CUET 2026 May 24 Shift 2 History Question Paper is available for download here. NTA conducted the CUET 2026 exam from 11th May to 31st May.

  • CUET 2026 History exam consists of 50 questions for 250 marks to be attempted in 60 minutes.
  • As per the marking scheme, 5 marks are awarded for each correct answer, and 1 mark is deducted for incorrect answer.

Candidates can download CUET 2026 May 24 Shift 2 History Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from links provided below.

CUET 2026 History May 24 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

CUET May 24 Shift 2 History Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

Which of the following is the decadent phase of the Harappan Civilization?

  • (A) 1900 BCE - 1300 BCE
  • (B) 2600 BCE - 1900 BCE
  • (C) 3000 BCE - 1300 BCE
  • (D) 3500 BCE - 2600 BCE
Correct Answer: (A) 1900 BCE - 1300 BCE
View Solution

Concept:
The Indus Valley Civilization, also known as the Harappan Civilization, is chronologically categorized by archaeologists into three distinct cultural phases.
These include the Early Harappan phase, representing the nascent stage of formative agrarian and proto-urban communities.
The Mature Harappan phase corresponds to the zenith of urbanization characterized by sophisticated town planning, uniform script, standard weights, and extensive trade.
The Late Harappan or decadent phase denotes the period of decline, gradual de-urbanization, abandonment of major cities, and ruralization of material culture.

Step 1: Analyzing the Chronological Stages:
The Early Harappan phase roughly extended from c. 3500 BCE to 2600 BCE, during which basic agricultural networks and regional craft centers flourished.
The Mature Harappan phase flourished predominantly between c. 2600 BCE and 1900 BCE, embodying the peak of civic architecture such as Mohenjodaro and Harappa.
Post-1900 BCE, evidence points to a marked transformation with the disappearance of distinctive artifacts like seals, weights, and specialized beads.
Writing disappeared, long-distance trade ceased, and urban settlements were abandoned in favor of smaller rural settlements.

Step 2: Identifying the Decadent Phase:
Historians and archaeologists refer to this post-urban era between c. 1900 BCE and 1300 BCE as the Late Harappan or decadent phase.
During this interval, regional cultures such as the Cemetery H, Jhukar, and Rangpur cultures emerged out of the remnants of the urban collapse.
Therefore, the date bracket spanning 1900 BCE to 1300 BCE correctly denotes the declining, decadent horizon of the Harappan civilization.

Final Answer:
Hence, the decadent phase of the Harappan Civilization is 1900 BCE - 1300 BCE.

Quick Tip: Remember the standard Harappan timeline:
Early Phase: 3500–2600 BCE
Mature Phase: 2600–1900 BCE
Late/Decadent Phase: 1900–1300 BCE
The decadent phase is marked by the loss of urban planning, standardised bricks, and bronze metallurgy.

Question 2:

Archaeo-botanists are specialised in  .

  • (A) Ancient animal remains
  • (B) Ancient plant remains
  • (C) Ancient aquatic-animal remains
  • (D) Ancient human remains
Correct Answer: (B) Ancient plant remains
View Solution

Concept:
Archaeology is an interdisciplinary field that reconstructs ancient lifeways by examining diverse categories of material remains.
To study ancient subsistence strategies, diet, and agriculture, archaeologists collaborate with various natural science specialists.
Different disciplines concentrate on distinct biological remains recovered from excavation strata and archaeological contexts.

Step 1: Examining Sub-disciplines in Archaeology:
Archaeo-botany, or palaeoethnobotany, is specifically dedicated to the retrieval and scientific analysis of preserved ancient botanical materials.
These remains encompass charred grains, seeds, pollen grains, phytoliths, and wood charcoal recovered from sites.
Such analyses permit the reconstruction of agricultural practices, dietary habits, and past ecological environments.
Conversely, archaeo-zoologists or zooarchaeologists specialize in analyzing ancient animal bones and fauna.
Physical anthropologists and bioarchaeologists analyze ancient human skeletal remains to understand pathology and demographics.

Step 2: Evaluating the Options:
Option (A) relates to archaeo-zoology, which studies domesticated and wild animal skeletal remains.
Option (B) refers accurately to archaeo-botanists, whose core domain of expertise is ancient botanical and plant remains.
Option (C) involves specialized ichthyoarchaeology or marine zooarchaeology.
Option (D) refers to physical anthropology or human osteology.

Final Answer:
Therefore, archaeo-botanists are specialized in ancient plant remains.

Quick Tip: Associate the scientific root words:
“Botany” refers to plants; hence Archaeo-botany studies ancient flora, grains, and seeds.
“Zoology” refers to animals; hence Archaeo-zoology studies animal bones.

Question 3:

Terracotta-models of the ’plough’ have been found at which sites?

  • (A) Manda and Shortughai
  • (B) Daimabad and Rangpur
  • (C) Cholistan and Banawali
  • (D) Lothal and Nageshwar
Correct Answer: (C) Cholistan and Banawali
View Solution

Concept:
Reconstructing the agricultural practices of the Harappan civilization relies on direct archaeological finds, iconography, and miniature models.
While wooden agricultural implements rarely survive in the archaeological record due to decay, terracotta replicas offer indisputable evidence of technology.
Archaeologists rely on miniature terracotta models to determine whether oxen and plows were actively utilized for tilling fields.

Step 1: Reviewing Excavation Findings for Agricultural Tools:
Terracotta models of the plow have been discovered in stratified excavations at two prominent Harappan regions: Cholistan and Banawali.
Cholistan refers to the desert margin area in modern Pakistan along the dry bed of the Hakra river.
Banawali is a well-known Mature Harappan site located in Fatehabad district, Haryana, India.
These terracotta models establish that the Harappans were fully aware of the plow and used bullocks to cultivate agricultural land.

Step 2: Analyzing Other Key Archaeological Sites:
Kalibangan in Rajasthan revealed actual furrow marks dating to the Early Harappan phase, confirming plowed fields.
Shortughai in Afghanistan is renowned for traces of canal irrigation networks rather than plow models.
Lothal and Nageshwar were specialized production centers for shell objects and maritime commerce.
Thus, the combination of Cholistan and Banawali represents the exact sites yielding terracotta plow models.

Final Answer:
Terracotta-models of the plow have been recovered from Cholistan and Banawali.

Quick Tip: Differentiate Harappan agricultural evidence:
1. Terracotta models of the plow: Cholistan and Banawali.
2. Ploughed field surface with two sets of furrows: Kalibangan.
3. Traces of canals: Shortughai.
4. Water reservoirs: Dholavira.

Question 4:

Who was the first professional archaeologist to bring his experience of working in Greece and Crete to the field in India?

  • (A) R.E.M. Wheeler
  • (B) John Marshall
  • (C) G.F. Dales
  • (D) Alexander Cunningham
Correct Answer: (B) John Marshall
View Solution

Concept:
The development of modern archaeology in colonial India was shaped by the Directors-General of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
Early archaeological work in India focused heavily on historical texts, epigraphy, and monumental architecture.
The introduction of Mediterranean and Classical excavation standards transformed Indian archaeology in the early twentieth century.

Step 1: Analyzing John Marshall’s Career:
Sir John Marshall was appointed Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India in 1902 by Lord Curzon.
Prior to his tenure in India, Marshall had acquired professional archaeological training and field experience working in Greece and Crete.
He was the first professionally trained archaeologist to work in India and head the ASI.
His Mediterranean training led him to emphasize daily artifacts and monumental preservation across India.
It was during Marshall’s tenure as Director-General that the discovery of the Indus Valley Civilization was formally announced to the world in 1924.

Step 2: Evaluating the Roles of Other Archaeologists:
Alexander Cunningham was the first Director-General of the ASI, but his training was in military engineering, focusing primarily on Chinese Buddhist itineraries.
Sir R.E.M. Wheeler arrived much later, in 1944, and introduced military precision and modern stratigraphic excavation techniques.
George F. Dales was an American archaeologist who led excavations at Mohenjodaro and Balakot in the mid-twentieth century.

Final Answer:
Sir John Marshall was the first professional archaeologist to bring his field experience from Greece and Crete to India.

Quick Tip: Key distinction among ASI Directors:
Alexander Cunningham: First Director-General; relied on texts and coins.
John Marshall: First professional archaeologist; brought experience from Greece and Crete; announced Harappa in 1924.
R.E.M. Wheeler: Introduced stratigraphic methods to Indian field archaeology in 1944.

Question 5:

Identify the correct statements in terms of ’Mohenjodaro: as planned urban centre’:
A. The Lower Town at Mohenjodaro provides examples of residential buildings.
B. There are no windows in the walls along the ground level.
C. What is also interesting is an apparent no concern for privacy.
D. Every house had its own bathroom paved with bricks.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only
Correct Answer: (A) A, B and D only
View Solution

Concept:
Mohenjodaro is celebrated as one of the most remarkable examples of urban settlement planning in the ancient world.
The settlement was bifurcated into two primary sectors: the raised Citadel and the extensive Lower Town.
The Lower Town consisted mainly of residential sectors arranged on a grid pattern with remarkable domestic architecture.

Step 1: Evaluating the Statements Against Architectural Evidence:
Statement A: The Lower Town at Mohenjodaro primarily comprised private residential complexes centered around courtyards. Thus, Statement A is correct.
Statement B: The exterior walls of houses facing the streets had no windows at ground level. This ensured isolation from street dust and noise. Thus, Statement B is correct.
Statement C: The layout indicates that the main entrance did not give a direct view of the interior courtyard.
Archaeologists interpret these design choices as an apparent concern for privacy, directly contradicting statement C, which claims there was “no concern for privacy”. Thus, Statement C is false.
Statement D: Almost every house was equipped with its own dedicated bathing room paved with baked bricks, connected to the main street drainage system. Thus, Statement D is correct.

Step 2: Synthesizing the Valid Statements:
Statements A, B, and D are historically accurate descriptions of Mohenjodaro’s domestic architecture.
Statement C is incorrect because the architectural design deliberately safeguarded domestic privacy.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct combination of statements is A, B and D only.

Quick Tip: Notice negative phrasing in options:
Harappan residential architecture showed extreme concern for privacy (no ground-level windows, indirect entrance to courtyards).
Watch out for false negative descriptors like “apparent no concern”.

Question 6:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II:
6
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (B) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
  • (C) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
Correct Answer: (C) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
View Solution

Concept:
This question tests core terminology, key personalities, artifact provenance, and interdisciplinary fields in ancient Indian history and Harappan studies.
Matching each item requires linking historical terms and archaeological concepts to their respective designations.

Step 1: Analyzing and Matching Each Item:
Item A: The study of ancient population genetics and ancient DNA (aDNA) to understand human evolutionary lineages and migration patterns is termed Archaeogenetics. Therefore, A pairs with IV.
Item B: Alexander Cunningham was appointed the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) in 1871. Therefore, B pairs with III.
Item C: The famous steatite stone sculpture depicting a bearded figure draped in an embroidered shawl, conventionally designated as the ’Priest-king’, was excavated at Mohenjodaro. Therefore, C pairs with I.
Item D: Individuals in traditional and ancient societies who claim to possess healing powers, communicate with spirits, and wield magical capabilities are identified as Shamans. Therefore, D pairs with II.

Step 2: Compiling the Final Sequence:
Matching A with IV, B with III, C with I, and D with II produces the sequence: A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II.

Final Answer:
Thus, the correct option is (C) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II.

Quick Tip: Elimination technique for matching:
Identify definitive anchors: Cunningham was the 1st DG of ASI (\(B \rightarrow \text{III}\)) and Priest-King is from Mohenjodaro (\(C \rightarrow \text{I}\)).
Looking at the options, only Option (C) matches both correctly.

Question 7:

Which of the following evidence shows that the Harappans believed in the afterlife?

  • (A) Metal Figurines and Vessels
  • (B) Great Bath and Docks
  • (C) Pottery and Ornaments
  • (D) Massive Pyramids
Correct Answer: (C) Pottery and Ornaments
View Solution

Concept:
Mortuary practices and burial customs in ancient civilizations provide significant insights into religious beliefs and cosmological worldviews.
The placement of grave goods alongside the deceased indicates whether a society conceived of an afterlife in which worldly goods remained necessary.

