CUET 2026 May 24 Shift 2 Physical Education Question Paper is available for download here. NTA conducted the CUET 2026 exam from 11th May to 31st May.
- CUET 2026 Physical Education exam consists of 50 questions for 250 marks to be attempted in 60 minutes.
- As per the marking scheme, 5 marks are awarded for each correct answer, and 1 mark is deducted for incorrect answer.
Candidates can download CUET 2026 May 24 Shift 2 Physical Education Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from links provided below.
CUET 2026 Physical Education May 24 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF
| CUET May 24 Shift 2 Physical Education Question Paper 2026 | Download PDF | Check Solutions |
What are the symptoms of Iodine deficiency in the body?
A. Goitre
B. Mental retardation
C. Anemia
D. Night blindness
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:Iodine is a trace mineral. The thyroid gland needs it to make the hormones thyroxine and triiodothyronine. Without enough iodine, the thyroid and the brain are affected.
Step 2: Check statement (A) Goitre:
When iodine is short, the thyroid gland enlarges in the neck as it tries to work harder. This swelling is called goitre. So (A) is a symptom of iodine deficiency.
Step 3: Check statement (B) Mental retardation:
Thyroid hormones are needed for brain growth in the foetus and infant. Severe iodine deficiency in early life causes cretinism, which includes mental retardation. So (B) is a symptom.
Step 4: Check statement (C) Anemia:
Anemia is mainly caused by lack of iron, and also by lack of vitamin B12 or folic acid. It is not a symptom of iodine deficiency. So (C) is not correct.
Step 5: Check statement (D) Night blindness:
Night blindness is caused by lack of vitamin A, which is needed for the pigment rhodopsin in the eye. It has no link with iodine. So (D) is not correct.
Step 6: Match with the options:
Only A and B are correct. Option 1 says "A and B only", so it matches. Options 2, 3 and 4 include anemia or night blindness, so they are wrong.
Final Answer:
Goitre and mental retardation are the symptoms of iodine deficiency. The correct choice is option 1, A and B only.
Which of the following tests is related to the given layout?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The layout shows a start point and ten cones placed in a set pattern with marked distances of 30 ft, 30 ft, 60 ft, 30 ft and 30 ft, and a width of 15 ft. We must name the test that uses this layout.
Step 2: Match the layout:
This cone arrangement, with a start point and ten numbered cones, is the setup of the Modified Bass Test of dynamic balance. The SEMO Agility Test, Shuttle Run and Flamingo Balance Test use different setups.
Final Answer:
The layout belongs to the Modified Bass Test, which is option 3 (as per the NTA final answer key).
\[ \boxed{\text{Modified Bass Test}} \]
Graded activities as a strategy for an effective inclusive physical education program include-
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:Inclusive physical education means every child, including children with special needs (CWSN), takes part in the class. Teachers use strategies such as adapting the equipment, the rules and the activity so that all can join.
Step 2: Key Idea:
Graded activities means arranging tasks in steps by their level of difficulty. The child begins with the easy step and moves on when ready. So the order goes from simple to complex.
Step 3: Check option (1):
Complex activities only would leave out many children. This is not grading, so option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2):
Going from complex to simple is the reverse order. A child would fail at the first task and lose interest. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3):
Starting with simple activities and slowly moving to complex ones lets each child succeed at the start and build skill. This is the meaning of graded activities. So option 3 is correct.
Step 6: Check option (4):
Challenging activities only do not give an easy entry point for children with limits. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
Graded activities move from simple activities to complex activities. The answer is option 3.
1 gram Fats provides energy -
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:Each nutrient gives a fixed amount of energy when the body burns it. This is measured in kilocalories (Kcal) per gram.
Step 2: Key Facts:
Carbohydrates give 4 Kcal per gram. Proteins give 4 Kcal per gram. Fats give 9 Kcal per gram. Alcohol gives about 7 Kcal per gram.
Step 3: Check option (1) 4 Kcal/g:
This is the value for carbohydrates and proteins, not fats. So it is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) 12 Kcal/g:
No nutrient gives 12 Kcal per gram. So it is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) 5 Kcal/g:
This is not the energy value of any main nutrient. So it is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4) 9 Kcal/g:
Fats have more than twice the energy of carbohydrates, because their molecules have more carbon and hydrogen to burn. The value is 9 Kcal per gram, so option 4 is correct.
Final Answer:
One gram of fat gives 9 Kcal of energy. The answer is option 4.
Arrange the following nutrients according to the requirements for a healthy individual in a sequential order from maximum to minimum-
A. Carbohydrates
B. Protein
C. Calcium
D. Iodine
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We must rank four nutrients by the amount a healthy adult needs every day, from the most to the least.
Step 2: Key Facts:
Carbohydrates are needed in the largest amount, around 50 to 60 percent of the energy, which is several hundred grams a day. Protein is needed in tens of grams a day (about 0.8 to 1 g per kg of body weight). Calcium is a macro mineral, needed in hundreds of milligrams (about 1000 mg a day). Iodine is a trace mineral, needed in micrograms (about 150 micrograms a day).
Step 3: Order the nutrients:
Carbohydrates (grams, largest) then protein (tens of grams) then calcium (1000 mg = 1 g) then iodine (0.15 mg). So the order is A, B, C, D.
Step 4: Check option (2):
This puts iodine before calcium. Iodine is needed in a much smaller amount than calcium, so it is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3):
This puts protein before carbohydrates, and iodine before calcium. Both are wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4):
This starts with calcium, which is needed in much less amount than carbohydrates and protein. So it is wrong.
Final Answer:
The correct order is Carbohydrates, Protein, Calcium, Iodine. The answer is option 1.
While performing Uddiyana Bandha one should not-
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:Uddiyana Bandha is the abdominal lock. The stomach is drawn in and up while the breath is held out after a full exhale. It is done in a sitting posture or standing with hands on the knees.
Step 2: Key Steps:
1. Sit in a comfortable pose such as siddhasana or padmasana. 2. Exhale fully through the mouth. 3. Hold the breath out and draw the abdomen in and up towards the spine. 4. Release slowly and then inhale.
Step 3: Check option (1):
Contracting the throat and pressing the chin to the chest is Jalandhara Bandha (the throat lock), not a part of Uddiyana Bandha. So one should not do this in Uddiyana Bandha. This is the answer.
Step 4: Check option (2):
Sitting comfortably in siddhasana or padmasana is the correct starting posture. So one should do it.
Step 5: Check option (3):
Exhaling fully and holding the breath out is a necessary step. So one should do it.
Step 6: Check option (4):
Pulling the abdominal muscles up and in towards the spine is the main action of Uddiyana Bandha. So one should do it.
Final Answer:
The question asks what should not be done. Contracting the throat with the chin on the chest belongs to Jalandhara Bandha. The answer is option 1.
In which of the following pranayama during inhalation a peculiar sound is produced owing to the partial closing of glottis?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:Pranayama means control of the breath. Different types use different ways of breathing in, holding and breathing out. Some create a special sound in the throat.
Step 2: Key Approach:
The sound made by partly closing the glottis (the opening between the vocal cords) while breathing is the mark of Ujjayi pranayama. It is called the "victorious breath" or the ocean breath.
Step 3: Check option (1) Bhramari:
In Bhramari the humming sound of a bee is made during exhalation with the mouth closed. The sound is not caused by closing the glottis on inhalation. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2) Sheetali:
In Sheetali the tongue is rolled and air is drawn in through it to cool the body. There is a hissing air flow but no glottis sound. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3) Nadi-shodhan:
Nadi-shodhan is alternate nostril breathing. It is done silently. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4) Ujjayi:
In Ujjayi the glottis is partly closed and the breath makes a soft sound like a snore during inhalation. So option 4 is correct.
Final Answer:
Ujjayi pranayama makes a peculiar sound due to partial closing of the glottis. The answer is option 4.
This involves forceful and fast diaphragmatic breathing-
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The question asks which yogic practice is based on forceful and fast breathing that uses the diaphragm.
