measurement, while "Social" demography equals qualitative causes and societal consequences.

Question 2:

The age structure of population refers to:

  • (A) the number of live births per 1000 women in the child-bearing age group
  • (B) the number of deaths of babies before the age of one year per 1000 live births
  • (C) the proportion of persons in the different age groups relative to the total population.
  • (D) the number of females per 1000 males in a given area at a specified time period.
Correct Answer: (C) the proportion of persons in the different age groups relative to the total population.
View Solution

Concept:
The demographic composition of a population can be analyzed using various indicators such as age structure, sex ratio, and mortality rates.

Step 1: Defining Age Structure:
The age structure of a population refers to the distribution of individuals across various age categories.
It shows the proportion of persons in different age groups relative to the total population, typically categorized into children, working-age adults, and the elderly.

Step 2: Analyzing the Other Options:
Option (A) defines the General Fertility Rate, which measures births relative to women of child-bearing age.
Option (B) defines the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), which tracks infant deaths.
Option (D) defines the Sex Ratio, measuring the demographic balance between males and females.

Step 3: Conclusion:
Only Option (C) correctly describes the concept of age structure, which is crucial for determining a country’s dependency ratio and demographic dividend.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) the proportion of persons in the different age groups relative to the total population.

Quick Tip: Age structure is often visually represented using a Population Pyramid, which instantly shows the proportion of young vs. old individuals in a society.

Question 3:

What factors contribute to the physical transplantation of urban life into a rural setup?

  • (A) Mass Media and Communication
  • (B) Migration
  • (C) Industrialization
  • (D) Secularization
Correct Answer: (C) Industrialization
View Solution

Concept:
The transformation of rural areas in India due to urban influence was extensively studied by sociologists like M.S.A. Rao.
He categorized the urban impact on rural areas into different forms based on the nature of exposure.

Step 1: Understanding Forms of Urban Impact:
One major form of urban impact is the physical transplantation of urban life into a rural setup.
This occurs when large-scale infrastructure, townships, or factories are established directly amidst rural surroundings.

Step 2: Evaluating the Role of Industrialization:
Industrialization leads to the setting up of massive industrial units (like the Bhilai or Bokaro steel plants) in previously rural or tribal belts.
This forces an immediate, physical introduction of urban infrastructure, housing patterns, and modern amenities into the rural landscape.

Step 3: Comparing with Other Options:
Mass Media and Communication primarily lead to a cultural or ideological transmission rather than a physical one.
Migration leads to the flow of urban goods and ideas back to the village, but industrialization literally builds the physical urban environment in rural areas.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Industrialization.

Quick Tip: M.S.A. Rao noted three levels of urban impact: industrialization causing physical transplantation, migration causing economic/cultural shifts, and the expansion of metropolitan cities absorbing peripheral villages.

Question 4:

Which of the following is an outcome of a social movement in Britain?

  • (A) Protection of the monarchial prestige
  • (B) Reservation in government jobs
  • (C) Positive affirmation for coloured people
  • (D) Universal Adult Suffrage
Correct Answer: (D) Universal Adult Suffrage
View Solution

Concept:
Social movements are organized collective actions aimed at bringing about or resisting social, political, or cultural change.
History is replete with social movements that have fundamentally transformed political rights across the globe.

Step 1: Identifying British Social Movements:
One of the most significant and historically impactful social movements in Britain was the Suffragette movement.
Led by figures like Emmeline Pankhurst, this movement fought vigorously for women’s right to vote.

Step 2: Analyzing the Outcomes:
The relentless campaigning, protests, and activism of the suffragettes eventually led to legislative changes.
It culminated in the Representation of the People Acts, eventually granting Universal Adult Suffrage, allowing women the same voting rights as men.

Step 3: Evaluating Other Options:
Protection of monarchial prestige was a conservative status-quo position, not an outcome of a progressive social movement.
Reservation policies and affirmative action for marginalized races are more prominently associated with Indian and American social movements, respectively.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Universal Adult Suffrage.

Quick Tip: When questions mention major social movements in Britain or the USA, always recall the Suffragette movement (Britain) and the Civil Rights movement (USA) as classic examples.

Question 5:

The most common features of the caste system are:
A. It is an ascribed identity.
B. It is an endogamous group.
C. It is linked to particular occupational groups.
D. It is based on abilities and can change over time.
Choose the correct statements from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) B, C and D only
  • (C) A, C and D only
  • (D) A, B and D only
Correct Answer: (A) A, B and C only
View Solution

Concept:
The caste system is a rigid form of social stratification deeply embedded in historical Indian society.
It is characterized by strict rules regarding birth, marriage, food sharing, and occupation.

Step 1: Analyzing Statement A:
Caste is strictly an ascribed identity, meaning it is determined by birth.
An individual inherits the caste of their parents, making Statement A correct.

Step 2: Analyzing Statement B:
Caste dictates rules of marriage, primarily enforcing endogamy.
This means individuals are required to marry within their own specific caste group, making Statement B correct.

Step 3: Analyzing Statement C and D:
Traditionally, each caste is associated with a specific hereditary occupation, confirming Statement C as correct.
Statement D is fundamentally flawed because caste cannot be changed based on an individual’s acquired skills, merit, or abilities over time.
Caste is fixed for life, unlike class which allows for social mobility.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) A, B and C only.

Quick Tip: Ascribed status is given at birth (caste, race, sex), whereas Achieved status is earned through effort and ability (education, occupation class).

Question 6:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
6
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
View Solution

Concept:
Demographic indicators are essential statistical tools used to measure various characteristics of a population.

Step 1: Matching Fertility Rate (A):
Fertility Rate specifically refers to the actual reproductive performance of a population.
It is defined as the number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive or child-bearing age group (usually 15-49 years).
Thus, A matches with III.

Step 2: Matching Infant Mortality Rate (B):
Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) measures the survival probability of newborns.
It is the number of deaths of babies before the age of one year per 1000 live births in a given year.
Thus, B matches with I.

Step 3: Matching Sex Ratio and Dependency Ratio (C and D):
Sex Ratio indicates the balance of genders in a society, measured as the number of females per 1000 males.
Thus, C matches with II.
Dependency Ratio compares the dependent population (children under 15 and elderly over 64) to the working-age population (15-64 years).
Thus, D matches with IV.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV.

Quick Tip: Always look for the most obvious match first to eliminate wrong options. Identifying Sex Ratio (C-II) immediately narrows down the choices effectively.

Question 7:

Which of the following can be understood as an effect of ’Sanskritisation’?

  • (A) Adoption of western education by the Brahmins.
  • (B) The practice of dowry among Dalit communities.
  • (C) The tribes taking up new occupation.
  • (D) Middle-caste women choosing to work outside the home.
Correct Answer: (B) The practice of dowry among Dalit communities.
View Solution

Concept:
Sanskritisation is a concept introduced by sociologist M.N. Srinivas.
It describes the process by which a lower caste or tribe attempts to achieve upward social mobility by emulating the customs, rituals, and ideology of a dominant or ’twice-born’ upper caste.

Step 1: Understanding the Process of Sanskritisation:
When lower castes sanskritise, they often give up their traditional practices, such as meat-eating, liquor consumption, and animal sacrifice.
Simultaneously, they adopt upper-caste practices such as vegetarianism, wearing the sacred thread, and performing orthodox rituals.

Step 2: Evaluating the Given Options:
Option (A) refers to Westernisation, not Sanskritisation.
Option (C) reflects economic modernization or occupational mobility, independent of ritual emulation.
Option (D) is a feature of modernization and secularization, contrasting with traditional upper-caste norms that often restrict women to the domestic sphere.

Step 3: Identifying the Correct Effect:
Traditionally, many lower castes and Dalit communities practiced ’bride-price’.
As an effect of Sanskritisation, these communities abandoned bride-price and adopted the upper-caste practice of ’dowry’ to elevate their social standing.
Therefore, the adoption of dowry by Dalit communities perfectly exemplifies the cultural emulation defined by Sanskritisation.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) The practice of dowry among Dalit communities.

Quick Tip: Sanskritisation often results in worsening the condition of women in lower castes because they adopt patriarchal upper-caste norms, such as dowry and restriction of women’s movement.

Question 8:

Which of the following can be understood as "acquired" trait for a person belonging to the Gond tribe?

  • (A) The person decides to assert his tribal identity.
  • (B) The person decides to stay in his/her place of origin.
  • (C) The person decides to adopt the "purity and pollution" principle of caste to maintain their identity.
  • (D) The person decides to continue to use his/her own language.
Correct Answer: (C) The person decides to adopt the "purity and pollution" principle of caste to maintain their identity.
View Solution

Concept:
In sociological classification, tribal societies are often categorized based on ’permanent’ traits and ’acquired’ traits.
Permanent traits include inherent characteristics such as region of origin, language, physical characteristics, and ecological habitat.

