The CAT 2025 Slot 1 Question Paper (CAT 2025, conducted by IIM Kozhikode on November 30, 2025) is available here as a free PDF download, together with the official question paper.
The CAT 2025 Slot 1 question paper includes the following:
- 68 questions in a 2-hour computer based test, split into three sections: VARC (24), DILR (22) and QA (22)
- Sectional time limit: 40 minutes per section, and candidates cannot switch between sections
- Question types: multiple choice questions (MCQs) and Type In The Answer (TITA) questions
- Marking: +3 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect MCQ, no negative marking for TITA, 0 for an unattempted question
- Maximum marks: 204
CAT 2025 Slot 1 Question Paper PDF
| Official PDF | CD PDF | CD PDF with Solutions |
|---|---|---|
| Download official PDF 0.67 MB | Download Collegedunia PDF 0.61 MB | - |
Also Check:
CAT 2025 Slot 1 Question Paper Analysis
Student reactions collected by Collegedunia right after the CAT 2025 Slot 1 exam (held by IIM Kozhikode from 8:30 am to 10:30 am) suggest the paper was moderate to difficult. DILR was the toughest section, VARC was moderate and Quant was relatively easier.
| Section | Questions | Time | Difficulty level (student feedback) |
|---|---|---|---|
| Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension (VARC) | 24 | 40 minutes | Moderate |
| Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning (DILR) | 22 | 40 minutes | Difficult (toughest section) |
| Quantitative Ability (QA) | 22 | 40 minutes | Moderate (easier than previous years) |
| Overall | 68 | 120 minutes | Moderate to Difficult |
For the detailed section-wise analysis, read CAT 2025 Slot 1 Exam Analysis.
Source: Collegedunia Exams
CAT 2025 Slot 1 Questions with Solutions
Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension (VARC) (Q1 - Q24)
Five jumbled sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence out and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.
1. Developments both technological and sociocultural have afforded us far greater freedom over death than we had in the past, and while we are still adapting ourselves to that freedom, we now appreciate the moral importance of this freedom.
2. But I believe that a type of freedom we can call freedom over death – that is, a freedom in which we shape the timing and circumstances of how we die – should be central to this conversation.
3. Legalising assisted dying is but a further step in realising this freedom over death.
4. Many people endorse, through their opinions or their choices, our freedom over death encompassing a right to medical assistance in hastening our deaths.
5. Freedom is a notoriously complex and contested philosophical notion, and I won’t pretend to settle any of the big controversies it raises.
Comprehension:
The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the
passage, choose the best answer for each question.
Often the well intentioned music lover or the traditionally-minded professional composer asks
two basic questions when faced with the electronic music phenomena: (1) . . . is this type of
artistic creation music at all? and, (2) given that the product is accepted as music of a new type
or order, is not such music “inhuman”? . . . As Lejaren Hiller points out in his book Experi-
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mental Music (co-author Leonard M. Isaacson), two questions which often arise when music isdiscussed are: (a) the substance of musical communication and its symbolic and semantic sig-
nificance, if any, and (b) the particular processes, both mental and technical, which are involved
in creating and responding to musical composition. The ever-present popular concept of music
as a direct, open, emotional expression and as a subjective form of communication from the
composer, is, of course still that of the nineteenth century, when composers themselves spoke
of music in those terms . . . But since the third decade of our century many composers have
preferred more objective definitions of music, epitomized in Stravinsky’s description of it as “a
form of speculation in terms of sound and time”. An acceptance of this more characteristic
twentieth- century view of the art of musical composition will of course immediately bring the
layman closer to an understanding of, and sympathetic response to, electronic music, even if
the forms, sounds and approaches it uses will still be of a foreign nature to him.
A communication problem however will still remain. The principal barrier that electronic music
presents at large, in relation to the communication process, is that composers in this medium
are employing a new language of forms . . . where terms like ‘densities’, ‘indefinite pitch
relations’, ‘dynamic serialization’, ‘permutation’, etc., are substitutes (or remote equivalents)
for the traditional concepts of harmony, melody, rhythm, etc. . . . When the new structural
procedures of electronic music are at last fully understood by the listener the barriers between
him and the work he faces will be removed. . . .
