JEE Main 2015 April 10 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. CBSE conducted the computer-based test (CBT) Paper 1 on April 10, 2015. The JEE Main 2015 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2015 April 10 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2015 April 10 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

The largest value of \(r\), for which the region represented by the set \(\{\omega \in C \mid |\omega - 4 - i| \le r\}\) is contained in the region represented by the set \(\{z \in C \mid |z-1| \le |z+i|\}\), is equal to :

  • (1) \(2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{2}\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{17}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{2}\sqrt{2}\)

Question 2:

If \(2+3i\) is one of the roots of the equation \(2x^3-9x^2+kx-13=0\), \(k\in R\), then the real root of this equation (where \(i^2=-1\)) :

  • (1) Exists and is equal to \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) Does not exist
  • (3) Exists and is equal to 1
  • (4) Exists and is equal to \(-\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 3:

The number of ways of selecting 15 teams from 15 men and 15 women, such that each team consists of a man and a woman is

  • (1) 1960
  • (2) \(15!\)
  • (3) \((15!)^2\)
  • (4) \(14!\)

Question 4:

The value of \( \displaystyle \sum^{30}_{r = 16} (r + 2)(r - 3)\) is equal to :

  • (1) 7785
  • (2) 7780
  • (3) 7775
  • (4) 7770

Question 5:

Let the sum of the first three terms of an A.P. be 39 and the sum of its last four terms be 178. If the first term of this A.P. is 10, then the median of the A.P. is :

  • (1) 26.5
  • (2) 29.5
  • (3) 28
  • (4) 31

Question 6:

If the coefficient of the three successive terms in the binomial expansion of \((1+x)^n\) are in the ratio \(1:7:42\), then the first of these terms in the expansion is

  • (1) \(9^{\text{th}}\)
  • (2) \(6^{\text{th}}\)
  • (3) \(8^{\text{th}}\)
  • (4) \(7^{\text{th}}\)

Question 7:

In a \(\Delta ABC\), \(\frac{a}{b}=2+\sqrt{3}\), and \(\angle C=60^\circ\). Then the ordered pair \((\angle A,\angle B)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \((105^\circ,\,15^\circ)\)
  • (2) \((15^\circ,\,105^\circ)\)
  • (3) \((45^\circ,\,75^\circ)\)
  • (4) \((75^\circ,\,45^\circ)\)

Question 8:

Let \(L\) be the line passing through the point \(P(1,2)\) such that its intercepted segment between the co-ordinate axes is bisected at \(P\). If \(L_1\) is the line perpendicular to \(L\) and passing through the point \((-2,\,1)\), then the point of intersection of \(L\) and \(L_1\) is

  • (1) \(\left(\frac{3}{5},\frac{23}{10}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(\frac{4}{5},\frac{12}{5}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(\frac{11}{20},\frac{29}{10}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\frac{3}{10},\frac{17}{5}\right)\)

Question 9:

The points \(\left(0,\frac{8}{3}\right)\), \((1,3)\) and \((82,30)\)

  • (1) form an obtuse angled triangle
  • (2) form an acute angled triangle
  • (3) lie on a straight line
  • (4) form a right angled triangle

Question 10:

If \(y + 3x = 0\) is the equation of a chord of the circle, \(x^2 + y^2 - 30x = 0\), then the equation of the circle with this chord as diameter is :

  • (1) \(x^2 + y^2 + 3x + 9y = 0\)
  • (2) \(x^2 + y^2 - 3x + 9y = 0\)
  • (3) \(x^2 + y^2 - 3x - 9y = 0\)
  • (4) \(x^2 + y^2 + 3x - 9y = 0\)

Question 11:

Let the tangents drawn to the circle, \(x^2+y^2=16\) from the point \(P(0,h)\) meet the \(x\)-axis at points \(A\) and \(B\). If the area of \(\Delta APB\) is minimum, then positive value of \(h\) is:

  • (1) \(4\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(4\sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(3\sqrt{3}\)

Question 12:

If the tangent to the conic, \(y-6=x^2\) at \((2,10)\) touches the circle, \(x^2+y^2+8x-2y=k\) (for some fixed \(k\)) at a point \((\alpha,\,\beta)\); then \((\alpha,\,\beta)\) is

  • (1) \(\left(-\frac{7}{17},\frac{6}{17}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(-\frac{8}{17},\frac{2}{17}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(-\frac{6}{17},\frac{10}{17}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(-\frac{4}{17},\frac{1}{17}\right)\)

Question 13:

An ellipse passes through the foci of the hyperbola, \(9x^2? 4y^2 = 36\) an and minor axes lie along the transverse and conjugate axes of the hyperbola respectively. If the product of eccentricities of the two conics is \(\frac{1}{2},\) then which of the following points does not lie on the ellipse ?