Step 2: Key Idea:
Hatha yoga has six cleansing practices called Shatkarma: Neti, Dhauti, Nauli, Basti, Kapalbhati and Tratak. Each one cleans a different part of the body. The one that uses quick forceful exhalations by the diaphragm is Kapalbhati (it means shining skull).
Step 3: Check option (1).
Tratak is steady gazing at a fixed point such as a candle flame. It trains the eyes and concentration and has no link with breathing. So option (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2).
Neti cleans the nasal passage with water or a thread. It involves the nose but not forceful diaphragmatic breathing. So option (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3).
Kapalbhati is done by sharp, forceful exhalations produced by quick inward pulls of the abdomen and diaphragm. Inhalation is passive. This matches the question. So option (3) is right.
Step 6: Check option (4).
Dhauti is the cleaning of the stomach and food pipe, for example by drinking warm salt water and vomiting it out. It is not a breathing practice. So option (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Forceful and fast diaphragmatic breathing is Kapalbhati, option (3).
While performing Suryanamaskar, at what steps we do pad-hastottanasana?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The question asks at which two steps of the 12-step Suryanamaskar the pad-hastottanasana (forward bend with hands to feet) is performed.
Step 2: Key Idea:
The 12 steps of Suryanamaskar in order are: 1 Pranamasana, 2 Hasta Uttanasana, 3 Padahastasana (Pad-hastottanasana), 4 Ashwa Sanchalanasana, 5 Parvatasana, 6 Ashtanga Namaskara, 7 Bhujangasana, 8 Parvatasana, 9 Ashwa Sanchalanasana, 10 Padahastasana, 11 Hasta Uttanasana, 12 Pranamasana. The second half mirrors the first half, so the forward bend comes at steps 3 and 10.
Step 3: Check option (1).
Step 8 is Parvatasana (mountain pose), not the forward bend. So option (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2).
Step 3 is the first forward bend and step 10 is the second one after the backward stretch. So option (2) is right.
Step 5: Check option (3).
Step 5 and step 9 are Parvatasana and Ashwa Sanchalanasana (the lunge). So option (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4).
Step 7 is Bhujangasana (cobra) and step 12 is the closing Pranamasana. So option (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Pad-hastottanasana is done at the 3rd and 10th steps, option (2).
While performing Simhasana body resembles like which of the following animal ?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The question asks which animal the body looks like in Simhasana.
Step 2: Key Idea:
Many asanas are named after animals or birds. Simhasana is a Sanskrit word: simha means lion. In this pose the person kneels, spreads the fingers on the knees, opens the mouth wide and sticks the tongue out, like a roaring lion.
Step 3: Check option (1).
Simha means lion, and the roaring face and clawed hands look like a lion. So option (1) is right.
Step 4: Check option (2).
The cobra is Bhujangasana, where the chest is lifted with the palms on the floor. So option (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3).
The rabbit is Shashankasana, a sitting forward bend on the heels. So option (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4).
The frog is Mandukasana, a sitting pose with the fists near the navel. So option (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The body resembles a lion in Simhasana, option (1).
Arrange these asanas in sequence of Standing, Sitting, Prone-line and Supine-line postures respectively.
A. Padhatasana
B. Ustrasana
C. Sarvangasana
D. Shalbhasana
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We must put the four asanas in the order of their posture type: standing, sitting, prone (lying on the stomach) and supine (lying on the back).
Step 2: Key Idea:
Padahastasana is a standing forward bend. Ustrasana (camel pose) is placed in the sitting (kneeling) group. Shalabhasana (locust pose) is done lying on the stomach, so it is prone. Sarvangasana (shoulder stand) is done lying on the back, so it is supine. The required order is A, B, D, C.
Step 3: Check option (1).
The order A, B, C, D puts Sarvangasana (supine) in the prone place and Shalabhasana (prone) in the supine place. The last two are swapped. So option (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2).
The order A, B, D, C gives standing (A), sitting (B), prone (D), supine (C). This is exactly what is asked. So option (2) is right.
Step 5: Check option (3).
The order B, A, D, C starts with the sitting pose, but the first place must be a standing pose. So option (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4).
The order C, B, D, A starts with a supine pose and ends with a standing pose. It is not the order asked. So option (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The correct sequence is A, B, D, C, option (2).
Which of the following is the Non-communicable Disease?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The question asks which of the four diseases is non-communicable, meaning it does not spread from one person to another.
Step 2: Key Idea:
Communicable diseases are caused by germs such as bacteria, viruses or parasites and they spread through air, water, insects or contact. Non-communicable diseases do not spread. They come from lifestyle, age, heredity or wear and tear in the body.
Step 3: Check option (1).
Arthritis is the swelling and pain of joints. It is caused by age, wear and tear or the body's own defence system, and it cannot pass from person to person. So option (1) is right.
Step 4: Check option (2).
Malaria is caused by a parasite spread by the female Anopheles mosquito. It is communicable. So option (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3).
Dengue is a virus disease spread by the Aedes mosquito. It is communicable. So option (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4).
Influenza (flu) is a virus disease that spreads through droplets in the air. It is communicable. So option (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The non-communicable disease is Arthritis, option (1).
Which of the following does not occur in adolescence phase as per World Health Organisation (WHO)?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We must find the change that the WHO does not list for adolescence (ages 10 to 19).
Step 2: Key Idea:
WHO describes adolescence as the phase in which (i) a person moves from the first signs of secondary sex characteristics to reproductive maturity, (ii) mental processes and identity shift from a child pattern to an adult pattern, and (iii) the person moves from full social and economic dependence to relative independence.
Step 3: Check option (1).
Development of secondary sex characteristics (puberty) is the first point of the WHO description. It occurs. So option (1) is not the answer.
Step 4: Check option (2).
Reaching reproductive maturity is part of the same WHO description. It occurs. So option (2) is not the answer.
Step 5: Check option (3).
An establishment of a differential identity is not in the WHO description. The WHO speaks of moving to an adult identity, not a differential one. So this does not occur, and option (3) is the answer.
Step 6: Check option (4).
Development of an adult identity is the second point of the WHO description. It occurs. So option (4) is not the answer.
Final Answer:
The item that is not in the WHO description of adolescence is the establishment of a differential identity, option (3).
Which of the following is the psychological advantage of physical activities for children with special needs ?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The question asks which benefit is psychological, that is, about the mind and feelings.
Step 2: Key Idea:
Benefits of physical activity are grouped as physical (body), psychological (mind and emotions) and social (dealing with others). Anxiety, stress and depression are mental states, so reducing them is a psychological benefit.
Step 3: Check option (1).
Better gross motor skills means better control of large muscles. This is a physical benefit. So option (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2).
Preventing obesity is a physical and health benefit. So option (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3).
Lower anxiety, stress and depression changes the mind and mood. This is a psychological benefit. So option (3) is right.
Step 6: Check option (4).
Building social skills is a social benefit, since it concerns how the child mixes with others. So option (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The psychological advantage is reduced anxiety, stress and depression, option (3).
What is the medical condition for Hypertension in the body?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The question asks what hypertension means in medical terms.
Step 2: Key Idea:
Hypertension is the medical word for high blood pressure. Blood pressure is the force of blood on the walls of the arteries. When it stays above the normal range (about 120/80 mmHg) for a long time, the condition is called hypertension. Low blood pressure is called hypotension.
Step 3: Check option (1).
Normal blood pressure is a healthy state, not a disease. So option (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2).
Abnormally elevated blood pressure is exactly the meaning of hypertension. So option (2) is right.
Step 5: Check option (3).
Decreased blood pressure is hypotension, the opposite condition. So option (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4).
Increased respiratory rate is fast breathing and has no link with the definition of hypertension. So option (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Hypertension means abnormally elevated blood pressure, option (2).
On which of the following date, the National Mid-Day Meal Programme in Schools was launched ?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The question asks for the launch date of the National Mid-Day Meal Programme in schools.
Step 2: Key Idea:
The National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education, better known as the Mid-Day Meal scheme, was launched by the Government of India on 15 August 1995. It began in 2,408 blocks and later covered the whole country. Its aim is to improve nutrition and increase school attendance.
Step 3: Check option (1).