The medium of electronic music has of course tempted many kinds of composers to try their
hand at it . . . But the serious-minded composer approaches the world of electronic music
with a more sophisticated and profound concept of creation. Although he knows that he can
reproduce and employ melodic, rhythmic patterns and timbres of a traditional nature, he feels
that it is in the exploration of sui generis languages and forms that the aesthetic magic of the
new medium lies. And, conscientiously, he plunges into this search.
The second objection usually levelled against electronic music is much more innocent in nature.
When people speak—sometimes very vehemently—of the ‘inhuman’ quality of this music they
seem to forget that the composer is the one who fires the machines, collects the sounds, manip-
ulates them, pushes the buttons, programs the computer, filters the sounds, establishes pitches
and scales, splices tape, thinks of forms, and rounds up the over-all structure of the piece, as
well as every detail of it.
Question 2:
The goal of the author over the course of this passage is to:
What relation does the “communication problem” mentioned in paragraph 2 have to the questions that the author recounts at the beginning of the passage?
The mention of Stravinsky’s description of music in the first paragraph does all the following EXCEPT:
From the context in which it is placed, the phrase “sui generis” in paragraph 3 suggests which one of the following?
The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the four sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.
1. It can in fact be integrated into any function (education, medical treatment, production, punishment); it can increase the effect of this function, by being linked closely with it; it can constitute a mixed mechanism in which relations of power (and of knowledge) may be precisely adjusted, in the smallest detail, to the processes that are to be supervised; it can establish a direct proportion between ‘surplus power’ and ‘surplus production’.
2. It’s a case of ‘it’s easy once you’ve thought of it’ in the political sphere.
3. The panoptic mechanism is not simply a hinge, a point of exchange between a mechanism of power and a function; it is a way of making power relations function in a function, and of making a function function through these power relations.
4. In short, it arranges things in such a way that the exercise of power is not added on from the outside, like a rigid, heavy constraint, to the functions it invests, but is so subtly present in them as to increase their efficiency by itself increasing its own points of contact.
The given sentence is missing in the paragraph below. Decide where it best fits among the options 1, 2, 3, or 4 indicated in the paragraph.
Sentence: “Everything is old-world, traditional techniques from Mexico,” Ava emphasizes.
Paragraph:
The sisters embrace the ways their great-grandfather built and repaired instruments. ____(1) ____.
When crafting a Mexican guitarrón used in mariachi music, they use tacote wood for the top of the instrument. Once the wood is cut, they carve the neck and heel from a single block using tools like hand saws, chisels and sandpaper rather than modern power tools — and believe that this traditional method improves the tone of the instrument. ____(2) ____.
Their store has a three-year waitlist for instruments that take months to create. ____(3) ____.
The family's artisanship has attracted stars like Los Lobos, who own custom guitars made by all three generations of the Delgado family. ____(4) ____.
For the sisters, involvement in the family business started at an early age. They each built their first instruments at age 9.
The given sentence is missing in the paragraph below. Decide where it best fits among the options 1, 2, 3, or 4 indicated in the paragraph.
Sentence: Historically, silver has been, and still is, an important element in the business of 'show' visible in private houses, churches, government and diplomacy.
Paragraph:
____(1) ____. Timothy Schroder put it succinctly in suggesting that electric light and eating in the kitchen eroded this need. As he explained to the author, ‘Silver, when illuminated by flickering candlelight, comes alive and almost dances before the eyes, but when lit by electric light it becomes flat and dead.’ ____(2) ____. Domestic and economic changes may have worked against the market, but the London silver trade remained buoyant, thanks to the competition of collectors seeking grand display silver at the top end, and the buyers of ‘collectables’, like spoons and wine labels and ‘novelties’, at the bottom. ____(3) ____. Another factor that came into play was the systematic collection building of certain American museums over the period. Boston, Huntington Art Gallery and Williamsburg, among others, were largely supplied by London dealers. ____(4) ____.