Step 1: Defining Acquired Traits in Tribes:
Acquired traits refer to characteristics that tribes develop due to their interaction with external societies, predominantly mainstream Hindu society.
This classification includes their mode of livelihood and their extent of assimilation or incorporation into the Hindu caste system.

Step 2: Evaluating the Options:
Options (A), (B), and (D) involve the retention of innate or permanent traits, such as original language, place of origin, and innate tribal identity.
Option (C) involves the adoption of the "purity and pollution" principle, which is the foundational ideology of the Hindu caste system.

Step 3: Conclusion:
By adopting caste-based principles, the tribal individual is acquiring a foreign cultural trait to adjust to or assimilate with the broader socio-cultural environment.
This represents an acquired trait.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) The person decides to adopt the "purity and pollution" principle of caste to maintain their identity.

Quick Tip: Classification of tribes in India by scholars like G.S. Ghurye often focuses on how much a tribe has assimilated into Hindu society, categorizing this level of assimilation as an acquired characteristic.

Question 9:

Which of the following functions of the family is determined by lineage structure?

  • (A) Rules of authority
  • (B) Rules of residence
  • (C) Rules of inheritance
  • (D) Rules of marriage
Correct Answer: (C) Rules of inheritance
View Solution

Concept:
The family as a social institution operates under various rules depending on its structure and societal norms.
Lineage refers to the line of descent traced continuously from an ancestor, which fundamentally shapes the family’s structural organization.

Step 1: Understanding Family Rules:
Rules of authority dictate who holds power (e.g., patriarchal or matriarchal).
Rules of residence dictate where the married couple lives (e.g., patrilocal or matrilocal).
Rules of lineage or descent specifically establish how property, titles, and ancestral heritage are passed down from one generation to the next.

Step 2: Linking Lineage to Inheritance:
Lineage structure (whether patrilineal, tracing descent through the father, or matrilineal, tracing descent through the mother) directly determines the rules of inheritance.
In a patrilineal system, property is inherited by sons, whereas in a matrilineal system, property usually passes through the female line.

Step 3: Conclusion:
Therefore, the rules of inheritance are the specific functions explicitly determined by the lineage structure of the family.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Rules of inheritance.

Quick Tip: Do not confuse matriliny (tracing descent and inheritance through women) with matriarchy (where women hold supreme political and domestic authority).

Question 10:

Which of the following is correct for the OBC population in India?
A. It is a diverse group with regional variations.
B. They are mostly from untouchable castes.
C. Till 1990, two different commissions were set up for OBC welfare.
D. Southern states in India started mobilization of OBC long before the northern states.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, C and D only
  • (C) B, C and D only
  • (D) A, B and C only
Correct Answer: (B) A, C and D only
View Solution

Concept:
Other Backward Classes (OBCs) represent a legally recognized classification in India for socially and educationally backward communities.

Step 1: Analyzing Statement A and B:
OBCs are a highly diverse group comprising numerous castes with significant regional variations in their economic and social status. Thus, Statement A is correct.
Statement B is incorrect because OBCs belong to the shudra varna or intermediate castes, whereas "untouchable castes" are constitutionally classified as Scheduled Castes (Dalits), not OBCs.

Step 2: Analyzing Statement C:
Prior to the implementation of the Mandal Commission recommendations in 1990, the central government had set up two backward classes commissions: the Kaka Kalelkar Commission (1953) and the Mandal Commission (1979).
Thus, Statement C is correct.

Step 3: Analyzing Statement D:
Historically, the mobilization of backward classes started much earlier in southern India (e.g., the Justice Party in Madras Presidency) compared to the Hindi heartland of northern India.
Thus, Statement D is correct.

Step 4: Conclusion:
Since statements A, C, and D are correct, and B is factually incorrect, the valid option is the one containing A, C, and D.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) A, C and D only.

Quick Tip: The constitutional basis for OBC reservation is Article 340, which authorizes the President to appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of backward classes.

Question 11:

Why is Dharma Sabha an example of counter movement?

  • (A) It defended the right of older women to practice Sati.
  • (B) It defended the practice of Sati and refused to bring in any change.
  • (C) It attacked Sati but not the problem of polygamy.
  • (D) It was against mass mobilization but wanted new rules to abolish Sati.
Correct Answer: (B) It defended the practice of Sati and refused to bring in any change.
View Solution

Concept:
A counter-movement is a social movement that arises specifically in opposition to another social movement, seeking to halt or reverse the changes proposed by the progressive movement.

Step 1: Historical Context of the Dharma Sabha:
In the early 19th century, social reformers like Raja Ram Mohan Roy formed the Brahmo Samaj to combat orthodox Hindu practices, most notably the practice of Sati (widow immolation).
This reformist movement successfully campaigned to get Sati legally abolished by the British administration in 1829.

Step 2: The Formation of the Counter Movement:
In direct response to this progressive legislation and the Brahmo Samaj’s efforts, orthodox Hindu leaders led by Radhakant Deb established the Dharma Sabha in 1830.

Step 3: Evaluating the Options:
The sole purpose of the Dharma Sabha in its initial years was to fiercely defend the orthodox practice of Sati and to petition the colonial government to repeal the ban.
It sought to preserve the traditional status quo and refused to accept modern social reforms.
This aligns perfectly with Option (B).

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) It defended the practice of Sati and refused to bring in any change.

Quick Tip: Counter-movements are inherently conservative or reactionary in nature. They fight to maintain the existing social hierarchy or traditional customs against reformist ideologies.

Question 12:

Which of the following contributes towards the formation of ethno-national identities in India?
A. Language
B. Religion
C. Region
D. Tribe
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, C and D only
  • (D) B, C and D only
Correct Answer: (A) A, B and D only
View Solution

Concept:
Ethno-nationalism is a type of nationalism where the "nation" is defined in terms of shared ethnicity, heritage, and culture, rather than mere political citizenship.

Step 1: Analyzing Cultural Markers in India:
In the Indian context, ethno-national conflicts and identity formations are deeply rooted in specific cultural markers that differentiate one community from another.
The sociological discourse highlights that language, religion, and tribe are the most powerful and common bases for ethno-national identity.

Step 2: Evaluating the Options:
Language fuels linguistic nationalism (e.g., the Tamil identity movement).
Religion serves as a basis for religious nationalism (e.g., the Khalistan movement).
Tribe is the foundation for tribal ethno-nationalism (e.g., Naga or Mizo insurgencies).
While ’Region’ does contribute to regionalism, ethno-nationalism strictly requires an ethnic or cultural foundation (language, religion, tribe) beyond mere territorial boundaries.

Step 3: Conclusion:
Thus, the triad of Language (A), Religion (B), and Tribe (D) forms the core sociological foundation for ethno-national identities as discussed in structural frameworks.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) A, B and D only.

Quick Tip: Remember that while Regionalism is tied to geography and economic grievances, Ethno-nationalism is tied to inherent cultural identities (ethnicity, language, religion).

Question 13:

"The State is a body that successfully claims the monopoly of legitimate force in a particular territory"—this definition of State was given by

  • (A) Karl Marx
  • (B) Max Weber
  • (C) Émile Durkheim
  • (D) B. R. Ambedkar
Correct Answer: (B) Max Weber
View Solution

Concept:
The definition of the state is a foundational concept in political sociology, exploring how power and authority are legitimized.

Step 1: Identifying the Quote:
The statement "The State is a human community that (successfully) claims the monopoly of the legitimate use of physical force within a given territory" is one of the most famous definitions in modern sociology.

Step 2: Attributing the Definition:
This precise definition was coined by the prominent German sociologist Max Weber.
He presented this idea in his influential 1919 lecture essay "Politics as a Vocation" (Politik als Beruf).

Step 3: Explaining the Definition:
Weber argued that what distinguishes a modern state from other institutions is its exclusive right to authorize the use of physical violence.
No other entity or individual is allowed to use violence legitimately unless the state delegates that right to them (e.g., the police or military).

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Max Weber.

Quick Tip: Max Weber’s theories frequently revolve around three core concepts: Bureaucracy, Authority (Traditional, Charismatic, Rational-Legal), and the State’s monopoly on legitimate force.

Question 14:

What is the primary vision of the Constitution of India?

  • (A) To develop an assimilationist culture by identifying a cultural code.
  • (B) To build an integrationist nation-State by establishing a singular idea.
  • (C) To maintain a national unity by formally recognising differences among the people.
  • (D) To have a written mandate which all Indians can comprehend.
Correct Answer: (C) To maintain a national unity by formally recognising differences among the people.
View Solution

Concept:
The Indian Constitution embodies a unique model of nation-building that respects diversity rather than enforcing homogeneity.