Step 1: Examining Harappan Burial Practices:
At Harappan sites, the dead were generally interred in oval or rectangular burial pits.
In many of these graves, excavators have unearthed substantial assemblages of grave offerings.
These offerings typically consisted of utilitarian and decorated pottery jars, bowls, and personal adornments like shell bangles, beads, and copper mirrors.
Both male and female burials contained beads, necklaces, and ear ornaments.
Archaeologists conclude that the provision of pottery and ornaments reflects a prevailing belief that these possessions would serve the departed soul in the afterlife.

Step 2: Evaluating Other Options:
Option (A) denotes general craft goods that were used in daily life or trade rather than specifically indicative of mortuary beliefs.
Option (B) relates to civic and commercial architecture (ritual ablution at Mohenjodaro and naval dockyard at Lothal).
Option (D) refers to Egyptian civilization; Harappans did not build massive royal pyramids or bury massive hoards of precious metal with their rulers.

Final Answer:
The presence of pottery and ornaments in burials demonstrates that Harappans believed in the afterlife.

Quick Tip: Unlike contemporary Egypt, where enormous wealth was buried in monumental pyramids, Harappan burials were relatively modest.
Grave goods in the Indus Valley were mainly pottery, beads, and mirrors, indicating belief in an afterlife without hoarding monumental wealth in graves.

Question 8:

Arrange the following early-states from north to south:
A. Ashmaka
B. Matsya
C. Gandhara
D. Avanti
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, B, D, C
  • (C) B, A, C, D
  • (D) C, B, D, A
Correct Answer: (D) C, B, D, A
View Solution

Concept:
The sixth century BCE witnessed the emergence of sixteen major territorial states known as the Mahajanapadas across the Indian subcontinent.
These states stretched from the northwestern frontier across the Indo-Gangetic plains southward to the Deccan plateau.
Geographical alignment of these early states requires mapping their historical capitals and territorial domains from north to south.

Step 1: Identifying the Geographic Locations of the Given States:
1. Gandhara (C): Located in the extreme northwest of the subcontinent, covering modern Peshawar, Rawalpindi, and Taxila (Khyber Pakhtunkhwa and northern Punjab). This is the northernmost state among the four.
2. Matsya (B): Located in the region of modern Rajasthan, centering around modern Jaipur and Alwar, with its capital at Viratnagar.
3. Avanti (D): Located in central India, covering the Malwa plateau region in modern Madhya Pradesh, divided into northern and southern sectors with capitals at Ujjain and Mahishmati.
4. Ashmaka / Assaka (A): Located in peninsular India on the banks of the river Godavari, around modern Maharashtra and Telangana, with its capital at Potana or Bodhan. It is the southernmost Mahajanapada.

Step 2: Arranging from North to South:
Moving from the far northwest downwards to peninsular India gives:
Gandhara (C) \(\rightarrow\) Matsya (B) \(\rightarrow\) Avanti (D) \(\rightarrow\) Ashmaka (A).
This corresponds precisely to the alphabetical sequence C, B, D, A.

Final Answer:
The correct north-to-south arrangement of the early states is C, B, D, A.

Quick Tip: Map memory anchor:
Assaka / Ashmaka is uniquely celebrated as the ONLY Mahajanapada situated south of the Vindhyas on the Godavari river.
Hence, Ashmaka (A) must appear last in a North-to-South sequence! This immediately identifies option (D).

Question 9:

Which rulers issued the largest hoards of gold coins in the c.first-century CE?

  • (A) Mauryas
  • (B) Guptas
  • (C) Shakas
  • (D) Kushanas
Correct Answer: (D) Kushanas
View Solution

Concept:
Numismatics provides critical insights into the economic history, political expansion, trade networks, and royal ideology of ancient empires.
The introduction and proliferation of gold currency in ancient India was intrinsically linked to overland and maritime trade networks connecting India with Central Asia and the Roman Empire.

Step 1: Analyzing the Introduction of Gold Coinage:
The Indo-Greeks were the first to issue coins bearing the names and portraits of rulers.
However, the Kushana rulers were the first dynasty to issue the largest hoards of gold coins in the first century CE (under kings like Vima Kadphises and Kanishka).
These gold coins were remarkable for their high metallurgical purity and standardized weight.
They were virtually identical in weight to the coins issued by contemporary Roman emperors and Parthian rulers of Iran.
Kushana gold coins have been discovered in large hoards across north India, Central Asia, and Pakistan, indicating significant commercial transactions and long-distance trade.

Step 2: Evaluating the Other Dynasties:
The Mauryas (4th–2nd century BCE) predominantly issued punch-marked silver and copper coins, not standardized gold coins.
The Guptas (4th–6th century CE) issued spectacular gold coins celebrated for artistic iconography (dinars), but they flourished starting in the fourth century CE, not the first century CE.
The Shakas (Western Kshatrapas) were noted for their dated silver coinage rather than extensive gold hoards.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the Kushanas issued the largest hoards of gold coins in the c. first-century CE.

Quick Tip: Timeline check:
First to issue coins with portraits: Indo-Greeks.
First to issue gold coins in substantial hoards (c. 1st century CE): Kushanas.
Most spectacular artistic gold coins (c. 4th–6th century CE): Guptas.

Question 10:

Identify the scripts which were deciphered by James Prinsep in 1830s?

  • (A) Pali and Greek
  • (B) Prakrit and Gurumukhi
  • (C) Brahmi and Kharosthi
  • (D) Roman and Sanskrit
Correct Answer: (C) Brahmi and Kharosthi
View Solution

Concept:
Epigraphy, the study of inscriptions, witnessed a watershed moment in early nineteenth-century Indian historiography.
A major challenge facing colonial historians was deciphering the early scripts carved on pillars, rocks, and cave walls across the subcontinent.
James Prinsep, an officer in the mint of the English East India Company and founding editor of the Journal of the Asiatic Society of Bengal, resolved this challenge.

Step 1: Historical Context of Prinsep’s Breakthrough:
In 1837–1838, James Prinsep successfully deciphered the ancient scripts known as Brahmi and Kharosthi.
Brahmi was the primary script used in the vast majority of Ashokan edicts across central, eastern, and southern India, and serves as the ancestral script for most modern Indian scripts.
Kharosthi was an ancient script written from right to left, prevalent in the northwestern frontier (Gandhara region).
Prinsep deciphered Kharosthi by cross-referencing bilingual coins issued by Indo-Greek kings that featured royal names inscribed in both Greek and Kharosthi.

Step 2: Significance of the Decipherment:
The decipherment of Brahmi and Kharosthi unlocked early Indian epigraphy.
It allowed historians to directly read the imperial edicts of Emperor Ashoka, where he was referred to as Devanampiya (beloved of the gods) and Piyadassi (pleasant to behold).
This discovery shifted the reconstruction of early political history from relying on later Puranic legends to contemporary documentary records.

Final Answer:
James Prinsep deciphered the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts in the 1830s.

Quick Tip: Do not confuse language with script:
Prakrit, Pali, and Sanskrit are languages.
Brahmi and Kharosthi are writing scripts. Prinsep deciphered the scripts used to write ancient Prakrit and Greek-influenced inscriptions.

Question 11:

From c.  , the most visible trend was the emergence of early states, empires and kingdoms.

  • (A) Sixth-Century BCE
  • (B) Seventh-Century CE
  • (C) Fifth-Century BP
  • (D) Fourth-Century BCE
Correct Answer: (A) Sixth-Century BCE
View Solution

Concept:
Early Indian historiography identifies the mid-first millennium BCE as a profound transitional epoch, often designated as the ’Second Urbanization’.
This era witnessed the transition from tribal chieftainships (janas) to organized territorial kingdoms and oligarchic states (janapadas and mahajanapadas).

Step 1: Identifying the Major Turning Point:
The sixth century BCE (c. 600 BCE onwards) is widely regarded by historians as a major turning point in early Indian history.
This period is associated with several transformative socio-economic and political developments:
1. The widespread adoption of iron technology, facilitating forest clearance and intensive plough agriculture in the fertile Ganga basin.
2. The growth of prosperous urban centers and trading marts along riverine and overland routes.
3. The introduction of standardized punch-marked coinage facilitating extensive market transactions.
4. The rise of 16 Mahajanapadas, including Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa, and the Vajji confederacy, which culminated in the Mauryan Empire.
5. Intense intellectual churning marked by the rise of heterodox traditions such as Buddhism and Jainism.

Step 2: Evaluating the Options:
The emergence of early states and territorial polities began decisively from the Sixth-Century BCE.
Seventh-Century CE marks the post-Gupta/Harsha early medieval era.
Fourth-Century BCE marks the height of the Mauryan Empire, which emerged after the initial wave of state formation had already taken place.

Final Answer:
From c. Sixth-Century BCE, the emergence of early states, empires, and kingdoms became the most visible historical trend.

Quick Tip: Sixth century BCE is the benchmark date in Indian history for:
- Emergence of the 16 Mahajanapadas
- Second Urbanization in the Ganga Valley
- Rise of Buddhism and Jainism
- Introduction of punch-marked metallic coinage

Question 12:

Arrange the following textual traditions in chronological order:
A. The works on astronomy and mathematics by Aryabhata and Varahamihira
B. Early Buddhist texts including the Tripitaka
C. Ashtadhyayi of Panini, a work on Sanskrit grammar
D. Natyashastra of Bharata, a work on dramaturgy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, B, D, C
  • (C) B, D, C, A
  • (D) C, B, D, A
Correct Answer: (D) C, B, D, A
View Solution

Concept:
Ancient Indian literary history comprises a rich tradition of grammatical, religious, dramatic, and scientific treatises composed over several centuries.
Arranging these texts chronologically requires identifying the accepted historical horizons established in standard historical timelines.

Step 1: Establishing the Chronology of the Given Texts:
1. Ashtadhyayi of Panini (C): Panini composed his foundational Sanskrit grammatical treatise, the Ashtadhyayi, around c. 500 BCE (5th century BCE).
2. Early Buddhist texts including the Tripitaka (B): The Buddhist canonical literature (Vinaya, Sutta, and Abhidhamma Pitaka) was codified orally following the Buddha’s Parinirvana and transcribed between c. 500 BCE and 400 BCE onwards.
3. Natyashastra of Bharata (D): The foundational text on dramaturgy, performance, aesthetics, and dance is attributed to Bharata Muni and dated between c. 100 BCE and 100 CE.
4. The works on astronomy and mathematics by Aryabhata and Varahamihira (A): Aryabhata composed the Aryabhatiya in c. 499 CE (late 5th/early 6th century CE), and Varahamihira lived in the 6th century CE (c. 505–587 CE).

Step 2: Determining the Correct Sequence:
Placing these works from earliest to latest yields:
Panini’s Ashtadhyayi (c. 500 BCE) [C] \(\rightarrow\) Early Buddhist texts including Tripitaka (c. 500–400 BCE) [B] \(\rightarrow\) Bharata’s Natyashastra (c. 100 BCE–100 CE) [D] \(\rightarrow\) Scientific treatises of Aryabhata and Varahamihira (c. 5th–6th century CE) [A].
Thus, the correct chronological sequence is C, B, D, A.

Final Answer:
The correct chronological order of the textual traditions is C, B, D, A.

Quick Tip: Chronological milestones from NCERT Timeline:
c. 500 BCE: Panini’s Sanskrit grammar
c. 500–400 BCE: Codification of Buddhist Tripitaka
c. 100 BCE–100 CE: Bharata’s Natyashastra
c. 5th–6th century CE: Aryabhata and Varahamihira’s astronomy

Question 13:

Who provided money for the preservation of the ancient site of ’Sanchi’?

  • (A) Sultan Jehan Begum
  • (B) Sultana Jahanara Begum
  • (C) Sultan Shahnur Begum
  • (D) Sultan Rokeya Begum
Correct Answer: (A) Sultan Jehan Begum
View Solution

Concept:
The Great Stupa at Sanchi in Madhya Pradesh is one of the best-preserved Buddhist monuments in India.
Its survival, unlike the stupa at Amaravati which was stripped of its stone sculptures by colonial collectors, is directly credited to the enlightened patronage of the rulers of the princely state of Bhopal.