  • (1) \(\left(\sqrt{13}, 0\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{39}}{2},\sqrt{3}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(\frac{1}{2},\sqrt{13}, \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\sqrt{\frac{13}{2}}, \sqrt{6}\right)\)

Question 14:

\(\lim_{x\to0}\frac{e^{x^2}-\cos x}{\sin^2x}\) is equal to

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
  • (4) 3

Question 15:

The contrapositive of the statement "If it is raining, then I will not come", is

  • (1) if I will come, then it is not raining.
  • (2) if I will come, then it is raining.
  • (3) if I will not come, then it is raining.
  • (4) if I will not come, then it is not raining.

Question 16:

A factory is operating in two shifts, day and night, with 70 and 30 workers, respectively. If per day mean wage of the day shift workers is, ₹ 54 and per day mean wage of all the workers is ₹ 60, then per day mean wage of the night shift workers (in ₹) is :

  • (1) \(75\)
  • (2) \(74\)
  • (3) \(69\)
  • (4) \(66\)

Question 17:

In a certain town, \(25\%\) of the families own a phone and \(15\%\) own a car \(65\%\) families own neither a phone nor a car and \(2,000\) families own both a car and a phone. Consider the following three statements : (a) \(5\%\) families own both a car and a phone. (b) \(35\%\) families own either a car or a phone. (c) \(40,000\) families live in the town. Then,

  • (1) Only (a) and (b) are correct
  • (2) Only (a) and (c) are correct
  • (3) Only (b) and (c) are correct
  • (4) All (a), (b) and (c) are correct

Question 18:

If \(A = \begin{bmatrix} 0\;\;-1\\1\;\;0 \end{bmatrix}\), then which one of the following statements is not correct?

  • (1) \(A^3 + I = A(A^3 - I)\)
  • (2) \(A^4 - I = A^2 + I\)
  • (3) \(A^2 + I = A(A^2 - I)\)
  • (4) \(A^3 - I = A(A - I)\)

Question 19:

The least value of the product \(xyz\) (such that \(x\), \(y\) and \(z\) are positive real numbers) for which the determinant \(\begin{vmatrix} x\;\;1\;\;1\\1\;\;y\;\;1\\1\;\;1\;\;z \end{vmatrix}\) is non-negative is

  • (1) \(-1\)
  • (2) \(-16\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(-8\)
  • (4) \(-2\sqrt{2}\)

Question 20:

If \(f\left(x\right) = 2 \tan^{-1} x + \sin^{-1} \left(\frac{2x}{1+x^{2}}\right), x > 1\), then \(f(t)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\pi\)
  • (3) \(4\, \tan^{-1} \left(5\right)\)
  • (4) \( \tan^{-1} \left(\frac{65}{156}\right)\)

Question 21:

If Rolle's theorem holds for the function \(f(x) = 2x^3 + bx^2 + cx\), \(x \in [-1, 1]\) at the point \(x = \frac{1}{2}\), then \(2b + c\) is equal to

  • (1) \(2\)
  • (2) \(1\)
  • (3) \(-1\)
  • (4) \(-3\)

Question 22:

The distance from the origin, of the normal to the curve, \(x = 2\cos t + 2t\sin t\), \(y = 2\sin t - 2t\cos t\) at \(t = \frac{\pi}{4}\), is :

  • (1) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \(4\)
  • (4) \(2\)

Question 23:

The integral \(\int \frac{dx}{(x+1)^{\frac{3}{4}}(x-2)^{\frac{5}{4}}}\), is equal to

  • (1) \(4\left(\frac{x-2}{x+1}\right)^{\frac{1}{4}} + c\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{4}{3}\left(\frac{x+1}{x-2}\right)^{\frac{1}{4}} + c\)
  • (3) \(4\left(\frac{x+1}{x-2}\right)^{\frac{1}{4}} + c\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{4}{3}\left(\frac{x-2}{x+1}\right)^{\frac{1}{4}} + c\)

Question 24:

For \(x \gt 0\), let \(f(x) = \int_1^x \frac{\log t}{1+t}\,dt\). Then \(f(x) + f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}(\log x)^2\)
  • (2) \(\log x\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{4}\log x^2\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{4}(\log x)^2\)

Question 25:

The area (in square units) of the region bounded by the curves \(y + 2x^2 = 0\) and \(y + 3x^2 = 1\), is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{4}\) sq. units
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{3}\) sq. units
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{5}\) sq. units
  • (4) \(\frac{4}{3}\) sq. units