Step 1: Analyzing the Assimilationist vs. Integrationist Models:
Assimilationist policies try to erase cultural differences by forcing minorities to adopt the dominant culture.
Integrationist policies might tolerate differences privately but establish a singular national public identity.
The Indian Constitution explicitly rejects strict assimilationism.

Step 2: The Vision of the Indian Constitution:
The framers of the Constitution envisioned an "accommodative" or "state-nation" model.
This vision is built on maintaining national unity while formally recognizing, protecting, and celebrating cultural, linguistic, and religious differences.
Articles 29 and 30, for example, explicitly protect the rights of minorities to preserve their culture and establish educational institutions.

Step 3: Conclusion:
Thus, the primary sociological vision of the Constitution is unity in diversity, which aligns with Option (C).

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) To maintain a national unity by formally recognising differences among the people.

Quick Tip: India is considered a "State-Nation" rather than a traditional "Nation-State" precisely because it fosters political loyalty without demanding cultural uniformity.

Question 15:

Which of the following cities was outside the economic system of the colonial empire?

  • (A) Bombay
  • (B) Kolkata
  • (C) Madras
  • (D) Bhopal
Correct Answer: (D) Bhopal
View Solution

Concept:
During the British colonial period, certain Indian cities were strategically developed as central hubs for the colonial economic and administrative systems.

Step 1: Identifying Colonial Hubs:
The British East India Company established its major trading posts and subsequent administrative presidencies in coastal cities to facilitate maritime trade with Europe.
Bombay (Mumbai), Kolkata (Calcutta), and Madras (Chennai) were the three major Presidency towns.
These cities were deeply integrated into the global capitalist economy driven by the colonial empire, handling raw material exports and manufactured imports.

Step 2: Analyzing the Exceptions:
Bhopal, on the other hand, was the capital of a princely state ruled by the Nawabs (the Begums of Bhopal).
While it had treaties with the British, it was largely self-administered internally and did not serve as a primary node for the British colonial economic export-import system.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Bhopal.

Quick Tip: Always associate Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras directly with the core infrastructure of British colonial capitalism in India.

Question 16:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
16
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (A) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
View Solution

Concept:
Sociology categorizes structural and cultural changes in societies into distinct but overlapping processes.

Step 1: Matching Urbanisation (A):
Urbanisation brings large volumes of people from rural areas into cities.
This massive influx inevitably leads to a reordering of social dynamics, specifically the relationship between original natives and new migrants competing for space and resources.
Thus, A matches with I.

Step 2: Matching Westernisation (B):
Westernisation deals fundamentally with cultural shifts, including lifestyle, attire, and beliefs.
It results in a reordering of the social value systems to reflect Western ideals.
Thus, B matches with IV.

Step 3: Matching Modernisation (C):
Modernisation is a broad concept that involves moving from traditional to modern societies, heavily relying on the application of science and the adopting of new technology in various processes.
Thus, C matches with II.

Step 4: Matching Industrialization (D):
Industrialization transforms the economic base from agrarian to manufacturing.
The factory system and mass production fundamentally cause a reordering of the market economy.
Thus, D matches with III.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III.

Quick Tip: Differentiate clearly between Industrialization (economic and market structural change) and Modernisation (scientific rationalization and technological adoption).

Question 17:

According to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, the Panchayati Raj Institution is divided into how many tier system?

  • (A) Two
  • (B) Three
  • (C) Four
  • (D) Five
Correct Answer: (B) Three
View Solution

Concept:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 was a landmark reform that institutionalized democratic decentralization at the grassroots level in India.

Step 1: Constitutional Provisions:
The amendment mandated a uniform structural framework for rural local self-governance across all states in India.

Step 2: Identifying the Tiers:
It explicitly established a three-tier system for the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
1. Gram Panchayat at the village level.
2. Panchayat Samiti (or Mandal Parishad) at the intermediate or block level.
3. Zila Parishad at the district level.

Step 3: Conclusion:
This uniform three-tier system replaced the varied structural models that states followed previously.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Three.

Quick Tip: States with a population of less than 20 lakhs are exempt from constituting the intermediate tier, but the constitutional mandate universally establishes a three-tier design.

Question 18:

Which of the following powers and responsibilities are delegated to the Panchayats?

  • (A) B, C and D only
  • (B) A, C and D only
  • (C) A, B and C only
  • (D) A, B and D only
Correct Answer: (B) A, C and D only
View Solution

Concept:
The 73rd Amendment Act inserted the Eleventh Schedule into the Constitution, outlining 29 functional items devolved to the Panchayats to ensure local self-governance.

Step 1: Analyzing the Delegated Powers:
Article 243G endows Panchayats with the power to prepare plans for economic development (Statement A is correct) and to implement schemes for social justice (Statement C is correct).
Article 243H grants the state legislatures the authority to authorize Panchayats to levy, collect, and appropriate local taxes, tolls, and fees (Statement D is correct).

Step 2: Identifying Excluded Powers:
Panchayats are executive and planning bodies at the local level; they do not possess sovereign legislative powers.
They cannot "make laws" in the constitutional sense (like the Parliament or State Assemblies).
They can only create localized by-laws or resolutions.
Therefore, Statement B is incorrect.

Step 3: Conclusion:
Eliminating option B leaves us with statements A, C, and D as the correct powers.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) A, C and D only.

Quick Tip: Always remember that law-making (legislation) is the domain of the Legislature (Parliament/Assemblies), while Panchayats handle local administration, welfare schemes, and civic duties.

Question 19:

What is the business practice called, where companies reduce their permanent workforce and assign work to smaller firms or individual workers at home?

  • (A) Liberalisation
  • (B) Outsourcing
  • (C) Disinvestment
  • (D) Mechanisation
Correct Answer: (B) Outsourcing
View Solution

Concept:
In the era of globalization and flexible labor markets, corporations adopt various strategies to minimize operational costs and maximize profits.

Step 1: Defining the Practice:
When large companies deliberately reduce their full-time, permanent workforce, they often transfer the required tasks to external entities.
They assign this work to smaller subcontracting firms or directly to individual gig/home-based workers.

Step 2: Identifying the Term:
This business strategy is universally known as Outsourcing.
By outsourcing, companies avoid paying regular salaries, health benefits, and pensions associated with permanent employment.

Step 3: Analyzing Other Options:
Liberalisation refers to the relaxation of government restrictions on trade and the economy.
Disinvestment refers to the government selling its stakes in public sector enterprises.
Mechanisation refers to replacing human labor with machines.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Outsourcing.

Quick Tip: Outsourcing heavily contributes to the ’informalization’ of the workforce, pushing workers out of secure permanent jobs into insecure, contract-based roles.

Question 20:

How can judicial interpretation of the Constitution contribute to social transformation?

  • (A) By restricting rights to literal constitutional meaning.
  • (B) By preserving the intentions of original constitutional makers.
  • (C) By expanding fundamental concepts like ’Right to Life’ to encompass quality dimensions.
  • (D) By maintaining strict separation between constitutional articles.
Correct Answer: (C) By expanding fundamental concepts like ’Right to Life’ to encompass quality dimensions.
View Solution

Concept:
The judiciary plays a proactive role in modern democracies, often stepping in to drive social transformation through liberal interpretations of constitutional text.

Step 1: Understanding Judicial Activism:
A strict literal interpretation or preserving only original intentions (Options A and B) limits the Constitution to the past, preventing it from addressing contemporary social issues.

Step 2: The Transformative Role of the Judiciary:
The Indian Supreme Court has consistently driven social change by broadly interpreting fundamental rights.
A classic example is the expansion of Article 21 (Right to Life).
The courts ruled that the Right to Life does not merely mean animal existence, but includes the right to live with human dignity, the right to a clean environment, the right to livelihood, and the right to privacy.

Step 3: Conclusion:
By expanding these core fundamental concepts, judicial interpretation acts as a powerful catalyst for positive social transformation.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) By expanding fundamental concepts like ’Right to Life’ to encompass quality dimensions.

Quick Tip: The concept of a "living constitution" relies heavily on the judiciary’s ability to interpret old laws in ways that address new socio-economic realities.

Question 21:

What is the correct chronological sequence of democratic developments in India?
A. Constitutional status granted to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
B. Development of Van Panchayats
C. Right to Information Act
D. Right to Livelihood as constitutional right.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) D, A, B, C
  • (B) B, D, A, C
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) D, C, B, A
Correct Answer: (B) B, D, A, C
View Solution

Concept:
Tracking the timeline of socio-political movements and democratic rights in India involves understanding both colonial history and post-independence judicial and legislative milestones.