Step 1: Role of the Begums of Bhopal:
In the nineteenth century, European powers, including the French and British, sought permission to take the exquisitely carved eastern gateway of Sanchi to museums in Paris and London.
The rulers of Bhopal, Shahjehan Begum and her successor Sultan Jehan Begum, satisfied the Europeans by commissioning plaster casts while safeguarding the original stone gateways on-site.
Sultan Jehan Begum provided substantial financial grants for the preservation and restoration of the ancient stupa complex.
She financed the construction of a museum on the site and funded the guesthouse where Sir John Marshall stayed while documenting and excavating the complex.
She also funded the publication of John Marshall and Alfred Foucher’s multi-volume work on Sanchi.

Step 2: Evaluating the Options:
Option (A) accurately identifies Sultan Jehan Begum, the prominent Begum of Bhopal who preserved Sanchi.
Option (B) refers to Jahanara Begum, the Mughal princess and daughter of Shah Jahan.
Option (D) refers to Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain, a social reformer and writer in Bengal.

Final Answer:
Sultan Jehan Begum provided money for the preservation of the ancient site of Sanchi.

Quick Tip: Remember the two key Begums of Bhopal associated with Sanchi:
- Shahjehan Begum: Deflected European collectors by offering plaster-cast replicas of the eastern gateway.
- Sultan Jehan Begum: Funded the site museum, guesthouse, and John Marshall’s landmark research volumes.

Question 14:

According to the  , the paternal estate was to be divided equally amongst sons after the death of the parents, with a special share for the eldest.

  • (A) Manusmriti
  • (B) Upanishads
  • (C) Mahabharata
  • (D) Puranas
Correct Answer: (A) Manusmriti
View Solution

Concept:
Ancient Indian legal and normative literature, categorized as the Dharmashastras and Dharmasutras, established codes of social conduct, inheritance laws, and varna obligations.
Compiled in Sanskrit, these treatises reflected the patriarchal ideals promoted by the orthodox Brahmanical tradition.

Step 1: Inheritance Norms in the Manusmriti:
The Manusmriti, compiled between c. 2nd century BCE and 2nd century CE, represents the most influential Brahmanical legal text.
Regarding property and gender relations, the text details the principles of patrilineal inheritance.
According to the Manusmriti, after the death of the parents, the paternal estate was to be divided equally among all surviving sons.
Crucially, a special and larger share was reserved specifically for the eldest son to reflect his primary ceremonial and familial responsibilities.
Women were excluded from claiming any share of the ancestral paternal estate; they were only entitled to retain stridhana (bridal gifts and jewelry received at marriage).

Step 2: Evaluating Other Literary Genres:
The Upanishads are philosophical and metaphysical discourses exploring Brahman, Atman, and the cosmos, rather than legal inheritance codes.
The Mahabharata is an epic narrative that illustrates dynastic conflicts over patrilineal succession, but it is not a formal legal code.
The Puranas are mythological and cosmological narratives detailing genealogies, rituals, and sectarian devotions.

Final Answer:
According to the Manusmriti, the paternal estate was to be divided equally among sons with a special share for the eldest.

Quick Tip: Whenever a question asks about normative rules regarding patriliny, marriage types (eight forms), or inheritance of paternal property, the source cited is almost invariably the Manusmriti.

Question 15:

Identify the incorrect match in terms of thinkers and their associative countries:

  • (A) Zarathustra - Iran
  • (B) Kong Zi - China
  • (C) Socrates - Germany
  • (D) Mahavira - India
Correct Answer: (C) Socrates - Germany
View Solution

Concept:
The mid-first millennium BCE is recognized globally by historians as the ’Axial Age’.
During this era, thinkers in diverse civilizations re-examined the relationship between human existence, ethics, and the cosmic order.

Step 1: Reviewing the World Thinkers of the Mid-First Millennium BCE:
1. Zarathustra (Zoroaster): Lived in ancient Iran (Persia) and founded Zoroastrianism, emphasizing the cosmic duality between truth/light and falsehood/darkness. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
2. Kong Zi (Confucius): Lived in ancient China and developed Confucianism, focusing on civic ethics, filial piety, and harmonious governance. Hence, pair 2 is correct.
3. Socrates, along with Plato and Aristotle: Famous philosophers of ancient Greece who lived and taught in the city-state of Athens. Socrates was Greek, not German. Hence, pair 3 is incorrect.
4. Mahavira (and Gautama Buddha): Lived in ancient India (Ganga valley), preaching non-violence, ethical living, and liberation from karma. Hence, pair 4 is correct.

Step 2: Identifying the False Pairing:
Associating Socrates with Germany is factually incorrect; he belongs to ancient Classical Greece.

Final Answer:
The incorrect match is Socrates - Germany.

Quick Tip: Thinkers of the Mid-First Millennium BCE:
- Zarathustra \(\rightarrow\) Iran
- Kong Zi (Confucius) \(\rightarrow\) China
- Socrates, Plato, Aristotle \(\rightarrow\) Greece
- Mahavira, Buddha \(\rightarrow\) India

Question 16:

’Hagiography’ is a   of a saint or a religious leader.

  • (A) Biography
  • (B) Autobiography
  • (C) Excerpt
  • (D) Poem
Correct Answer: (A) Biography
View Solution

Concept:
Historical and religious texts encompass diverse literary genres, each characterized by specific narrative styles, audiences, and devotional purposes.
In the study of Bhakti and Sufi traditions, texts written by disciples about their spiritual masters provide invaluable historical data.

Step 1: Defining Hagiography:
A hagiography is formally defined as a biography of a saint, mystic, or religious leader.
The term derives from the Greek words hagios (meaning holy or sacred) and graphia (meaning writing).
Hagiographies often recount miracles, exceptional acts of piety, ascetic practices, and the spiritual aura of religious masters.
While they may not always represent strictly verifiable factual history, hagiographies are invaluable to historians because they reveal how a saint was perceived, revered, and remembered by devotees over successive generations.

Step 2: Evaluating the Options:
Option (A): Biography is the precise literary format of a hagiography, as it is written by a devotee or observer about the life of a holy person.
Option (B): An autobiography is an account of a person’s life written by that person themselves, whereas hagiographies are composed by followers.
Option (C): An excerpt refers to a short extract from a text, not a specific biographical genre.
Option (D): A poem is a form of verse, whereas hagiographies can be composed in either prose or poetic verse.

Final Answer:
A ’hagiography’ is a biography of a saint or religious leader.

Quick Tip: Terminology check:
Biography of a holy figure / saint = Hagiography.
Historians use hagiographies not for literal chronological facts, but to reconstruct community beliefs, devotional culture, and saint veneration.

Question 17:

Jaina monks and nuns took five vows. Identify the correct statements from below:
A. Abstain from killing
B. Abstain from stealing and lying
C. Renounce monastic existence and embrace the world
D. Abstain from possessing property
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and C only
  • (B) A, B and D only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only
Correct Answer: (B) A, B and D only
View Solution

Concept:
Jainism places profound emphasis on asceticism, moral discipline, and renunciation of worldly ties to escape the cycle of karma.
To achieve liberation, Jaina monks and nuns are mandated to strictly observe the five great vows (Pancha Mahavratas).

Step 1: Identifying the Five Great Vows of Jainism:
The five core vows prescribed for Jaina ascetics are:
1. Ahimsa: Abstaining from killing or causing harm to any living being.
2. Satya: Abstaining from telling lies (speaking the truth).
3. Asteya: Abstaining from stealing.
4. Brahmacharya: Practicing strict celibacy.
5. Aparigraha: Abstaining from possessing any form of worldly property.

Step 2: Evaluating the Given Statements:
Statement A corresponds to Ahimsa (abstain from killing) and is correct.
Statement B combines Asteya and Satya (abstain from stealing and lying) and is correct.
Statement C claims monks “renounce monastic existence and embrace the world”, which is the exact opposite of Jain ascetic ideals. Monks renounce worldly life to embrace monasticism. Hence, Statement C is false.
Statement D corresponds to Aparigraha (abstain from possessing property) and is correct.

Final Answer:
The correct statements are A, B, and D only.

Quick Tip: The 5 Great Vows (Pancha Mahavratas) of Jainism:
1. Non-injury (Ahimsa)
2. Truthfulness (Satya)
3. Non-stealing (Asteya)
4. Celibacy (Brahmacharya)
5. Non-possession (Aparigraha)
Statement C is an absurd opposite of ascetic practice.

Question 18:

According to which tradition, “Be lamps unto yourselves as all of you must work out your own liberation”?

  • (A) Buddhist
  • (B) Jainism
  • (C) Ajivikas
  • (D) Lokayatas
Correct Answer: (A) Buddhist
View Solution

Concept:
Early heterodox philosophical traditions in India rejected the supreme authority of the Vedas, sacrificial efficacy, and hereditary Brahmanical hierarchy.
Buddhism emphasized personal effort, self-reliance, ethical living, and psychological introspection as the path to end human suffering (dukkha).

Step 1: Tracing the Origin of the Quote:
The famous aphorism, “Be lamps unto yourselves as all of you must work out your own liberation” (Atta dipa bhava), constitutes the parting instruction of Gautama Buddha.
According to the Mahaparinibbana Sutta of the Buddhist Sutta Pitaka, as the Buddha approached his final demise at Kushinagar, his beloved disciple Ananda questioned who would guide the Sangha after his passing.
The Buddha replied that monks must not look to an external savior or leader, but must be their own refuge and light by diligently treading the Dhamma.

Step 2: Evaluating the Philosophical Fit:
Buddhism stresses that individual actions (kamma) determine destiny and that salvation cannot be granted by external grace, ritual sacrifices, or fatalistic forces.
Jainism, while emphasizing self-effort, centers on severe penance, extreme asceticism, and monastic vows.
Ajivikas, founded by Makkhali Gosala, were strict determinists who believed in Niyati (fate), rejecting personal agency altogether.
Lokayatas (Charvakas) were thorough materialists who rejected the concept of rebirth and transcendental liberation.

Final Answer:
The statement belongs to the Buddhist tradition.

Quick Tip: Mnemonic: “Atta deepo bhava” (Be a light unto yourself) is Gautama Buddha’s celebrated dying message to his disciples in the Mahaparinibbana Sutta.

Question 19:

Who appointed Ibn Battuta the qazi or judge of Delhi?

  • (A) Balban
  • (B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
  • (C) Mahmud of Ghazni
  • (D) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
Correct Answer: (D) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
View Solution

Concept:
Medieval travelogues are among the richest historical sources for reconstructing the institutional, social, and political landscapes of the Delhi Sultanate.
The fourteenth-century Moroccan traveler Ibn Battuta visited India during the reign of the Tughlaq dynasty and documented his experiences extensively in his book Rihla.

Step 1: Ibn Battuta’s Arrival in Delhi:
Ibn Battuta reached the borders of India in 1333 via the overland route through Central Asia and Afghanistan.
Attracted by the reputation of Sultan Muhammad bin Tughlaq as a generous patron of Islamic scholars and jurists, Ibn Battuta set out for Delhi.
The Sultan was impressed by Ibn Battuta’s scholarly credentials in Islamic jurisprudence (sharia).
Consequently, Muhammad bin Tughlaq appointed Ibn Battuta to the prestigious administrative and judicial post of the qazi (judge) of Delhi.

Step 2: Subsequent Developments in Delhi:
Ibn Battuta served as the qazi of Delhi for nearly eight years.
Although he later fell out of favor due to court intrigues and was briefly imprisoned, the Sultan eventually restored his position.
In 1342, the Sultan appointed Ibn Battuta as his official imperial envoy to China to negotiate with the Mongol Yuan dynasty emperor.

Final Answer:
Muhammad bin Tughlaq appointed Ibn Battuta the qazi of Delhi.

Quick Tip: Key Traveler Facts:
- Ibn Battuta came from Tangier, Morocco.
- Wrote Rihla in Arabic.
- Reigned over by Sultan Muhammad bin Tughlaq, who made him qazi of Delhi and later envoy to China.

Question 20:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II:
20
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
  • (B) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
  • (C) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
  • (D) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
Correct Answer: (A) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
View Solution

Concept:
Between the thirteenth and seventeenth centuries, a diverse array of foreign merchants, diplomats, and adventurers visited India.
Reconstructing their historical itineraries requires matching each foreign traveler to their respective country of origin.

