CUET 2026 May 21 Shift 2 Home Science Question Paper is available for download here. NTA conducted the CUET 2026 exam from 11th May to 31st May in two shifts.
CUET 2026 Home Science exam consists of 50 questions for 250 marks to be attempted in 60 minutes.
As per the marking scheme, 5 marks are awarded for each correct answer, and 1 mark is deducted for incorrect answer.
Candidates can download CUET 2026 Home Science May 21 Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from links provided below.
CUET 2026 Home Science May 21 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF
CUET May 21 Shift 2 Home Science Question Paper 2026
_____________ help people to deal with the demands and challenges of everyday life; and they promote and protect life, health and well-being in all situations.
(A) Work related ethics
(B) Life skills
(C) Self-communication
(D) Sympathy
Correct Answer: (B) Life skills
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
The sentence describes a set of abilities that help a person face daily demands and challenges. It also says these abilities protect life, health and well-being in every situation.
We have to name the term that fits this description.
Step 2: Key Idea:
This wording matches the standard definition of life skills. Life skills are abilities for adaptive and positive behaviour that help a person deal with the demands and challenges of everyday life.
Step 3: Check Option 1: Work related ethics:
Work ethics are values such as honesty, punctuality and responsibility at the workplace.
They guide behaviour at work only. They are not described as protecting life, health and well-being in all situations. So this option is wrong.
Step 4: Check Option 2: Life skills:
Life skills include decision making, problem solving, critical thinking, coping with stress and emotions, and communication.
These abilities help a person handle daily challenges and protect health and well-being in every situation. This option fits the sentence fully, so it is correct.
Step 5: Check Option 3: Self-communication:
Self-communication means talking to oneself, that is, inner thoughts and self-talk.
It is only one small part of communication. It does not cover the broad idea in the sentence. So this option is wrong.
Step 6: Check Option 4: Sympathy:
Sympathy is a feeling of pity or concern for another person.
It is an emotion, not a set of abilities for managing daily demands. So this option is wrong.
Final Answer:
Only life skills match the full description, so the blank is filled by option 2.
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Question 2:
Which of the following is generally considered to be an important characteristic of an entrepreneur?
(A) Being rigid on an idea
(B) Impulsive behaviour
(C) Inability to cope with challenges
(D) Courage to take calculated risks
Correct Answer: (D) Courage to take calculated risks
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
We need the one trait that is a positive and important quality of an entrepreneur.
Three options describe weaknesses. One describes a strength. We check each in turn.
Step 2: Key Idea:
An entrepreneur starts and runs an enterprise. Typical traits are creativity, vision, leadership, flexibility, perseverance and willingness to take well-thought-out risks.
Step 3: Check Option 1: Being rigid on an idea:
Rigid means not willing to change. Markets and customers keep changing, so an entrepreneur must be flexible and adapt.
So rigidity is a weakness. This option is wrong.
Step 4: Check Option 2: Impulsive behaviour:
Impulsive means acting without thinking. Business decisions need planning and analysis of costs and benefits.
So this is not a desirable trait. This option is wrong.
Step 5: Check Option 3: Inability to cope with challenges:
Every enterprise faces problems like shortage of money, competition and changing demand. An entrepreneur must be able to cope with them.
Inability to cope is the opposite of what is needed. This option is wrong.
Step 6: Check Option 4: Courage to take calculated risks:
Every business involves risk. A good entrepreneur studies the risk, weighs it and then acts. This is a calculated risk.
This is a well-known characteristic of entrepreneurs, so this option is correct.
Final Answer:
The important characteristic is courage to take calculated risks, option 4.
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Question 3:
Channapatna dolls are a traditional craft of which of the following Indian state?
(A) Odisha
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Correct Answer: (B) Karnataka
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
The question asks for the state that is known for Channapatna dolls (toys).
This is a factual question about Indian traditional crafts.
Step 2: Key Fact:
Channapatna is a town in the Ramanagara district of Karnataka. It is called the 'toy town' of India.
Its toys are made of wood and finished with natural vegetable dyes and lacquer. The craft has a Geographical Indication (GI) tag for Karnataka.
Step 3: Check Option 1: Odisha:
Odisha is known for Pattachitra painting, Sambalpuri ikat and the stone carving of Konark.
It is not the home of Channapatna toys. This option is wrong.
Step 4: Check Option 2: Karnataka:
Karnataka is the state where Channapatna is located and where the lacquerware toys originated.
This option is correct.
Step 5: Check Option 3: Tamil Nadu:
Tamil Nadu is known for Thanjavur paintings, Kanchipuram silk and Thanjavur dolls.
Channapatna dolls are not from there. This option is wrong.
Step 6: Check Option 4: West Bengal:
West Bengal is known for Kantha embroidery, terracotta and Baluchari sarees.
It is not linked with Channapatna dolls. This option is wrong.
Final Answer:
Channapatna dolls belong to Karnataka, option 2.
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Question 4:
Which of the following Act states that creches should be maintained if more than 30 women are employed in an industry or factory?
(A) Plantation Labour Act, 1951
(B) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(C) Factories Act, 1948
(D) Mines Act, 1952
Correct Answer: (C) Factories Act, 1948
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
We must find the law which says a creche (day-care room for children) is compulsory in a factory where more than 30 women work.
Step 2: Key Fact:
Section 48 of the Factories Act, 1948 says that in every factory where more than 30 women workers are ordinarily employed, a suitable room must be provided for the use of children under 6 years of age.
Step 3: Check Option 1: Plantation Labour Act, 1951:
This Act covers workers in tea, coffee and rubber plantations and has its own welfare rules, including creches.
The question is about an industry or factory, so this is not the best match. This option is wrong.
Step 4: Check Option 2: Maternity Benefit Act, 1961:
This Act gives paid leave and benefits to women before and after childbirth.
Its creche rule was added much later and uses a different count of employees. It is mainly about leave and benefits. This option is wrong.
Step 5: Check Option 3: Factories Act, 1948:
This Act has the clear rule about creches for factories with more than 30 women workers.
This option is correct.
Step 6: Check Option 4: Mines Act, 1952:
This Act is about safety and welfare of mine workers. It is for mines, not for factories.
This option is wrong.
Final Answer:
The Act is the Factories Act, 1948, option 3.
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Question 5:
Which of the following tip will you NOT give to your friend for improving her work life?
(A) Be empathetic and compassionate
(B) Develop healthy personal habits
(C) Non-responsive to situations and being reactive
(D) Encourage partnerships and working as member of a team
Correct Answer: (C) Non-responsive to situations and being reactive
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
The word NOT is the key. Three options are good advice for a better work life and one is bad advice. We need the bad advice.
Step 2: Check Option 1: Be empathetic and compassionate:
Understanding the feelings of colleagues builds trust and a pleasant workplace.
This is good advice, so we would give it. It is not the answer.
Step 3: Check Option 2: Develop healthy personal habits:
Habits such as regular sleep, exercise, good food and time management keep a person fit and productive.
This is good advice. It is not the answer.
Step 4: Check Option 3: Non-responsive to situations and being reactive:
A good worker responds to situations in a thoughtful way and stays alert. Being non-responsive means ignoring what is going on, and being reactive means acting in anger or haste.
Both lower the quality of work life, so we would not give this tip. This option is the answer.
Step 5: Check Option 4: Encourage partnerships and working as member of a team:
Teamwork shares the load, brings new ideas and creates good relations at work.
This is good advice. It is not the answer.
Final Answer:
The tip we will NOT give is option 3.
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Question 6:
Which among the following is NOT a service provided by ICDS?
(A) Formal adolescent education
(B) Supplementary feeding to pregnant women
(C) Hygiene education to mothers
(D) Immunization
Correct Answer: (A) Formal adolescent education
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
ICDS means Integrated Child Development Services. We must find the item that is NOT one of its services.
Step 2: Key Fact:
ICDS gives six services: supplementary nutrition, immunization, health check-up, referral services, pre-school non-formal education, and nutrition and health education for women.
Step 3: Check Option 1: Formal adolescent education:
ICDS does give pre-school non-formal education to children aged 3 to 6 years. It does not run formal school education for adolescents.
So this is not an ICDS service. This option is the answer.
Step 4: Check Option 2: Supplementary feeding to pregnant women:
Supplementary nutrition is given to children below 6 years and to pregnant and nursing mothers.