Step 1: Establishing Dates for Each Event:
Statement B: The Van Panchayats (Forest Councils) were developed in the Kumaon region of present-day Uttarakhand in the 1930s following massive protests against colonial forest policies.
Statement D: The Right to Livelihood was firmly established as a part of the constitutional Right to Life (Article 21) by the Supreme Court in the landmark Olga Tellis case in 1985.
Statement A: Constitutional status was granted to Panchayati Raj Institutions via the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, which was passed in 1992.
Statement C: The Right to Information (RTI) Act was passed by the Indian Parliament and came into force much later, in 2005.

Step 2: Arranging in Chronological Order:
1. Van Panchayats (1930s) -> B
2. Right to Livelihood (1985) -> D
3. Panchayati Raj Amendment (1992) -> A
4. RTI Act (2005) -> C
The correct sequence is B, D, A, C.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) B, D, A, C.

Quick Tip: Whenever Van Panchayats are mentioned, immediately associate them with early colonial-era environmental mobilization (pre-1947), which places it first in almost any chronological list.

Question 22:

Arrange the following Census events in the correct chronological order of their occurrence.
A. The sex ratio had fallen to an all-time low of 927 females per thousand males.
B. The total population of India was recorded to be 121 crores.
C. India announced its first population policy.
D. The year when India experienced better demographic dividend compared to China.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) D, C, A, B
  • (B) D, C, B, A
  • (C) C, A, B, D
  • (D) C, D, B, A
Correct Answer: (C) C, A, B, D
View Solution

Concept:
The demographic history of India is marked by significant census milestones and policy introductions spanning several decades.

Step 1: Chronological Analysis of Events:
Event C: India announced its first national family planning program in 1952, effectively its first population policy, making it the first country in the world to do so.
Event A: The sex ratio plunged to an all-time low of 927 females per 1000 males during the 1991 Census.
Event B: The total population of India crossed the 1.2 billion mark, precisely recorded as 121 crores, during the 2011 Census.
Event D: India began experiencing a more favorable demographic dividend (working-age population surpassing the non-working) than China in the late 2010s to the 2020s, a very recent phenomenon due to China’s aging population.

Step 2: Arranging the Sequence:
Based on the years: C (1952) -> A (1991) -> B (2011) -> D (Present decade).
This forms the sequence C, A, B, D.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) C, A, B, D.

Quick Tip: Remembering the baseline population of the 2011 Census (1.21 billion) is crucial as it serves as the reference point for numerous socio-economic indicators in India.

Question 23:

Which of the following statements is true for India’s demography and population?
A. Famines were caused by high levels of continuing poverty and malnutrition.
B. Unlike the death rate, the birth rate has not registered a sharp fall.
C. Programmes for mass vaccination, and efforts to improve sanitation helped to control epidemics.
D. Prosperity does not influence family size.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) B, C and D only
  • (D) A, C and D only
Correct Answer: (B) A, B and C only
View Solution

Concept:
Demographic transition in India is characterized by specific patterns in death and birth rates, influenced by public health interventions and socio-economic factors.

Step 1: Analyzing Statements A and C:
Statement A is true; sociologists and economists like Amartya Sen have shown that historical famines were largely failures of entitlement and exacerbated by existing poverty and malnutrition.
Statement C is true; post-independence improvements in public health, mass vaccinations, and sanitation successfully brought down mortality rates from epidemics.

Step 2: Analyzing Statements B and D:
Statement B is true; during the demographic transition in India, death rates plummeted rapidly due to medical advancements, but birth rates declined at a much slower pace due to socio-cultural factors, leading to a population explosion.
Statement D is false; prosperity has a profound influence on family size. As families become more economically prosperous and educated, the fertility rate typically declines.

Step 3: Conclusion:
Since statements A, B, and C are true and D is false, the correct combination is A, B, and C only.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) A, B and C only.

Quick Tip: The Theory of Demographic Transition clearly states that economic prosperity and urbanization lead to lower fertility rates, directly contradicting statement D.

Question 24:

Why is India often called a "state-nation"?

  • (A) Since the political identity developed before a national identity.
  • (B) Since it is committed to the idea of pluralistic identities co-existing peacefully within a single state polity.
  • (C) Since it is developed in the model of assimilation to manage pluralism.
  • (D) Since it is committed to the idea of one nation-one state.
Correct Answer: (B) Since it is committed to the idea of pluralistic identities co-existing peacefully within a single state polity.
View Solution

Concept:
In political sociology, a distinction is made between a "nation-state" and a "state-nation."
A nation-state typically aligns political boundaries with a singular dominant cultural or ethnic identity.

Step 1: Understanding the Nation-State Model:
The classic European model of a nation-state relies on the "one nation, one state" ideology (Option D) and often attempts to assimilate minorities into the dominant culture (Option C).
India consciously rejected this exclusionary model.

Step 2: Defining the State-Nation Model:
A "state-nation" accommodates immense diversity.
It builds a strong political framework (the state) that fosters unity and loyalty while allowing multiple cultural, linguistic, and religious identities (nations) to flourish concurrently.

Step 3: Conclusion:
India is termed a state-nation because its constitutional fabric is deeply committed to pluralism, ensuring different identities co-exist peacefully under one political umbrella without the pressure of forced assimilation.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Since it is committed to the idea of pluralistic identities co-existing peacefully within a single state polity.

Quick Tip: The term "State-Nation" was popularized by political scientists Alfred Stepan and Juan Linz to describe democratic systems that manage multiple overlapping identities.

Question 25:

What was the dominant contradiction within the Indian national movement concerning the caste system?

  • (A) Nationalist leaders considered the abolition of untouchability undesirable while opposing social reforms.
  • (B) Nationalist leaders worked for upliftment of lower castes while denying education to upper castes.
  • (C) Nationalist leaders did not consider colonialism a social evil but regarded caste system a menace.
  • (D) Nationalist leaders worked against discrimination of lower castes while also prioritizing the interests of upper castes.
Correct Answer: (D) Nationalist leaders worked against discrimination of lower castes while also prioritizing the interests of upper castes.
View Solution

Concept:
The Indian national movement was a broad coalition aimed at gaining independence from colonial rule, but it faced intense internal contradictions regarding deeply entrenched social inequalities, particularly the caste system.

Step 1: Analyzing the Stance of Nationalist Leaders:
Mainstream nationalist leaders, including Mahatma Gandhi, publicly campaigned against the extreme practices of caste discrimination, specifically untouchability.
However, the leadership of the Indian National Congress was overwhelmingly dominated by the urban, educated upper castes.

Step 2: Identifying the Contradiction:
The core contradiction lay in their dual approach.
While advocating for social reform and political equality for the lower castes to build a mass anti-colonial front, they were simultaneously reluctant to dismantle the structural and economic privileges held by the upper castes.
They often sought consensus without radical redistribution of power, effectively protecting upper-caste interests.

Step 3: Conclusion:
This structural paradox—fighting untouchability while maintaining upper-caste hegemony—was the dominant contradiction highlighted by Dalit intellectuals like Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Nationalist leaders worked against discrimination of lower castes while also prioritizing the interests of upper castes.

Quick Tip: This inherent contradiction is a key theme in subaltern studies, which critiques the mainstream nationalist movement for masking upper-class and upper-caste dominance under the guise of national unity.

Question 26:

Who, among the following, is a scholar on disability issues?

  • (A) Jotiba Phule
  • (B) Ralph Ellison
  • (C) Anita Ghai
  • (D) Sharmila Rege
Correct Answer: (C) Anita Ghai
View Solution

Concept:
Sociology of disability is a crucial sub-field that examines how physical or mental impairments are structurally framed as disabilities by societal barriers.

Step 1: Analyzing the Scholars:
Jotiba Phule was a pioneering social reformer who fought against the caste system and for women’s education in Maharashtra.
Ralph Ellison was a renowned African-American novelist and scholar, known for his work on race and identity in the United States.
Sharmila Rege was an eminent Indian sociologist and feminist scholar known for her work on Dalit feminism and caste studies.

Step 2: Identifying the Disability Scholar:
Anita Ghai is a prominent Indian academic, disability rights activist, and scholar.
Her work extensively covers the intersections of disability, gender, and society in the Indian context, strongly advocating for the social model of disability.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Anita Ghai.

Quick Tip: Always associate Anita Ghai with the discourse on how disability is not just a biological deficit but a social construct exacerbated by inaccessible environments and prejudices.

Question 27:

A person is forced to leave his job because of his colleagues’ persisting comments about his religious and ethnic identity as inferior. What is he a victim of?