Comprehension:
The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the passage, choose the best answer for each question.
Understanding the key properties of complex systems can help us clarify and deal with many new and existing
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global challenges, from pandemics to poverty . . . A recent study in Nature Physics found transitions to orderly states such as schooling in fish (all fish swimming in the same direction), can be caused, paradoxically, by randomness, or ‘noise’ feeding back on itself. That is, a misalignment among the fish causes further misalignment, eventually inducing a transition to schooling. Most of us wouldn’t guess that noise can produce predictable behaviour. The result invites us to consider how technology such as contact-tracing apps, although informing us locally, might negatively impact our collective movement. If each of us changes our behaviour to avoid the infected, we might generate a collective pattern we had aimed to avoid: higher levels of interaction between the infected and susceptible, or high levels of interaction among the asymptomatic.Complex systems also suffer from a special vulnerability to events that don’t follow a normal distribution or ‘bell curve’. When events are distributed normally, most outcomes are familiar and don’t seem particularly striking. Height is a good example: it’s pretty unusual for a man to be over 7 feet tall; most adults are between 5 and 6 feet, and there is no known person over 9 feet tall. But in collective settings where contagion shapes behaviour – a run on the banks, a scramble to buy toilet paper – the probability distributions for possible events are often heavy-tailed. There is a much higher probability of extreme events, such as a stock market crash or a massive surge in infections. These events are still unlikely, but they occur more frequently and are larger than would be expected under normal distributions.
What’s more, once a rare but hugely significant ‘tail’ event takes place, this raises the probability of further tail events. We might call them second-order tail events; they include stock market gyrations after a big fall and earthquake aftershocks. The initial probability of second-order tail events is so tiny it’s almost impossible to calculate – but once a first-order tail event occurs, the rules change, and the probability of a second-order tail event increases.
The dynamics of tail events are complicated by the fact that they result from cascades of other unlikely events. When COVID-19 first struck, the stock market suffered stunning losses followed by an equally stunning recovery. Some of these dynamics are potentially attributable to former sports bettors, with no sports to bet on, entering the market as speculators rather than investors. The arrival of these new players might have increased inefficiencies and allowed savvy long-term investors to gain an edge over bettors with different goals. . . .
One reason a first-order tail event can induce further tail events is that it changes the perceived costs of our actions and changes the rules that we play by. This game-change is an example of another key complex systems concept: nonstationarity. A second, canonical example of nonstationarity is adaptation, as illustrated by the arms race involved in the coevolution of hosts and parasites [in which] each has to ‘run’ faster, just to keep up with the novel solutions the other one presents as they battle it out in evolutionary time.
Question 9:
All of the following inferences are supported by the passage EXCEPT that:
Which one of the options below best summarises the passage?
Which one of the following observations would most strengthen the passage’s claim that a first-order tail event raises the probability of further tail events in complex systems?
The passage suggests that contact-tracing apps could inadvertently raise risky interactions by altering local behaviour. Which one of the assumptions below is most necessary for that suggestion to hold?
The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4) given below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.
1. But man, woman or otherwise, there is no denying that the quality of our life and character will be significantly shaped by the way we handle our anger.
2. Once the taboos have been broken, women usually experience letting their fists fly as intensely liberating.
3. Though this might seem a stereotype, women—unlike men, who are frequently applauded for unbridled aggression—are often socialized to keep a lid on their ire.
4. Many of them are so at odds with their aggressive feelings that, as a coach, I often have to stop them from pulling their punches and encourage them to extend their arms so their blows might actually reach their fleshy target.
The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.
Zombie cells may contribute to age-related chronic inflammation: this finding could help scientists understand more about the aging process and why the immune system becomes less effective as we get older. Zombie or “senescent” cells are damaged cells that can no longer divide and grow like normal cells. Scientists think that these cells can contribute to chronic health problems when they accumulate in the body. In younger people, the immune system is more effective at clearing senescent cells from the body through a process called apoptosis, but as we age this process becomes less efficient. As a result, there is an accumulation of senescent cells in different organs in the body, either through increased production or reduced clearance by the immune system. The zombie cells continue to use energy though they do not divide, and often secrete chemicals that cause inflammation, which if persistent for longer periods of time can damage healthy cells leading to chronic diseases.