So this is an ICDS service. Not the answer.
Step 5: Check Option 3: Hygiene education to mothers:
Nutrition and health education, which includes hygiene, is given to women aged 15 to 45 years.
So this is an ICDS service. Not the answer.
Step 6: Check Option 4: Immunization:
Immunization against common childhood diseases is one of the six core services.
So this is an ICDS service. Not the answer.
Final Answer:
Formal adolescent education is not an ICDS service, option 1.
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Question 7:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
List I
List II
A.
Observation Homes
I.
CARA
B.
Special Homes
II.
Children whose families are not traceable, or are unfit/dead or simply unwilling to take the child back stay
C.
Juvenile Homes
III.
Juveniles found guilty in terms of violation of law, are placed in custodial care
D.
Adoption
IV.
Children stay temporarily till the completion of an investigation to track down their parents and collect information on their family background
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
We match four child care terms with their meanings. Under the Juvenile Justice system, different homes serve different groups of children.
Step 2: Match A: Observation Homes:
Children stay in an observation home for a short time while the inquiry or investigation is going on and their family background is traced.
So A matches IV.
Step 3: Match B: Special Homes:
Special homes are meant for juveniles who are found guilty of breaking the law. They are kept there in custodial care.
So B matches III.
Step 4: Match C: Juvenile Homes:
Juvenile (children's) homes care for children whose families cannot be traced, or whose parents are dead, unfit or unwilling to take them back.
So C matches II.
Step 5: Match D: Adoption:
Adoption in India is regulated by the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA).
So D matches I.
Step 6: Check the options:
Our matching is A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.
Option 1 gives exactly this set.
Option 2 pairs A with I, which is wrong. Option 3 also pairs A with I. Option 4 pairs A with III, which is wrong.
Final Answer:
The correct matching is A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I, option 1.
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Question 8:
As per the NCF (2005) on ECCE, the guiding principles of ECCE are: A. Experience of familiarity and challenge in everyday routines B. Blend of textual and cultural sources C. Health, well-being and healthy habits D. Primacy of expertise Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B and D only
(B) A, B and C only
(C) A, B, C and D
(D) B, C and D only
Correct Answer: (B) A, B and C only
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
We must decide which of the four statements A to D are real guiding principles of early childhood care and education (ECCE) in the NCF 2005 position paper.
Step 2: Check statement A:
Children learn when everyday routines give them both familiar things and new challenges. This is one of the guiding principles. So A is true.
Step 3: Check statement B:
Learning should come from both textual material and the cultural sources around the child, such as stories, songs and festivals. So B is true.
Step 4: Check statement C:
Health, well-being and healthy habits form the base for all later learning of young children. So C is true.
Step 5: Check statement D:
The correct principle is the primacy of experience, meaning children learn best from direct experience. 'Primacy of expertise' is not a principle, because in ECCE the focus is on the child's experience and not on expert knowledge. So D is false.
Step 6: Choose the option:
True statements are A, B and C only. Option 2 says exactly this.
Options 1 and 4 include D, and option 3 includes all four, so they are wrong.
Final Answer:
Statements A, B and C are guiding principles, so option 2 is correct.
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Question 9:
Arrange the following in chronological order as per their year of inception/formation, starting with the oldest: A. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act B. Setting up of the first SOS Village in India C. ICDS D. National Policy for Older Persons Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B, C, D
(B) A, B, D, C
(C) B, C, D, A
(D) C, B, D, A
Correct Answer: (C) B, C, D, A
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the question:
We must put four welfare events in the order of the year they began, oldest first.
Each item is a programme, law or policy for children or older people in India.
So we first need the year of each item, and then we sort the years.
Step 2: Recall the year of each item:
B. The first SOS Children's Village in India was set up in Delhi in 1964.
C. ICDS (Integrated Child Development Services) was launched on 2 October 1975.
D. The National Policy for Older Persons was announced in 1999.
A. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act is the 2015 law. It replaced the 2000 Act.
Step 3: Sort the years:
1964 (B) comes first, then 1975 (C), then 1999 (D), then 2015 (A).
So the correct order is B, C, D, A.
Step 4: Check option A, B, C, D:
This puts the Act first. The Act is much newer than the SOS village and ICDS, so this order is wrong.
Step 5: Check option A, B, D, C:
This also starts with the Act and puts ICDS (1975) after the 1999 policy. Both placements are wrong.
Step 6: Check option B, C, D, A:
SOS village (1964), ICDS (1975), Older Persons Policy (1999), Juvenile Justice Act (2015). This matches the sorted years, so it is correct.
Step 7: Check option C, B, D, A:
This puts ICDS before the SOS village. ICDS began in 1975 and the village in 1964, so the first two are swapped. It is wrong.
Final Answer:
The oldest item is the SOS village (1964) and the newest is the Juvenile Justice Act (2015). The matching option is the third one.
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Question 10:
Which of the following is NOT caused due to nutritional deficiency?
(A) IDD
(B) PEM
(C) IDA
(D) TB
Correct Answer: (D) TB
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the question:
We must pick the one condition that does not come from a lack of a nutrient.
So first we expand each short form and see what causes it.
Step 2: Option 1, IDD:
IDD means Iodine Deficiency Disorders, for example goitre.
The cause is too little iodine in the diet, so it is a nutritional deficiency. This is not the answer.
Step 3: Option 2, PEM:
PEM means Protein Energy Malnutrition, for example kwashiorkor and marasmus.
The cause is too little protein and energy in the diet, so it is a nutritional deficiency. This is not the answer.
Step 4: Option 3, IDA:
IDA means Iron Deficiency Anaemia.
The cause is too little iron, so it is a nutritional deficiency. This is not the answer.
Step 5: Option 4, TB:
TB means tuberculosis. It is an infection caused by a bacterium, Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
It spreads through the air. Poor nutrition can make a person more likely to catch it, but a lack of a nutrient is not its cause.
So TB is the one that is not a deficiency disease. This is the answer.
Final Answer:
IDD, PEM and IDA are deficiency disorders, while TB is an infectious disease.
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Question 11:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
LIST-I (Type of Food Safety Hazard)
LIST-II (Examples)
A. Physical hazards
I. Worms, weevils
B. Chemical hazards
II. Yeast, mold
C. Visible biological hazards
III. Wood, stones, parts of pests
D. Invisible hazards
IV. Preservatives, food colours and other additives
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the question:
We must match each type of food safety hazard to its example.
The hazard types are physical, chemical, visible biological and invisible.
Step 2: Match A, physical hazards:
Physical hazards are hard or foreign objects that get into food.
Wood, stones and parts of pests fit this idea. So A matches III.
Step 3: Match B, chemical hazards:
Chemical hazards come from substances added to or left in food.
Preservatives, food colours and other additives fit this. So B matches IV.
Step 4: Match C, visible biological hazards:
Biological hazards come from living things. Visible ones can be seen with the naked eye.
Worms and weevils are small animals that we can see. So C matches I.
Step 5: Match D, invisible hazards:
Invisible hazards are living things too small to see, such as microbes.
Yeast and mold grow as microscopic cells and threads. So D matches II.
Step 6: Put the pairs together:
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.
Step 7: Check the options:
Option 1 gives A-I (physical with worms). Worms are biological, so it is wrong.
Option 2 also gives A-I, so it is wrong.
Option 3 also gives A-I, so it is wrong.
Option 4 is A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. It matches all four pairs, so it is correct.
Final Answer:
The pairs are A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II, which is the fourth option.
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Question 12:
In which year was WTO established?
(A) 1992
(B) 1995
(C) 1990
(D) 1994
Correct Answer: (B) 1995
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the question:
We need the year the World Trade Organization (WTO) came into being.
Step 2: Recall the background:
After World War II, countries used GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade) to manage trade rules.
The Uruguay Round of talks ran from 1986 to 1994 and ended with the Marrakesh Agreement in April 1994.
That agreement created the WTO, and it started work on 1 January 1995.
Step 3: Option 1, 1992:
In 1992 the Uruguay Round talks were still going on. The WTO did not exist yet. This is wrong.
Step 4: Option 2, 1995:
The WTO was established on 1 January 1995 and replaced GATT. This is correct.