  • (A) Casteism
  • (B) Communalism
  • (C) Regionalism
  • (D) Secularism
Correct Answer: (B) Communalism
View Solution

Concept:
Different forms of social prejudice and discrimination are categorized based on the specific identity marker being targeted.

Step 1: Analyzing the Scenario:
The question explicitly mentions that the person is being targeted due to their "religious and ethnic identity."
The colleagues view this specific religious identity as "inferior," leading to a hostile environment that forces the person to leave their job.

Step 2: Evaluating the Options:
Casteism refers specifically to discrimination based on the hierarchical Hindu caste system.
Regionalism involves prejudice or political allegiance based on geographical location or statehood.
Secularism is a positive constitutional ideal promoting the equal treatment of all religions, not a form of discrimination.
Communalism, in the South Asian context, refers to aggressive chauvinism, prejudice, and hostility based on religious identity.

Step 3: Conclusion:
Since the discrimination is rooted in religious identity antagonism, it is a clear manifestation of communal prejudice.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Communalism.

Quick Tip: In Indian sociology, the term ’Communalism’ uniquely denotes religious sectarianism and hostility, whereas in Western sociology, it often implies a positive sense of community living.

Question 28:

Which of the following is an example of non-market exchange system?

  • (A) Hundi system
  • (B) Weekly haats
  • (C) Nakarattars system
  • (D) Jajmani system
Correct Answer: (D) Jajmani system
View Solution

Concept:
Economic sociology distinguishes between market economies (driven by price, money, and profit) and non-market economies (driven by tradition, reciprocity, and social obligations).

Step 1: Understanding Non-Market Exchange:
A non-market exchange system operates without standard monetary currency or formal market pricing mechanisms.
Instead, goods and services are exchanged based on inherited social relationships and mutual interdependence.

Step 2: Evaluating the Options:
The Hundi system is a traditional financial instrument (bill of exchange) used for trade and credit, which is deeply embedded in the market economy.
Weekly haats are local periodic markets where buying, selling, and monetary trade occur.
The Nakarattars (Nattukottai Chettiars) were a prominent banking and mercantile community involved in extensive market-based financial networks.

Step 3: Identifying the Jajmani System:
The Jajmani system is a traditional Indian village system where occupational castes (like barbers, carpenters) provide services to landowning castes (Jajmans) in exchange for a fixed share of the agricultural produce.
It functions strictly on reciprocal social and caste obligations rather than market principles.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Jajmani system.

Quick Tip: The Jajmani system represents "reciprocity and redistribution" (terms popularized by Karl Polanyi) rather than market exchange.

Question 29:

Identify the nature of the family structure consisting of more than two brothers, each with their own families, living together.

  • (A) Nuclear
  • (B) Extended
  • (C) Matrilocal
  • (D) Patrilocal
Correct Answer: (B) Extended
View Solution

Concept:
Families are classified based on their size, generation depth, and composition into nuclear and extended (or joint) families.

Step 1: Defining Nuclear Family:
A nuclear family typically consists of only two generations: parents and their unmarried children living in a single household.

Step 2: Defining Extended/Joint Family:
An extended family is a complex family setup that extends beyond the nuclear family.
It includes multiple generations (grandparents, parents, children) or multiple siblings (brothers or sisters) along with their respective spouses and children living under one roof and sharing resources.

Step 3: Analyzing the Scenario:
The scenario describes "more than two brothers, each with their own families, living together."
Since it involves multiple nuclear units horizontally linked by siblinghood living together, it perfectly defines an extended or joint family.
Matrilocal and Patrilocal describe the *place* of residence after marriage, not the structural composition of the members.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Extended.

Quick Tip: Extended families can be vertically extended (three or more generations) or horizontally extended (multiple married siblings living together).

Question 30:

Which of the following is a credit instrument in market systems?

  • (A) Hundi
  • (B) Nakarattar
  • (C) Jajmani
  • (D) Haat
Correct Answer: (A) Hundi
View Solution

Concept:
Historically, the Indian subcontinent developed sophisticated indigenous banking and financial networks long before the modern banking system.

Step 1: Understanding Credit Instruments:
A credit instrument is a written document that facilitates the transfer of funds or acts as a promise to pay a certain amount on a specific date.

Step 2: Evaluating the Options:
Nakarattar refers to a specific mercantile and banking community (the Chettiars), not the instrument itself.
Jajmani refers to the traditional non-market exchange system in villages.
Haat refers to a local weekly market.

Step 3: Identifying the Hundi:
A "Hundi" is a traditional indigenous bill of exchange or credit instrument.
Indian merchants utilized hundis to safely transfer money over long distances, borrow funds, and facilitate large-scale trade across the subcontinent.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Hundi.

Quick Tip: Hundis acted similarly to modern-day cheques and promissory notes, forming the backbone of the indigenous capitalist market in pre-colonial and colonial India.

Question 31:

Which of the following refers to the situation where a large cohort of women of reproductive age will fuel population growth over the next generation, even if each woman has fewer children than previous generations did?

  • (A) Demographic Transition
  • (B) Population Momentum
  • (C) Crude Death Rate
  • (D) Crude Birth Rate
Correct Answer: (B) Population Momentum
View Solution

Concept:
Demographers study how population age structures influence future growth patterns, even when fertility rates change.

Step 1: Understanding the Scenario:
The question describes a paradox: the fertility rate (children per woman) is declining, yet the total population continues to grow rapidly.

Step 2: Identifying the Concept:
This phenomenon occurs because of a historically high birth rate in the past, resulting in a massively large proportion of the population being young.
As this large cohort of young people enters their reproductive years, the absolute number of births remains high simply because there are so many women of child-bearing age.
Even if each woman has only 1 or 2 children, the sheer volume of women multiplying those numbers causes continued population growth.
This built-in tendency for a population to continue growing is scientifically termed "Population Momentum."

Step 3: Evaluating Other Options:
Demographic Transition refers to the overarching historical shift from high birth/death rates to low birth/death rates.
Crude Birth Rate and Crude Death Rate are simple annual statistical measurements, not dynamic demographic phenomena.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Population Momentum.

Quick Tip: Population Momentum is like a speeding train; even after you apply the brakes (lower fertility rate), the train takes a long time and distance to finally come to a halt.

Question 32:

Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the Marwaris (business community) of India?

  • (A) They became successful business community during colonial period.
  • (B) They took advantage while settling in colonial cities such as Calcutta.
  • (C) Their accumulated wealth had a negative impact on the commercial expansion of the British in India.
  • (D) They transformed themselves into modern industrialists.
Correct Answer: (C) Their accumulated wealth had a negative impact on the commercial expansion of the British in India.
View Solution

Concept:
The Marwaris are a prominent Indian business community originating from the Marwar region of Rajasthan, known for their massive success during and after the colonial era.

Step 1: Analyzing the True Statements:
During the colonial period, Marwaris migrated extensively and became highly successful traders and indigenous bankers (Statement A is true).
They strategically settled in major colonial port cities like Calcutta (Kolkata), acting as middlemen and financiers for British trade (Statement B is true).
Post-independence, many wealthy Marwari trading families successfully transitioned into establishing massive modern industrial empires (Statement D is true).

Step 2: Identifying the False Statement:
The Marwari community generally operated in tandem with the colonial economy rather than actively hindering it.
They served as critical financiers, money lenders, and supply chain managers for the British East India Company and subsequent British enterprises.
Therefore, their wealth accumulation did not have a negative impact on British commercial expansion; ironically, it facilitated it.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Their accumulated wealth had a negative impact on the commercial expansion of the British in India.

Quick Tip: In colonial India, indigenous merchant communities like Marwaris and Parsis often thrived by filling the intermediary economic spaces created by British export-import networks.

Question 33:

What was the purpose of Government of India Act of 1935?

  • (A) To classify "Other Backward Classes" as a constitutional category.
  • (B) To promote research on the social hierarchy of castes.
  • (C) To ensure caste identities become more fluid.
  • (D) To give legal recognition to the schedule of ’castes’ and ’tribes’.
Correct Answer: (D) To give legal recognition to the schedule of ’castes’ and ’tribes’.
View Solution

Concept:
The British colonial administration introduced several legal frameworks to categorize and govern the diverse Indian population.

Step 1: Context of the 1935 Act:
The Government of India Act of 1935 was a comprehensive piece of legislation passed by the British Parliament to establish an administrative framework for colonial India.

Step 2: Sociological Impact of the Act:
A major sociological consequence of this Act was the formalization of affirmative action and political representation for deeply marginalized communities.
It officially introduced the term "Scheduled Castes" to refer to the ’Depressed Classes’ (untouchables) and documented them in an official ’Schedule’ attached to the Act.
Similarly, it identified and legally recognized specific indigenous groups as "Scheduled Tribes."