Step 1: Matching Each Foreign Traveler with Origin Country:
Item A: Marco Polo was a renowned merchant traveler from the Republic of Venice in modern Italy, who visited southern India (the Pandya kingdom) in the late thirteenth century. Thus, A matches with II.
Item B: Duarte Barbosa was a Portuguese official and writer who traveled extensively in South India and the Vijayanagara Empire during the early sixteenth century. Thus, B matches with I.
Item C: Peter Mundy was an English merchant and traveler employed by the English East India Company who journeyed across northern India during the reign of Shah Jahan in the seventeenth century. Thus, C matches with IV.
Item D: Afanasii Nikitich Nikitin was a Russian merchant from Tver who visited the Bahmani Sultanate and northern Deccan in the fifteenth century, leaving an account titled The Journey Beyond Three Seas. Thus, D matches with III.

Step 2: Forming the Matching Pair:
Aligning the matches gives:
A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III.
This corresponds directly to Option (A).

Final Answer:
The correct matching sequence is A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III.

Quick Tip: Traveller Origins:
- Marco Polo: Venice (Italy)
- Duarte Barbosa: Portugal
- Peter Mundy: England
- Afanasii Nikitin: Russia
- François Bernier: France

Question 21:

Sculpture of a Buddhist goddess ’Marichi’ was found in  .

  • (A) Bihar
  • (B) United Provinces
  • (C) Maharashtra
  • (D) Bengal
Correct Answer: (A) Bihar
View Solution

Concept:
During the early medieval era (c. eighth to twelfth centuries CE), Vajrayana (Tantric) Buddhism developed a complex pantheon of deities, including male Bodhisattvas and female Taras and goddesses.
Sculptural remains from eastern India reflect the synthesis of Buddhist iconography with indigenous aesthetic traditions.

Step 1: Iconographic Context of Marichi:
Marichi is a prominent Vajrayana Buddhist goddess associated with light, dawn, and the rays of the rising sun.
She is traditionally depicted as a radiant multilimbed deity, frequently riding a chariot drawn by seven pigs or boars.
She carries solar attributes, weapons, and emblems that dispel obstacles and ignorance.

Step 2: Archaeological Provenance:
Under the patronage of the Pala dynasty in eastern India, major monastic universities like Nalanda, Vikramashila, and Odantapuri became centers of stone and bronze sculpture.
A renowned, beautifully carved stone sculpture of the Buddhist goddess Marichi, dating to the ninth-tenth century CE, was discovered in Bihar.
This sculpture illustrates the complex syncretism and high artistic sophistication of medieval Buddhist sculpture in Bihar.

Final Answer:
The sculpture of the Buddhist goddess ’Marichi’ was found in Bihar.

Quick Tip: Remember key NCERT illustrations:
The stone sculpture of the goddess Marichi illustrated in the visual archives of NCERT Themes in Indian History is specifically cataloged from Bihar (c. 10th century CE).

Question 22:

According to the historians of religion, ’Saguna bhakti’ included which type of traditions?

  • (A) Worship of an abstract form of god
  • (B) Worship of non-specific deities
  • (C) Worship of gods often conceptualised in anthropomorphic forms
  • (D) No worship of any form of god
Correct Answer: (C) Worship of gods often conceptualised in anthropomorphic forms
View Solution

Concept:
Historians of medieval Indian religious movements classify the Bhakti tradition into two broad ideological and devotional streams: Saguna and Nirguna.
These two categories differentiate the philosophical understanding of the Divine and the corresponding forms of worship.

Step 1: Understanding Saguna vs. Nirguna Bhakti:
Saguna literally means “with attributes” or “with qualities”.
In Saguna bhakti traditions, the Divine is perceived as having definite, personal, visible attributes and forms.
Devotees worship specific manifestations of God, primarily conceptualized in anthropomorphic (human-like) forms.
These include incarnations (avataras) of Vishnu (such as Rama and Krishna), manifestations of Shiva, and diverse forms of the Goddess (Devi).
Such worship is expressed through temple architecture, anthropomorphic idols, iconographic representations, and devotional hymns praising the divine form.

Step 2: Comparing with Nirguna Bhakti:
Conversely, Nirguna bhakti (advocated by saint-poets like Kabir and Guru Nanak) means worship of God “without attributes”.
Nirguna traditions reject image worship, anthropomorphic representations, and institutionalized caste hierarchies, conceiving the Supreme Reality as formless, abstract, and pervasive.

Final Answer:
Saguna bhakti included traditions focused on the worship of gods often conceptualized in anthropomorphic forms.

Quick Tip: Classification of Bhakti:
- Saguna: With attributes/form; idol worship; anthropomorphic deities (e.g., Tulsidas, Surdas, Mirabai, Alvars, Nayanars).
- Nirguna: Without attributes/form; abstract, formless Divine; anti-idolatry (e.g., Kabir, Guru Nanak).

Question 23:

Which woman ’Alvar’ saw herself as the beloved of Vishnu?

  • (A) Appar
  • (B) Andal
  • (C) Karaikkal Ammaiyar
  • (D) Nalayira Andala
Correct Answer: (B) Andal
View Solution

Concept:
The Bhakti movement in early medieval South India was spearheaded by two prominent groups of poet-saints:
1. The Alvars: Twelve devotional poets immersed in devotion to Lord Vishnu.
2. The Nayanars: Sixty-three saints devoted to Lord Shiva.
A remarkable feature of these southern bhakti movements was the prominent inclusion of women saint-poets who rejected patriarchal social conventions.

Step 1: Profile of Andal:
Andal was the only female saint among the twelve Alvars.
She envisioned herself as the consort and beloved bride of Lord Vishnu (specifically his manifestation as Ranganatha).
Her devotional verses are celebrated for expressing bridal mysticism, capturing passionate love, longing, and eternal spiritual union with the Lord.
Her major compositions, including the Thiruppavai and Nachiayar Thirumozhi, form a core part of the Sri Vaishnava canon and are widely sung in temples across South India.

Step 2: Evaluating the Other Personalities:
Appar was an influential male Nayanar (Shaivite saint-poet) whose hymns were compiled in the Tevaram.
Karaikkal Ammaiyar was a renowned female devotee of Lord Shiva (a Nayanar), who embraced severe asceticism and requested the form of a demoness (peyi) to worship Shiva.
Option (D) is a fictitious combination blending the canon Nalayira Divya Prabandham with Andal’s name.

Final Answer:
The woman Alvar who saw herself as the beloved of Vishnu was Andal.

Quick Tip: Pairing Women Bhakti Saints of South India:
- Andal: Only female Alvar (Vaishnavite); saw herself as Vishnu’s beloved.
- Karaikkal Ammaiyar: Female Nayanar (Shaivite); adopted extreme asceticism to revere Shiva.

Question 24:

Arrange the following major religious teachers in chronological order:
A. Sambandar in Tamil Nadu
B. Basavanna in Karnataka
C. Lal Shahbaz Qalandar in Sind
D. Sri Chaitanya in Bengal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, B, D, C
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A
Correct Answer: (A) A, B, C, D
View Solution

Concept:
The medieval Bhakti and Sufi movements unfolded over several centuries across distinct geographic and linguistic regions of the subcontinent.
Tracing the chronological development of these movements requires knowing the specific centuries during which prominent saints and reformers lived.

Step 1: Establishing the Historical Epoch for Each Teacher:
1. Sambandar (A): One of the foremost of the 63 Nayanar saints in Tamil Nadu, who spearheaded the Shaivite bhakti revival during the c. 7th century CE.
2. Basavanna (B): A 12th-century philosopher, statesman, and founder of the Virashaiva (Lingayat) movement in Karnataka (flourished c. 1106–1167 CE during the Kalachuri reign).
3. Lal Shahbaz Qalandar (C): A renowned wandering Sufi mystic and dervish belonging to the Qalandariyya order who settled in Sehwan Sharif, Sind, during the c. 13th century CE (c. 1177–1274 CE).
4. Sri Chaitanya Mahaprabhu (D): The celebrated Vaishnava mystic and saint of Bengal who popularized Gaudiya Vaishnavism and Sankirtana during the late 15th and early 16th century CE (1486–1534 CE).

Step 2: Ordering the Teachers Chronologically:
Comparing their chronological eras:
Sambandar (7th century CE) [A] \(\rightarrow\) Basavanna (12th century CE) [B] \(\rightarrow\) Lal Shahbaz Qalandar (13th century CE) [C] \(\rightarrow\) Sri Chaitanya (15th/16th century CE) [D].
This sequence aligns directly with A, B, C, D.

Final Answer:
The correct chronological order of the religious teachers is A, B, C, D.

Quick Tip: Chronology of Bhakti and Sufi Saints:
- 7th Century CE: Early Nayanars and Alvars (Sambandar, Appar)
- 12th Century CE: Virashaiva movement (Basavanna)
- 13th Century CE: Early Sufi orders in Sind/Punjab (Lal Shahbaz Qalandar)
- Late 15th–16th Century CE: Northern Bhakti resurgence (Chaitanya, Kabir, Nanak, Mirabai)

Question 25:

The Vijayanagara Empire, was described by the contemporaries as the  

  • (A) Tamilkam Samrajyamu
  • (B) Karnataka Samrajyamu
  • (C) Vijayanagara Samrajyamu
  • (D) Kerala Samrajyamu
Correct Answer: (B) Karnataka Samrajyamu
View Solution

Concept:
The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 by the brothers Harihara and Bukka in the Krishna-Tungabhadra doab.
While modern historians universally designate the polity as the ’Vijayanagara Empire’ after its imperial capital, contemporary inscriptional and literary sources used an indigenous regional title.

Step 1: Examining Contemporary Terminology:
Contemporary epigraphic records, royal grants, and literary texts in Telugu, Kannada, and Sanskrit referred to the state as the Karnataka Samrajyamu (the Empire of Karnataka).
This designation underscored the core cultural, linguistic, and territorial heartland in which the political power of the Sangama dynasty initially emerged.
Conversely, contemporary foreign travelers and European chroniclers commonly referred to the polity simply by the name of its grand capital city, Vijayanagara (the ’City of Victory’), or as the kingdom of Narsinga.

Step 2: Evaluating the Other Options:
Option (A) Tamilkam refers to the ancient cultural realm of the Tamil country during the Sangam era.
Option (C) Vijayanagara Samrajyamu is the terminology applied predominantly by modern twentieth-century historians.
Option (D) Kerala Samrajyamu refers to the southwestern littoral Chera/Malayalam territory.

Final Answer:
Contemporaries described the Vijayanagara Empire as the Karnataka Samrajyamu.

Quick Tip: Terminological distinction:
- Historians call it: The Vijayanagara Empire.
- Contemporaries in inscriptions called it: Karnataka Samrajyamu.
- Vijayanagara rulers also held titles like Hindu Raya Suratrana (Sultan among Hindu kings).

Question 26:

Which Vijayanagara ruler took pride in the title, “establisher of the Yavana kingdom”?

  • (A) Harihara Raya
  • (B) Rama Raya
  • (C) Krishnadeva Raya
  • (D) Bukka Raya
Correct Answer: (D) Bukka Raya
View Solution

Concept:
The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 by Harihara and Bukka of the Sangama dynasty.
The rulers of Vijayanagara adopted several grand titles to emphasise their military achievements, political authority, and role as protectors of the Hindu political order.
The title “establisher of the Yavana kingdom” is particularly associated with Bukka Raya I.

Step 1: Identifying Bukka Raya I:
Bukka Raya I was one of the founding rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire and succeeded Harihara I.
He ruled during the fourteenth century and played an important role in consolidating the territories of the emerging empire.
His reign was marked by military campaigns and expansion into neighbouring regions.

Step 2: Understanding the Title:
The term “Yavana” was commonly used in medieval Indian political and literary traditions to refer to Muslim rulers or peoples associated with the Islamic world.
Bukka Raya’s political and military activities brought him into conflict and interaction with several Muslim powers of the Deccan.
The title “establisher of the Yavana kingdom” reflected his claimed political authority and military success in relation to these powers.