15 August 1996 has the right day and month but the wrong year. The scheme began a year earlier. So option (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2).
2 October 1995 has the right year but the wrong day. This date is Gandhi Jayanti, but it is not the start of this scheme. So option (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3).
15 August 1995 matches the official launch date. So option (3) is right.
Step 6: Check option (4).
2 October 1996 has both the day and the year wrong. So option (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The Mid-Day Meal Programme was launched on 15 August 1995, option (3).
Arrange the following functions in a sequential order of-Potassium, Calcium, Iron and Copper respectively-
A. Needed for Iron metabolism
B. Needed for Nerve transmission
C. Carries oxygen to every cell of the body
D. Important for Healthy Teeth
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We must match the four minerals in the given order (Potassium, Calcium, Iron, Copper) with their functions A to D.
Step 2: Key Idea:
Potassium helps nerves send signals and keeps muscle action normal. Calcium builds strong bones and teeth. Iron is part of haemoglobin, which carries oxygen in the blood to every cell. Copper helps the body use iron (iron metabolism). So the matching is Potassium-B, Calcium-D, Iron-C, Copper-A.
Step 3: Check option (1).
The order B, D, C, A gives Potassium-B (nerve transmission), Calcium-D (healthy teeth), Iron-C (oxygen carrying) and Copper-A (iron metabolism). All four match. So option (1) is right.
Step 4: Check option (2).
The order A, B, D, C gives Potassium-A, which is wrong because iron metabolism is a copper job. So option (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3).
The order B, A, D, C gives Calcium-A and Iron-D, which are both wrong. So option (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4).
The order C, B, D, A gives Potassium-C (oxygen carrying), which is the job of iron. So option (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The correct sequence is B, D, C, A, option (1).
Match the motivational approach mentioned in List-I with the Motivational Techniques in List-II
| LIST-I Approaches | LIST-II Motivational Techniques | ||
|---|---|---|---|
| A. | Cognitive Approach | I. | Make task Specific |
| B. | Pedagogical Approach | II. | Performance appraisals |
| C. | Social Support Strategy | III. | Social networking and perception of people around them |
| D. | Facilitation Approach | IV. | Fun-based Training |
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:Motivation is the inner drive that makes an athlete start, keep up and put effort into training. Coaches use different approaches to raise this drive. Each approach has its own matching technique, and this question asks us to pair them.
Step 2: Match A, the Cognitive Approach:
The cognitive approach works on the way an athlete thinks about a task. Clear, specific goals help the athlete know what to do next. So A matches I (Make task specific).
Step 3: Match B, the Pedagogical Approach:
Pedagogy means the way of teaching. Teaching through games and enjoyable drills keeps learners interested, especially children. So B matches IV (Fun-based training).
Step 4: Match C, the Social Support Strategy:
Social support comes from teammates, family, friends and coaches. An athlete feels driven when the people around them value the effort. So C matches III (Social networking and perception of people around them).
Step 5: Match D, the Facilitation Approach:
A facilitator guides and checks progress. Performance appraisals give feedback on how well the athlete is doing and what to improve. So D matches II (Performance appraisals).
Step 6: Compare with the options:
We now have A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II. Option 1 is exactly this set. Option 2 gives B-I and D-IV, which is wrong. Option 3 gives A-III and C-IV, which is wrong. Option 4 gives A-III and C-I, which is wrong.
Final Answer:
The correct matching is A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II, which is option 1. \[\boxed{\text{Option 1}}\]
In a Standard 400 Meter Track, the width of lane should be -
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:A standard 400 m track is divided into lanes so each runner has a fixed path. The question asks for the official width of one lane.
Step 2: Key Fact:
As per athletics rules, each lane is 1.22 m wide, and it may vary only a little up to 1.25 m. The lane width includes the white line on its right side, which is 5 cm wide.
Step 3: Check option (1):
1.40 m to 1.50 m is too wide for a lane on a standard track. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2):
2.15 m to 2.50 m is much too wide. It is closer to the size of a throwing circle than a running lane. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3):
1.00 m to 1.10 m is too narrow for runners and does not match the rule. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4):
1.22 m to 1.25 m matches the official rule exactly. So option 4 is right.
Final Answer:
The width of a lane on a standard 400 m track is 1.22 m to 1.25 m. The answer is option 4. \[\boxed{\text{Option 4}}\]
The length of a Baton in Relay Races can be -
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:In relay races, the runners pass a hollow tube called a baton to their team mates. The question asks for its official length.
Step 2: Key Fact:
As per the athletics rules, the baton is a smooth hollow tube. Its length is 28 cm to 30 cm and its circumference is 12 cm to 13 cm. Its weight is not less than 50 g.
Step 3: Check option (1):
25-30 cm starts below the minimum of 28 cm, so it is not the official range. Option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2):
30-35 cm is above the limit of 30 cm. Option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3):
28-30 cm is the exact official range. Option 3 is right.
Step 6: Check option (4):
35-40 cm is far too long for a baton. Option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
The baton in relay races is 28 cm to 30 cm long. The answer is option 3. \[\boxed{\text{Option 3}}\]
The Diameter of Discus Throw circle in Track & field event is -
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The discus is thrown from inside a circle. The question asks for the diameter of this circle.
Step 2: Key Fact:
The discus throw circle has a diameter of 2.50 m. In comparison, the shot put circle and the hammer throw circle are both 2.135 m wide.
Step 3: Check option (1):
2.30 m is not the official size for any throwing circle. Option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2):
2.50 m matches the rule for the discus circle. Option 2 is right.
Step 5: Check option (3):
2.40 m is not an official size for a discus circle. Option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4):
2.60 m is bigger than the official size. Option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
The discus throw circle is 2.50 m in diameter. The answer is option 2. \[\boxed{2.50\ \text{m}}\]
Arrange the following lines of the Handball Court from the end line towards the center line in a sequential order-
A. Goal keeper line
B. Goal line
C. Penalty line
D. Free throw line
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:A handball court is 40 m long and 20 m wide. Different lines are marked in front of each goal. We need to list them in the order in which we meet them as we walk from the end line towards the center line.
Step 2: Key Facts:
The goal line is at the very end, between the goal posts. The goalkeeper restriction line is 4 m from the goal line. The penalty (7 m) line is 7 m from the goal line. The free throw line is a dashed line 9 m from the goal line.
Step 3: Put the distances in order:
Goal line (0 m), then goalkeeper line (4 m), then penalty line (7 m), then free throw line (9 m). So the order is B, A, C, D.
Step 4: Check option (1):
A, C, B, D puts the goalkeeper line first and the goal line third. The goal line is nearest to the end, so this is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (2):
B, A, C, D matches the order of distances 0 m, 4 m, 7 m, 9 m. This is right.
Step 6: Check option (3):
B, A, D, C puts the free throw line (9 m) before the penalty line (7 m). This is wrong.
Step 7: Check option (4):
C, B, D, A starts with the penalty line and ends with the goalkeeper line. This is the wrong way round.
Final Answer:
The order from the end line is Goal line, Goal keeper line, Penalty line, Free throw line, that is B, A, C, D. The answer is option 2. \[\boxed{B,\ A,\ C,\ D}\]
Out of the following, select the correct types of techniques to finish the race.
A. Lunging forward
B. Shoulder shrug
C. Hitch kick
D. Run through
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:In a sprint the winner is decided when the torso crosses the finish line. Athletes use special finishing techniques so that the torso reaches the line as early as possible. We must pick which listed items are such techniques.
Step 2: Key Facts:
There are three finishing techniques: run through, forward lunge and shoulder shrug. Run through means to keep running at full speed past the line. Forward lunge means to lean the chest forward at the tape. Shoulder shrug means to turn one shoulder forward at the line.
Step 3: Check A, Lunging forward:
This is a finishing technique. So A is correct.
Step 4: Check B, Shoulder shrug:
This is a finishing technique. So B is correct.
Step 5: Check C, Hitch kick:
The hitch kick is a style of flight in the long jump, where the athlete pedals the legs in the air. It is not used to finish a race. So C is not correct.