Question 26:

If \(y(x)\) is the solution of the differential equation \((x+2)\frac{dy}{dx} = x^2 + 4x - 9\), \(x \neq -2\) and \(y(0) = 0\), then \(y(-4)\) is equal to

  • (1) \(-1\)
  • (2) \(1\)
  • (3) \(0\)
  • (4) \(2\)

Question 27:

Let \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) be two unit vectors such that \(|\vec{a} + \vec{b}| = \sqrt{3}\). If \(\vec{c} = \vec{a} + 2\vec{b} + (\vec{a} \times \vec{b})\), then \(2|\vec{c}|\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{51}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{37}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{43}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{55}\)

Question 28:

If the points \((1, 1, \lambda)\) & \((-3, 0, 1)\), are equidistant from the plane, \(3x + 4y - 12z + 13 = 0\), then \(\lambda\) satisfies the equation:

  • (1) \(3x^2 + 10x + 7 = 0\)
  • (2) \(3x^2 + 10x - 13 = 0\)
  • (3) \(3x^2 - 10x + 7 = 0\)
  • (4) \(3x^2 - 10x + 21 = 0\)

Question 29:

If the shortest distance between the line \(\frac{x-1}{\alpha}=\frac{y+1}{-1}=\frac{z}{1}\), \((\alpha \neq -1)\), and \(x+y+z+1=0=2x-y+z+3\) is \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\), then value of \(\alpha\) is :

  • (1) \(-\frac{19}{16}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{32}{19}\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{16}{19}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{19}{32}\)

Question 30:

Let X be a set containing 10 elements and P(X) be its power set. If A and B are picked up at random from P(X), with replacement, then the probability that A and B have equal number of elements is:

  • (1) \(\frac{2^{10}-1}{2^{20}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{{}^{20}C_{10}}{2^{20}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{{}^{20}C_{10}}{2^{10}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2^{10}-1}{2^{10}}\)

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

If the capacitance of a nanocapacitor is measured in terms of a unit \('u'\) made by combining the electronic charge \(V\), Bohr radius \('a_0'\), Planck's constant \('h'\) and speed of light \('c'\) then :

  • (1) \(u = \frac{e^{2}c}{ha_{0}}\)
  • (2) \(u = \frac{e^{2}h}{ca_{0}}\)
  • (3) \(u = \frac{e^{2}a_{0}}{hc}\)
  • (4) \(u = \frac{hc}{e^{2}a_{0}}\)

Question 32:

A block of mass \(m = 10\ \mathrm{kg}\) rests on a horizontal table. The coefficient of friction between the block and the table is 0.05. When hit by a bullet of mass 50 g moving with speed \(v\), that gets embedded in it, the block moves and comes to stop after moving a distance of 2 m on the table. If a freely falling object were to acquire speed \(\frac{v}{10}\) after being dropped from height \(H\), then neglecting energy losses and taking \(g = 10\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-2}}\), the value of \(H\) is close to

  • (1) \(0.2\ \mathrm{km}\)
  • (2) \(0.5\ \mathrm{km}\)
  • (3) \(0.4\ \mathrm{km}\)
  • (4) None of these

Question 33:

A block of mass \(m = 0.1\ \mathrm{kg}\) is connected to a spring of unknown spring constant k. It is compressed to a distance \(x\) from its equilibrium position and released from rest. After approaching half the distance \(\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)\) from the equilibrium position, it hits another block and comes to rest momentarily, while the other block moves with velocity \(3\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}\). The total initial energy of the spring is:

  • (1) \(0.6\ \mathrm{J}\)
  • (2) \(0.8\ \mathrm{J}\)
  • (3) \(1.5\ \mathrm{J}\)
  • (4) \(0.3\ \mathrm{J}\)

Question 34:

If a body moving in a circular path maintains constant speed of \(10\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}\), then which of the following correctly describes the relation between acceleration and radius?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 35:

Consider a thin uniform square sheet made of a rigid material. If its side is '\(a\)', mass \(m\) and moment of inertia \(I\) about one of its diagonals, then :

  • (1) \(I > \frac{ma^{2}}{12}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{ma^{2}}{24} < I < \frac{ma^{2}}{12}\)
  • (3) \( I = \frac{ma^{2}}{12}\)
  • (4) \( I = \frac{ma^{2}}{24}\)

Question 36:

A uniform solid cylindrical roller of mass '\(m\)' is being pulled on a horizontal surface with force \(F\) parallel to the surface and applied at its centre. If the acceleration of the cylinder is '\(a\)' and it is rolling without slipping then the value of '\(F\)' is :