Comprehension:
The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the passage, choose the best answer for each question.
How can we know what someone else is thinking or feeling, let alone prove it in court? In his 1863 book, A General View of the Criminal Law of England, James Fitzjames Stephen, among the most celebrated legal thinkers of his generation, was of the opinion that the assessment of a person’s mental state was an inference made with “little consciousness.”
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In a criminal case, jurors, doctors, and lawyers could watch defendants—scrutinizing clothing, mannerisms, tone of voice— but the best they could hope for were clues. . . . Rounding these clues up to a judgment about a defendant’s guilt, or a defendant’s life, was an act of empathy and imagination. . . . The closer the resemblance between defendants and their judges, the easier it was to overlook the gap that inference filled. Conversely, when a defendant struck officials as unlike themselves, whether by dint of disease, gender, confession, or race, the precariousness of judgments about mental state was exposed.In the nineteenth century, physicians who specialized in the study of madness and the care of the insane held themselves out as experts in the new field of mental science. Often called alienists or mad doctors, they were the predecessors of modern psychiatrists, neurologists, and psychologists. . . . The opinions of family and neighbors had once been sufficient to sift the sane from the insane, but a growing belief that insanity was a subtle condition that required expert, medical diagnosis pushed physicians into the witness box. . . . Lawyers for both prosecution and defense began to recruit alienists to assess defendants’ sanity and to testify to it in court.
Irresponsibility and insanity were not identical, however. Criminal responsibility was a legal concept and not, fundamentally, a medical one. Stephen explained: “The question ‘What are the mental elements of responsibility?’ is, and must be, a legal question. It cannot be anything else, for the meaning of responsibility is liability to punishment.” . . . Nonetheless, medical and legal accounts of what it meant to be mentally sound became entangled and mutually referential throughout the nineteenth century. Lawyers relied on medical knowledge to inform their opinions and arguments about the sanity of their clients. Doctors commented on the legal responsibility of their patients. Ultimately, the fields of criminal law and mental science were both invested in constructing an image of the broken and damaged psyche that could be contrasted with the whole and healthy one. This shared interest, and the shared space of the criminal courtroom, made it nearly impossible to consider responsibility without medicine, or insanity without law. . . .
Physicians and lawyers shared more than just concern for the mind. Class, race, and gender bound these middle-class, white, professional men together, as did family ties, patriotism, Protestantism, business ventures, the alumni networks of elite schools and universities, and structures of political patronage. But for all their affinities, men of medicine and law were divided by contests over the borders of criminal responsibility, as much within each profession as between them. Alienists steadily pushed the boundaries of their field, developing increasingly complex and capacious definitions of insanity. Eccentricity and aggression came to be classified as symptoms of mental disease, at least by some.
Question 15:
The last paragraph of the passage refers to “middle-class, white, professional men”. Which one of the following qualities best describes the connection among them?
According to the passage, who or what was an “alienist”?
Study the following sets of concepts and identify the set that is conceptually closest to the concerns and arguments of the passage.
“Conversely, when a defendant struck officials as unlike themselves, whether by dint of disease, gender, confession, or race, the precariousness of judgments about mental state was exposed.”
Which one of the following best describes the use of the word “confession” in this sentence?
Five jumbled sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence out and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.
1. The Bayeux tapestry was, therefore, an obvious way to tell people about the downfall of the English and the rise of the Normans.
2. So if we take expert in Anglo-Saxon culture Gale Owen-Crocker’s idea that the tapestry was originally hung in a square with certain scenes facing each other, people would have stood in the centre.
3. Art historian Linda Neagley has argued that pre-Renaissance people interacted with art visually, kinaesthetically (sensory perception through bodily movement) and physically.
4. That would make it an 11th-century immersive space with scenes corresponding and echoing each other, drawing the viewer’s attention, playing on their senses and understanding of the story they thought they knew.