Step 6: Check D, Run through:
This is the most common finishing technique. So D is correct.
Step 7: Match with the options:
The correct items are A, B and D. Option 2 says "A, B and D only". Options 1, 3 and 4 include C, so they are wrong.
Final Answer:
Lunging forward, shoulder shrug and run through finish a race, while the hitch kick belongs to the long jump. The answer is option 2. \[\boxed{\text{A, B and D only}}\]
Match the Gymnastics apparatus given in List-I with their related Techniques in List-II
| LIST-I Gymnastics Apparatus | LIST-II Related Techniques | ||
|---|---|---|---|
| A. | Uneven Bars | I. | Backhand Spring |
| B. | Pommel Horse | II. | KIP technique |
| C. | Balancing Beam | III. | Forward Scissor |
| D. | Roman Rings | IV. | T-Balance |
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:Each gymnastics apparatus has its own skills. We must link the apparatus in List-I with the skill that is done on it in List-II.
Step 2: Match A, Uneven Bars:
The kip is a swinging move where the gymnast pulls the body up from a hang to a support on the bar. It is a basic skill on the uneven bars. So A matches II (KIP technique).
Step 3: Match B, Pommel Horse:
The forward scissor is a leg swing skill done on the pommel horse, where the legs cross in a scissor-like way while the hands stay on the pommels. So B matches III (Forward Scissor).
Step 4: Match C, Balancing Beam:
The backhand spring (back handspring) is a tumbling skill done on the floor and on the balance beam. So C matches I (Backhand Spring).
Step 5: Match D, Roman Rings:
The T-balance (T position) is a strength hold done on the rings. So D matches IV (T-Balance).
Step 6: Compare with the options:
We get A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV. This is option 2. Option 1 has A-I and C-II, which is wrong. Option 3 has B-II, C-IV and D-III, which is wrong. Option 4 has A-III, B-IV, C-I and D-II, which is wrong.
Final Answer:
The correct match is A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV, which is option 2. \[\boxed{\text{Option 2}}\]
Which of the following are the health-related careers in the field of physical education?
A. Sports Medicine Physician
B. Physical Fitness Instructor
C. Dietician
D. Sports Director
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We must pick the careers that belong to the health and fitness area of physical education.
Careers in this field are grouped as teaching, coaching, sports management, sports media and health and fitness.
Step 2: Sort the four careers:
A Sports Medicine Physician treats and prevents sports injuries. This is a health career.
A Physical Fitness Instructor trains people to stay fit. This is a health and fitness career.
A Dietician plans diet and nutrition for health and performance. This is a health career.
A Sports Director runs and manages sports programmes. This is a sports management career, not a health career.
Step 3: Check each option:
Option 1 (A, B and D) is wrong because it has D, the Sports Director.
Option 2 (A, B and C) has only health-related careers, so it is right.
Option 3 (A, C and D) is wrong because it has D and leaves out B.
Option 4 (B, C and D) is wrong because it has D and leaves out A.
Final Answer:
A, B and C are health-related careers, and D is a management career. \[\boxed{\text{Option 2: A, B and C only}}\]
While performing Running, Jumping and Calisthenics movements can be seen directly those result into toned muscles and increased muscle length, These are known as
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The question describes movements like running, jumping and calisthenics. In these the muscle length changes and the muscles get toned. We need the name of this type of exercise.
Step 2: Key idea:
In isotonic exercises the muscle tension stays the same while the muscle shortens or lengthens, so a visible movement takes place. Running, jumping and calisthenics are common examples.
Step 3: Check each option:
Option 1, isometric exercises: the muscle contracts but its length does not change and no movement is seen. So it is wrong.
Option 2, isotonic exercises: movement with a change in muscle length, which fits.
Option 3, isokinetic exercises: movement at a constant speed on special machines. Running and jumping are not done this way. So it is wrong.
Option 4, anaerobic exercises: this names an energy system that works without oxygen, not a type of muscle contraction. So it is wrong.
Final Answer:
The exercises are isotonic exercises. \[\boxed{\text{Option 2: Isotonic Exercises}}\]
A method of running a set distance at a uniform speed is known as -
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We need the name of the speed training method in which a fixed distance is covered at an even speed.
Step 2: Key idea:
In a pace run, the athlete runs a set distance at a steady, planned speed. It teaches the athlete to hold a chosen pace.
Step 3: Check each option:
Option 1, pace runs: a set distance at a uniform speed. This is the correct match.
Option 2, acceleration runs: the speed is raised gradually from slow to fast, so the speed is not uniform. It is wrong.
Option 3, speed endurance: the ability to keep a high speed for a longer time. It is a quality, not a running method. It is wrong.
Option 4, movement speed: the speed of a single movement, not a method of running a distance. It is wrong.
Final Answer:
The method is called pace runs. \[\boxed{\text{Option 1: Pace Runs}}\]
In which of the following methods, the muscle is contracted for few seconds and it gains maximum relaxation after the contraction?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The question asks which flexibility method uses a muscle contraction for a few seconds, followed by deep relaxation of that muscle.
Step 2: Key idea:
In the PNF method (proprioceptive neuro-muscular facilitation), the muscle is first stretched, then contracted against resistance for a few seconds, then relaxed. After the contraction the muscle relaxes fully and can be stretched further.
Step 3: Check each option:
Option 1, ballistic method: bouncing or swinging movements with no planned contraction and relaxation. It is wrong.
Option 2, static stretching: the muscle is held in a stretched position without a deliberate contraction. It is wrong.
Option 3, slow stretch and hold: this is also a hold in a stretched position. There is no contraction phase. It is wrong.
Option 4, PNF: stretch, contract for a few seconds, relax and stretch further. This fits the question.
Final Answer:
The method is PNF. \[\boxed{\text{Option 4: Proprioceptive neuro-muscular facilitation}}\]
Which of the following are the methods to develop flexibility?
A. Ballistic Method
B. Slow Stretch and Hold
C. Speed Play
D. Proprioceptive Neuro- Muscular Facilitation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We must pick the methods that develop flexibility from the four given.
Step 2: Sort the methods:
The ballistic method uses bouncing and swinging stretches. It develops flexibility.
Slow stretch and hold is a static stretch. It develops flexibility.
Speed play (fartlek) is a continuous running method with changes of speed. It develops endurance, not flexibility.
PNF uses stretch, contract and relax. It develops flexibility.
Step 3: Check each option:
Option 1 has C, which is wrong.
Option 2 has A, B and D, all flexibility methods. It is right.
Option 3 has all four, including C, so it is wrong.
Option 4 has C and leaves out A, so it is wrong.
Final Answer:
A, B and D develop flexibility. C is an endurance method. \[\boxed{\text{Option 2: A, B and D only}}\]
Match the types/ methods of speed training in List- I with the duration associated with that method presented in List-II
| LIST-I Types / Methods | LIST-II Duration |
|---|---|
| A. Speed Endurance | I. At least 20 minutes |
| B. Slow Continuous Method | II. From 15 minutes to 1 hour |
| C. Fast Continuous Method | III. Lasts up to 45 seconds |
| D. Variable Pace Method | IV. Not less than 30 minutes |
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We must pair each training method with the time it lasts.
Step 2: Match the sure pairs first:
Speed endurance work is short and very fast. It lasts up to 45 seconds. So A goes with III.
The slow continuous method is a long, easy run. It lasts not less than 30 minutes. So B goes with IV.
Step 3: Match the rest:
The fast continuous method is run at a higher speed than the slow one, so it is shorter. It lasts at least 20 minutes. So C goes with I.
The variable pace method changes speed during the run and lasts from 15 minutes to 1 hour. So D goes with II.
Step 4: Check each option:
Option 1 pairs A with I. Speed endurance is not 20 minutes long, so it is wrong.
Option 2 also pairs A with I, so it is wrong.
Option 3 pairs B with II and C with IV. A slow continuous run is the longest one, so it cannot be the 15 minute to 1 hour method. It is wrong.
Option 4 gives A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II, which matches all four pairs.