Step 5: Option 3, 1990:
In 1990 the talks were still at a mid stage. This is wrong.
Step 6: Option 4, 1994:
1994 is the year the agreement was signed at Marrakesh, but the organization itself began in 1995. So this is the usual distractor and it is wrong.
Final Answer:
The WTO was established in 1995.
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Question 13:
Arrange the steps of nutritional care during illness in correct sequence: A. Planning and prioritizing nutrition intervention(s) to meet nutritional needs B. Monitoring and evaluating nutritional care outcomes and making changes, if necessary C. Diagnosing nutritional problems D. Assessment of nutritional status Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B, C, D
(B) A, C, B, D
(C) D, C, A, B
(D) C, B, D, A
Correct Answer: (C) D, C, A, B
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the question:
Nutritional care in illness follows a fixed cycle, called the nutrition care process.
We must place the four steps in the order in which a dietitian carries them out.
Step 2: Think about what must come first:
A dietitian cannot name a problem before checking the patient. So assessment of nutritional status (D) is the first step.
Step 3: Next step:
After the assessment, the dietitian names the problem found, such as under-nutrition or a deficiency. So diagnosing nutritional problems (C) is second.
Step 4: Third step:
Once the problem is known, a plan is made and an action is chosen to meet the needs. So planning and prioritizing the intervention (A) is third.
Step 5: Last step:
At the end, the results are watched and the plan is changed if needed. So monitoring and evaluation (B) is last.
Step 6: Full order:
D, C, A, B.
Step 7: Check the options:
Option 1 (A, B, C, D) starts with planning, before any assessment. It is wrong.
Option 2 (A, C, B, D) also starts with planning. It is wrong.
Option 3 (D, C, A, B) matches the cycle. It is correct.
Option 4 (C, B, D, A) starts with diagnosis and puts assessment third. It is wrong.
Final Answer:
The order is assessment, diagnosis, intervention planning and monitoring, which is the third option.
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Question 14:
Identify the levels of Food Standards from the following options: A. Regional Standards B. International Standards C. National Standards D. Pacific Standards Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B and D only
(B) A, C and D only
(C) A, B and C only
(D) B, C and D only
Correct Answer: (C) A, B and C only
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the question:
Food standards are set at different levels of authority. We must pick which of the four listed names are real levels.
Step 2: Recall the levels:
International level: for example Codex Alimentarius, shared by many countries.
Regional level: groups of neighbouring countries agree on common standards.
National level: one country sets its own rules, for example FSSAI in India.
Step 3: Check A, Regional Standards:
This is a real level. It is included.
Step 4: Check B, International Standards:
This is a real level. It is included.
Step 5: Check C, National Standards:
This is a real level. It is included.
Step 6: Check D, Pacific Standards:
Pacific is the name of an ocean. It is not a level of standards, so it is not included.
Step 7: Match with the options:
The correct set is A, B and C only.
Options 1, 2 and 4 each include D, so they are wrong.
Option 3 is correct.
Final Answer:
The levels are regional, international and national, which is the third option.
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Question 15:
Arrange the following stages of fashion cycle in correct sequence: A. Increase in popularity B. Decline in popularity C. Introduction of a style D. Obsolescence Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B, C, D
(B) A, B, D, C
(C) B, A, D, C
(D) C, A, B, D
Correct Answer: (D) C, A, B, D
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the question:
A fashion cycle is the life story of a style, from the day it appears to the day it is gone.
We must arrange the four stages in order.
Step 2: First stage:
A style must first be brought out. So introduction (C) comes first.
Step 3: Second stage:
After it is introduced, more people start to wear it and it grows in popularity. So increase in popularity (A) is second.
Step 4: Third stage:
At its peak the style is common, and then people start to lose interest. So decline in popularity (B) is third.
Step 5: Last stage:
At the end, hardly anyone wears it and it goes out of use. So obsolescence (D) is last.
Step 6: Full order:
C, A, B, D.
Step 7: Check the options:
Option 1 (A, B, C, D) starts with growth before introduction. It is wrong.
Option 2 (A, B, D, C) also starts with growth. It is wrong.
Option 3 (B, A, D, C) starts with decline. It is wrong.
Option 4 (C, A, B, D) matches. It is correct.
Final Answer:
The cycle runs introduction, rise, decline, obsolescence, which is the fourth option.
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Question 16:
Identify the related colour schemes from the following options: A. Achromatic harmony B. Accented neutral C. Analogous harmony D. Triadic harmony
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B and C only
(B) A, B and D only
(C) A, B, C and D
(D) B, C and D only
Correct Answer: (A) A, B and C only
View SolutionStep 1: Understand what the question asks
Colour schemes (also called colour harmonies) are grouped into two big families. Related schemes stay close to one hue, or to colours that sit next to each other, or to neutrals. Contrasting schemes use hues that are far apart on the colour wheel. We must pick the schemes that belong to the related family.
Step 2: Recall the two families
Related harmonies: monochromatic, analogous, achromatic (neutral) and accented neutral. Contrasting harmonies: complementary, double complementary, split complementary, triad (triadic) and tetrad. Related schemes give a calm, unified look. Contrasting schemes give a lively, bold look.
Step 3: Check A, Achromatic harmony
Achromatic means without hue. It uses only black, white and grey. There is no clash of hues at all, so it is a related scheme. A is correct.
Step 4: Check B, Accented neutral
This scheme uses neutral colours (black, white, grey or beige) and adds a small touch of one bright colour as an accent. The neutrals dominate, so the look stays in the related family. B is correct.
Step 5: Check C, Analogous harmony
Analogous colours are neighbours on the colour wheel, such as yellow, yellow-green and green. They share a common hue, so they blend smoothly. C is correct.
Step 6: Check D, Triadic harmony
A triad uses three colours placed at equal distance on the colour wheel, such as red, yellow and blue. These hues are far apart, so this is a contrasting scheme, not a related one. D is wrong.
Step 7: Match with the options
A, B and C are related and D is not. So the choice that lists A, B and C only is the right one. Options 2, 3 and 4 each include D, so they are wrong.
Final Answer:
A, B and C are related colour schemes, and triadic harmony is contrasting. This is option 1.
\[ \boxed{\text{Option 1: A, B and C only}} \]
Question 17:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
LIST-I Type of Line as an Element of Design
LIST-II Description
A.
Vertical lines
I.
Emphasise height and give the effect that is severe, dignified and reserved
B.
Oblique lines
II.
Create an active, startling or dramatic effect
C.
Curved lines
III.
Give a stable and placid effect.
D.
Horizontal lines
IV.
Degree of roundness - parabola, scroll, meander, hairpin, whiplash, or serpentine, figure of 8, ogee
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
View SolutionStep 1: Understand the task
Line is one of the elements of design. Each type of line creates a different feeling in a garment. We must match each line type in List-I with its effect in List-II.
Step 2: Match vertical lines (A)
Vertical lines run up and down. They draw the eye upward and so emphasise height. They also give a serious, dignified and reserved feel. This is description I. So A matches I.
Step 3: Match oblique lines (B)
Oblique (diagonal) lines slant to one side. They suggest movement and energy. They give an active, startling or dramatic effect. This is description II. So B matches II.
Step 4: Match curved lines (C)
Curved lines are described by their degree of roundness. Examples are the parabola, scroll, meander, hairpin, whiplash, serpentine, figure of 8 and ogee. This is description IV. So C matches IV.
Step 5: Match horizontal lines (D)
Horizontal lines lie flat, like the horizon. They give a feeling of rest, stability and calm. This is the stable and placid effect, description III. So D matches III.
Step 6: Combine the matches
We get A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III.
Step 7: Check each option
Option 1 pairs C with III and D with IV. That swaps curved and horizontal lines, so it is wrong. Option 2 pairs B with III and C with II. Oblique lines are not placid, so it is wrong. Option 3 matches every pair correctly, so it is right. Option 4 pairs A with III, but vertical lines are about height, so it is wrong.
Final Answer:
The correct matching is A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III. This is option 3.
\[ \boxed{\text{A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (Option 3)}} \]
Question 18:
Which principle of design is defined as equalling the distribution of weight from the central point of the garment?
(A) Balance
(B) Proportion
(C) Emphasis
(D) Rhythm
Correct Answer: (A) Balance
View SolutionStep 1: Understand the question
The question describes a principle of design that spreads visual weight equally on both sides of a central point of the garment. We must name that principle.