Step 3: Analyzing Other Options:
The category of "Other Backward Classes" (OBC) gained primary constitutional and legal traction much later in post-independence India (e.g., Mandal Commission).
The British acts tended to rigidify caste identities for administrative convenience rather than making them more fluid.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) To give legal recognition to the schedule of ’castes’ and ’tribes’.

Quick Tip: The terms "Scheduled Castes" and "Scheduled Tribes" literally originate from the lists or "schedules" appended to the Government of India Act of 1935.

Question 34:

Which of the following statements indicate that disability is a social category?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) There are linkages between poverty and disability.
  • (B) There are linkages between past life and disability.
  • (C) There are linkages between disability and climate change.
  • (D) There are linakges between individual ability and disability.
Correct Answer: (A) There are linkages between poverty and disability.
View Solution

Concept:
Sociology distinguishes between the medical model of disability (viewing it as an individual biological deficit) and the social model of disability.
The social model argues that people are disabled by systemic societal barriers, attitudes, and economic exclusions.

Step 1: Evaluating the Statements:
Statement 2 (past life) represents a traditional, fatalistic, or religious view (like karma), not a sociological one.
Statement 3 (climate change) is an ecological issue; while relevant to health, it doesn’t primarily define disability as a ’social’ category in foundational sociology.
Statement 4 (individual ability) aligns perfectly with the biological/medical model, blaming the individual’s physical limits.

Step 2: Linking Poverty and Disability:
Statement 1 highlights the strong socio-economic cycle between poverty and disability.
Malnutrition, poor working conditions, and lack of healthcare (features of poverty) directly cause physical impairments.
Conversely, societal discrimination and lack of accessible infrastructure prevent disabled individuals from gaining employment, thereby pushing them into poverty.
This structural linkage proves that disability is deeply embedded in social and economic inequalities, making it a "social category."

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) There are linkages between poverty and disability..

Quick Tip: When sociology questions ask about "social categories" or "social models," always look for options that highlight structural inequalities, discrimination, or economic conditions like poverty.

Question 35:

Which of the following is true about apartheid in British South Africa?
A. Black protesters were routinely jailed, murdered and tortured.
B. While landownership was denied to the blacks, mixed marriages were allowed.
C. Blacks earned only one-fourth of what the whites did.
D. Black people were relocated to poor districts called ’Bantustans’ or homelands.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, C and D only
  • (D) B, C and D only
Correct Answer: (C) A, C and D only
View Solution

Concept:
Apartheid was a brutal, institutionalized system of racial segregation and discrimination enforced by the white minority government in South Africa.

Step 1: Analyzing the Statements:
Statement A is entirely true. The apartheid regime used extreme state-sponsored violence, including jailing, torture, and murder, to suppress black political activism (e.g., Nelson Mandela’s imprisonment).
Statement C is true. Apartheid established a highly exploitative economic system where black laborers were paid a fraction of what white workers earned for similar tasks, ensuring white economic supremacy.
Statement D is true. The government enacted laws that forcibly removed black people from urban centers and relocated them to impoverished, barren rural territories known as ’Bantustans’ or homelands.

Step 2: Identifying the False Statement:
Statement B claims that mixed marriages were allowed. This is historically false.
The apartheid regime passed the Prohibition of Mixed Marriages Act in 1949, strictly criminalizing and forbidding marriages between people of different races to maintain "racial purity."

Step 3: Conclusion:
Since Statement B is incorrect, options containing B are eliminated. This leaves us with A, C, and D.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) A, C and D only.

Quick Tip: Apartheid rested on absolute racial separation in all spheres of life, making inter-racial marriages one of its earliest and most strictly penalized taboos.

Question 36:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
36
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (C) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
View Solution

Concept:
These terms represent core sociological concepts used to describe how inequality and bias operate structurally and individually within a society.

Step 1: Matching Prejudice (A):
Prejudice literally means ’pre-judgement’. It refers strictly to the pre-conceived attitudes or opinions (usually negative) held by individuals, not necessarily actions.
Thus, A matches with III.

Step 2: Matching Stratification (B):
Social stratification refers to the structural categorization and hierarchical arrangement of people into socio-economic tiers, like the caste or class system.
Thus, B matches with IV.

Step 3: Matching Exclusion (C):
Social exclusion is the process wherein individuals or communities are structurally blocked or cut off from full participation in the economic, social, or political life of the wider society.
Thus, C matches with I.

Step 4: Matching Discrimination (D):
While prejudice is an attitude, discrimination is the actual behavior or action. It involves disqualifying or denying members of a group access to opportunities, resources, or rights.
Thus, D matches with II.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

Quick Tip: Remember: Prejudice is what you think (Attitude), while Discrimination is what you do (Action).

Question 37:

What is the opposite of religious chauvinism and do not imply hostility to the religion?

  • (A) Communalism
  • (B) Secularism
  • (C) Regionalism
  • (D) Nationalism
Correct Answer: (B) Secularism
View Solution

Concept:
In political sociology, different ideologies dictate how the state and society handle religious diversity.

Step 1: Defining Religious Chauvinism:
Religious chauvinism (or communalism) is the aggressive belief in the absolute superiority of one’s own religion, coupled with prejudice, hostility, and intolerance toward other faiths.

Step 2: Identifying the Opposite Ideology:
The philosophical and political opposite of communalism is Secularism.
In the Western context, secularism implies a strict separation of church and state.
However, in the Indian context, secularism does not imply hostility to religion or atheism. Instead, it implies "Sarva Dharma Samabhava" (equal respect for all religions) and the state maintaining a principled distance from all religious dogmas while protecting religious freedom.

Step 3: Conclusion:
Therefore, secularism is the direct counter to religious chauvinism, promoting peaceful coexistence without being anti-religion.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Secularism.

Quick Tip: Indian secularism is unique; rather than ignoring religion entirely, it focuses on the state showing equal respect and preventing any one religion from dominating others.

Question 38:

The assimilation and integration policies tend to focus on

  • (A) Accomodating heterogeneous and hybrid identity of populations.
  • (B) Adopting the symbols and heroes of minority groups.
  • (C) Forcing all citizens to adopt a uniform set of cultural values and norms.
  • (D) Decentralising powers and autonomy so that it spreads to minority groups too.
Correct Answer: (C) Forcing all citizens to adopt a uniform set of cultural values and norms.
View Solution

Concept:
Nation-states deal with cultural diversity using varying political models, primarily assimilationist, integrationist, or accommodative models.

Step 1: Understanding Assimilation Policies:
Assimilation policies are designed to create a singular, homogenous national culture.
They operate on the expectation that minority groups will eventually abandon their distinct linguistic, religious, and cultural identities.

Step 2: Evaluating the Outcomes:
Under these policies, the state actively promotes a uniform set of cultural values and norms, usually those of the dominant majority.
Minorities are often forced or heavily pressured to adopt these dominant norms in public and private spheres.

Step 3: Contrasting with Other Options:
Options A, B, and D describe policies of "accommodation" or multiculturalism, which actively protect diversity, share power, and respect minority identities.
Assimilation fundamentally opposes these tolerant practices.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Forcing all citizens to adopt a uniform set of cultural values and norms.

Quick Tip: Think of assimilation as a "melting pot" where all unique ingredients dissolve into one flavor, whereas accommodation is like a "salad bowl" where ingredients remain distinct.

Question 39:

Which is the non-state and non-market part of public domain in which individuals get together voluntarily to create institutions and organizations?

  • (A) Society
  • (B) Social Organization
  • (C) Civil Society
  • (D) Social Institution
Correct Answer: (C) Civil Society
View Solution

Concept:
In democratic theory, the broader societal structure is conceptually divided into three main spheres: the State, the Market, and Civil Society.

Step 1: Defining the Spheres:
1. The State: Includes the government, administration, police, and military (focused on power and law).
2. The Market: Includes corporations, businesses, and trade (focused on profit and economics).

Step 2: Defining Civil Society:
The public domain that lies outside the coercive power of the state and the profit motive of the market is called Civil Society.
It is the arena where citizens voluntarily form associations, NGOs, trade unions, media groups, and advocacy networks to champion specific causes, express their interests, and hold both the state and market accountable.

Step 3: Conclusion:
Since the question specifically asks for the "non-state and non-market" voluntary domain, Civil Society is the exact sociological term.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Civil Society.

Quick Tip: Civil Society is considered the cornerstone of a healthy democracy, as it provides a platform for citizen activism outside government control (e.g., the RTI movement in India).