Final Answer:
The correct pairs are A-III, B-IV, C-I and D-II. \[\boxed{\text{Option 4: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II}}\]
What is the recommended dumbbell weight for women in Rikli and Jones Senior Citizens arm curl test ?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The Rikli and Jones Senior Citizen Fitness Test has an arm curl test. It checks upper body strength. We need the dumbbell weight used for women.
Step 2: Key fact:
In the arm curl test, women use a 5 pound (about 2.27 kg) dumbbell and men use an 8 pound (about 3.63 kg) dumbbell. The test counts the number of curls done in 30 seconds.
Step 3: Check each option:
Option 1, 5 pounds: the correct weight for women.
Option 2, 8 pounds: this is the weight for men. It is wrong.
Options 3 and 4, 6 pounds and 4 pounds: these are not the weights used in the test. They are wrong.
Final Answer:
Women use a 5 pound dumbbell. \[\boxed{\text{Option 1: 5 pounds}}\]
The purpose of (4x10 Meters) Shuttle Run Test is to determine-
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:The Shuttle Run is a fitness test in the school physical fitness battery. Each test measures one fitness component, so we must match the test with its component.
Step 2: Key Approach:
In the 4x10 m Shuttle Run, the student runs back and forth between two lines 10 metres apart and moves blocks. The student has to start, stop and turn again and again.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Quick starts, sharp turns and fast direction changes need agility and speed. So this test measures agility and speed.
Step 4: Check option (1):
Explosive leg strength is measured by jump tests such as the Standing Broad Jump. So (1) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (3):
Upper-body flexibility is measured by tests like Shoulder and Wrist Rotation. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4):
Speed and endurance together are not the aim here. Endurance needs a long effort like a 600 m run. The shuttle run is short. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The 4x10 m Shuttle Run test measures agility and speed. This is option (2). \[ \boxed{\text{Option 2}} \]
Which of the following statement is Not correct with respect to the procedure of performing Standing Broad Jump?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We need the statement that does NOT match the Standing Broad Jump. The word 'standing' is the clue.
Step 2: Key Approach:
In a standing jump the athlete jumps from a standing position, without a run up. The jump uses only the leg and arm swing.
Step 3: Check statement (1):
A 10 to 20 metre approach run is used in the long jump, not in the standing broad jump. So (1) is NOT correct. It is our answer.
Step 4: Check statement (2):
The athlete stands behind the take off line with feet slightly apart. This is correct.
Step 5: Check statement (3):
The athlete bends the knees and swings the arms back, then extends the knees and swings the arms forward for drive. This is correct.
Step 6: Check statement (4):
The aim is to cover the longest distance in the jump. This is correct.
Final Answer:
The approach run is not part of the Standing Broad Jump. This is option (1). \[ \boxed{\text{Option 1}} \]
Match the Long/Short term effect on body systems presented in List-I with their resultants presented in List-II
| LIST-I Long/Short term effect on body systems | LIST-II Resultants |
|---|---|
| A. Long term effect on the Muscular system | I. Hypertrophy of muscles |
| B. Short term effect on the Muscular system | II. Increased muscle temperature |
| C. Long term effect on the Respiratory system | III. Respiratory rate increases |
| D. Short term effect on the Respiratory system | IV. Lung volume increases |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:Exercise changes the body in two ways. Short term (acute) effects appear during or right after one session. Long term (chronic) effects build up after weeks or months of regular training.
Step 2: Match A:
Long term effect on the muscular system is hypertrophy, which means muscle fibres grow bigger with regular training. So A matches I.
Step 3: Match B:
Short term effect on the muscular system is a rise in muscle temperature during exercise, because muscles produce heat when they work. So B matches II.
Step 4: Match C:
Long term effect on the respiratory system is an increase in lung volume and capacity from regular training. So C matches IV.
Step 5: Match D:
Short term effect on the respiratory system is a faster breathing rate during exercise to supply more oxygen. So D matches III.
Step 6: Compare with options:
We have A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III. Option (1) has B-III, wrong. Option (2) has C-III, wrong. Option (4) has A-III, wrong. Only option (3) matches.
Final Answer:
The correct matching is A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III. This is option (3). \[ \boxed{\text{A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III}} \]
Arrange the following test equipment used in Backward Medicine Ball Throw Test and Arm Curl Test in a sequential order according to their weight from minimum to maximum.
A. Dumbbell for men
B. Medicine ball for boys
C. Medicine ball for girls
D. Dumbbell for women
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We must list the four items from lightest to heaviest. So we need the standard weight of each item in the fitness test battery.
Step 2: Medicine balls:
In the Backward Medicine Ball Throw, the ball weighs 2 kg for girls and 3 kg for boys.
Step 3: Dumbbells:
In the Arm Curl Test (senior citizen fitness test), the dumbbell weighs 5 pounds (about 2.27 kg) for women and 8 pounds (about 3.63 kg) for men.
Step 4: Arrange in order:
In kg: C (girls ball) = 2, D (women dumbbell) = 2.27, B (boys ball) = 3, A (men dumbbell) = 3.63. Order from minimum to maximum: C, D, B, A.
Step 5: Check the options:
Option (1) starts with A, the heaviest, so it is wrong. Option (2) puts C second and A third, wrong. Option (3) starts with B, wrong. Option (4) is C, D, B, A, which matches.
Final Answer:
The order from lightest to heaviest is C, D, B, A. This is option (4). \[ \boxed{\text{C, D, B, A}} \]
Straight Push-Ups is an example of-
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:A lever has three parts: fulcrum (pivot), load and effort. The class of the lever depends on which part is in the middle.
Step 2: Key Approach:
First class: fulcrum in the middle. Second class: load in the middle. Third class: effort in the middle.
Step 3: Apply to push-ups:
In a straight push-up the toes stay on the ground and act as the fulcrum. The body weight (load) acts at the centre of the body. The effort comes from the arms at the far end. The load lies between the fulcrum and the effort, so this is a second class lever.
Step 4: Check option (1):
Law of Inertia is a law of motion, not a type of lever. So (1) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (2):
In a first class lever, the fulcrum is in the middle, like a seesaw. This is not the push-up. So (2) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4):
In a third class lever the effort lies in the middle, like a biceps curl. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
Straight push-ups are an example of a second class lever. This is option (3). \[ \boxed{\text{Second Class Lever}} \]
In shot-put, a player applies more force and tosses the shot-put at the correct angle has a greater displacement of shot-put, whereas a player who exerts less force has a lesser displacement. Which law applies in this example?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:Newton gave three laws of motion: inertia, acceleration (momentum) and action-reaction. We must pick the law that links force to the resulting motion.
Step 2: Key Approach:
Newton's second law (Law of Acceleration or Law of Momentum) says the rate of change of momentum is proportional to the applied force. More force gives more acceleration.
Step 3: Apply to shot-put:
A bigger force on the shot gives it a bigger speed at release. A bigger speed at the right angle means a longer throw. A smaller force gives a shorter throw. This is the second law.
Step 4: Check option (1):
Law of Inertia says a body stays at rest or in motion unless a force acts. It does not compare force sizes. So (1) is wrong.
Step 5: Check option (2):
Law of Reaction says every action has an equal and opposite reaction. It is not about force and displacement. So (2) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4):
Gravity pulls the shot down in every throw. It does not explain the difference between strong and weak throws. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The example shows Newton's second law, given here as the Law of Momentum. This is option (3). \[ \boxed{\text{Law of Momentum}} \]
is the ability to execute movement with greater range around a joint.
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:The question gives a definition of a motor component. The key words are 'greater range around a joint'.
Step 2: Key Approach:
Flexibility is the ability to move a joint through its full range of motion.
Step 3: Check option (1):
Speed is the ability to do a movement or cover a distance in the shortest time. It is about time, not range. So (1) is wrong.
Step 4: Check option (2):
Flexibility fits the definition exactly. So (2) is right.
Step 5: Check option (3):
Endurance is the ability to keep working for a long time without tiring. So (3) is wrong.