Step 2: Recall the five principles
The principles of design are balance, proportion, emphasis, rhythm and harmony. Each one controls a different quality of the look of a garment.
Step 3: Check option 1, Balance
Balance means the visual weight of the parts is equal around a central axis. It can be formal (the same on both sides) or informal (different items that still feel equal). The definition in the question matches this exactly. So option 1 is correct.
Step 4: Check option 2, Proportion
Proportion is about the size relationship of one part to another and to the whole, such as the length of a jacket compared with the skirt. It is not about equal weight. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option 3, Emphasis
Emphasis is the centre of interest. It draws the eye to one point, like a brooch or a bright belt. It does the opposite of spreading weight evenly. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4, Rhythm
Rhythm is the smooth movement of the eye through the garment, created by repetition, gradation or radiation. It is about flow, not weight. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
Equal distribution of weight from a central point is balance, which is option 1.
\[ \boxed{\text{Balance}} \]
Question 19:
Who among the following facilitates conversion of inspiration into design, uses technology to conceptualise and address the planning, production, promotion and distribution of products in the fashion industry, to meet the needs and demands of a consumer?
(A) Fashion Retailer
(B) Fashion Designer
(C) Fashion Exporter
(D) Fashion Merchandiser
Correct Answer: (D) Fashion Merchandiser
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
We must name the person who turns inspiration into a design and also plans production, promotion and distribution so that consumer demand is met.
Step 2: Check option (1) Fashion Retailer:
A retailer only sells finished products to consumers. It does not plan production.
Step 3: Check option (2) Fashion Designer:
A designer creates the designs. The wider planning of production, promotion and distribution is not the designer's main role.
Step 4: Check option (3) Fashion Exporter:
An exporter sells goods to other countries. It does not convert inspiration into design.
Step 5: Check option (4) Fashion Merchandiser:
A merchandiser links design to consumer demand and manages planning, production, promotion and distribution. This matches the description and is the NTA key answer.
Final Answer:
The person described is the Fashion Merchandiser, which is option 4. \[ \boxed{\text{Fashion Merchandiser}} \]
Question 20:
Segmenting the market on the basis of population, age, gender, occupation, education and income is known as .
(A) Behavioural Segmentation
(B) Demographic Segmentation
(C) Psychographic Segmentation
(D) Geographic Segmentation
Correct Answer: (B) Demographic Segmentation
View SolutionStep 1: Understand the question
Market segmentation means dividing a large market into smaller groups of buyers who share some feature. The question lists the features used: population, age, gender, occupation, education and income. We must name this type of segmentation.
Step 2: Recall the four common bases
Markets are split on four main bases: demographic (facts about people), geographic (place), psychographic (lifestyle and personality) and behavioural (buying habits).
Step 3: Check option 1, Behavioural
Behavioural segmentation looks at how people buy and use a product, such as loyalty, usage rate or occasion. Age and income are not buying behaviour. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option 2, Demographic
Demographic segmentation uses measurable facts about people like age, gender, occupation, education, income and population size. Every item in the question is one of these. So option 2 is correct.
Step 5: Check option 3, Psychographic
Psychographic segmentation uses attitudes, values, interests and lifestyle. These are about the mind, not simple facts like age or income. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4, Geographic
Geographic segmentation uses location, such as city, region, climate or rural and urban area. Population density can be geographic, but the list as a whole is about people, so option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
Segmenting by age, gender, occupation, education and income is demographic segmentation, option 2.
\[ \boxed{\text{Demographic Segmentation}} \]
Question 21:
France's dominance over international fashion began during which period?
(A) Late 18th century
(B) Mid 18th century
(C) Early 18th century
(D) Early 19th century
Correct Answer: (C) Early 18th century
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
We must pick the period in which France began to dominate international fashion.
Step 2: Use the NTA key:
The NTA final answer key marks option 3 (Early 18th century) as correct.
Step 3: Other options:
Late 18th century, mid 18th century and early 19th century are not accepted by the key.
Final Answer:
France began to dominate international fashion in the early 18th century, which is option 3 (as per the NTA final answer key). \[ \boxed{\text{Early 18th century}} \]
Question 22:
Which of the following describes lightness and darkness of a hue?
(A) Texture
(B) Value
(C) Intensity
(D) Chroma
Correct Answer: (B) Value
View SolutionStep 1: Understand the question
A colour has three dimensions: hue, value and intensity (chroma). We need the term for how light or how dark a hue is.
Step 2: Define the three dimensions
Hue is the name of the colour, like red or blue. Value is how light or dark the colour is. Intensity or chroma is how bright or dull the colour is.
Step 3: Check option 1, Texture
Texture is the surface feel or look of a fabric, such as rough or smooth. It is not a property of colour. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option 2, Value
Adding white to a hue makes a tint with a higher value, and adding black makes a shade with a lower value. So value describes lightness and darkness. Option 2 is correct.
Step 5: Check option 3, Intensity
Intensity is the brightness or dullness of a colour, that is, how pure it is. It is not the same as light or dark. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4, Chroma
Chroma is another name for intensity. It also means purity of the hue. So option 4 is wrong for the same reason as option 3.
Final Answer:
Lightness and darkness of a hue is called value, option 2.
\[ \boxed{\text{Value}} \]
Question 23:
Soaking in cold water and then washing in dilute ammonia is a method of removing which of the following type of stain?
(A) Fresh curry stain
(B) Ball pen ink stain
(C) Fresh tea stain
(D) Fresh blood stain
Correct Answer: (D) Fresh blood stain
View SolutionStep 1: Understand the question
Each type of stain needs its own treatment. We must find the stain that is removed by soaking in cold water and then washing in dilute ammonia.
Step 2: Recall how protein stains behave
Blood is a protein stain. Hot water cooks the protein and fixes the stain in the fabric, so protein stains are first soaked in cold water. Any mark left behind is then washed with dilute ammonia, which is a mild alkali that loosens it.
Step 3: Check option 1, Fresh curry stain
Curry has oil and turmeric colour. It is treated with borax or glycerine, and then washed with soap or detergent, and sunlight can help with the yellow colour. Cold water and ammonia is not the usual method. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option 2, Ball pen ink stain
Ink is removed with a solvent such as methylated spirit, or with a stain remover. Soaking in cold water does not lift it. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option 3, Fresh tea stain
Tea has tannin. It is removed by pouring boiling water through the stretched stain, or by using borax. It is not a cold water and ammonia stain. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4, Fresh blood stain
Fresh blood is soaked in cold water first and then washed with dilute ammonia, and this is the standard method. So option 4 is correct.
Final Answer:
Cold water soaking followed by dilute ammonia is the method for a fresh blood stain, option 4.
\[ \boxed{\text{Fresh blood stain}} \]
Question 24:
If dyeing is being done at yarn stage, what type of design/s will be produced?
(A) Patch work
(B) Woven stripes, checks, plaids
(C) Batik
(D) Chikankari
Correct Answer: (B) Woven stripes, checks, plaids
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
Dyeing can be done at different stages: fibre, yarn, fabric or garment. The question asks what designs result when the colour is applied at the yarn stage, which is before the cloth is woven.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
If yarns of different colours are dyed first and then woven together, the pattern is made by the weave. So yarn dyeing gives designs that come from the arrangement of coloured threads in the warp and weft.
Step 3: Check option (1) patch work:
Patch work is made by stitching small pieces of finished cloth together. It is a surface decoration done on fabric, not a result of dyeing yarn. So (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) woven stripes, checks, plaids:
Coloured yarns are placed in the warp or weft in a planned order. Stripes come from coloured yarns in one direction. Checks and plaids come from coloured yarns in both directions. All of these are made on the loom from pre-dyed yarn. So (2) is right.
Step 5: Check option (3) batik:
Batik is a resist dyeing method. Wax is applied on the finished cloth, then the cloth is dyed. The dyeing is therefore at fabric stage, not yarn stage. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4) chikankari:
Chikankari is white thread embroidery from Lucknow done on finished cloth. It has nothing to do with dyeing yarn. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Yarn dyeing leads to woven designs such as stripes, checks and plaids, option (2). \[\boxed{2}\]
Question 25:
Which among the following is NOT a principle of public relations management as given by Arthur W. Page, as a means of implementing his philosophy?