  • (1) \(ma\)
  • (2) \(2\, ma\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{2}\) ma
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{2}\) ma

Question 37:

A very long (length L) cylindrical galaxy is made of uniformly distributed mass and has radius \(R (R << L)\). A star outside the galaxy is orbiting the galaxy in a plane perpendicular to the galaxy and passing through its centre. If the time period of star is \(T\) and its distance from the galaxy's axis is \(r\), then :

  • (1) \(T^{2} \,\propto\,r^{3}\)
  • (2) \(T \,\propto\,r^{2}\)
  • (3) \(T \,\propto\,r\)
  • (4) \(T \,\propto\,\sqrt{r}\)

Question 38:

If two glass plates have water between them and are separated by very small distance (see figure), it is very difficult to pull them apart. It is because the water in between forms cylindrical surface on the side that gives rise to lower pressure in the water in comparison to atmosphere. If the radius of the cylindrical surface is R and surface tension of water is T then the pressure in water between the plates is lower by:

  • (1) \(\frac{T}{R}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{T}{4R}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{4T}{R}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2T}{R}\)

Question 39:

If it takes 5 minutes to fill a 15 litre bucket from a water tap of diameter \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}}\ \mathrm{cm}\) then the Reynolds number for the flow is (density of water \(= 10^{3}\ \mathrm{kg/m^3}\) and viscosity of water \(= 10^{-3}\ \mathrm{Pa\cdot s}\)) close to:

  • (1) 5500
  • (2) 550
  • (3) 1100
  • (4) 11,000

Question 40:

An ideal gas goes through a reversible cycle \(a\to b\to c\to d\) has the V - T diagram shown below. Process \(d\to a\) and \(b\to c\) are adiabatic.

The corresponding P - V diagram for the process is (all figures are schematic and not drawn to scale) :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 41:

In an ideal gas at temperature \(T\), the average force that a molecule applies on the walls of a closed container depends on \(T\) as \(T^q\). A good estimate for \(q\) is :

  • (1) \(2\)
  • (2) \(1\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 42:

\(x\) and \(y\) displacements of a particle are given as \(x(t)=a\sin\omega t\) and \(y(t)=a\sin 2\omega t\). Its trajectory will look like:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 43:

A simple harmonic oscillator of angular frequency \(2 \,rad \,s^{-1}\) is acted upon by an external force \(F= \sin\, t \,N\). If the oscillator is at rest in its equilibrium position at \(t\, =\, 0\), its position at later times is proportional to :

  • (1) \(\sin\, t +\frac{1}{2}\sin 2 t\)
  • (2) \(\sin\, t +\frac{1}{2}\cos 2 t\)
  • (3) \(\cos\, t -\frac{1}{2}\sin 2 t\)
  • (4) \(\sin\,t -\frac{1}{2}\sin\, 2 t\)

Question 44:

A bat moving at \(10\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}\) towards a wall sends a sound signal of 8000 Hz towards it. On reflection, it hears a sound of frequency \(f\). The value of \(f\) in Hz is close to (speed of sound \(= 320\ \mathrm{m\,s^{-1}}\))

  • (1) 8258
  • (2) 8424
  • (3) 8000
  • (4) 8516

Question 45:

Shown in the figure are two point charges \(+Q\) and \(-Q\) inside the cavity of a spherical shell. The charges are kept near the surface of the cavity on opposite sides of the centre of the shell. If \(\sigma_1\) is the surface charge on the inner surface and \(Q_1\) net charge on it and \(\sigma_2\) the surface charge on the outer surface and \(Q_2\) net charge on it then:

  • (1) \(\sigma_1=0,\ Q_1=0,\ \sigma_2=0,\ Q_2=0\)
  • (2) \(\sigma_1\neq0,\ Q_1=0,\ \sigma_2\neq0,\ Q_2=0\)
  • (3) \(\sigma_1\neq0,\ Q_1\neq0,\ \sigma_2\neq0,\ Q_2\neq0\)
  • (4) \(\sigma_1\neq0,\ Q_1=0,\ \sigma_2=0,\ Q_2=0\)

Question 46:

A thin disc of radius \(b\, = \,2a\) has a concentric hole of radius '\(a\)' in it (see figure). It carries uniform surface charge '\(\sigma\)' on it. If the electric field on its axis at height '\(h\)' \((h < < a)\) from its centre is given as '\(Ch\)' then value of '\(C\)' is :

  • (1) \(\frac{\sigma}{a\epsilon_{0}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sigma}{2a\epsilon_{0}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sigma}{4a\epsilon_{0}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sigma}{8a\epsilon_{0}}\)