Step 3: Evaluating the Other Options:
Harihara Raya was the first ruler of the Sangama dynasty but is not associated with this particular title.
Rama Raya belonged to a much later period and became the dominant political figure of Vijayanagara during the sixteenth century.
Krishnadeva Raya was the most famous ruler of the Tuluva dynasty and is remembered for his military achievements, administration, and patronage of literature.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Bukka Raya.

Quick Tip: Remember that Harihara I and Bukka I were the founding Sangama rulers of Vijayanagara.
Bukka Raya I is specifically associated with the title “establisher of the Yavana kingdom”.
For Vijayanagara questions, carefully distinguish the Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva, and Aravidu dynasties.

Question 27:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II:
27

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
View Solution

Concept:
The monumental structures of Vijayanagara provide important evidence about the political, religious, and urban organisation of the empire.
The capital city contained temples, tanks, ceremonial platforms, markets, and carefully planned streets.
Each structure served a distinct purpose, and identifying these characteristics is essential for matching questions from the Vijayanagara chapter.

Step 1: Identifying the Mahanavami Dibba:
The Mahanavami Dibba was a large and elevated platform located within the royal centre of Vijayanagara.
It was associated with important royal ceremonies and public displays of imperial power.
Its most distinctive physical feature was its massive raised platform.
Therefore, A matches with III.

Step 2: Identifying the Kamalapuram Tank:
The Kamalapuram tank was an important water-management structure near the capital.
Tanks and canals were essential in the semi-arid environment of the Vijayanagara region because they supplied water for domestic needs and agriculture.
The structure was therefore associated with the storage and management of rainwater.
Thus, B matches with I.

Step 3: Identifying the Vitthala Temple:
The Vitthala temple complex is particularly famous for its architectural and sculptural features.
The complex was connected with broad streets and the ceremonial movement of temple chariots.
The famous stone chariot is also located within this complex.
Therefore, C matches with II.

Step 4: Identifying the Hazara Rama Temple:
The Hazara Rama temple was situated in the royal centre and was closely connected with the royal household.
It was primarily intended for the king and members of his family rather than serving as a large public temple for the entire population.
Therefore, D matches with IV.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV.

Quick Tip: Remember Mahanavami Dibba as the huge ceremonial platform of the royal centre.
Kamalapuram is associated with water storage and irrigation.
Vitthala temple is strongly associated with the famous stone chariot and chariot streets.
Hazara Rama temple was closely connected with the royal family.

Question 28:

Identify the correct statements in relation to the Vijayanagara Empire:
A. The first dynasty, Sangama dynasty exercised control till 1488.
B. They were supplanted by the Saluvas.
C. The Saluvas remained in power till 1503.
D. Krishnadeva Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) B, C and D only
  • (C) A, B and C only
  • (D) A, B, C and D
Correct Answer: (B) B, C and D only
View Solution

Concept:
The Vijayanagara Empire was ruled successively by four major dynasties, namely the Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva, and Aravidu dynasties.
Understanding the chronological succession of these dynasties is essential for determining the validity of statements concerning Vijayanagara rulers.

Step 1: Examining Statement A:
Statement A says that the Sangama dynasty exercised control till 1488.
This statement is incorrect because the Sangama dynasty was replaced by the Saluva dynasty in 1485.
Although the Sangama rulers had dominated Vijayanagara for a long period, their political control did not continue until 1488.
Therefore, statement A is false.

Step 2: Examining Statement B:
The Saluva dynasty succeeded the Sangama dynasty.
Saluva Narasimha took control of the empire in 1485, marking the beginning of the Saluva phase of Vijayanagara history.
Therefore, statement B is correct.

Step 3: Examining Statement C:
The Saluva dynasty remained in power until approximately 1503.
After the short Saluva phase, power passed to the Tuluva dynasty.
Thus, within the chronological framework used in the question, statement C is correct.

Step 4: Examining Statement D:
Krishnadeva Raya was a member of the Tuluva dynasty.
He became ruler in 1509 and is widely regarded as the most celebrated ruler of Vijayanagara.
His reign was marked by military expansion, administrative consolidation, and extensive patronage of literature and architecture.
Therefore, statement D is correct.

Step 5: Final Evaluation:
Statements B, C, and D are correct, whereas statement A is incorrect because the Sangama dynasty was replaced earlier than the date stated.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) B, C and D only.

Quick Tip: Memorise the Vijayanagara dynastic sequence as Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva, and Aravidu.
Krishnadeva Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty.
For chronology questions, remember that the Saluva takeover occurred in 1485, not 1488.

Question 29:

Which dynasty ruled from Penukonda?

  • (A) Tuluvas
  • (B) Gajapatis
  • (C) Deccan Sultans
  • (D) Aravidu
Correct Answer: (D) Aravidu
View Solution

Concept:
Penukonda became an important political centre of the Vijayanagara Empire, particularly after the weakening and destruction of the imperial capital at Hampi.
The Aravidu dynasty was the fourth and final ruling dynasty of Vijayanagara.

Step 1: Understanding the Change in the Capital:
The Battle of Talikota in 1565 was a major turning point in Vijayanagara history.
The defeat of the Vijayanagara forces led to the destruction and extensive plundering of the imperial capital.
As a result, the political centre of the empire shifted away from the traditional capital.

Step 2: Rise of the Aravidu Dynasty:
After the decline of the Tuluva line, the Aravidu family assumed control of the Vijayanagara state.
Tirumala Deva Raya, associated with the Aravidu dynasty, played an important role in reorganising the surviving political structure of the empire.
Penukonda became one of the principal centres from which the later Vijayanagara rulers exercised authority.

Step 3: Evaluating the Options:
The Tuluva dynasty was the dynasty of Krishnadeva Raya and ruled during the earlier sixteenth century.
The Gajapatis were rulers of the Odisha region and were important rivals of Vijayanagara.
The Deccan Sultans were a group of Muslim states that competed with Vijayanagara, particularly in the Deccan.
The Aravidu dynasty, however, controlled the later Vijayanagara state from centres including Penukonda.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Aravidu.

Quick Tip: Associate Penukonda with the later phase of Vijayanagara history and the Aravidu dynasty.
The four major Vijayanagara dynasties were Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva, and Aravidu.
The shift to Penukonda should be remembered in the context of the post-Talikota decline.

Question 30:

Which crop was introduced into India via Africa and Spain by the seventeenth century?

  • (A) Tobacco
  • (B) Maize
  • (C) Cotton
  • (D) Sugarcane
Correct Answer: (B) Maize
View Solution

Concept:
The movement of crops across continents was an important consequence of long-distance trade and overseas expansion during the early modern period.
The arrival of European traders connected India with agricultural products that had originated in the Americas and subsequently travelled through different regions.

Step 1: Identifying the Crop:
Maize was originally domesticated in the Americas.
Following European voyages and the development of maritime trade networks, maize spread from the Americas to Europe, Africa, and eventually to different parts of Asia.
It reached India through these interconnected routes during the early modern period.

Step 2: Understanding the Reference to Africa and Spain:
The question specifically mentions introduction into India via Africa and Spain by the seventeenth century.
This wording points towards the movement of maize through the global exchange networks created after European expansion overseas.
The crop was transferred across continents before becoming established in several parts of India.

Step 3: Eliminating the Other Options:
Tobacco was also introduced into India from the Americas through Portuguese commercial networks, but it is not the crop identified by the route specified in this question.
Cotton had an ancient history in the Indian subcontinent and was certainly not a newly introduced crop of this period.
Sugarcane also had a much older history in India and had been cultivated there long before the seventeenth century.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Maize.

Quick Tip: Remember maize as an important crop associated with the early modern Columbian exchange.
Maize originated in the Americas and spread to Europe, Africa, and Asia through expanding maritime trade networks.
Do not confuse newly introduced crops with crops such as cotton and sugarcane, which had ancient histories in India.

Question 31:

In the Indo-Persian sources of the Mughal period, the term “pahi-kashta” refers to:

  • (A) Non-resident cultivators who belonged to some other village, but cultivated lands elsewhere on a contractual basis
  • (B) Non-resident cultivators who produced artefacts on a contractual basis
  • (C) Permanent resident cultivators who belonged to some other village and cultivated lands
  • (D) Residents of the village in which they held their lands
Correct Answer: (A) Non-resident cultivators who belonged to some other village, but cultivated lands elsewhere on a contractual basis
View Solution

Concept:
Mughal agrarian society contained different categories of peasants and cultivators, and Indo-Persian administrative sources used specific terms to distinguish them.
The term “pahi-kashta” is associated with cultivators who did not permanently reside in the village where they cultivated land.

Step 1: Understanding the Term:
The word “pahi-kashta” referred to non-resident cultivators.
These cultivators belonged to another village but travelled to cultivate land elsewhere.
Their relationship with the land and village community therefore differed from that of permanent resident cultivators.

Step 2: Understanding Their Agricultural Arrangement:
Pahi-kashta cultivators could cultivate land on a contractual or temporary basis.
Their cultivation demonstrates that Mughal rural society was not limited to a simple division between landlords and permanently settled peasants.
There were several categories of cultivators whose rights and obligations could differ according to local circumstances.

Step 3: Comparing the Options:
Option (A) correctly describes non-resident cultivators who belonged to another village but cultivated land elsewhere on a contractual basis.
Option (B) incorrectly changes the occupation from cultivation to the production of artefacts.
Option (C) is contradictory because it describes them as permanent residents while the term specifically indicates non-residence.
Option (D) refers to residents of the village where they held their lands and therefore does not describe pahi-kashta cultivators.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Non-resident cultivators who belonged to some other village, but cultivated lands elsewhere on a contractual basis.

Quick Tip: Remember pahi-kashta as non-resident cultivators.
The key distinction is between their home village and the village where they actually cultivated land.
In Mughal agrarian questions, carefully distinguish terminology describing resident and non-resident peasants.

Question 32:

Marathi documents and village surveys made in the early years of British rule have revealed the existence of artisans, sometimes as high as 25 per cent of total village households.

  • (A) Persian
  • (B) Bengali
  • (C) Marathi
  • (D) Marwari
Correct Answer: (C) Marathi
View Solution

Concept:
The question concerns the evidence used by historians to reconstruct the structure of village society in eighteenth- and nineteenth-century India.
Regional administrative documents, surveys, and local records provide valuable information about the occupational composition of rural communities.

Step 1: Identifying the Type of Evidence:
The statement refers to documents and village surveys prepared during the early years of British rule.
Such records were important because colonial administrators attempted to collect information about land, revenue, occupations, and village communities.
Historians have used these records to understand the diversity of rural society.

Step 2: Identifying the Language and Region:
The specific evidence mentioned in the question comes from Marathi documents and village surveys.
These records are particularly useful for studying the social and economic structure of villages in the Deccan and western India.
They reveal that villages contained not only cultivators but also substantial numbers of artisans.

Step 3: Understanding the Significance of Artisans:
The reference to artisans constituting as much as 25 per cent of village households demonstrates that rural society was occupationally diverse.
Blacksmiths, carpenters, potters, leather workers, weavers, and other specialists could form an important part of village life.
Therefore, the evidence challenges the simplistic idea that Indian villages consisted exclusively of agricultural cultivators.

Step 4: Evaluating the Options:
Persian was widely used in Mughal and early colonial administrative contexts, but it is not the regional documentary tradition referred to here.
Bengali and Marwari likewise do not correspond to the evidence described in the question.
The correct documentary language is Marathi.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Marathi.

Quick Tip: Remember that Marathi documents and village surveys provide important evidence about rural society in the Deccan.
The presence of artisans in significant numbers shows that villages had diverse occupational groups.
When a question mentions a specific regional documentary tradition, match it carefully with its linguistic and geographical context.

Question 33:

Arrange the following historical events in chronological order:
A. Nadir Shah invades India and sacks Delhi.
B. The “diwani” of Bengal transferred to the East India Company.
C. Ahmad Shah Abdali defeats the Marathas in the Third Battle of Panipat.
D. Babur defeats Ibrahim Lodi, the Delhi Sultan, at Panipat.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) D, A, C, B
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) D, B, C, A
Correct Answer: (B) D, A, C, B
View Solution

Concept:
Chronological ordering questions require the identification of the dates or relative sequence of major historical events.
The four events in this question belong to the transition from the Mughal period to the expansion of British power in India.