(A) Listen to the customer
(B) Manage for tomorrow
(C) Espirit-de-corps
(D) Conduct public relations
Correct Answer: (C) Espirit-de-corps
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
Arthur W. Page was a leader in corporate public relations. He gave a set of principles for running public relations. The question asks which of the four items is not among them.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Page listed seven principles. They are: tell the truth, prove it with action, listen to the customer, manage for tomorrow, conduct public relations as if the whole company depends on it, realise that a company's true character is expressed by its people, and remain calm, patient and good-humoured.
Step 3: Check option (1) listen to the customer:
This is a Page principle. To serve the public well, a company must first learn what the public thinks and needs. So (1) is a principle and is not the answer.
Step 4: Check option (2) manage for tomorrow:
This is also a Page principle. Good public relations looks ahead, and it prevents problems before they grow. So (2) is a principle and is not the answer.
Step 5: Check option (3) espirit-de-corps:
This phrase means team spirit or shared morale in a group. It is a general management idea, but it is not one of the seven principles of Page. So (3) is NOT a Page principle and is the answer.
Step 6: Check option (4) conduct public relations:
Page said that public relations should be conducted as if the whole company depends on it. So this is a Page principle and is not the answer.
Final Answer:
Espirit-de-corps is not a principle given by Page, so the answer is option (3). \[\boxed{3}\]
Question 26:
While composing a message, which of the following Cs of communication describes that the message must give appropriate and explicit meaning that would not diversify and confuse the reader at any instance?
(A) Conciseness
(B) Concreteness
(C) Clarity
(D) Consideration
Correct Answer: (C) Clarity
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
The 7 Cs of communication are rules for writing a good message. The question describes one of them: the message must have an exact meaning that cannot be read in more than one way or confuse the reader.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
The 7 Cs are clarity, conciseness, concreteness, correctness, consideration, completeness and courtesy. Match the description to the C that talks about a single clear meaning.
Step 3: Check option (1) conciseness:
Conciseness means saying what is needed in few words, with no extra detail. It is about length, not about the meaning being confusing. So (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) concreteness:
Concreteness means using specific facts, figures and examples instead of vague words. It makes the message vivid, but it does not specifically address the problem of many possible meanings. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) clarity:
Clarity means the message gives one clear and exact meaning, so the reader understands it the way the sender meant it. The words in the question, explicit meaning that does not confuse the reader, describe exactly this. So (3) is right.
Step 6: Check option (4) consideration:
Consideration means writing with the reader in mind, using the "you" view and thinking about the reader's needs and feelings. It is not about removing confusion. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The C that stands for an exact meaning without confusion is clarity, option (3). \[\boxed{3}\]
Question 27:
Which of the following is NOT an essential feature of development communication?
(A) It is aimed at giving information and educating the community
(B) It combines suitable mass media and interpersonal communication channels for greater impact
(C) It is based on the audience characteristics and their environment
(D) It is not oriented to socio-economic development of the people
Correct Answer: (D) It is not oriented to socio-economic development of the people
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
Development communication is the use of communication to bring social and economic progress in a community. The question asks which statement is not a feature of it. So three statements are true features and one is false.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Features of development communication: it informs and educates, it uses a mix of mass media and interpersonal channels, it is planned around the audience and its surroundings, and its goal is the socio-economic development of people.
Step 3: Check statement (1):
Giving information and teaching the community is the basic job of development communication. So (1) is an essential feature.
Step 4: Check statement (2):
Mass media reach many people fast, while face to face talk builds trust and gives feedback. Using both gives greater impact. So (2) is an essential feature.
Step 5: Check statement (3):
A message works only when it suits the audience, their language, beliefs, needs and surroundings. So (3) is an essential feature.
Step 6: Check statement (4):
The word "development" in the name shows that the aim is the socio-economic progress of people. A statement that says it is not oriented to this aim is false. So (4) is NOT a feature and is the answer.
Final Answer:
Statement (4) contradicts the purpose of development communication. \[\boxed{4}\]
Question 28:
What does ICT stands for?
(A) Information and Communication Technology
(B) Information and Communication Technique
(C) Information for Consumer Transaction
(D) Information and Corporate Technologies
Correct Answer: (A) Information and Communication Technology
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
The question asks for the full form of the common short form ICT, which is used in education, media and extension work.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
ICT stands for Information and Communication Technology. It covers all the tools used to collect, store, send and share information, such as computers, phones, the internet, radio and television.
Step 3: Check option (1):
This is the correct full form. The word Technology is right because ICT is about devices and systems. So (1) is right.
Step 4: Check option (2):
The last word here is Technique, which means a method or skill. The standard term uses Technology, not Technique. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3):
Information for Consumer Transaction is not a known term. It sounds like something about shopping, and it does not describe ICT. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4):
Information and Corporate Technologies is also not the accepted full form. ICT is not limited to companies. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
ICT means Information and Communication Technology, option (1). \[\boxed{1}\]
Question 29:
__________ was a nationwide communication campaign for generating awareness about HIV/AIDS.
(A) Jago Grahak Jago
(B) Red Ribbon Express
(C) Project Village Chhatera
(D) Swachh Bharat Mission
Correct Answer: (B) Red Ribbon Express
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
The blank needs the name of a nationwide communication campaign whose subject was HIV/AIDS awareness.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Match each campaign with its subject. Then pick the one that is about HIV/AIDS. The red ribbon is the world symbol of HIV/AIDS awareness.
Step 3: Check option (1) Jago Grahak Jago:
This is a consumer awareness campaign. It teaches buyers about their rights. It is not about HIV/AIDS. So (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) Red Ribbon Express:
This was a special train that travelled across India. It carried exhibitions, counselling and testing facilities to spread awareness about HIV/AIDS. So (2) is right.
Step 5: Check option (3) Project Village Chhatera:
This is a village level project, and it is not a national HIV/AIDS campaign. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4) Swachh Bharat Mission:
This is the national cleanliness campaign about sanitation and hygiene. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The HIV/AIDS awareness campaign is the Red Ribbon Express, option (2). \[\boxed{2}\]
Question 30:
Arrange the steps of laundry functioning in hospitals in correct sequence: A. Washing, hydro-extraction B. Drying, pressing C. Collection from various specialised centres and wards D. Mending, packing, distribution Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) C, A, B, D
(B) A, B, D, C
(C) B, A, D, C
(D) C, B, D, A
Correct Answer: (A) C, A, B, D
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
A hospital laundry handles a large amount of linen every day, such as bed sheets and uniforms. The work follows a fixed order from dirty linen to clean linen ready for use. We must place four steps in that order.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Think of the path the linen travels. It must first be gathered. Then it is cleaned. Then it is made dry and smooth. At the end it is repaired, packed and sent back to the wards.
Step 3: Find the first step:
The linen is lying in the wards and centres. Nothing can be done until it is collected. So C, collection, is first.
Step 4: Find the second step:
After collection the linen is washed. The water is then removed in a hydro-extractor, which spins the cloth. This is A, and it comes second.
Step 5: Find the third and fourth steps:
Once washed, the linen is dried and pressed. This is B, the third step. Mending, packing and distribution come last because only clean and dry linen is mended and packed. This is D.
Step 6: Check the options:
The order is C, A, B, D. Option (1) gives this order. Option (2) starts with washing before collection. Option (3) starts with drying before washing. Option (4) places drying and pressing before washing. So only (1) is right.
Final Answer:
The correct sequence is C, A, B, D, option (1). \[\boxed{1}\]
Question 31:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
LIST-I: Skills required for effective communication
LIST-II: Description
A.
Interpersonal Skills
I.
Refer to the measure of a person's ability to operate within business organisations through social communication and interactions
B.
Negotiation Skills
II.
Process in which both the parties have unacceptable points regarding an issue or deal
C.
Rapport Establishment
III.
Establishment of trust and harmony in a relationship
D.
Listening Skills
IV.
An active process involving hearing, understanding and response
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(C) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
We must match four communication skills in List I with their descriptions in List II. Options (1) to (4) give four different sets of pairs.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Read each description and ask which skill it defines. Then check the pairs against the options. Each skill has a plain meaning, so we can match them one by one.