Question 47:

In the given circuits (a) and (b), switches \(S_1\) and \(S_2\) are closed at \(t=0\) and kept close for a long time. The variation of currents in the two circuits for \(t\ge0\) are shown in the options. (Figures are schematic and not drawn to scale.)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 48:

A 10 V battery with internal resistance \(1\,\Omega\) and a 15 V battery with internal resistance \(0.6\,\Omega\) are connected in parallel to a voltmeter (see figure). The reading in the voltmeter will be close to:

  • (1) \(11.9\ \mathrm{V}\)
  • (2) \(13.1\ \mathrm{V}\)
  • (3) \(12.5\ \mathrm{V}\)
  • (4) \(24.5\ \mathrm{V}\)

Question 49:

Suppose the drift velocity \(v_d\) in a material varied with the applied electric field E as \(v_d \propto \sqrt{E}\). Then \(V-I\) graph for a wire made of such a material is best given by:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 50:

A \(25\, cm\) long solenoid has radius \(2\, cm\) and \(500\) total number of turns. It carries a current of \(15\, A\). If it is equivalent to a magnet of the same size and magnetization \(|\bar{M}|\) (magnetic moment/volume), then \(|\bar{M}|\) is :

  • (1) \(3 \pi Am^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(30000 \,Am^{-1}\)
  • (3) \(300\, Am^{-1}\)
  • (4) \(30000 \, \pi Am^{-1}\)

Question 51:

A proton (mass m) accelerated by a potential difference \(V\) flies through a uniform transverse magnetic field \(B\). The field occupies a region of space by width \(d\). If \(\alpha\) be the angle of deviation of proton from initial direction of motion (see figure), the value of \(\sin \,\alpha\) will be :

  • (1) \(\frac{B}{2}\sqrt{\frac{qd}{mV}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{B}{d}\sqrt{\frac{q}{2mV}}\)
  • (3) \(Bd\sqrt{\frac{q}{2mV}}\)
  • (4) \(qV\sqrt{\frac{Bd}{2m}}\)

Question 52:

When current in a coil changes from \(5 \,A\) to \(2 \,A\) in \(0.1\, s\), an average voltage of \(50\, V\) is produced. The self - inductance of the coil is :

  • (1) 0.67 H
  • (2) 1.67 H
  • (3) 3 H
  • (4) 6 H

Question 53:

An electromagnetic wave travelling in the \(x\)-direction has frequency of \(2\times10^{14}\ \mathrm{Hz}\) and electric field amplitude of \(27\ \mathrm{V\,m^{-1}}\) oscillates in \(Y\)-direction. From the options given below, which one describes the magnetic field for this wave?

  • (1) \(\vec{B}(x,t)=(9\times10^{-8}\ \mathrm{T})\hat{j}\,\sin[1.5\times10^{-6}x-2\times10^{14}t]\)
  • (2) \(\vec{B}(x,t)=(9\times10^{-8}\ \mathrm{T})\hat{i}\,\sin[2\pi(1.5\times10^{-8}x-2\times10^{14}t)]\)
  • (3) \(\vec{B}(x,t)=(3\times10^{-8}\ \mathrm{T})\hat{j}\,\sin 2\pi\left[\left(\frac{x}{1.5\times10^{-8}}\right)-2\times10^{14}t\right]\)
  • (4) \(\vec{B}(x,t)=(9\times10^{-8}\ \mathrm{T})\hat{k}\,\sin 2\pi\left[\left(\frac{x}{1.5\times10^{-6}}\right)-2\times10^{14}t\right]\)

Question 54:

A telescope has an objective lens of focal length 150 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. If a 50 m tall tower at a distance of 1 km is observed through this telescope in a normal setting, the angle formed by the image of the tower is \(\theta\), then \(\theta\) is close to

  • (1) \(30^\circ\)
  • (2) \(15^\circ\)
  • (3) \(1^\circ\)
  • (4) \(86^\circ\)

Question 55:

You are asked to design a shaving mirror assuming that a person keeps it at 10 cm from his face and views the magnified image of the face at the closest comfortable distance of 25 cm. The radius of curvature of the mirror would then be:

  • (1) \(24\ \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (2) \(30\ \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (3) \(60\ \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (4) \(-24\ \mathrm{cm}\)

Question 56:

A parallel beam of electrons travelling in x - direction falls on a slit of width d (see figure). If after passing the slit, an electron acquires momentum \(p_y\) in the y - direction then for a majority of electrons passing through the slit (h is Planck's constant):