Step 1: Identifying the Date of Babur’s Victory:
Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat in 1526.
This victory established the foundation of Mughal rule in northern India.
Therefore, event D is the earliest among the four events.

Step 2: Identifying Nadir Shah’s Invasion:
Nadir Shah invaded the Mughal Empire and sacked Delhi in 1739.
His invasion exposed the political and military weakness of the Mughal Empire and resulted in enormous destruction and the removal of considerable wealth from Delhi.
Thus, event A follows event D.

Step 3: Identifying the Third Battle of Panipat:
Ahmad Shah Abdali defeated the Marathas in the Third Battle of Panipat in 1761.
The battle was a major event in eighteenth-century Indian political history and occurred after Nadir Shah’s invasion.
Therefore, event C comes after A.

Step 4: Identifying the Transfer of Diwani:
In 1765, the East India Company obtained the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa from the Mughal emperor Shah Alam II.
This granted the Company the right to collect revenue and marked a major expansion of British political and fiscal authority.
Therefore, event B is the latest of the four.

Step 5: Establishing the Sequence:
The chronological order is 1526, 1739, 1761, and 1765.
Hence the sequence is D, A, C, B.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) D, A, C, B.

Quick Tip: Use the anchor dates 1526, 1739, 1761, and 1765 to solve this question quickly.
Remember: First Battle of Panipat, Nadir Shah’s invasion, Third Battle of Panipat, and Diwani rights.
Chronological questions are best solved by writing the dates beside each event before comparing the options.

Question 34:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II:
34

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
View Solution

Concept:
The question tests important terms associated with Mughal revenue administration.
The Mughal state maintained an organised fiscal system in which officials were responsible for assessment, collection, record keeping, and supervision of revenue.

Step 1: Matching A with I:
The Daftar of the Diwan was associated with the financial administration and supervision of the fiscal system.
The Diwan was an important official responsible for the financial affairs of the state.
Therefore, A correctly matches with I.

Step 2: Matching B with II:
The amil-guzar was a revenue official involved in the collection of revenue from cultivators.
The term therefore corresponds directly to the responsibility described in statement B.
Hence, B matches with II.

Step 3: Matching C with III:
The term jama referred to the amount assessed as revenue from land.
It represented the revenue demand that was fixed or assessed by the administration.
Therefore, C matches with III.

Step 4: Matching D with IV:
The term hasil referred to the amount of revenue actually collected.
The distinction between jama and hasil is important because the amount assessed could differ from the amount ultimately realised.
Thus, D matches with IV.

Step 5: Final Matching:
The correct correspondence is A-I, B-II, C-III, and D-IV.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV.

Quick Tip: Remember jama as the assessed revenue demand and hasil as the revenue actually collected.
The amil-guzar was connected with revenue collection.
Distinguishing assessment from actual collection is the fastest way to solve this matching question.

Question 35:

In late eighteenth-century revenue records, the hill folks living around Rajmahal hills were known as:

  • (A) Manjhis
  • (B) Santhals
  • (C) Paharias
  • (D) Kaduyas
Correct Answer: (C) Paharias
View Solution

Concept:
The Rajmahal Hills region in eastern India was inhabited by communities who maintained distinctive social, economic, and political relationships with the surrounding plains.
Colonial revenue records used the term Paharias for the hill people living around the Rajmahal Hills.

Step 1: Locating the Rajmahal Hills:
The Rajmahal Hills are located in present-day Jharkhand and historically formed part of the eastern Indian frontier of agrarian expansion.
The hilly environment supported communities whose livelihoods and social organisation differed from those of settled cultivators in the plains.

Step 2: Identifying the Paharias:
The hill communities inhabiting this region were referred to as Paharias in colonial records.
The term itself is connected with the idea of people living in the hills.
They were known for maintaining a degree of independence from outside political authority and for resisting attempts to penetrate and control their territories.

Step 3: Distinguishing Them from the Other Options:
The Santhals were another important tribal community of eastern India, but their large-scale settlement in the Rajmahal region developed particularly during the nineteenth century.
Manjhis refers to a traditional leadership term in certain tribal communities rather than the specific community identified by the question.
Kaduyas does not correspond to the hill community referred to in the revenue records.

Step 4: Final Identification:
The historical term used for the hill people living around the Rajmahal Hills was Paharias.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Paharias.

Quick Tip: Remember Rajmahal Hills with the Paharias when studying the Permanent Settlement and colonial expansion into forested and hilly regions.
Do not automatically select Santhals merely because both groups are associated with eastern India.
The question specifically asks about the hill people recorded around the Rajmahal Hills in the late eighteenth century.

Question 36:

Who wrote a petition to the Collector of Ahmednagar, Deccan Riots Commission, from the village of Mirajgaon?

  • (A) Sahukars
  • (B) Zamindars
  • (C) Talugdars
  • (D) Ryots
Correct Answer: (D) Ryots
View Solution

Concept:
The Deccan Riots of 1875 were closely connected with the difficulties faced by cultivators under the colonial revenue system and their relationships with moneylenders.
The Deccan Riots Commission collected evidence from different groups, including the cultivators whose experiences formed an important part of the inquiry.

Step 1: Understanding the Deccan Riots:
The Deccan countryside experienced considerable agrarian distress during the nineteenth century.
Cultivators faced revenue demands, fluctuating agricultural conditions, and growing dependence on moneylenders.
Debt could lead to the transfer of land and property from cultivators to creditors.

Step 2: Identifying the Term Ryot:
The word “ryot” was commonly used in colonial India for a cultivator or peasant.
Ryots were directly affected by agricultural revenue demands and credit relationships with sahukars.
Consequently, their testimony was important for understanding the causes of the Deccan disturbances.

Step 3: Evaluating the Other Options:
Sahukars were moneylenders who provided credit to cultivators and were frequently the targets of peasant hostility during the Deccan Riots.
Zamindars were revenue intermediaries or landholders in particular systems of land revenue administration.
Talugdars were large landholders or revenue intermediaries associated especially with regions such as Awadh.
None of these terms describes the cultivators who submitted the petition referred to in the question.

Step 4: Final Answer:
The petition from Mirajgaon to the Collector and the Deccan Riots Commission was written by ryots, representing the cultivator population whose grievances were central to the inquiry.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Ryots.

Quick Tip: Remember ryot as a cultivator or peasant in colonial administrative terminology.
The Deccan Riots were strongly associated with peasant indebtedness and conflict with moneylenders.
When a question asks about cultivators in colonial records, ryots is often the key term to identify.

Question 37:

Identify the meaning of the term “Rentier”?

  • (A) People who took a property on rent
  • (B) People who help others to take a property on rent
  • (C) People who collect the rent of a property
  • (D) People who live on rental income from property
Correct Answer: (D) People who live on rental income from property
View Solution

Concept:
The term “rentier” describes a person whose income is derived substantially from ownership of property or other assets rather than from direct productive work.
In the context of agrarian and economic history, the term is useful for describing people who live from rents generated by property.

Step 1: Understanding the Meaning of Rent:
Rent is an income received by the owner of a property or resource in return for allowing another person to use it.
For example, a landowner may receive rent from land cultivated by another person, while a property owner may receive rent from a building occupied by a tenant.

Step 2: Defining a Rentier:
A rentier is a person who derives income from rents, particularly from property or financial assets, rather than primarily from direct productive employment.
The defining feature is therefore the source of income.

Step 3: Evaluating the Options:
Option (A) describes tenants who take property on rent, but tenants are not necessarily rentiers.
Option (B) describes intermediaries or agents who help arrange rental agreements, which is not the historical meaning of the term.
Option (C) is incomplete because merely collecting rent does not define the broader economic category of a rentier.
Option (D) correctly states that rentiers live on rental income generated by property.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) People who live on rental income from property.

Quick Tip: The easiest way to remember “rentier” is “one who lives from rent”.
Distinguish a rentier from a tenant because the rentier receives income while the tenant generally pays rent.
Focus on the source of income rather than the act of collecting or paying rent.

Question 38:

On which occasion was the first public announcement made regarding Gandhiji’s own desire to make Indian nationalism more properly representative of the Indian people as a whole?

  • (A) During a public rally in South-Africa
  • (B) During speech at the opening of Banaras Hindu University
  • (C) During a public meeting of Non-Cooperation Movement
  • (D) During speech at the Salt-March at Dandi
Correct Answer: (B) During speech at the opening of Banaras Hindu University
View Solution

Concept:
Mahatma Gandhi’s political approach emphasised the transformation of Indian nationalism into a broader mass movement that represented ordinary Indians rather than remaining restricted to educated elites.
His speech at the opening of Banaras Hindu University in 1916 is an important early indication of this approach.

Step 1: Understanding the Historical Context:
Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in 1915.
Soon after his return, he began developing a distinctive political style based on mass participation, moral criticism of colonial rule, and attention to the problems of ordinary Indians.
The 1916 Banaras Hindu University opening provided an important public platform for expressing these ideas.

Step 2: Examining the Banaras Hindu University Speech:
At the opening ceremony of Banaras Hindu University, Gandhi criticised the social and political distance separating elite Indians from the masses.
He drew attention to poverty and argued that the nationalist movement needed to become more closely connected with ordinary people.
This was an important public articulation of his desire for a more representative nationalism.

Step 3: Eliminating the Other Options:
The South African rally occurred before Gandhi’s return to India and therefore cannot represent his first public announcement in the Indian nationalist context described here.
The Non-Cooperation Movement began later, after the First World War, and therefore cannot be the first occasion.
The Salt March took place in 1930, much later than Gandhi’s initial articulation of this political vision.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) During speech at the opening of Banaras Hindu University.

Quick Tip: Remember Gandhi’s 1916 Banaras Hindu University speech as an important early expression of his criticism of elite nationalism.
The speech highlighted the need to connect nationalism with the lives of ordinary Indians.
Use chronology to eliminate the Non-Cooperation Movement and Salt March, which occurred much later.

Question 39:

A series of   was established to promote nationalist creed in the princely states.

  • (A) Swadeshi-Mandals
  • (B) Swaraj-Sabhas
  • (C) Prati-Sarkars
  • (D) Praja-Mandals
Correct Answer: (D) Praja-Mandals
View Solution

Concept:
The princely states were territories ruled by hereditary princes who accepted British paramountcy while retaining varying degrees of internal authority.
During the growth of Indian nationalism, political organisations developed within these states to demand responsible government, civil rights, and greater participation of the people in administration.

Step 1: Understanding the Princely States:
The nationalist movement did not remain limited to British-administered provinces.
People living in princely states also began to challenge autocratic rule and demand political reforms.
Their political struggles were connected with the wider national movement.

Step 2: Identifying Praja-Mandals:
Praja-Mandals were popular organisations formed in several princely states.
The word “praja” refers to the subjects or people, while “mandal” indicates an organisation or association.
These organisations sought to represent popular interests and promote nationalist ideas within princely territories.

Step 3: Distinguishing the Other Organisations:
Swadeshi-Mandals were associated with activities promoting swadeshi rather than being the characteristic organisations of political mobilisation in princely states.
Prati-Sarkars literally represented parallel or alternative governments and are particularly associated with the Quit India phase in specific regions.
Swaraj-Sabhas is not the term used for the organisations referred to in the question.

Step 4: Final Identification:
The organisations that helped carry nationalist political ideas into princely states were Praja-Mandals.
They provided a platform for people to articulate demands for responsible government and civil liberties.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Praja-Mandals.

Quick Tip: Associate Praja-Mandals with nationalist and popular political activity in princely states.
The word “praja” is a useful clue because it refers to the people or subjects of the princely state.
Do not confuse Praja-Mandals with Prati-Sarkars, which refer to parallel governments formed during the Quit India period.

Question 40:

Identify the correct statements regarding the “Salt-March”:
A. On 12 March 1930, Gandhiji began walking from his ashram at Sabarmati towards the ocean.
B. Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India during the famous “Salt March” of 1930.
C. The progress of “Salt March” can be traced from an important source: the London newsmagazine, London News.
D. The progress of Gandhiji’s march can also be traced from the secret-reports filed by the police officials.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only
Correct Answer: (A) A, B and D only
View Solution

Concept:
The Salt March of 1930 was a major episode of the Civil Disobedience Movement and demonstrated Gandhi’s strategy of using a simple, widely understood issue to challenge colonial authority.
The march also generated extensive contemporary documentation, including newspapers and official police reports.