5. The Bayeux tapestry would have been hung at eye level to enable this.
Comprehension:
The passage below is accompanied by four questions. Based on the passage, choose the best answer for each question.
Studies showing that income inequality plays a positive role in economic growth are largely based on three arguments. The first argument focuses on investment indivisibilities wherein large sunk costs are required when implementing new fundamental innovations. Without stock markets and financial institutions to mobilize large sums of money, a high concentration of wealth is needed for individuals to undertake new industrial activities accompanied by high sunk costs .
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. . [One study] shows the relation between economic growth and income inequality for 45 countries during 1966-1995. [It was found] that the increase in income inequality has a significant positive relationship with economic growth in the short and medium term. Using system GMM, [another study estimated] the relation between income inequality and economic growth for 106 countries during 1965–2005 period. The results show that income inequality has a positive impact on economic growth in the short run, but the two are negatively correlated in the long run. The second argument is related to moral hazard and incentives . . . Because economic performance is determined by the unobservable level of effort that agents make, paying compensations without taking into account the economic performance achieved by individual agents will fail to elicit optimum effort from the agents. Thus, certain income inequalities contribute to growth by enhancing worker motivation . . . and by giving motivation to innovators and entrepreneurs . . . Finally, [another study] point[s] out that the concentration of wealth or stock ownership in relation to corporate governance contributes to growth. If stock ownership is distributed and owned by a large number of shareholders, it is not easy to make quick decisions due to the conflicting interests among shareholders, and this may also cause a free-rider problem in terms of monitoring and supervising managers and workers. . . .Various studies have examined the relationships between income inequality and economic growth, and most of these assert that a negative correlation exists between the two. . . . Analyzing 159 countries for 1980–2012, they conclude that there exists a negative relation between income inequality and economic growth; when the income share of the richest 20% of population increases by 1%, the GDP decreases by 0.08%, whereas when the income share of the poorest 20% of population increases by 1%, the GDP increases by 0.38%. Some studies find that inequality has a negative impact on growth due to poor human capital accumulation and low fertility rates . . . while [others] point out that inequality creates political instability, resulting in lower investment. . . . [Some economists] argue that widening income inequality has a negative impact on economic growth because it negatively affects social consensus or social capital formation. One important research topic is the correlation between democratization and income redistribution. [Some scholars] explain that social pressure for income redistribution rises as income inequality increases in a democratic society. In other words, when democratization extends suffrage to a wider class of people, the increased political power of low- and middle-income voters results in broader support for income redistribution and social welfare expansion. However . . . if the rich have more political influence than the poor, the democratic system actually worsens income inequality rather than improving it.
Question 20:
Which one of the options below best summarises the passage?
The passage refers to "democratization". Choose the one option below that comes closest to the opposite of this process.
The primary function of the three-part case for a positive income inequality–economic growth link in the first half of the passage is to show that:
According to the incentive or moral hazard argument, which one of the designs below is most consistent with the claim that some inequality can raise growth?
The passage given below is followed by four summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.
Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning (DILR) (Q25 - Q46)
Comprehension:
A round table has seven chairs around it. The chairs are numbered 1
through 7 in a clockwise direction. Four friends, Aslam (A), Bashir (B), Chhavi (C), and
Davies (D), sit on four of the chairs. In the starting position, Aslam and Chhavi are sitting
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next to each other, while for Bashir as well as Davies, there are empty chairs on either side ofthe chairs they are sitting on.
The friends take turns moving either clockwise or counterclockwise from their chair. The friend
who has to move in a turn occupies the first empty chair in whichever direction they choose
to move. Aslam moves first (Turn 1), followed by Bashir, Chhavi, and Davies (Turns 2, 3, and
4, respectively). Then Aslam moves again followed by Bashir, and Chhavi (Turns 5, 6, and 7,
respectively).
The following information is known: 1. The four friends occupy adjacent chairs only at the end
of Turn 2 and Turn 6. 2. Davies occupies Chair 2 after Turn 1 and Chair 4 after Turn 5, and
Chhavi occupies Chair 7 after Turn 2.