  • (1) \(|p_y|\,d \lt h\)
  • (2) \(|p_y|\,d \gt h\)
  • (3) \(|p_y|\,d \simeq h\)
  • (4) \(|p_y|\,d \gg h\)

Question 57:

De-Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated by a voltage of 50 V is close to (\(|e|=1.6\times10^{-19}\ \mathrm{C}\), \(m_e=9.1\times10^{-31}\ \mathrm{kg}\), \(h=6.6\times10^{-34}\ \mathrm{J\,s}\))

  • (1) \(0.5\ \mathrm{\AA}\)
  • (2) \(1.2\ \mathrm{\AA}\)
  • (3) \(1.7\ \mathrm{\AA}\)
  • (4) \(2.4\ \mathrm{\AA}\)

Question 58:

If one were to apply the Bohr model to a particle of mass 'm' and charge 'q' moving in a plane under the influence of a magnetic field 'B', the energy of the charged particle in the \(n^{th}\) level will be:

  • (1) \(n\left(\frac{hqB}{\pi m}\right)\)
  • (2) \(n\left(\frac{hqB}{4\pi m}\right)\)
  • (3) \(n\left(\frac{hqB}{2\pi m}\right)\)
  • (4) \(n\left(\frac{hqB}{8\pi m}\right)\)

Question 59:

In an unbiased p - n junction electrons diffuse from n-region to p-region because:

  • (1) electrons travel across the junction due to potential difference
  • (2) only electrons move from n to p region and not the vice - versa
  • (3) electron concentration in n - region is more as compared to that in p - region
  • (4) holes in p - region attract them

Question 60: Diameter of a steel ball is measured using a Vernier calipers which has divisions of 0.1 cm on its main scale (MS) and 10 divisions of its Vernier scale (VS) match 9 divisions on the main scale. Three such measurements for a ball are given as:
S.No.MS (cm)VS divisions
1.0.58
2.0.54
3.0.56
If the zero error is \(-0.03\ \mathrm{cm}\), then mean corrected diameter is:
  • (1) \(0.53\ \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (2) \(0.56\ \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (3) \(0.59\ \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (4) \(0.52\ \mathrm{cm}\)

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

A sample of a hydrate of barium chloride weighing \(61\, g\) was heated until all the water of hydration is removed. The dried sample weighed \(52\, g.\) The formula of the hydrated salt is : (atomic mass, \(Ba = 137\, amu. Cl = 35.5\, amu\))

  • (1) \(BaCl _{2} \cdot H _{2} O\)
  • (2) \(BaCl _{2} \cdot 2 H _{2} O\)
  • (3) \(BaCl _{2} \cdot 3 H _{2} O\)
  • (4) \(BaCl _{2} \cdot 4 H _{2} O\)

Question 62:

If the principal quantum number n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be:

  • (1) \(ns\rightarrow(n-1)d\rightarrow(n-2)f\rightarrow np\)
  • (2) \(ns\rightarrow np\rightarrow(n-1)d\rightarrow(n-2)f\)
  • (3) \(ns\rightarrow(n-2)f\rightarrow np\rightarrow(n-1)d\)
  • (4) \(ns\rightarrow(n-2)f\rightarrow(n-1)d\rightarrow np\)

Question 63:

In the long form of the periodic table, the valence shell electronic configuration of \(5s^2 5p^4\) corresponds to the element present in :

  • (1) Group 16 and period 6
  • (2) Group 17 and period 5
  • (3) Group 16 and period 5
  • (4) Group 17 and period 6

Question 64:

The shape of \(\mathrm{XeOF_4}\) by VSEPR theory is:

  • (1) Trigonal bipyramidal
  • (2) Square pyramidal
  • (3) Pentagonal planar
  • (4) Octahedral

Question 65:

After understanding the assertion and reason, choose the correct option.
Assertion: In the bonding molecular orbital (MO) of \(\mathrm{H_2}\), electron density is increased between the nuclei.
Reason: The bonding MO is \(\psi_A + \psi_B\), which shows destructive interference of the combining electron waves.

  • (1) Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation for the Assertion.
  • (2) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.
  • (3) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct.
  • (4) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect.

Question 66:

Which of the following is not an assumption of the kinetic theory of gases?

  • (1) Collisions of gas particles are perfectly elastic.
  • (2) A gas consists of many identical particles which are in continual motion.
  • (3) At high pressure, gas particles are difficult to compress.
  • (4) Gas particles have negligible volume.