Step 3: Match A, interpersonal skills:
Description I speaks about a person's ability to work in business organisations through social communication and interactions. This is the meaning of interpersonal skills. So A goes with I.
Step 4: Match B, negotiation skills:
Description II says both parties start with points they cannot accept and must work towards a deal. This is what negotiation is. So B goes with II.
Step 5: Match C, rapport establishment:
Description III talks about building trust and harmony in a relationship. This is rapport. So C goes with III.
Step 6: Match D, listening skills:
Description IV calls it an active process of hearing, understanding and responding. This is listening. So D goes with IV.
Step 7: Check the options:
The pairs are A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV. Option (1) has exactly these. Option (2) swaps C and D. Option (3) has B with III, which is wrong. Option (4) has A with III, which is wrong. So (1) is right.
Final Answer:
The correct matching is A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, option (1). \[\boxed{1}\]
Question 32:
Which of the following functions are performed by corporate PR Departments? A. Development of public relations policy B. Preparation of statements and press releases C. Maintain liaisons with government units D. Preparing and publishing in-house magazines Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B and D only
(B) A, B and C only
(C) A, B, C and D
(D) B, C and D only
Correct Answer: (C) A, B, C and D
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
A public relations (PR) department in a company looks after the image of the company. It builds goodwill with the public, the media, the staff and the government. The question asks which of the four listed tasks belong to such a department.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
We check each task against the usual list of duties of a corporate PR department. Any task that helps the company communicate with its audiences, inside or outside, counts as a PR function.
Step 3: Check statement (A).
Every PR department begins by framing a policy that says how the company will talk to its public and what image it wants to build. So (A) is a PR function and is TRUE.
Step 4: Check statement (B).
The department writes official statements and press releases so that newspapers and channels get correct news about the company. This is a core PR job. So (B) is TRUE.
Step 5: Check statement (C).
A company must deal with ministries, local bodies and other government units. The PR team keeps in touch with them and handles the contact work. This is called liaison. So (C) is TRUE.
Step 6: Check statement (D).
House magazines and newsletters are meant for the employees and sometimes for dealers. The PR team usually plans, writes and publishes them to keep staff informed and motivated. So (D) is TRUE.
Step 7: Match with the options.
All four statements are correct. Option 1 leaves out C, option 2 leaves out D, and option 4 leaves out A. Only option 3 lists A, B, C and D.
Final Answer:
All four tasks are functions of a corporate PR department, so option 3 is correct. \[ \boxed{3} \]
Question 33:
Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
List-I Hospitality Establishment
List-II Services
A.
Motel
I.
Hospitality with adventure sports
B.
Resort
II.
Lodging with meals and other services
C.
Furnished Camps
III.
Parking facility near the room
D.
Hotel
IV.
Broad range of amenities for ensuring a total vacation experience
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Hospitality establishments are places that give food and stay to guests. Each type has a special feature. We must pair each type in List-I with the service that best describes it in List-II.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the one defining feature of each establishment, then look for it in List-II. Then compare the four pairs with the four options.
Step 3: Match A, Motel.
A motel is built along highways for travellers who come by car. Its main feature is parking space right next to the room. So A matches III.
Step 4: Match B, Resort.
A resort is a place for holidays and relaxation. It offers many amenities such as pools, food, entertainment and activities, so that guests get a total vacation experience. So B matches IV.
Step 5: Match C, Furnished Camps.
Furnished camps are set up in nature, for example in hills or forests. They are linked with outdoor fun and adventure sports. So C matches I.
Step 6: Match D, Hotel.
A hotel gives lodging along with meals and other services such as laundry and room service. So D matches II.
Step 7: Check the options.
The correct matching is A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II. Option 1 pairs the motel with adventure, which is wrong. Option 2 also starts with A-I, which is wrong. Option 3 also starts with A-I, which is wrong. Only option 4 gives the full correct set.
Final Answer:
The correct matching is A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II, which is option 4. \[ \boxed{4} \]
Question 34:
Which among of the following is NOT a consumer right under the Consumer Protection Act (2019)?
(A) Right to choose
(B) Right to safety
(C) Right to clean environment
(D) Right to seek redressal
Correct Answer: (C) Right to clean environment
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 lists the basic rights of a consumer. These rights protect buyers from unfair trade and give them a way to complain. We must find the one option that is not in the list.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the six rights named in the Act: right to safety, right to be informed, right to choose, right to be heard, right to seek redressal, and right to consumer awareness (education).
Step 3: Check option 1.
The right to choose means the buyer can pick from a variety of goods and services at fair prices. It is in the Act. So option 1 is a consumer right.
Step 4: Check option 2.
The right to safety protects the buyer from goods and services that harm life and property. It is in the Act. So option 2 is a consumer right.
Step 5: Check option 3.
The right to a clean environment is a general right linked to environment laws and the Constitution. It is not one of the consumer rights listed in the Consumer Protection Act. So option 3 is NOT a consumer right under the Act.
Step 6: Check option 4.
The right to seek redressal lets a buyer get relief, such as a refund or compensation, for unfair trade. It is in the Act. So option 4 is a consumer right.
Final Answer:
The right to clean environment is not listed, so option 3 is the answer. \[ \boxed{3} \]
Question 35:
In the context of standardization, ISI stands for .
(A) Indian Standards Institution
(B) International Standards Institution
(C) Indian Standardisation Institution
(D) International Safety Institution
Correct Answer: (A) Indian Standards Institution
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Standardization means fixing quality rules for goods so that buyers get safe and reliable products. In India, a mark placed on goods shows that they meet such rules. The question asks for the full form of that mark.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall that the ISI mark is the quality mark given to industrial products in India. It was started by the Indian Standards Institution, which is now called the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS).
Step 3: Check option 1.
Indian Standards Institution is the correct full form. It was the national body for standards before it became the BIS. So option 1 is right.
Step 4: Check option 2.
International Standards Institution is wrong. The ISI body is Indian, not international. The international body is called ISO.
Step 5: Check option 3.
Indian Standardisation Institution is a made up name. The real name uses the word Standards, not Standardisation. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4.
International Safety Institution does not exist as the ISI body. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
ISI stands for Indian Standards Institution, option 1. \[ \boxed{1} \]
Question 36:
Arrange the following housekeeping personnel in a hierarchical order from top to bottom: A. Assistant Housekeeper B. Linen Supervisor C. Executive Housekeeper D. Helper Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B, C, D
(B) C, B, D, A
(C) B, A, D, C
(D) C, A, B, D
Correct Answer: (D) C, A, B, D
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
The housekeeping department of a hotel has a ladder of posts. The head sits at the top, and workers who do the basic jobs sit at the bottom. We must place the four posts in order from the highest to the lowest.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Use the usual chain of command: Executive Housekeeper, then Assistant Housekeeper, then supervisors, then room attendants and helpers.
Step 3: Find the top post.
The Executive Housekeeper (C) heads the whole department and plans and controls its work. So C is first.
Step 4: Find the second post.
The Assistant Housekeeper (A) helps the executive and runs the department in daily work. So A comes second.
Step 5: Find the third post.
The Linen Supervisor (B) looks after linen and works under the assistant. So B comes third.
Step 6: Find the last post.
The Helper (D) does simple support tasks and has the lowest rank. So D is last.
Step 7: Check the options.
The order is C, A, B, D. Option 1 puts the helper last but the executive third, which is wrong. Option 2 puts the executive first but the assistant last, which is wrong. Option 3 starts with the supervisor, which is wrong. Only option 4 matches.
Final Answer:
The order from top to bottom is C, A, B, D, option 4. \[ \boxed{4} \]
Question 37:
is the head of the kitchen responsible for planning, organising and controlling the kitchen operations.
(A) Chef-de-cuisine
(B) Chef-de-parties
(C) Kitchen stewarding
(D) Restaurant manager
Correct Answer: (A) Chef-de-cuisine
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
A hotel kitchen works as a team with ranks. One person is at the top and plans and controls all the kitchen work. We need the name of that post.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the kitchen brigade. Chef-de-cuisine is the executive or head chef, and the Chef-de-parties are section chiefs who work under the head.
Step 3: Check option 1.
Chef-de-cuisine is the head of the kitchen. This chef plans the menu, organises the staff and controls costs and quality. So option 1 fits the description.
Step 4: Check option 2.