Question 40:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
40
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (C) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
View Solution

Concept:
Social movements in India have diverse origins, focusing on environmental protection, class struggles, and identity politics.

Step 1: Matching the Chipko Movement (A):
The Chipko movement in the Himalayas was a landmark ecological struggle where local women hugged trees to prevent deforestation. It explicitly linked women to environmental protection.
Thus, A matches with III.

Step 2: Matching Old Social Movements (B):
"Old" social movements (e.g., trade union strikes, peasant revolts) primarily focused on class struggles, wages, and the fundamental re-organization of economic and political power relations.
Thus, B matches with IV.

Step 3: Matching the Telengana Movement (C):
The Telangana armed struggle (1946-51) was a massive peasant revolt against the oppressive Nizam and feudal landlords. Women played a crucial role in these agrarian protests.
Thus, C matches with I.

Step 4: Matching the Dalit Movement (D):
The Dalit movement is essentially a struggle for dignity, social equality, and the right to self-determination, breaking free from the oppressive caste hierarchy.
Thus, D matches with II.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

Quick Tip: Differentiating between "Old" (focus on class, economy, power) and "New" (focus on identity, environment, gender, quality of life) social movements is a recurring exam theme.

 

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions from 41 to 45 :
The Economic Policy of Liberalisation

Globalisation involves a stretching of social and economic relationships throughout the world. This stretching is pushed by certain economic policies. Very broadly, this process in India is termed as liberalisation. The term liberalisation refers to a range of policy decisions that the Indian state took since 1991 to open up the Indian economy to the world market. This marked a break with an earlier stated policy of the government to have a greater control over the economy. The state after independence had put in place a large number of laws that ensured that the Indian market and Indian indigenous business were protected from competition of the wider world. The underlying assumption of such a policy was that an erstwhile colonial country would be at a disadvantage in a free market situation.

Liberalisation of the economy meant the steady removal of the rules that regulated Indian trade and finance regulations. These measures are also described as economic reforms. What are these reforms? Since July 1991, the Indian economy has witnessed a series of reforms in all major sectors of the economy (agriculture, industry, trade, foreign investment and technology, public sector, financial institutions, etc). The basic assumption was that greater integration into the global market would be beneficial to the Indian economy.

Question 41:
The term liberalisation in the Indian context refers to policies introduced after which year?

  • (A) 1991
  • (B) 1995
  • (C) 1981
  • (D) 1985
Correct Answer: (A) 1991
View Solution

Concept:
The question is based on the provided reading comprehension detailing India’s shift toward globalized economic policies.

Step 1: Locating the Information in the Text:
The first paragraph explicitly states: "The term liberalisation refers to a range of policy decisions that the Indian state took since 1991 to open up the Indian economy to the world market."
Furthermore, the second paragraph reiterates: "Since July 1991, the Indian economy has witnessed a series of reforms..."

Step 2: Identifying the Year:
Based on the text, the watershed year for the introduction of liberalisation policies in India is clearly identified as 1991.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) 1991.

Quick Tip: The year 1991 is a critical milestone in Indian history, marking the LPG (Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation) reforms triggered by a severe balance of payments crisis.

Question 42:

Which of the following best describes liberalisation of the economy?

  • (A) Creation of new government-owned industries.
  • (B) Expansion of rural employment guarantees.
  • (C) Removal of restrictions on trade and financial flow.
  • (D) Increasing taxation on foreign companies.
Correct Answer: (C) Removal of restrictions on trade and financial flow.
View Solution

Concept:
The passage defines the core mechanics of what economic liberalisation practically entails for a nation’s market.

Step 1: Analyzing the Passage’s Definition:
In the second paragraph, the text explicitly states: "Liberalisation of the economy meant the steady removal of the rules that regulated Indian trade and finance regulations."

Step 2: Evaluating the Options:
Options A, B, and D describe policies of state control, welfare expansion, or protectionism, which are exactly the opposite of liberalisation.
Option C directly aligns with the passage’s definition of removing regulatory rules to allow freer movement of trade and finance.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Removal of restrictions on trade and financial flow.

Quick Tip: "Liberalisation" inherently implies liberating or freeing the economy from strict governmental red tape (the ’License Raj’ in India’s case).

Question 43:

What was one major shift caused by the economic reforms of 1991?

  • (A) Greater state ownership of farms.
  • (B) Increased control of the government over private trade.
  • (C) Restrictions on foreign investment.
  • (D) Opening Indian markets to international competition.
Correct Answer: (D) Opening Indian markets to international competition.
View Solution

Concept:
The passage contrasts India’s pre-1991 economic stance with its post-1991 stance regarding global integration.

Step 1: Analyzing Pre-1991 Policy from Text:
The passage states that before 1991, laws ensured that "the Indian market and Indian indigenous business were protected from competition of the wider world."

Step 2: Identifying the 1991 Shift:
The passage highlights that the 1991 policies "marked a break with an earlier stated policy" and were designed "to open up the Indian economy to the world market."
The fundamental assumption was that "greater integration into the global market would be beneficial."

Step 3: Conclusion:
Therefore, the major shift was moving away from protectionism and opening domestic markets to global international competition.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Opening Indian markets to international competition.

Quick Tip: Globalization always involves "stretching" economic relationships worldwide, which necessitates exposing domestic markets to international players.

Question 44:

Liberalisation measures, are also called economic reforms because

  • (A) They were only related to taxation.
  • (B) They restructured all major sectors of the economy.
  • (C) They changed only the public sector.
  • (D) They benefited only multinational companies.
Correct Answer: (B) They restructured all major sectors of the economy.
View Solution

Concept:
The scope and scale of the 1991 policy changes dictate why they are broadly classified as comprehensive "reforms."

Step 1: Locating the Textual Evidence:
The second paragraph poses the question "What are these reforms?"
It immediately answers: "Since July 1991, the Indian economy has witnessed a series of reforms in all major sectors of the economy (agriculture, industry, trade, foreign investment and technology, public sector, financial institutions, etc)."

Step 2: Evaluating the Options:
Options A, C, and D use limiting words ("only") to restrict the scope to taxation, public sector, or multinationals.
Option B perfectly captures the passage’s explanation that these measures were widespread, restructuring multiple, major dimensions of the national economy.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) They restructured all major sectors of the economy.

Quick Tip: In reading comprehension, options containing absolute limiters like "only", "always", or "never" are frequently incorrect unless explicitly supported by the text.

Question 45:

If India had continued its pre-1991 protectionist policies, which scenario would most likely occur?

  • (A) Faster inflow of foreign investment.
  • (B) Easy competition with global companies.
  • (C) Increased openness to the global market.
  • (D) Domestic industries shielded from international competition.
Correct Answer: (D) Domestic industries shielded from international competition.
View Solution

Concept:
This question requires an inferential understanding of what "protectionist" policies achieved in India prior to 1991, based on the text.

Step 1: Understanding Pre-1991 Policy:
The passage states: "The state after independence had put in place a large number of laws that ensured that the Indian market and Indian indigenous business were protected from competition of the wider world."
The reasoning given is that an erstwhile colonial country would be at a disadvantage in a free market.

Step 2: Projecting the Scenario:
If these pre-1991 policies had continued, the natural outcome would be the continuation of the status quo described in the text.
Domestic businesses would remain insulated and heavily protected from foreign goods and international corporate competition.

Step 3: Conclusion:
Options A, B, and C describe outcomes of liberalisation, not protectionism. Option D accurately reflects the pre-1991 reality outlined in the passage.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Domestic industries shielded from international competition.

Quick Tip: Protectionism relies on high tariffs and import quotas precisely to "protect" infant domestic industries from being wiped out by giant global competitors.

 

Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions from 46 to 50 :
Mass Media And Communication

It is obvious that there has been a phenomenal expansion of mass communication of all kinds in recent years. As students of sociology, there are many aspects to this growth which is of great interest to us. First, while we recognise the specificity of the current communication revolution, it is important to go back a little and sketch out the growth of modern mass media in the world and in India. This helps us realise that like any other social institution the structure and content of mass media is shaped by changes in the economic, political and socio-cultural contexts. For instance, we see how central the state and its vision of development influenced the media in the first decades after independence. And how in the post 1990 period of globalisation, the market has a key role to play. Second, this help us better appreciate how the relationship between mass media and communication with society is dialectical. Both influence each other. The nature and role of mass media is influenced by the society in which it is located. At the same time the far reaching influence of mass media on society cannot be over-emphasised. We shall see this dialectical relationship -(a) the role of media in colonial India, (b) in the first decades after independence and (c) and finally in the context of globalisation. Third, mass communication is different from other means of communication as it requires a formal structural organisation to meet large-scale capital, production and management demands. You will find, therefore, that the state and/or the market have a major role in the structure and functioning of mass media. Mass media functions through very large organisations with major investments and large body of employees. Fourth, there are sharp differences between how easily different sections of people can use mass media.