Step 6: Check option (4):
Strength is the ability to overcome resistance. So (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The blank is flexibility. This is option (2). \[ \boxed{\text{Flexibility}} \]
From the following, select the examples of the 3rd class lever-
A. Triceps causing extension at elbow
B. V Sit-Up position
C. Biceps causing flexion at the elbow
D. Sit-Ups
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:In a third class lever the effort acts between the fulcrum and the load. It gives speed and range of movement, and it is the most common lever in the human body.
Step 2: Check statement A:
Triceps causing extension at the elbow is a first class lever. The elbow joint is the fulcrum between the triceps pull and the weight of the forearm. So A is not third class.
Step 3: Check statement B:
In the V sit-up position, the trunk and legs are lifted together and balance on the hips. The hip is the fulcrum and it sits between the two raised ends, so it acts as a first class lever. So B is not third class.
Step 4: Check statement C:
Biceps causing flexion at the elbow: the elbow is the fulcrum, the biceps pulls near the elbow, and the load is in the hand. Effort is between fulcrum and load, so C is a third class lever.
Step 5: Check statement D:
In sit-ups, the hip flexors pull the trunk up. The effort acts between the fulcrum at the hip and the load of the upper body. So D is a third class lever.
Step 6: Compare with options:
Only C and D are correct. This is option (4).
Final Answer:
Biceps flexion and sit-ups are third class levers. This is option (4). \[ \boxed{\text{C and D only}} \]
Match the types of fracture given in List-I with their symptoms in List-II
| LIST-I Types of Fracture | LIST-II Symptoms | ||
|---|---|---|---|
| A. | Transverse | I. | Soft bone bends |
| B. | Green-stick | II. | Straight break right across a bone |
| C. | Oblique | III. | Bone breaks diagonally |
| D. | Impacted | IV. | Broken ends of the bones are jammed together |
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:A fracture is a break in a bone. Doctors name a fracture by how the bone breaks. In this question we match each fracture type with its description.
Step 2: Match A, Transverse:
The word transverse means across. In a transverse fracture the break line runs straight across the bone at a right angle to its length. So A matches II.
Step 3: Match B, Green-stick:
A green twig bends and splits without snapping fully. In the same way, a child's soft bone bends and cracks on one side. So B matches I.
Step 4: Match C, Oblique:
Oblique means slanting. The bone breaks along a diagonal line. So C matches III.
Step 5: Match D, Impacted:
In an impacted fracture, the broken ends are driven into each other, so they are jammed together. So D matches IV.
Step 6: Pick the option:
We have A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV. Option 1 gives A-I, so it is wrong. Option 3 gives A-I, so it is wrong. Option 4 gives A-III, so it is wrong. Option 2 matches all four pairs.
Final Answer:
The correct matching is A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV, which is option 2.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
Personality is derived from a Latin word 'persona' Personality Functions of a person is an introvert or extrovert, she/he has a preferred pattern to deal with the situations. Introverts are people interested in their own mental self, opt to live in their own world of feelings and thoughts whereas Extroverts are broad minded, highly socialized, bold and outgoing. According to the theory of personality by Carl Gustov Jung , the two attitudes of extraversion and introversion cannot be demonstrated in isolation. These need to be associated with one of the four functions (Sensing, Intuitive, Thinking, and Feeling). This theory was not designed to label a type of people; instead the purpose was to demonstrate the complexity of human typology. The four functions are divided into what Jung called rational (or judging) and irrational (or perceiving) functions. According to Jung ,Thinking and Sensing are rational while Intuition and Feelings are irrational. While explaining personality through the term introvert and extrovert, there is reference of third term also called ambivert which is relatively a new term. Jung did not use the word to explain that there is no such thing as a pure introvert or extrovert. Ambiverts reflect a blend of traits from the introvert as well as the extrovert along with having some specific strengths. Another important trait approach which can provide essential insights into the key elements of personality is offered by Paul Costa and Robert Mccrae. They have given emphasis of the five domains or traits, which are openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. These traits are also represented by acronym ocean.
Carl Jung divided personality mainly into-
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The question asks for the main division of personality made by Carl Jung. The passage speaks of two attitudes, introversion and extraversion.
Step 2: Read the passage:
The passage says Jung described the two attitudes of extraversion and introversion. These are linked with four functions: sensing, intuitive, thinking and feeling.
Step 3: Check option 1:
Id, Ego and Super Ego are the three parts of personality in Sigmund Freud's theory, not Jung's. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option 2:
Agreeableness and neuroticism are two of the Big Five traits given by Costa and McCrae. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option 3:
Introvert and extrovert are the two attitude types of Jung. So option 3 is right.
Step 6: Check option 4:
Openness and conscientiousness are also Big Five traits of Costa and McCrae. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
Jung divided personality mainly into introvert and extrovert. The answer is option 3.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
Personality is derived from a Latin word 'persona' Personality Functions of a person is an introvert or extrovert, she/he has a preferred pattern to deal with the situations. Introverts are people interested in their own mental self, opt to live in their own world of feelings and thoughts whereas Extroverts are broad minded, highly socialized, bold and outgoing. According to the theory of personality by Carl Gustov Jung , the two attitudes of extraversion and introversion cannot be demonstrated in isolation. These need to be associated with one of the four functions (Sensing, Intuitive, Thinking, and Feeling). This theory was not designed to label a type of people; instead the purpose was to demonstrate the complexity of human typology. The four functions are divided into what Jung called rational (or judging) and irrational (or perceiving) functions. According to Jung ,Thinking and Sensing are rational while Intuition and Feelings are irrational. While explaining personality through the term introvert and extrovert, there is reference of third term also called ambivert which is relatively a new term. Jung did not use the word to explain that there is no such thing as a pure introvert or extrovert. Ambiverts reflect a blend of traits from the introvert as well as the extrovert along with having some specific strengths. Another important trait approach which can provide essential insights into the key elements of personality is offered by Paul Costa and Robert Mccrae. They have given emphasis of the five domains or traits, which are openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. These traits are also represented by acronym ocean.
Out of the following, who is/are associated with the development of the Big Five Model of personality?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We must find who developed the Big Five Model, also called the OCEAN model of personality.
Step 2: Read the passage:
The passage says that Paul Costa and Robert McCrae gave emphasis to five domains: openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness and neuroticism, shown by the acronym OCEAN.
Step 3: Check option 1:
Sigmund Freud is known for psychoanalytic theory with Id, Ego and Super Ego. He did not build the Big Five. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option 2:
Carl Rogers is known for the self theory and humanistic approach. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option 3:
Gordon Allport is known for the trait approach with cardinal, central and secondary traits. That is a different trait theory. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4:
Costa and McCrae developed the Big Five Factor Model. So option 4 is right.
Final Answer:
The Big Five Model is linked with Paul Costa and Robert McCrae. The answer is option 4.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
Personality is derived from a Latin word 'persona' Personality Functions of a person is an introvert or extrovert, she/he has a preferred pattern to deal with the situations. Introverts are people interested in their own mental self, opt to live in their own world of feelings and thoughts whereas Extroverts are broad minded, highly socialized, bold and outgoing. According to the theory of personality by Carl Gustov Jung , the two attitudes of extraversion and introversion cannot be demonstrated in isolation. These need to be associated with one of the four functions (Sensing, Intuitive, Thinking, and Feeling). This theory was not designed to label a type of people; instead the purpose was to demonstrate the complexity of human typology. The four functions are divided into what Jung called rational (or judging) and irrational (or perceiving) functions. According to Jung ,Thinking and Sensing are rational while Intuition and Feelings are irrational. While explaining personality through the term introvert and extrovert, there is reference of third term also called ambivert which is relatively a new term. Jung did not use the word to explain that there is no such thing as a pure introvert or extrovert. Ambiverts reflect a blend of traits from the introvert as well as the extrovert along with having some specific strengths. Another important trait approach which can provide essential insights into the key elements of personality is offered by Paul Costa and Robert Mccrae. They have given emphasis of the five domains or traits, which are openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. These traits are also represented by acronym ocean.
According to Carl Jung, introverts primarily focus on-
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We need to know what an introvert mainly focuses on, as the passage explains it.
Step 2: Read the passage:
The passage says introverts are people interested in their own mental self. They opt to live in their own world of feelings and thoughts.