Step 1: Examining Statement A:
Gandhi began the Salt March on 12 March 1930 from the Sabarmati Ashram.
He and his selected group of followers travelled towards the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat.
The march ended with Gandhi’s symbolic breaking of the colonial salt law on 6 April 1930.
Therefore, statement A is correct.

Step 2: Examining Statement B:
Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India during the Salt March.
The Civil Disobedience Movement developed during his tenure, and Gandhi later entered into negotiations with him, leading to the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931.
Therefore, statement B is correct.

Step 3: Examining Statement C:
The question identifies “London News” as the relevant newsmagazine.
This statement is incorrect in the historical formulation used for tracing the march because the recognised source is the London Illustrated News, rather than a publication simply called “London News”.
Therefore, statement C is false.

Step 4: Examining Statement D:
The colonial authorities closely monitored Gandhi and the progress of the march.
Secret reports and observations prepared by police officials provide evidence about the movement and its reception.
Therefore, statement D is correct.

Step 5: Final Evaluation:
Statements A, B, and D are correct, while statement C is incorrect.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) A, B and D only.

Quick Tip: Remember 12 March 1930 as the beginning of the Salt March and 6 April 1930 as the symbolic breaking of the salt law at Dandi.
Lord Irwin was the Viceroy during the march.
For source-based questions, carefully distinguish the exact title of the newspaper or periodical mentioned.

 


Read the passage and answer the questions from 41 to 45:

1857: Shah Mal
Shah Mal lived in a large village in Uttar Pradesh. He belonged to a clan of Jat cultivators whose kinship ties extended over chaurasee des. The lands in the region were irrigated and fertile, with rich dark loam soil. Many of the villagers were prosperous and saw the British land revenue system as oppressive: the revenue demand was high and its collection inflexible. Consequently cultivators were losing land to outsiders, to traders and moneylenders who were coming into the area. Shah Mal mobilised the headmen and cultivators of chaurasee des, moving at night from village to village, urging people to rebel against the British. As in many other places, the revolt against the British turned into a general rebellion against all signs of oppression and injustice. Cultivators left their fields and plundered the houses of moneylenders and traders. Displaced proprietors took possession of the lands they had lost. Shah Mal’s men attacked government buildings, destroyed the bridge over the river, and dug up metalled roads. They sent supplies to the sepoys who had mutinied in Delhi and stopped all official communication between British headquarters and Meerut. Locally acknowledged as the Raja, Shah Mal took over the bungalow of an English officer, turned it into a “hall of justice”, settling disputes and dispensing judgments. He also set up an amazingly effective network of intelligence. For a period the people of the area felt that firangi raj was over, and their raj had come. Shah Mal was killed in battle in July 1857.

Question 41:
Shah Mal belonged to which pargana in Uttar Pradesh?

  • (A) Barout
  • (B) Chinhat
  • (C) Bardoli
  • (D) Awadh
Correct Answer: (A) Barout
View Solution

Concept:
Shah Mal was one of the local leaders who participated in the uprising of 1857 in the region of western Uttar Pradesh.
His leadership demonstrates how the revolt developed into a broader rural rebellion involving cultivators, village headmen, displaced proprietors, and other groups affected by colonial revenue policies.

Step 1: Locating Shah Mal’s Area of Activity:
Shah Mal lived in a large village in Uttar Pradesh and belonged to a Jat cultivator clan whose kinship connections extended across a wide rural area.
His activities were concentrated around the Barout pargana.
The fertile and irrigated lands of this region supported prosperous cultivators, but the high and inflexible British revenue demand generated considerable resentment.

Step 2: Understanding the Rural Grievances:
The colonial revenue system created pressure on cultivators because revenue demands remained high even when circumstances made payment difficult.
Cultivators could lose land to traders and moneylenders when they were unable to meet their obligations.
These economic grievances contributed to the transformation of the revolt into a wider challenge to colonial authority.

Step 3: Understanding Shah Mal’s Leadership:
Shah Mal travelled from village to village at night and mobilised village headmen and cultivators.
His followers attacked government buildings, disrupted official communications, and damaged roads and bridges that represented British authority.
He also created a local system of justice and intelligence.

Step 4: Evaluating the Options:
Chinhat was associated with important events of the 1857 uprising in Awadh and is not the pargana identified with Shah Mal.
Bardoli became famous for the later peasant movement led by Vallabhbhai Patel.
Awadh was a major region of the 1857 rebellion but is not the specific pargana asked for here.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Barout.

Quick Tip: Remember Shah Mal with Barout pargana in western Uttar Pradesh.
His story illustrates how the 1857 uprising became a broader rural rebellion against revenue pressure, moneylenders, and colonial authority.
Link Shah Mal with village mobilisation, disruption of British communications, and local administration.

Question 42:

Cultivators revolted against the British because:

  • (A) The lands in the region were not fertile
  • (B) British land revenue system was considered just and based on correct revenue demands
  • (C) Villagers were poor and drought-stricken
  • (D) British land revenue system was considered oppressive due to high revenue demands
Correct Answer: (D) British land revenue system was considered oppressive due to high revenue demands
View Solution

Concept:
The passage explains that the rural population involved in the 1857 uprising had specific economic grievances against British revenue policies.
The rebellion was not simply the result of poverty or environmental hardship but was closely connected with the colonial system of land revenue collection.

Step 1: Examining the Condition of the Land:
The passage explicitly describes the lands of the region as irrigated and fertile.
The soil was rich and dark, indicating that lack of agricultural fertility was not the main reason for the revolt.
Therefore, option (A) is inconsistent with the passage.

Step 2: Examining the Revenue System:
The villagers regarded the British land revenue system as oppressive.
The revenue demand was high, while its collection was described as inflexible.
This meant that cultivators faced considerable pressure to meet the government’s demand regardless of their individual circumstances.

Step 3: Understanding the Consequences:
Because cultivators struggled under the revenue system, some lost their land to outsiders, traders, and moneylenders.
This resulted in a direct threat to their economic security and encouraged wider resistance to British rule.
The revolt therefore had a strong economic and agrarian dimension.

Step 4: Eliminating the Other Options:
Option (B) is incorrect because the system was perceived as oppressive, not just.
Option (C) is also incorrect because the passage does not identify drought or general poverty as the primary cause.
The central grievance was the high and inflexible revenue demand.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) British land revenue system was considered oppressive due to high revenue demands.

Quick Tip: In passage-based questions, always rely on the exact cause stated in the passage.
Here, the key phrases are “high revenue demand” and “inflexible collection”.
The fertile condition of the land rules out options based on poor soil or lack of agricultural productivity.

Question 43:

Arrange the following events in a chronological order:
A. Shah Mal was killed in battle in July 1857.
B. Cultivators left their fields and plundered the houses of moneylenders and traders.
C. Shah Mal moved at night from village to village, urging people to rebel against the British.
D. Shah Mal’s men stopped all official communication between British headquarters and Meerut.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B, C, D
  • (B) A, C, D, B
  • (C) B, A, D, C
  • (D) C, B, D, A
Correct Answer: (D) C, B, D, A
View Solution

Concept:
This question requires arranging events according to the sequence in which Shah Mal’s rebellion developed.
The passage describes a progression from mobilisation of villagers to direct attacks on economic interests, disruption of colonial communications, and finally Shah Mal’s death.

Step 1: Identifying the Beginning of the Mobilisation:
Shah Mal first mobilised village headmen and cultivators.
He moved at night from village to village and urged people to rebel against the British.
This represents the initial stage of organised mobilisation.
Therefore, C must come first.

Step 2: Identifying the Agrarian Rebellion:
Once the rebellion spread, cultivators left their fields and attacked the houses of moneylenders and traders.
The revolt consequently developed into a wider challenge against symbols and sources of economic oppression.
Thus, B follows C.

Step 3: Disruption of British Communications:
Shah Mal’s followers then attacked government infrastructure and stopped official communication between British headquarters and Meerut.
This represented a direct attempt to weaken the administrative and military capacity of colonial authorities.
Therefore, D follows B.

Step 4: Shah Mal’s Death:
The passage concludes by stating that Shah Mal was killed in battle in July 1857.
This event clearly occurs after the activities described earlier in the passage.
Therefore, A is the final event.

Step 5: Establishing the Sequence:
The correct chronological order is mobilisation, attacks on moneylenders and traders, disruption of communications, and Shah Mal’s death.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) C, B, D, A.

Quick Tip: For passage chronology, identify the beginning, middle actions, and concluding event first.
Here, Shah Mal’s mobilisation starts the sequence, while his death in July 1857 ends it.
Follow the narrative progression instead of trying to memorise the individual events separately.

Question 44:

For what purpose was the “hall of justice” used by Shah Mal?

  • (A) Used as an uprising headquarters
  • (B) Used for storing arms and ammunitions
  • (C) Used for conducting official meetings
  • (D) Used for settling disputes and dispensing judgments
Correct Answer: (D) Used for settling disputes and dispensing judgments
View Solution

Concept:
The 1857 uprising was not limited to military resistance against British troops.
In several areas, local leaders attempted to establish alternative forms of authority and administration after colonial control weakened.
Shah Mal’s “hall of justice” is an example of this process.

Step 1: Understanding Shah Mal’s Local Authority:
Shah Mal was locally acknowledged as the Raja during the rebellion.
As the British administrative structure weakened in the area, he assumed responsibilities associated with local governance.
His activities therefore went beyond organising armed resistance.

Step 2: Establishing the Hall of Justice:
Shah Mal took over the bungalow of an English officer and converted it into what the passage calls a “hall of justice”.
This transformation symbolised the displacement of British authority and the establishment of an alternative local order.

Step 3: Understanding Its Function:
The hall was used for settling disputes and dispensing judgments.
This indicates that Shah Mal attempted to provide judicial authority within the area under his control.
It was therefore an institution of local administration rather than merely a military headquarters.

Step 4: Evaluating the Options:
Option (A) is incorrect because the passage does not identify the hall primarily as an uprising headquarters.
Option (B) is incorrect because the passage does not mention the storage of arms or ammunition there.
Option (C) is also incorrect because the specific purpose stated is judicial rather than administrative meetings.
Option (D) directly matches the passage.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) Used for settling disputes and dispensing judgments.

Quick Tip: The phrase “hall of justice” is a direct clue to the judicial role of the building.
Remember that Shah Mal converted an English officer’s bungalow into this centre of local justice.
This example demonstrates how the 1857 rebels sometimes attempted to replace colonial institutions with their own forms of authority.

Question 45:

Match the LIST-I with LIST-II:
45

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
View Solution

Concept:
The Revolt of 1857 involved numerous leaders operating in different regions and under different political circumstances.
Matching each leader with the correct association requires distinguishing their geographical areas, political positions, and major military events.

Step 1: Matching Danka Shah:
Danka Shah is associated with the Battle of Chinhat in the context of the uprising.
Chinhat, near Lucknow, was an important site of conflict during the rebellion in Awadh.
Therefore, A matches with III.

Step 2: Matching Nana Sahib:
Nana Sahib was the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II.
After Baji Rao II’s death, Nana Sahib claimed the position and pension associated with the former Peshwa, but the British refused to recognise his claim to the pension.
He subsequently became one of the major leaders of the uprising at Kanpur.
Therefore, B matches with I.

Step 3: Matching Kunwar Singh:
Kunwar Singh was a prominent zamindar from Bihar who participated in the uprising despite his advanced age.
He was associated with the region around Arrah and became one of the important leaders of resistance in Bihar.
Therefore, C matches with II.

Step 4: Matching Rani Lakshmi Bai:
Rani Lakshmi Bai of Jhansi became one of the most prominent leaders of the rebellion.
She fought against British forces and was killed in battle in June 1858.
Therefore, D matches with IV.