Question 67:

The heat of atomization of methane and ethane are \(360\ \mathrm{kJ\ mol^{-1}}\) and \(620\ \mathrm{kJ\ mol^{-1}}\), respectively. The longest wavelength of light capable of breaking the C \(-\) C bond is (Avogadro's number = \(6.023 \times 10^{23}\), \(h = 6.62 \times 10^{-34}\ \mathrm{J\ s}\))

  • (1) \(2.48 \times 10^{4}\) nm
  • (2) \(1.49 \times 10^{4}\) nm
  • (3) \(2.48 \times 10^{3}\) nm
  • (4) \(1.49 \times 10^{3}\) nm

Question 68:

Gaseous \(N_2O_4\) dissociates into gaseous \(NO_2\) according to the reaction \(N _{2} O _{4}( g ) \rightleftharpoons 2 NO _{2}( g )\) At \(300\, K\) and \(1\, atm\) pressure, the degree of dissociation of \(N_2O_4\) is \(0.2.\) If one mole of \(N_2O_4\) gas is contained in a vessel, then the density of the equilibrium mixture is :

  • (1) 1.56 g/L
  • (2) 3.11 g/L
  • (3) 4.56 g/L
  • (4) 6.22 g/L

Question 69:

Permanent hardness in water cannot be cured by :

  • (1) Boiling
  • (2) Ion exchange method
  • (3) Calgon's method
  • (4) Treatment with washing soda

Question 70:

The correct order of thermal stability of hydroxides is :

  • (1) \(Ma(OH)_2 < Sr(OH)_2 < Ca(OH)_2 < Mg(OH)_2\)
  • (2) \(Ba(OH)_2 < Ca(OH)_2 < Sr(OH)_2 < Mg(OH)_2\)
  • (3) \(Mg(OH)_2 < Ca(OH)_2 < Sr(OH)_2 < Ba(OH)_2\)
  • (4) \(Mg(OH)_2 < Sr(OH)_2 < Ca(OH)_2 < Ba(OH)_2\)

Question 71:

1.4 g of an organic compound was digested according to Kjeldahl's method and the ammonia evolved was absorbed in 60 mL of M/10 \(\mathrm{H_2SO_4}\) solution. The excess sulphuric acid required 20 mL of M/10 NaOH solution for neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is:

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 10

Question 72:

The optically inactive compound from the following is:

  • (1) 2-chloropropanal
  • (2) 2-chloro-2-methylbutane
  • (3) 2-chlorobutane
  • (4) 2-chloropentane

Question 73:

A compound A with molecular formula \(\mathrm{C_{10}H_{13}Cl}\), gives a white precipitate on adding silver nitrate solution. A on reacting with alcoholic KOH gives compound B as the main product. B on ozonolysis, gives C and D. C gives Cannizzaro reaction, but not aldol condensation. D gives aldol condensation, but not Cannizzaro reaction. A is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 74:

Photochemical smog consists of excessive amount of \(X\), in addition to aldehydes, ketones, peroxyacetyl nitrile \((PAN)\), and so forth. \(X\) is :

  • (1) \(CH_4\)
  • (2) \(CO\)
  • (3) \(CO_2\)
  • (4) \(O_3\)

Question 75:

A solution at \(20^{\circ}\)C is composed of \(1.5\, mol\) of benzene and \(3.5\, mol\) of toluene. If the vapour pressure of pure benzene and pure toluene at this temperature are \(74.7\) torr and \(22.3\) torr, respectively, then the total vapour pressure of the solution and the benzene mole fraction in equilibrium with it will be, respectively :

  • (1) 35.0 torr and 0.480
  • (2) 38.0 torr and 0.589
  • (3) 30.5 torr and 0.389
  • (4) 35.8 torr and 0.280

Question 76:

A variable, the opposite external potential (\(E_{ext}\)) is applied to the cell \(\mathrm{Zn \mid Zn^{2+}\ (1\ M) \parallel Cu^{2+}\ (1\ M) \mid Cu}\), of potential 1.1 V. When \(E_{ext} \lt 1.1\) V and \(E_{ext} \gt 1.1\) V, respectively electrons flow from

  • (1) anode to cathode in both the cases.
  • (2) anode to cathode and cathode to anode.
  • (3) cathode to anode and anode to cathode.
  • (4) cathode to anode in both cases.