Step 3: Check option 1:
This is almost the exact line of the passage. So option 1 is right.
Step 4: Check option 2:
Social interaction is the mark of extroverts, who are highly socialized. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option 3:
Parties and community activities are also outgoing behaviour of extroverts. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4:
Taking leadership roles is bold and outgoing behaviour, again an extrovert style. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
Introverts focus on their own world of feelings and thoughts. The answer is option 1.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
Personality is derived from a Latin word 'persona' Personality Functions of a person is an introvert or extrovert, she/he has a preferred pattern to deal with the situations. Introverts are people interested in their own mental self, opt to live in their own world of feelings and thoughts whereas Extroverts are broad minded, highly socialized, bold and outgoing. According to the theory of personality by Carl Gustov Jung , the two attitudes of extraversion and introversion cannot be demonstrated in isolation. These need to be associated with one of the four functions (Sensing, Intuitive, Thinking, and Feeling). This theory was not designed to label a type of people; instead the purpose was to demonstrate the complexity of human typology. The four functions are divided into what Jung called rational (or judging) and irrational (or perceiving) functions. According to Jung ,Thinking and Sensing are rational while Intuition and Feelings are irrational. While explaining personality through the term introvert and extrovert, there is reference of third term also called ambivert which is relatively a new term. Jung did not use the word to explain that there is no such thing as a pure introvert or extrovert. Ambiverts reflect a blend of traits from the introvert as well as the extrovert along with having some specific strengths. Another important trait approach which can provide essential insights into the key elements of personality is offered by Paul Costa and Robert Mccrae. They have given emphasis of the five domains or traits, which are openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. These traits are also represented by acronym ocean.
Broad minded, highly socialized and bold are the traits of ________ type of personality.
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The blank needs the personality type described as broad minded, highly socialized and bold.
Step 2: Read the passage:
The passage says extroverts are broad minded, highly socialized, bold and outgoing.
Step 3: Check option 1:
Neuroticism is one of the Big Five traits. It relates to emotional instability, not to these qualities. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option 2:
Introverts are interested in their own mental self. They are not described as highly socialized. So option 2 is wrong.
Step 5: Check option 3:
Conscientiousness is a Big Five trait about being careful and organised. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4:
Extroverts fit all three words in the blank. So option 4 is right.
Final Answer:
The traits belong to extroverts. The answer is option 4.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.
Personality is derived from a Latin word 'persona' Personality Functions of a person is an introvert or extrovert, she/he has a preferred pattern to deal with the situations. Introverts are people interested in their own mental self, opt to live in their own world of feelings and thoughts whereas Extroverts are broad minded, highly socialized, bold and outgoing. According to the theory of personality by Carl Gustov Jung , the two attitudes of extraversion and introversion cannot be demonstrated in isolation. These need to be associated with one of the four functions (Sensing, Intuitive, Thinking, and Feeling). This theory was not designed to label a type of people; instead the purpose was to demonstrate the complexity of human typology. The four functions are divided into what Jung called rational (or judging) and irrational (or perceiving) functions. According to Jung ,Thinking and Sensing are rational while Intuition and Feelings are irrational. While explaining personality through the term introvert and extrovert, there is reference of third term also called ambivert which is relatively a new term. Jung did not use the word to explain that there is no such thing as a pure introvert or extrovert. Ambiverts reflect a blend of traits from the introvert as well as the extrovert along with having some specific strengths. Another important trait approach which can provide essential insights into the key elements of personality is offered by Paul Costa and Robert Mccrae. They have given emphasis of the five domains or traits, which are openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism. These traits are also represented by acronym ocean.
According to The Big Five Factor Model of personality, which of the following is Not a personality trait ?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We need the option that is not one of the Big Five traits.
Step 2: Recall the five traits:
The passage lists them: openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness and neuroticism. The short form is OCEAN.
Step 3: Check option 1:
Agreeableness is in the list. So option 1 is a Big Five trait.
Step 4: Check option 2:
Self-esteem is not in the list. It is a self-related concept, not one of the five traits. So option 2 is the answer.
Step 5: Check option 3:
Openness is in the list. So option 3 is a Big Five trait.
Step 6: Check option 4:
Extraversion is in the list (the paper prints it as Exraversion). So option 4 is a Big Five trait.
Final Answer:
Self-esteem is not a Big Five trait. The answer is option 2.
Read the passage and answer the following questions
The List of Sports Awards in India highlights the country's most prestigious honors, recognizing the exceptional achievements of athletes, coaches, and sports organizations across various disciplines. The National Sports Awards are the crowning glory of sports honors.
The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, originally named the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, is India's highest sporting honor and tops the list of sports awards in India. Since its inception in 1991-1992, it has been awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The award recognizes athletes for their exceptional achievements in sports at the international level over four years. Winners receive a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize of Rs.25 lakhs. In 2021, the award was renamed to honor Dhyan Chand, a legendary Indian field hockey player.
The Arjun award started in 1961,is the second highest sports honor recognizing outstanding performance in sports over four years. The award includes a bronze statuette of Arjuna ,a certificate, ceremonial attire and a cash prize of Rs.15 lakhs. The award is named after a character from the Mahabharata epic and covers a variety of sports, including the Olympics, and Paralympics. The first awards went to P.K.Banerjee (Athletics) and Slim Durani (Cricket).
The Dronacharya award honors outstanding coaches who have enabled athletes to excel at the International level over four years. Established in 1985, the award includes a bronze statuette of Dronacharya, a certificate, ceremonial attire and a cash prize of Rs.15 lakhs. Only coaches from sports recognized by major international events are eligible.
The President of India presents the awards on National Sports Day, August 29, as a tribute to hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand. Other awards under this include the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award from 2004 for outstanding feats in adventure sports. National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports.
When was the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award renamed to Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award ?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:The question asks for the year in which the Khel Ratna Award got its new name.
Step 2: Read the passage:
The passage says the award began in 1991-1992. It then says that in 2021 the award was renamed to honor Dhyan Chand.
Step 3: Check option 1:
1992 is close to the start of the award, when it was first given. It was not the renaming year. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check options 2 and 3:
1999 and 2002 are not mentioned in the passage for this award. So options 2 and 3 are wrong.
Step 5: Check option 4:
2021 is the year given in the passage for the renaming. So option 4 is right.
Final Answer:
The award was renamed in 2021. The answer is option 4.
Read the passage and answer the following questions
The List of Sports Awards in India highlights the country's most prestigious honors, recognizing the exceptional achievements of athletes, coaches, and sports organizations across various disciplines. The National Sports Awards are the crowning glory of sports honors.
The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, originally named the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, is India's highest sporting honor and tops the list of sports awards in India. Since its inception in 1991-1992, it has been awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The award recognizes athletes for their exceptional achievements in sports at the international level over four years. Winners receive a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize of Rs.25 lakhs. In 2021, the award was renamed to honor Dhyan Chand, a legendary Indian field hockey player.
The Arjun award started in 1961,is the second highest sports honor recognizing outstanding performance in sports over four years. The award includes a bronze statuette of Arjuna ,a certificate, ceremonial attire and a cash prize of Rs.15 lakhs. The award is named after a character from the Mahabharata epic and covers a variety of sports, including the Olympics, and Paralympics. The first awards went to P.K.Banerjee (Athletics) and Slim Durani (Cricket).
The Dronacharya award honors outstanding coaches who have enabled athletes to excel at the International level over four years. Established in 1985, the award includes a bronze statuette of Dronacharya, a certificate, ceremonial attire and a cash prize of Rs.15 lakhs. Only coaches from sports recognized by major international events are eligible.
The President of India presents the awards on National Sports Day, August 29, as a tribute to hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand. Other awards under this include the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award from 2004 for outstanding feats in adventure sports. National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports.
Which of the following sports persons received the first Arjun award in athletics?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Question:We need the athlete who got the first Arjuna Award in athletics.
Step 2: Read the passage:
The passage says the first awards went to P.K. Banerjee (Athletics) and Slim Durani (Cricket).