Chef-de-parties is the chief of one section, such as sauces or pastry. This chef does not run the whole kitchen. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option 3.
Kitchen stewarding is the work of cleaning and caring for pots, pans and kitchen equipment. It is not a head of the kitchen. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4.
The restaurant manager runs the dining area, the front of the house, and not the kitchen. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
The head of the kitchen is the Chef-de-cuisine, option 1. \[ \boxed{1} \]
Question 38:
Which of the following is a Delhi based consumer organisation?
(A) VOICE
(B) CERC
(C) Which
(D) Choice
Correct Answer: (A) VOICE
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Many voluntary consumer organisations work in India to guide buyers and press for their rights. Each one is based in a certain city. We must pick the one that works from Delhi.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Recall the home city of each named group. VOICE is in Delhi, CERC is in Ahmedabad, Which is from the United Kingdom, and Choice is from Australia.
Step 3: Check option 1.
VOICE (Voluntary Organisation in the Interest of Consumer Education) is a consumer group based in Delhi. So option 1 is correct.
Step 4: Check option 2.
CERC stands for Consumer Education and Research Centre. It is based in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, not in Delhi. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option 3.
Which is the consumer magazine and body of the United Kingdom. It is not in Delhi. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4.
Choice is a consumer body of Australia. It is not in Delhi. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
VOICE is the Delhi based consumer organisation, option 1. \[ \boxed{1} \]
Question 39:
In the context of consumer problems, when some substances are either added to or removed from a product, it is known as .
(A) Spurious /Duplicate/ Imitation Products
(B) Adulteration
(C) Lack of Consumer Information
(D) Incorrect Weights and Measures
Correct Answer: (B) Adulteration
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Consumers face many problems in the market, such as bad quality, wrong weight and false claims. Each problem has its own name. We must name the problem in which a product is changed by adding or removing something.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Adulteration means making a product impure by adding a cheap or harmful substance or by taking out a valuable part. Use this meaning to test each option.
Step 3: Check option 1.
Spurious, duplicate or imitation products are fake goods that copy a genuine brand. Nothing is added to or removed from the real product. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option 2.
Adulteration fits the clue exactly. Examples are mixing water in milk or taking cream out of milk. So option 2 is right.
Step 5: Check option 3.
Lack of consumer information means the buyer is not given enough facts, such as the ingredients or the date of expiry. It does not describe changing the product. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4.
Incorrect weights and measures means the quantity given is less than what is paid for. It is not about adding or removing substances. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
The problem is called adulteration, option 2. \[ \boxed{2} \]
Question 40:
Identify the consumers' expectations while purchasing goods: A. Reasonable price B. Quality products C. Spurious product D. Correct weights and measures
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B, C, and D
(B) A, B, and D only
(C) A, C, and D only
(D) B, C, and D
Correct Answer: (B) A, B, and D only
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
The question asks what a buyer rightly expects when buying goods. We must pick the items that a consumer wants and is entitled to, and drop any item that works against the consumer.
The four items are: A (reasonable price), B (quality products), C (spurious product) and D (correct weights and measures).
Step 2: Key Idea:
A consumer expects fair dealing from the seller. This means a fair price, goods of good quality, and honest weighing and measuring. A spurious product is a fake or imitation product, and it is a consumer problem, not an expectation.
Step 3: Check item A: Reasonable price:
Every buyer hopes to pay a fair price for the value received. Overcharging is a common complaint. So A is a genuine expectation.
Step 4: Check item B: Quality products:
A buyer expects goods to be safe, durable and of the promised standard. Marks such as ISI and Agmark exist for this reason. So B is a genuine expectation.
Step 5: Check item C: Spurious product:
A spurious product is a duplicate or imitation sold as the original. No consumer expects or wants this. It is a problem that consumer protection laws try to stop. So C is NOT an expectation.
Step 6: Check item D: Correct weights and measures:
A buyer expects to receive the full quantity paid for. Wrong weights and false measures cheat the buyer. So D is a genuine expectation.
Step 7: Match with the options:
A, B and D are right and C is wrong. Option 1 includes C, so it is wrong. Option 2 has A, B and D only, so it is correct. Option 3 includes C and leaves out B, so it is wrong. Option 4 includes C and leaves out A, so it is wrong.
Final Answer:
Only items A, B and D are consumer expectations, so option 2 is correct.
\[ \boxed{2} \]
Question 41:
Identify the main aim of Codex Alimentarius Commission.
(A) To promote the development of standardisation and related activities in the world
(B) Establishing international standards to protect the health of the consumers and facilitate food and agricultural trade
(C) To help trade flow smoothly, freely, fairly and predictably
(D) To minimise or eliminate contamination and false labelling
Correct Answer: (B) Establishing international standards to protect the health of the consumers and facilitate food and agricultural trade
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
The passage names several bodies: CAC (Codex), ISO, WTO and HACCP. Each has its own aim. We need the aim that belongs to the Codex Alimentarius Commission.
Step 2: Key Idea:
CAC publishes the Codex Alimentarius, a collection of food standards, codes of practice and guidelines. These are meant to protect consumers and keep food trade fair. Countries use them to build their national standards.
Step 3: Check Option 1:
Promoting standardisation and related activities across the world is the mission of ISO, the federation of national standards bodies. It is not the main aim of Codex. So this option is wrong.
Step 4: Check Option 2:
This says international standards are set to protect consumer health and ease food and farm trade. That matches the Codex role as described in the passage. So this option is correct.
Step 5: Check Option 3:
Helping trade flow smoothly, freely, fairly and predictably is the main objective of WTO. So this option is wrong for Codex.
Step 6: Check Option 4:
Cutting down contamination and false labelling is a result of good standards, but it is not the stated main aim of CAC. HACCP is closer to hazard control. So this option is wrong.
Final Answer:
The main aim of Codex is international food standards that protect health and support trade, which is option 2.
\[ \boxed{2} \]
Question 42:
is an international reference for quality requirements and is concerned with Quality Management of an organisation.
(A) ISO 22000
(B) ISO 14000
(C) ISO 11000
(D) ISO 9000
Correct Answer: (D) ISO 9000
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
We need the ISO standard that sets quality requirements and deals with the quality management of an organisation.
Step 2: Key Idea:
ISO has a family of standards. Each number group covers a different area. The ISO 9000 family is about quality management systems. A company that follows it can show that it manages quality in a planned way.
Step 3: Check Option 1: ISO 22000:
This is the food safety management system standard. It is about food safety across the food chain, not general quality management. So it is wrong.
Step 4: Check Option 2: ISO 14000:
This family covers environmental management. It helps organisations reduce harm to the environment. So it is wrong.
Step 5: Check Option 3: ISO 11000:
This is not the standard used for quality management of an organisation. It is a distractor. So it is wrong.
Step 6: Check Option 4: ISO 9000:
This is the international reference for quality management systems and quality requirements. It fits the sentence exactly. So it is correct.
Final Answer:
The blank is filled by ISO 9000, which is option 4.
\[ \boxed{4} \]
Question 43:
Which Food Safety Management System involves identification of hazards, assessment of chances of occurrence of hazards during each step /stage in the food chain and defining measures for hazard(s) control?
(A) GMP
(B) GHP
(C) ISO
(D) HACCP
Correct Answer: (D) HACCP
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
The question describes a system that finds hazards, estimates how likely they are at each stage of the food chain, and sets controls. We must name this system.
Step 2: Key Idea:
HACCP stands for Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points. It studies raw materials and every step of a process in detail. It checks how each step could add harmful micro organisms or other food hazards, and then sets control measures.
Step 3: Check Option 1: GMP:
Good Manufacturing Practices are general rules for clean and safe production, such as hygiene and plant layout. They are basic conditions, not a step wise hazard analysis. So it is wrong.
Step 4: Check Option 2: GHP:
Good Hygiene Practices are basic hygiene rules for handling food. They do not assess the chance of each hazard at each stage. So it is wrong.
Step 5: Check Option 3: ISO:
ISO is an organisation that makes standards. It is not itself a hazard control system. So it is wrong.
Step 6: Check Option 4: HACCP:
The description matches HACCP exactly, as the passage also says. So it is correct.
Final Answer:
The system described is HACCP, which is option 4.
\[ \boxed{4} \]
Question 44:
Adoption of standards is voluntary and that the standards are reviewed every five years.