Question 25:
What is the number of the chair initially occupied by Bashir?
Who sits on the chair numbered 4 at the end of Turn 3?
Which of the chairs are occupied at the end of Turn 6?
Which of the following BEST describes the friends sitting on chairs adjacent to the one occupied by Bashir at the end of Turn 7?
Comprehension:
At InnovateX, six employees, Asha, Bunty, Chintu, Dolly, Eklavya, and Falguni, were split into
two groups of three each: Elite led by Manager Kuku, and Novice led by Manager Lalu.
At the end of each quarter, Kuku and Lalu handed out ratings to all members in their respective
groups. In each group, each employee received a distinct integer rating from 1 to 3.
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The score for an employee at the end of a quarter is defined as their cumulative rating fromthe beginning of the year. At the end of each quarter the employee in Novice with the highest
score was promoted to Elite, and the employee in Elite with the minimum score was demoted
to Novice. If there was a tie in scores, the employee with a higher rating in the latest quarter
was ranked higher.
1. Asha, Bunty, and Chintu were in Elite at the beginning of Quarter 1. All of them were in
Novice at the beginning of Quarter 4.
2. Dolly and Falguni were the only employees who got the same rating across all the quarters.
3. The following is known about ratings given by Lalu (Novice manager):
– Bunty received a rating of 1 in Quarter 2.
– Asha and Dolly received ratings of 1 and 2, respectively, in Quarter 3.
Question 29:
What was Eklavya’s score at the end of Quarter 2?
Based on the above information about employee movements between Elite and Novice across the quarters, how many employees changed groups more than once up to the beginning of Quarter 4?
What was Bunty’s score at the end of Quarter 3?
For how many employees can the scores at the end of Quarter 3 be determined with certainty?
Which of the following statements is/are NECESSARILY true?
I. Asha received a rating of 2 in Quarter 1.
II. Asha received a rating of 1 in Quarter 2.
Comprehension:
Five countries engage in trade with each other. Each country levies
import tariffs on the other countries. The import tariff levied by Country X on Country Y is
calculated by multiplying the corresponding tariff percentage with the total imports of Country
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X from Country Y. The radar chart below depicts different import tariff percentages chargedby each of the five countries on the others. For example, US (the blue line in the chart) charges
20%, 40%, 30%, and 30% import tariff percentages on imports from France, India, Japan,
and UK, respectively. The bar chart depicts the import tariffs levied by each county on other
countries. For example, US charged import tariff of 3 billion USD on UK.
Assume that imports from one country to an
other equals the exports from the latter to the former. The trade surplus of Country X with
Country Y is defined as follows. Trade surplus = Exports from Country X to Country Y –
Imports to Country X from Country Y. A negative trade surplus is called trade deficit.
Question 34:
How much is Japan’s export to India worth?
Which among the following is the highest?
1. Exports by Japan to UK
2.Imports by US from France
3.Exports by France to Japan
4.Imports by France from India
What is the trade surplus/trade deficit of India with UK?
1.Surplus of 15.0 Billion USD
2. Deficit of 15.0 Billion USD
3.Surplus of 10.0 Billion USD
4. Deficit of 10.0 Billion USD
Among France and UK, who has/have trade surplus(es) with US?
1. Neither France nor UK
2. Both France and UK
3. Only UK
4. Only France
Comprehension:
A train travels from Station A to Station E, passing through stations B, C,
and D, in that order. The train has a seating capacity of 200. A ticket may be booked from
any station to any other station ahead on the route, but not to any earlier station. A ticket
from one station to another reserves one seat on every intermediate segment of the route. For
example, a ticket from B to E reserves a seat in the intermediate segments B – C, C – D, and
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D – E. The occupancy factor for a segment is the total number of seats reserved in the segmentas a percentage of the seating capacity. The total number of seats reserved for any segment
cannot exceed 200. The following information is known. 1. Segment C – D had an occupancy
factor of 952. Exactly 40 tickets were booked from B to C and 30 tickets were booked from B
to E. 3. Among the seats reserved on segment D – E, exactly four-sevenths were from stations
before C. 4. The number of tickets booked from A to C was equal to that booked from A to
E, and it was higher than that from B to E. 5. No tickets were booked from A to B, from B
to D and from D to E. 6. The number of tickets booked for any segment was a multiple of 10.