Step 3: Check option 1:
Ankita Raina is a tennis player of later years and is not named in the passage. So option 1 is wrong.
Step 4: Check option 2:
P.K. Banerjee is named with athletics in the passage. So option 2 is right.
Step 5: Check option 3:
Varun Kumar is not named in the passage as a first award winner. So option 3 is wrong.
Step 6: Check option 4:
Salim (Slim) Durani got the first award, but in cricket, not athletics. So option 4 is wrong.
Final Answer:
P.K. Banerjee got the first Arjuna Award in athletics. The answer is option 2.
Passage: The List of Sports Awards in India highlights the country's most prestigious honors, recognizing the exceptional achievements of athletes, coaches, and sports organizations across various disciplines. The National Sports Awards are the crowning glory of sports honors.
The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, originally named the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, is India's highest sporting honor and tops the list of sports awards in India. Since its inception in 1991-1992, it has been awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The award recognizes athletes for their exceptional achievements in sports at the international level over four years. Winners receive a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize of Rs.25 lakhs. In 2021, the award was renamed to honor Dhyan Chand, a legendary Indian field hockey player.
The Arjun award started in 1961,is the second highest sports honor recognizing outstanding performance in sports over four years. The award includes a bronze statuette of Arjuna ,a certificate, ceremonial attire and a cash prize of Rs.15 lakhs. The award is named after a character from the Mahabharata epic and covers a variety of sports, including the Olympics, and Paralympics. The first awards went to P.K.Banerjee (Athletics) and Slim Durani (Cricket).
The Dronacharya award honors outstanding coaches who have enabled athletes to excel at the International level over four years. Established in 1985, the award includes a bronze statuette of Dronacharya, a certificate, ceremonial attire and a cash prize of Rs.15 lakhs. Only coaches from sports recognized by major international events are eligible.
The President of India presents the awards on National Sports Day, August 29, as a tribute to hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand. Other awards under this include the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award from 2004 for outstanding feats in adventure sports. National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports.
Who presents the highest Sports Awards in India?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the QuestionThe question asks who gives away the national sports awards in India. The last paragraph of the passage answers this directly.
Step 2: Find the line in the passage
The passage says: "The President of India presents the awards on National Sports Day, August 29, as a tribute to hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand." So the person who hands over the awards is the President.
Step 3: Check option (1)
The President of India is the head of state. The National Sports Awards, such as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna, Arjuna and Dronacharya awards, are conferred by the President at Rashtrapati Bhavan. So (1) is correct.
Step 4: Why the other options are wrong
The Prime Minister does not present these awards, so (2) is wrong. A state Governor represents the President in a state and does not give national awards, so (3) is wrong. The Sports Minister leads the ministry that manages the awards, but the passage does not name him as the presenter, so (4) is wrong.
Final Answer:
The President of India presents the highest sports awards. This is option (1).
Passage: The List of Sports Awards in India highlights the country's most prestigious honors, recognizing the exceptional achievements of athletes, coaches, and sports organizations across various disciplines. The National Sports Awards are the crowning glory of sports honors.
The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, originally named the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, is India's highest sporting honor and tops the list of sports awards in India. Since its inception in 1991-1992, it has been awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The award recognizes athletes for their exceptional achievements in sports at the international level over four years. Winners receive a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize of Rs.25 lakhs. In 2021, the award was renamed to honor Dhyan Chand, a legendary Indian field hockey player.
The Arjun award started in 1961,is the second highest sports honor recognizing outstanding performance in sports over four years. The award includes a bronze statuette of Arjuna ,a certificate, ceremonial attire and a cash prize of Rs.15 lakhs. The award is named after a character from the Mahabharata epic and covers a variety of sports, including the Olympics, and Paralympics. The first awards went to P.K.Banerjee (Athletics) and Slim Durani (Cricket).
The Dronacharya award honors outstanding coaches who have enabled athletes to excel at the International level over four years. Established in 1985, the award includes a bronze statuette of Dronacharya, a certificate, ceremonial attire and a cash prize of Rs.15 lakhs. Only coaches from sports recognized by major international events are eligible.
The President of India presents the awards on National Sports Day, August 29, as a tribute to hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand. Other awards under this include the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award from 2004 for outstanding feats in adventure sports. National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports.
When do we celebrate our National Sports Day ?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the QuestionWe need the date on which India celebrates National Sports Day. The passage gives this date in its last paragraph.
Step 2: Find the line in the passage
The passage says the President presents the awards "on National Sports Day, August 29, as a tribute to hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand." So National Sports Day is on 29th August.
Step 3: Why 29th August
Major Dhyan Chand, the hockey wizard, was born on 29 August 1905. India marks his birthday as National Sports Day every year.
Step 4: Check each option
(1) 26th January is Republic Day, so it is wrong. (2) 15th August is Independence Day, so it is wrong. (3) 29th August matches the passage, so it is correct. (4) 13th July is not linked to National Sports Day, so it is wrong.
Final Answer:
National Sports Day is celebrated on 29th August. This is option (3).
Passage: The List of Sports Awards in India highlights the country's most prestigious honors, recognizing the exceptional achievements of athletes, coaches, and sports organizations across various disciplines. The National Sports Awards are the crowning glory of sports honors.
The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, originally named the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, is India's highest sporting honor and tops the list of sports awards in India. Since its inception in 1991-1992, it has been awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The award recognizes athletes for their exceptional achievements in sports at the international level over four years. Winners receive a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize of Rs.25 lakhs. In 2021, the award was renamed to honor Dhyan Chand, a legendary Indian field hockey player.
The Arjun award started in 1961,is the second highest sports honor recognizing outstanding performance in sports over four years. The award includes a bronze statuette of Arjuna ,a certificate, ceremonial attire and a cash prize of Rs.15 lakhs. The award is named after a character from the Mahabharata epic and covers a variety of sports, including the Olympics, and Paralympics. The first awards went to P.K.Banerjee (Athletics) and Slim Durani (Cricket).
The Dronacharya award honors outstanding coaches who have enabled athletes to excel at the International level over four years. Established in 1985, the award includes a bronze statuette of Dronacharya, a certificate, ceremonial attire and a cash prize of Rs.15 lakhs. Only coaches from sports recognized by major international events are eligible.
The President of India presents the awards on National Sports Day, August 29, as a tribute to hockey legend Major Dhyan Chand. Other awards under this include the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award from 2004 for outstanding feats in adventure sports. National Sports Awards are given every year to recognize and reward excellence in sports.
Winners of Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award receive-
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the QuestionWe must state what the winners of the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award receive. The second paragraph of the passage describes this.
Step 2: Find the line in the passage
The passage says: "Winners receive a medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize of Rs.25 lakhs." This is the exact list of items.
Step 3: Check option (1)
It says a medallion, a certificate and a cash prize of Rs.25 lakhs. This matches the passage fully. So (1) is correct.
Step 4: Check option (2)
Rs.15 lakhs is the cash prize of the Arjun and Dronacharya awards, not the Khel Ratna. So (2) is wrong.
Step 5: Check options (3) and (4)
A bronze statuette is given with the Arjun and Dronacharya awards, not with the Khel Ratna. Also Rs.5 lakhs and Rs.20 lakhs are not the Khel Ratna prize. So (3) and (4) are wrong.
Final Answer:
Winners get a medallion, a certificate and Rs.25 lakhs. This is option (1).
CUET UG 2026 Exam Pattern
| Parameter | Details |
|---|---|
| Exam Name | Common University Entrance Test (CUET UG) 2026 |
| Conducting Body | National Testing Agency (NTA) |
| Exam Mode | Computer-Based Test (CBT) |
| Exam Duration | 60 minutes per test |
| Total Sections | 3 (Languages, Domain Subjects, General Test) |
| Question Type | Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) |
| Questions per Test | 50 questions (all compulsory) |
| Marking Scheme | +5 for correct, -1 for incorrect |
| Maximum Marks | 250 marks per test |
| Maximum Subject Choices | 5 subjects in total |
| Syllabus Base | Class 12 NCERT (mainly for Domain Subjects) |
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