(A) Codex
(B) FSSAI
(C) WTO
(D) ISO
Correct Answer: (D) ISO
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
We must find the body whose standards a country or company may adopt by choice, and whose standards are reviewed every five years.
Step 2: Key Idea:
The passage says that adoption of the ISO standards is voluntary. ISO standards are not laws. They are reviewed on a fixed cycle, which is every five years, so that they stay current.
Step 3: Check Option 1: Codex:
Codex standards are used by countries as a base for national standards. They are recommendations, but the passage does not link the voluntary adoption line to them, and the five year review belongs to ISO. So it is not the best answer.
Step 4: Check Option 2: FSSAI:
FSSAI is the Indian regulator and its standards are legally binding in India. They are not voluntary. So it is wrong.
Step 5: Check Option 3: WTO:
WTO administers trade agreements and settles disputes. It does not issue standards that are adopted voluntarily and reviewed every five years. So it is wrong.
Step 6: Check Option 4: ISO:
The passage places the line on voluntary adoption right after the description of ISO. ISO standards are reviewed every five years. So it is correct.
Final Answer:
The standards that are voluntary and reviewed every five years are ISO standards, option 4.
\[ \boxed{4} \]
Question 45:
Name the document published by the CAC which is a collection of internationally adopted Food Standards.
(A) Food Standard
(B) International Code
(C) Codex Alimentarius
(D) International Code Document
Correct Answer: (C) Codex Alimentarius
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
The question asks for the name of the document that the CAC publishes. This document is a collection of food standards adopted at the international level.
Step 2: Key Idea:
CAC is the short form of Codex Alimentarius Commission. Its published document is the Codex Alimentarius. The Latin words mean food code.
Step 3: Check Option 1:
Food Standard is a general phrase. It is not the name of the document. So it is wrong.
Step 4: Check Option 2:
International Code is a general phrase too. It is not the formal title. So it is wrong.
Step 5: Check Option 3:
Codex Alimentarius is the formal title of the collection of standards, codes of practice and guidelines. So it is correct.
Step 6: Check Option 4:
International Code Document is made up and is not a real title. So it is wrong.
Final Answer:
The document is the Codex Alimentarius, which is option 3.
\[ \boxed{3} \]
Question 46:
Name the phase of life from birth till one year of age.
(A) Infancy
(B) Pre-school age
(C) Adolescence
(D) Elementary school age
Correct Answer: (A) Infancy
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Question:
We need the name of the life stage that covers the period from birth to one year.
Step 2: Key Idea:
The passage divides early childhood into two parts: birth to three years, and three to eight years. Inside the first part, the period between birth and one year is named infancy. In this stage the child depends largely on adults for everyday needs.
Step 3: Check Option 1: Infancy:
This is the stage from birth to one year. It matches the question. So it is correct.
Step 4: Check Option 2: Pre-school age:
This is the stage when a child is ready for an environment outside the family, usually from about three years. It is not the first year. So it is wrong.
Step 5: Check Option 3: Adolescence:
This is the teenage stage, from about 10 to 19 years. It is far from the first year. So it is wrong.
Step 6: Check Option 4: Elementary school age:
This is the stage of primary school going children, after the pre-school years. So it is wrong.
Final Answer:
The first year of life is called infancy, which is option 1.
\[ \boxed{1} \]
Question 47:
_____________ is the name given to an institutional setting that is particularly designed for the care of infants and young children in the absence of home care.
(A) Montessori schools
(B) Hostel
(C) Crèche
(D) Anganwadi centre
Correct Answer: (C) Crèche
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
The passage says that when a mother is employed outside the home, the infant is cared for by a substitute caregiver. The place can be an institution, and it names day care and the crèche as all-day programmes for very young children.
Step 2: Check option (1), Montessori schools.
Montessori schools are described as pre-schools for slightly older young children, not as care for infants in the absence of home care. So option (1) is FALSE.
Step 3: Check option (2), Hostel.
A hostel is a residence for students or workers who live away from home. It is not a care setting for infants. So option (2) is FALSE.
Step 4: Check option (3), Crèche.
The crèche is the institutional setting meant for infants and young children while their parents are away at work. The passage lists it with day care. So option (3) is TRUE.
Step 5: Check option (4), Anganwadi centre.
An Anganwadi centre is a village-level government centre for health, nutrition and pre-school education. The passage does not name it here, and the crèche is the better fit for infant care. So option (4) is FALSE.
Final Answer:
The institutional setting for infant care in the absence of home care is the crèche, so the answer is option (3).
Question 48:
Which of the following setting is primarily dedicated for the care of children in the preschool years who are cared for in the absence of a primary caregiver at home?
(A) Primary school
(B) Day care
(C) Nursery school
(D) Montessori school
Correct Answer: (B) Day care
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question asks for a setting used mainly for caring for children in the pre-school years when no primary caregiver is at home. The passage says day care programmes run for the whole day and need trained teachers and helpers who look after safety, feeding and emotional needs.
Step 2: Check option (1), Primary school.
Primary school is for formal education of older children. It is not meant for caring for pre-schoolers whose caregiver is away. So option (1) is FALSE.
Step 3: Check option (2), Day care.
Day care is an all-day programme where children are looked after when the primary caregiver is not at home. Care is its main purpose. So option (2) is TRUE.
Step 4: Check option (3), Nursery school.
Nursery school is a half-day learning programme that prepares children for school, so teaching is its main aim, not care in the absence of a caregiver. So option (3) is FALSE.
Step 5: Check option (4), Montessori school.
Montessori school is a type of pre-school that follows a particular educational approach. Its main purpose is education, not custodial care. So option (4) is FALSE.
Final Answer:
Day care is the setting dedicated to caring for pre-school children when the primary caregiver is absent, so option (2) is correct.
Question 49:
The child between two and three years is sometimes referred to as a ________________, a term that is derived from the jumpy walk that a young child has at this age.
(A) Toddler
(B) Infant
(C) Teenager
(D) Adolescent
Correct Answer: (A) Toddler
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Children aged between two and three years walk with short, unsteady steps. A special word is used for this stage, and it comes from the way they toddle along.
Step 2: Check option (1), Toddler.
Toddler is the word for a child learning to walk, with the unsteady jumpy gait of that age. It matches the clue about walking. So option (1) is TRUE.
Step 3: Check option (2), Infant.
Infant is used for a child in the first year of life, who mostly cannot walk yet. So option (2) is FALSE.
Step 4: Check option (3), Teenager.
Teenager is a young person aged between thirteen and nineteen. It has nothing to do with a jumpy walk. So option (3) is FALSE.
Step 5: Check option (4), Adolescent.
Adolescent is also a teenage stage, linked to puberty. The age is far above three years. So option (4) is FALSE.
Final Answer:
The child of two to three years is called a toddler, so the answer is option (1).
Question 50:
Montessori schools are based on the principles of early childhood education as outlined by a well-known educationist ________________.
(A) James Montessori
(B) Mathew Montessori
(C) Gwen Montessori
(D) Maria Montessori
Correct Answer: (D) Maria Montessori
View SolutionStep 1: Understanding the Concept:
Montessori schools take their name from the Italian doctor and educator who created this child-centred method of early education. Her first name must be matched with the surname Montessori.
Step 2: Check option (1), James Montessori.
No educationist named James Montessori founded this method, so option (1) is FALSE.
Step 3: Check option (2), Mathew Montessori.
Mathew Montessori is not the founder either. The name is invented, so option (2) is FALSE.
Step 4: Check option (3), Gwen Montessori.
Gwen Montessori is also not the founder of the method. So option (3) is FALSE.
Step 5: Check option (4), Maria Montessori.
Maria Montessori developed the Montessori method of early childhood education. So option (4) is TRUE.
Final Answer:
The Montessori method was outlined by Maria Montessori, so option (4) is correct.
Who among the following facilitates conversion of inspiration into design, uses technology to conceptualise and address the planning, production, promotion and distribution of products in the fashion industry, to meet the needs and demands of a consumer?
Which of the following setting is primarily dedicated for the care of children in the preschool years who are cared for in the absence of a primary caregiver at home?
Which Food Safety Management System involves identification of hazards, assessment of chances of occurrence of hazards during each step /stage in the food chain and defining measures for hazard(s) control?
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