Question 38:
What was the occupancy factor for segment D–E?
1. 35%
2. 70%
3. 77%
4. 84%
How many tickets were booked from Station A to Station E?
How many tickets were booked from Station C?
What is the difference between the number of tickets booked to Station C and the number of tickets booked to Station D?
How many tickets were booked to travel in exactly one segment?
Comprehension:
Alia, Badal, Clive, Dilshan, and Ehsaan played a game in which each asks a unique question
to all the others and they respond by tapping their feet, either once or twice or thrice. One
tap means “Yes”, two taps mean “No”, and three taps mean “Maybe”. A total of 40 taps were
heard across the five questions. Each question received at least one “Yes”, one “No”, and one
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“Maybe.” The following information is known. 1. Alia tapped a total of 6 times and received 9taps to her question. She responded “Yes” to the questions asked by both Clive and Dilshan.
2. Dilshan and Ehsaan tapped a total of 11 and 9 times respectively. Dilshan responded “No”
to Badal. 3. Badal, Dilshan, and Ehsaan received equal number of taps to their respective
questions. 4. No one responded “Yes” more than twice. 5. No one’s answer to Alia’s question
matched the answer that Alia gave to that person’s question. This was also true for Ehsaan.
6. Clive tapped more times in total than Badal.
Question 43:
How many taps did Clive receive for his question?
Which two people tapped an equal number of times in total?
What was Clive’s response to Ehsaan’s question?
How many “Yes” responses were received across all the questions?
Quantitative Ability (QA) (Q47 - Q68)
Kamala divided her investment of Rs 100000 between stocks, bonds, and gold. Her investment in bonds was 25% of her investment in gold. With annual returns of 10%, 6%, 8% on stocks, bonds, and gold, respectively, she gained a total amount of Rs 8200 in one year. The amount, in rupees, that she gained from the bonds, was:
If \(a - 6b + 6c = 4\) and \(6a + 3b - 3c = 50\), where \(a, b\) and \(c\) are real numbers, the value of \(2a + 3b - 3c\) is:
The \((x, y)\) coordinates of vertices \(P\), \(Q\) and \(R\) of a parallelogram \(PQRS\) are \((-3, -2)\), \((1, -5)\) and \((9, 1)\), respectively. If the diagonal \(SQ\) intersects the x-axis at \((a, 0)\), then the value of \(a\) is:
At a certain simple rate of interest, a given sum amounts to Rs 13920 in 3 years, and to Rs 18960 in 6 years and 6 months. If the same given sum had been invested for 2 years at the same rate as before but with interest compounded every 6 months, then the total interest earned, in rupees, would have been nearest to:
Let \(3 \leq x \leq 6\) and \([x^2] = [x]^2\), where \([x]\) is the greatest integer not exceeding \(x\). If set \(S\) represents all feasible values of \(x\), then which of the following is a possible subset of \(S\)?