Question 46:
After 1990, the mass media was shaped by which phenomenon?

  • (A) Globalization
  • (B) Liberalization
  • (C) Modernization
  • (D) Secularization
Correct Answer: (A) Globalization
View Solution

Concept:
The development of mass media in the late 20th century underwent a massive transformation, shifting from state-controlled broadcasting to a global, market-driven landscape.
This shift was heavily influenced by macro-economic and cultural processes that integrated the world’s economies and societies.

Step 1: Understanding the Pre-1990 Media Landscape:
Before the 1990s, especially in developing countries like India, mass media such as television and radio were primarily government monopolies (e.g., Doordarshan in India).
The content was largely focused on education, rural development, and nation-building, with limited access to international programming.

Step 2: Analyzing the Post-1990 Transformation:
The 1990s marked the advent of sweeping economic reforms worldwide, often summarized as Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation (LPG).
While ’Liberalization’ refers to the relaxing of state control, allowing private players into the media sector, ’Globalization’ is the broader phenomenon.
Globalization facilitated the transnational flow of information, capital, and culture.
It brought satellite television, international media conglomerates (like CNN, MTV, Star TV), and a globalized media culture to local audiences.

Step 3: Evaluating the Options:
Modernization and Secularization are long-term historical processes and not the specific phenomena that caused the sudden media explosion post-1990.
Liberalization was the policy mechanism that allowed change, but Globalization was the overarching phenomenon that fundamentally shaped the content, reach, and interconnected nature of modern mass media.
Therefore, Globalization is recognized sociologically as the primary phenomenon shaping post-1990 mass media.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Globalization.

Quick Tip: When questions ask about massive socio-economic shifts in the 1990s (especially in the Indian context), "Globalization" is usually the dominant overarching force that encompasses cultural and technological integration across borders.

Question 47:

How is mass communication different from other means of communication?

  • (A) It requires a larger target audience.
  • (B) It requires formal structural organization.
  • (C) It requires specific skills.
  • (D) It requires special training.
Correct Answer: (B) It requires formal structural organization.
View Solution

Concept:
Communication can be categorized into various forms, such as intrapersonal, interpersonal, group, public, and mass communication.
Each form is distinguished by its characteristics, including the nature of the sender, the medium, and the audience.

Step 1: Defining Mass Communication:
Mass communication refers to the process by which a complex organization produces and transmits public messages directed at a large, heterogeneous, and scattered audience.
Examples include television broadcasts, newspapers, cinema, and radio.

Step 2: Comparing with Other Forms of Communication:
While public speaking (a form of public communication) can also have a very "large target audience", it does not necessarily require a complex institutional setup.
Similarly, specific skills and special training are required for effective interpersonal or public communication as well, making them non-exclusive to mass communication.

Step 3: Identifying the Distinguishing Feature:
The most definitive sociological distinction of mass communication is its institutional and organizational nature.
To publish a daily newspaper or run a television channel, one requires a formal structural organization consisting of editors, journalists, technical staff, printing presses or broadcast towers, and distribution networks.
This high degree of institutionalization and formal structure is what fundamentally separates mass media from other types of communication.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) It requires formal structural organization.

Quick Tip: Remember that mass communication is essentially "institutionalized" communication. Unlike a simple face-to-face chat, a newspaper or TV station requires capital, technology, and a formal hierarchy of workers to function.

Question 48:

What is the relationship between mass media and communication?

  • (A) Dialectical
  • (B) Paradoxical
  • (C) Relational
  • (D) Differential
Correct Answer: (A) Dialectical
View Solution

Concept:
The study of media sociology involves understanding how the institutions of mass media interact with the fundamental human process of communication.
This interaction is not static but dynamic, evolving over time through mutual influence.

Step 1: Analyzing the Terms:
Communication is the fundamental social process of exchanging information, meaning, and understanding.
Mass media refers to the technological and institutional tools used to facilitate communication on a large scale.

Step 2: Understanding a Dialectical Relationship:
A dialectical relationship implies a two-way process of mutual influence, tension, and evolution (often conceptualized as thesis, antithesis, and synthesis).
In this context, the human need for broader communication drives the invention of new mass media technologies (e.g., the printing press, the internet).
Conversely, once a new mass medium is established, it fundamentally alters the way human beings communicate, think, and interact with each other (e.g., social media changing the nature of political discourse).

Step 3: Evaluating the Options:
While the relationship is "relational" in a basic sense, "dialectical" captures the academic and sociological depth of their continuous, transformative, and mutual shaping.
It is not inherently "paradoxical" (contradictory) or purely "differential".
Therefore, sociology and media studies often describe the relationship between media technology and human communication practices as dialectical.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Dialectical.

Quick Tip: In sociological theory, "dialectical" is a key term used to describe a relationship where two entities continuously shape, challenge, and transform each other over time.

Question 49:

The Digital Divide can be understood as

  • (A) The feasibility of different groups’ use of technology.
  • (B) The connection between local and global technology.
  • (C) The ability to divide the use of different technology.
  • (D) The ability to use different languages in technology.
Correct Answer: (A) The feasibility of different groups’ use of technology.
View Solution

Concept:
The "Digital Divide" is a crucial concept in the sociology of technology and modern media.
It refers to the growing gap between the underprivileged members of society, especially the poor, rural, elderly, and handicapped portion of the population who do not have access to computers or the internet, and the wealthy, middle-class, and young Americans living in urban and suburban areas who do.

Step 1: Deconstructing the Digital Divide:
The digital divide is not merely about owning a device; it encompasses multiple layers of inequality.
The first level is the gap in physical access to Information and Communication Technology (ICT) hardware and internet connectivity.
The second level involves a gap in digital literacy, skills, and the "feasibility" to utilize these technologies effectively for educational, economic, or social benefits.

Step 2: Evaluating the Options:
Option (B) describes globalization of technology, not a divide.
Option (C) is a distractor and does not make sociological sense.
Option (D) refers to digital localization or linguistic barriers, which is only a small sub-set of the digital divide.
Option (A) accurately captures the core issue: the "feasibility" (which implies access, capability, and practical opportunity) of different socio-economic groups to use technology.
It highlights the inequality between groups in their capacity to leverage digital tools.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) The feasibility of different groups’ use of technology.

Quick Tip: Always associate the "Digital Divide" with socio-economic inequality and the gap between technological "haves" and "have-nots". It encompasses access, skills, and the quality of usage.

Question 50:

Who are the target audience of most soap operas?

  • (A) women
  • (B) children
  • (C) teenagers
  • (D) masses
Correct Answer: (A) women
View Solution

Concept:
Media genres are often developed and tailored for specific demographic segments to maximize advertising revenue.
Understanding the historical and sociological origins of media formats helps identify their primary target audiences.

Step 1: Historical Origin of Soap Operas:
The term "soap opera" originated in the United States in the 1930s regarding daytime radio serials.
These serialized, continuous dramas were primarily sponsored by manufacturers of household cleaning products, such as soap and detergents (e.g., Procter & Gamble).

Step 2: Identifying the Demographic Target:
The primary target audience for these household cleaning products was women, specifically homemakers or housewives, who were typically at home during the daytime hours when these programs aired.
Consequently, the narratives were heavily structured around domestic life, family dynamics, romantic relationships, and emotional struggles, thematic elements intentionally designed to appeal to this female demographic.

Step 3: Evaluating the Options:
While modern soap operas (including evening serials) might attract a broader segment of the "masses" or occasionally teenagers, the foundational and primary target audience defining the genre sociologically remains women.
Media studies consistently highlight soap operas as a prime example of gendered media programming.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) women.

Quick Tip: The very name "soap opera" is a clue: they were originally sponsored by soap companies to sell cleaning products to housewives listening to daytime radio. This historical fact locks in "women" as the definitive textbook answer.

CUET UG 2026 Exam Pattern

Parameter Details
Exam Name Common University Entrance Test (CUET UG) 2026
Conducting Body National Testing Agency (NTA)
Exam Mode Computer-Based Test (CBT)
Exam Duration 60 minutes per test
Total Sections 3 (Languages, Domain Subjects, General Test)
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Questions per Test 50 questions (all compulsory)
Marking Scheme +5 for correct, -1 for incorrect
Maximum Marks 250 marks per test
Maximum Subject Choices 5 subjects in total
Syllabus Base Class 12 NCERT (mainly for Domain Subjects)

CUET UG 2026 Question Paper Analysis