Question 77:

The reaction \(\mathrm{2N_2O_5(g) \rightarrow 4NO_2(g) + O_2(g)}\) follows first order kinetics. The pressure of a vessel containing only \(\mathrm{N_2O_5}\) was found to increase from 50 mm Hg to 87.5 mm Hg in 30 min. The pressure exerted by the gases after 60 min. Will be (Assume temperature remains constant) :

  • (1) 106.25 mm Hg
  • (2) 125 mm Hg
  • (3) 116.25 mm Hg
  • (4) 150 mm Hg

Question 78:

The following statements relate to the adsorption of gases on a solid surface. Identify the incorrect statement among them:

  • (1) Entropy of adsorption is negative
  • (2) Enthalpy of adsorption is negative
  • (3) On adsorption decrease in surface energy appears as heat
  • (4) On adsorption, the residual forces on the surface are increased

Question 79:

In the isolation of metals, calcination process usually results in:

  • (1) Metal oxide
  • (2) Metal carbonate
  • (3) Metal sulphide
  • (4) Metal hydroxide

Question 80:

The least number of oxyacids are formed by :

  • (1) Nitrogen
  • (2) Sulphur
  • (3) Fluorine
  • (4) Chlorine

Question 81:

The cation that will not be precipitated by \(\mathrm{H_2S}\) in the presence of dil HCl is:

  • (1) \(\mathrm{Co^{2+}}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{As^{3+}}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{Pb^{2+}}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{Cu^{2+}}\)

Question 82:

An aqueous solution of a salt X turns blood red on treatment with \(\mathrm{SCN^-}\) and blue on treatment with \(\mathrm{K_4[Fe(CN)_6]}\). X also gives a positive chromyl chloride test. The salt X is:

  • (1) \(\mathrm{FeCl_3}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{Fe(NO_3)_3}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{CuCl_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{Cu(NO_3)_2}\)

Question 83:

Which molecule/ion among the following cannot act as a ligand in complex compounds?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CN^-}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{CH_4}\)
  • (3) CO
  • (4) \(\mathrm{Br^-}\)

Question 84:

The correct statement on the isomerism associated with the following complex ions.
(a) \(\mathrm{[Ni(H_2O)_5NH_3]^{2+}}\)
(b) \(\mathrm{[Ni(H_2O)_4(NH_3)_2]^{2+}}\) and
(c) \(\mathrm{[Ni(H_2O)_3(NH_3)_3]^{2+}}\) is:

  • (1) (a) and (b) show only geometrical isomerism
  • (2) (a) and (b) show geometrical and optical isomerism
  • (3) (b) and (c) show geometrical and optical isomerism
  • (4) (b) and (c) show only geometrical isomerism

Question 85:


(the dipotassium salt of 1,4-dihydronaphthalene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid, with COOK at both sp3 ring carbons) \(\xrightarrow{\text{Electrolysis}}\) A
A is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 86:

In the presence of a small amount of phosphorous, aliphatic carboxylic acid reacts with chlorine or bromine to yield a reaction in which, \(\alpha\)-hydrogen is been replaced by halogen. This reaction is known as

  • (1) Etard reaction
  • (2) Wolff-Kischner reaction
  • (3) Rosenmund reaction
  • (4) Hell-volhard-zelinsky reaction

Question 87:

The correct order of basicity is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 88: Match the polymers in column-A with their main uses in column-B and choose the correct answer:
Column - AColumn - B
A. Polystyrenei. Paints and lacquers
B. Glyptalii. Rain coats
C. Polyvinyl chlorideiii. Manufacture of toys
D. Bakeliteiv. Computer discs
  • (1) A - iii , B - i , C - ii , D - iv
  • (2) A - ii , B - i , C - iii , D - iv
  • (3) A - ii , B - iv , C - iii , D - i
  • (4) A - iii , B - iv , C - ii , D - i

Question 89:


(structure: benzene ring with \(\mathrm{OCOCH_3}\) and \(\mathrm{COOH}\) on adjacent carbons, i.e. acetylsalicylic acid) is used as:

  • (1) Antacid
  • (2) Insecticide
  • (3) Antihistamine
  • (4) Analgesic

Question 90:

Complete hydrolysis of starch gives :

  • (1) glucose and fructose in equimolar amounts
  • (2) galactose and fructose in equimolar amounts
  • (3) glucose only
  • (4) glucose and galactose in equimolar amounts

JEE Main 2015 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2015 April 10 Difficulty Level

JEE Main 2015 B.E./B.Tech exam had a moderate level of difficulty level, similar to the offline paper held on April 4, 2015.

JEE Main B.E/ B.Tech 2015 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2015 B.E./B.Tech question paper for the exam conducted online on April 10 consisted of multiple-choice questions. The paper consisted of three sections Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. There were no surprises in the question paper. JEE 2015 Mathematics section included more questions from topics such as 3D and Vectors.

Also, JEE Main 2015 Physics section was the toughest of all the sections; the questions asked in this section were a little tricky. Out of the 30 questions asked from Physics, just five questions were theory-based, while the remaining were numerical-based questions that required more time to solve.