The number of non-negative integer values of \(k\) for which the quadratic equation \(x^2 - 5x + k = 0\) has only integer roots, is:
A shopkeeper offers a discount of \(22%\) on the marked price of each chair, and gives 13 chairs to a customer for the discounted price of 12 chairs to earn a profit of \(26%\) on the transaction. If the cost price of each chair is Rs 100, then the marked price, in rupees, of each chair is:
A cafeteria offers 5 types of sandwiches. Moreover, for each type of sandwich, a customer can choose one of 4 breads and opt for either small or large sized sandwich. Optionally, the customer may also add up to 2 out of 6 available sauces. The number of different ways in which an order can be placed for a sandwich, is:
The number of distinct integers \(n\) for which \(\log_{\left(\frac14\right)}(n^2 - 7n + 11) > 0\) is:
For any natural number \(k\), let \(a_k = 3^k\). The smallest natural number \(m\) for which \[ (a_1)^1 \times (a_2)^2 \times \dots \times (a_{20})^{20} \;<\; a_{21} \times a_{22} \times \dots \times a_{20+m} \]
is:
The number of distinct pairs of integers \((x, y)\) satisfying the inequalities \(x > y \ge 3\) and \(x + y < 14\) is:
In a circle with center \(C\) and radius \(6\sqrt{2}\) cm, \(PQ\) and \(SR\) are two parallel chords separated by one of the diameters. If \(\angle PQC = 45^\circ\), and the ratio of the perpendicular distance of \(PQ\) and \(SR\) from \(C\) is \(3:2\), then the area, in sq. cm, of the quadrilateral \(PQRS\) is:
Stocks A, B and C are priced at rupees 120, 90 and 150 per share, respectively. A trader holds a portfolio consisting of 10 shares of stock A, and 20 shares of stocks B and C put together. If the total value of her portfolio is rupees 3300, then the number of shares of stock B that she holds is:
A value of \(c\) for which the minimum value of \(f(x) = x^2 - 4cx + 8c\) is greater than the maximum value of \(g(x) = -x^2 + 3cx - 2c\), is:
Shruti travels a distance of 224 km in four parts for a total travel time of 3 hours. Her speeds in these four parts follow an arithmetic progression, and the corresponding time taken to cover these four parts follow another arithmetic progression. If she travels at a speed of 960 meters per minute for 30 minutes to cover the first part, then the distance, in meters, she travels in the fourth part is:
In a 3-digit number \(N\), the digits are non-zero and distinct such that none of the digits is a perfect square, and only one of the digits is a prime number. Then, the number of factors of the minimum possible value of \(N\) is:
The ratio of the number of students in the morning shift and afternoon shift of a school was \(13 : 9\). After 21 students moved from the morning shift to the afternoon shift, this ratio became \(19 : 14\). Next, some new students joined the morning and afternoon shifts in the ratio \(3 : 8\) and then the ratio of the number of students in the morning shift and the afternoon shift became \(5 : 4\). The number of new students who joined is:
If the length of a side of a rhombus is 36 cm and the area of the rhombus is 396 sq. cm, then the absolute value of the difference between the lengths, in cm, of the diagonals of the rhombus is:
In the set of consecutive odd numbers \(\{1, 3, 5, \ldots, 57\}\), there is a number \(k\) such that the sum of all the elements less than \(k\) is equal to the sum of all the elements greater than \(k\). Then, \(k\) equals?
A container holds 200 litres of a solution of acid and water, having 30% acid by volume. Atul replaces 20% of this solution with water, then replaces 10% of the resulting solution with acid, and finally replaces 15% of the solution thus obtained, with water. The percentage of acid by volume in the final solution obtained after these three replacements, is nearest to?
Arun, Varun and Tarun, if working alone, can complete a task in 24, 21, and 15 days, respectively. They charge Rs 2160, Rs 2400, and Rs 2160 per day, respectively, even if they are employed for a partial day. On any given day, any of the workers may or may not be employed to work. If the task needs to be completed in 10 days or less, then the minimum possible amount, in rupees, required to be paid for the entire task is?
In a class, there were more than 10 boys and a certain number of girls. After 40% of the girls and 60% of the boys left the class, the remaining number of girls was 8 more than the remaining number of boys. Then, the minimum possible number of students initially in the class was?
CAT 2025 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme
Section-wise Exam Pattern
| Section | Questions | Time | Marks per question | Maximum marks |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension (VARC) | 24 | 40 minutes | 3 | 72 |
| Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning (DILR) | 22 | 40 minutes | 3 | 66 |
| Quantitative Ability (QA) | 22 | 40 minutes | 3 | 66 |
| Total | 68 | 120 minutes | - | 204 |
Marking Scheme
| Question type and response | Marks |
|---|---|
| MCQ - correct answer | +3 |
| MCQ - incorrect answer | -1 |
| TITA - correct answer | +3 |
| TITA - incorrect answer | 0 (no negative marking) |
| Unattempted question | 0 |
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