Step 5: Establishing the Complete Match:
The correct associations are Danka Shah with the Battle of Chinhat, Nana Sahib with the successor claim to Baji Rao II, Kunwar Singh with the local zamindari around Arrah, and Rani Lakshmi Bai with her death in battle in June 1858.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV.

Quick Tip: Remember Nana Sahib with Kanpur and his claim connected with Baji Rao II.
Remember Kunwar Singh with Bihar and Arrah, and Rani Lakshmi Bai with Jhansi and her death in June 1858.
Chinhat should be associated with the Awadh theatre of the Revolt of 1857.

 


Read the passage and answer the questions from 46 to 50:

Constitution: Welcoming the Objectives Resolution
“As an Adibasi, I am not expected to understand the legal intricacies of the Resolution, But my common sense tells me that every one of us should march in that road to freedom and fight together. Sir, if there is any group of Indian people that has been shabbily treated it is my people. They have been disgracefully treated, neglected for the last 6,000 years. ... The whole history of my people is one of continuous exploitation and dispossession by the non-aboriginals of India punctuated by rebellions and disorder, and yet I take Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru at his word. I take you all at your word that now we are going to start a new chapter, a new chapter of independent India where there is equality of opportunity, where no one would be neglected.”

Singh spoke eloquently on the need to protect the tribes, and ensure conditions that could help them come up to the level of the general population. Tribes were not a numerical minority, he argued, but they needed protection. They had been dispossessed of the land they had settled, deprived of their forests and pastures, and forced to move in search of new homes. Perceiving them as primitive and backward, the rest of society had turned away from them, spurned them. He made a moving plea for breaking the emotional and physical distance that separated the tribals from the rest of society: “Our point is that you have got to mix with us. We are willing to mix with you ...”. Singh was not asking for separate electorates, but he felt that reservation of seats in the legislature was essential to allow tribals to represent themselves. It would be a way, he said, of compelling others to hear the voice of tribals, and come near them.

Question 46:
Identify the speaker of this passage:

  • (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (B) Vallabhbhai Patel
  • (C) Jaipal Singh
  • (D) Govind Ballabh Pant
Correct Answer: (C) Jaipal Singh
View Solution

Concept:
The passage comes from the debates surrounding the Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly and focuses on the political representation and protection of tribal communities.
The speaker identifies himself explicitly as an Adibasi and discusses the historical exploitation, dispossession, and marginalisation of tribal people.

Step 1: Identifying the Speaker from the Content:
The speaker repeatedly refers to “my people” and explains the experience of tribal communities in India.
He argues that the tribes had been dispossessed of their lands, forests, and pastures and had suffered neglect for generations.
This indicates that the speaker was himself an important representative of tribal interests.

Step 2: Understanding Jaipal Singh’s Role:
Jaipal Singh was a prominent tribal leader and a member of the Constituent Assembly.
He represented the interests of Adivasi communities and strongly advocated political safeguards and representation for tribal people.
His speeches in the Constituent Assembly emphasised equality, dignity, and protection against historical marginalisation.

Step 3: Interpreting the Demand for Representation:
The speaker specifically rejects separate electorates but argues for reservation of seats in legislatures.
This demand was intended to ensure that tribal communities would have representatives who could articulate their interests within the constitutional system.
The argument reflects Jaipal Singh’s approach to tribal political representation.

Step 4: Eliminating the Other Options:
Jawaharlal Nehru was the principal mover of the Objectives Resolution but was not the tribal leader speaking in this passage.
Vallabhbhai Patel was a major member of the Constituent Assembly and handled several important constitutional and administrative matters, but he was not the speaker described here.
Govind Ballabh Pant was another prominent Congress leader but does not fit the passage’s identity and tribal advocacy.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Jaipal Singh.

Quick Tip: Whenever a Constituent Assembly passage discusses Adivasis, tribal dispossession, forests, and political safeguards, consider Jaipal Singh.
Jaipal Singh strongly advocated representation and constitutional protection for tribal communities.
Remember that he supported reservation of legislative seats rather than separate electorates for tribals.

Question 47:

Which social group is the subject of concern to the speaker?

  • (A) Working Class
  • (B) Religious Minorities
  • (C) Tribal People
  • (D) Farmers
Correct Answer: (C) Tribal People
View Solution

Concept:
This question is directly based on the passage concerning Jaipal Singh’s intervention in the Constituent Assembly.
The central theme of the passage is the historical treatment of tribal communities and the need to ensure their protection, representation, and integration into independent India.

Step 1: Identifying the Speaker’s Main Concern:
The speaker begins by identifying himself as an Adibasi and then refers to “my people”.
He describes their long history of exploitation and dispossession and emphasises that they had been neglected by the wider society.
This immediately establishes the social group that forms the focus of his argument.

Step 2: Examining the Specific Grievances:
The passage states that tribal people had been dispossessed of the lands where they had settled.
They had also been deprived of forests and pastures and forced to move in search of new homes.
The speaker further explains that society had regarded them as primitive and backward and had maintained both emotional and physical distance from them.

Step 3: Understanding the Proposed Safeguards:
The speaker argues that the tribes required protection even though he did not regard them simply as a numerical minority.
He advocated reservation of legislative seats so that tribal representatives could make their voices heard within the constitutional system.
This confirms that the central concern was the political and social position of tribal communities.

Step 4: Eliminating the Other Options:
The working class is not the principal subject of the passage.
Religious minorities are also not the group being discussed.
Although farmers could experience land-related problems, the passage specifically discusses Adivasi communities and their historical dispossession.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Tribal People.

Quick Tip: Look for the speaker’s repeated references to “Adibasi”, “tribes”, forests, pastures, and tribal representation.
These keywords directly identify the group as tribal people.
In comprehension questions, explicit terms in the passage should be prioritised over broader historical associations.

Question 48:

According to the speaker, the whole history of his people is one of:

  • (A) Prosperity and development by the aboriginals of India
  • (B) Continuous exploitation and dispossession by the non-aboriginals of India
  • (C) Ignorance and isolation from the global network
  • (D) Modern education and social advancement in all sectors
Correct Answer: (B) Continuous exploitation and dispossession by the non-aboriginals of India
View Solution

Concept:
This is a direct comprehension question based on the speaker’s description of the historical experience of tribal communities.
The speaker presents a critical account of the treatment of his people and connects their historical difficulties with exploitation, dispossession, and political and social marginalisation.

Step 1: Identifying the Relevant Statement:
The speaker states that the whole history of his people had been one of continuous exploitation and dispossession by non-aboriginals of India.
This sentence directly provides the answer to the question.
Therefore, there is no need to infer an alternative historical interpretation.

Step 2: Understanding Exploitation:
The speaker refers to the long-term exploitation of tribal communities by groups from outside their traditional social and geographical environments.
This exploitation affected their economic and social position and contributed to their marginalisation.
The passage therefore presents tribal history through the experience of loss and dispossession.

Step 3: Understanding Dispossession:
The passage later explains that tribal people had been deprived of lands where they had settled, as well as forests and pastures on which their communities depended.
They were consequently forced to move in search of new homes.
These details reinforce the meaning of the statement about continuous dispossession.

Step 4: Evaluating the Options:
Option (A) is the opposite of the speaker’s description because he emphasises exploitation rather than prosperity.
Option (C) introduces global isolation, which is not the historical claim made in the passage.
Option (D) describes modern advancement and education, which again contradicts the speaker’s emphasis on long-term marginalisation.
Option (B) reproduces the central historical claim made by the speaker.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Continuous exploitation and dispossession by the non-aboriginals of India.

Quick Tip: This is a direct passage-based question, so identify the sentence that answers the question rather than relying only on general knowledge.
The keywords are “continuous exploitation” and “dispossession”.
Options describing prosperity, modern advancement, or global isolation contradict the passage.

Question 49:

The need for protection of the “forest dwellers” is necessitated by which reasons? Identify the correct statements.
A. They had been dispossessed of the land they had settled.
B. Perceiving them as primitive and backward.
C. The rest of society had turned away from them.
D. Deprived of their forests and pastures.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A, B and D only
  • (B) A, B and C only
  • (C) A, B, C and D
  • (D) B, C and D only
Correct Answer: (C) A, B, C and D
View Solution

Concept:
The passage explains why Jaipal Singh believed that tribal communities required constitutional and social protection.
He identifies several interconnected forms of disadvantage, including loss of land and natural resources, social prejudice, and exclusion from wider society.

Step 1: Examining Statement A:
The speaker states that tribal people had been dispossessed of the land they had settled.
Loss of land directly affected their economic security, social stability, and ability to maintain their established communities.
Therefore, statement A is correct.

Step 2: Examining Statement B:
The passage states that tribal people were perceived as primitive and backward by the rest of society.
Such perceptions contributed to discrimination and social exclusion.
The speaker presents this negative social attitude as one of the reasons why greater protection was necessary.
Therefore, statement B is correct.

Step 3: Examining Statement C:
The speaker explicitly states that the rest of society had turned away from tribal people and had spurned them.
He therefore called for the emotional and physical distance separating tribal communities from the rest of society to be overcome.
Thus, statement C is correct.

Step 4: Examining Statement D:
The passage also explains that tribal people had been deprived of their forests and pastures.
These resources were important for their livelihood and way of life.
Therefore, statement D is also correct.

Step 5: Final Evaluation:
All four statements are supported by the passage.
The speaker’s argument for protection rests on economic dispossession, loss of natural resources, social prejudice, and exclusion from the wider society.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) A, B, C and D.

Quick Tip: For statement-based comprehension questions, check each statement against the passage separately.
Here, all four statements are explicitly supported by the speaker’s discussion of tribal dispossession and social exclusion.
When every statement is supported, select the “all statements” combination if it is provided.

Question 50:

What measure was suggested by the speaker for breaking the emotional and physical distance that separated the tribals from the rest of society?

  • (A) Reservation of seats in the legislature for the tribals
  • (B) Separate electorates for the tribals
  • (C) Development of modern education
  • (D) Establishment of special department for tribals
Correct Answer: (A) Reservation of seats in the legislature for the tribals
View Solution

Concept:
The passage discusses Jaipal Singh’s argument that tribal communities needed political representation and social integration in independent India.
He rejected the idea of separate electorates but supported legislative reservation as a mechanism through which tribal people could ensure that their voices were heard.

Step 1: Understanding the Problem of Distance:
The speaker describes an emotional and physical distance between tribal communities and the rest of Indian society.
This distance had developed through long-term social exclusion, prejudice, and the perception of tribal people as primitive or backward.
He therefore sought a mechanism that would bring tribal concerns into the political and constitutional mainstream.

Step 2: Examining the Proposal for Representation:
The speaker explicitly states that he was not asking for separate electorates.
Instead, he argued that reservation of seats in the legislature was essential to allow tribals to represent themselves.
This would ensure that elected institutions could hear the concerns of tribal communities directly.

Step 3: Understanding the Purpose of Reservation:
According to the speaker, reserved representation would compel others to hear the voice of tribal people and come closer to them.
Thus, reservation was not presented merely as an electoral arrangement but as a means of reducing political and social distance.
It would give tribal communities a formal voice within the institutions of independent India.

Step 4: Evaluating the Other Options:
Separate electorates are specifically rejected by the speaker, making option (B) incorrect.
Although education could contribute to social development, the specific constitutional measure suggested in the passage is not modern education.
The establishment of a special department is also not identified as the proposed measure.

Final Answer:
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Reservation of seats in the legislature for the tribals.

Quick Tip: The most important distinction is between reservation and separate electorates.
Jaipal Singh supported reservation of legislative seats for tribal representation but did not demand separate electorates.
Remember that the purpose was to ensure that the voice of tribal communities would be heard within the constitutional system.

CUET UG 2026 Exam Pattern

Parameter Details
Exam Name Common University Entrance Test (CUET UG) 2026
Conducting Body National Testing Agency (NTA)
Exam Mode Computer-Based Test (CBT)
Exam Duration 60 minutes per test
Total Sections 3 (Languages, Domain Subjects, General Test)
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Questions per Test 50 questions (all compulsory)
Marking Scheme +5 for correct, -1 for incorrect
Maximum Marks 250 marks per test
Maximum Subject Choices 5 subjects in total
Syllabus Base Class 12 NCERT (mainly for Domain Subjects)

CUET UG 2026 Paper Analysis