JEE Main 2017 April 9 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. CBSE conducted the computer-based test (CBT) Paper 1 on April 9, 2017, in the morning session from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The JEE Main 2017 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2017 April 9 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2017 April 9 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

The function \(f : \mathbf{N} \to \mathbf{N}\) defined by \(f(x) = x - 5\left[\frac{x}{5}\right]\), where \(\mathbf{N}\) is the set of natural numbers and \([x]\) denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to \(x\), is :

  • (1) one-one and onto.
  • (2) one-one but not onto.
  • (3) onto but not one-one.
  • (4) neither one-one nor onto.

Question 2:

The sum of all the real values of \(x\) satisfying the equation \(2^{(x-1)(x^2+5x-50)} = 1\) is :

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 14
  • (3) \(-4\)
  • (4) \(-5\)

Question 3:

The equation \(\mathrm{Im}\left(\frac{iz - 2}{z - i}\right) + 1 = 0,\ z \in \mathbf{C},\ z \neq i\) represents a part of a circle having radius equal to :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 4:

For two \(3 \times 3\) matrices A and B, let \(A + B = 2B'\) and \(3A + 2B = I_3\), where \(B'\) is the transpose of B and \(I_3\) is \(3 \times 3\) identity matrix. Then :

  • (1) \(5A + 10B = 2I_3\)
  • (2) \(10A + 5B = 3I_3\)
  • (3) \(B + 2A = I_3\)
  • (4) \(3A + 6B = 2I_3\)

Question 5:

If \(x = a,\ y = b,\ z = c\) is a solution of the system of linear equations
\(x + 8y + 7z = 0\)
\(9x + 2y + 3z = 0\)
\(x + y + z = 0\)
such that the point \((a, b, c)\) lies on the plane \(x + 2y + z = 6\), then \(2a + b + c\) equals :

  • (1) \(-1\)
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 2

Question 6:

The number of ways in which 5 boys and 3 girls can be seated on a round table if a particular boy \(B_1\) and a particular girl \(G_1\) never sit adjacent to each other, is :

  • (1) \(5 \times 6!\)
  • (2) \(6 \times 6!\)
  • (3) 7!
  • (4) \(5 \times 7!\)

Question 7:

The coefficient of \(x^{-5}\) in the binomial expansion of \(\left(\frac{x+1}{x^{2/3} - x^{1/3} + 1} - \frac{x-1}{x - x^{1/2}}\right)^{10}\), where \(x \neq 0, 1\), is :

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 4
  • (3) \(-4\)
  • (4) \(-1\)

Question 8:

If three positive numbers a, b and c are in A.P. such that \(abc = 8\), then the minimum possible value of b is :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) \(4^{1/3}\)
  • (3) \(4^{2/3}\)
  • (4) 4

Question 9:

Let \(S_{n} = \frac{1}{1^{3}} + \frac{1+2}{1^{3} + 2^{3}} + \frac{1+2+3}{1^{3} + 2^{3} + 3^{3}} + ...... + \frac{1+2+...+n}{1^{3} + 2^{3} +.... +n^{3}} . \) . If \(100 \, S_n = n , \) then \(n\) is equal to :

  • (1) 199
  • (2) 99
  • (3) 200
  • (4) 19

Question 10:

The value of k for which the function \(f(x) = \begin{cases} \left(\frac{4}{5}\right)^{\frac{\tan 4x}{\tan 5x}}, & 0 \lt x \lt \frac{\pi}{2} \\ k + \frac{2}{5}, & x = \frac{\pi}{2} \end{cases}\) is continuous at \(x = \frac{\pi}{2}\), is :

  • (1) \(\frac{17}{20}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{2}{5}\)

Question 11:

If \(2x = y^{\frac15} + y^{-\frac15}\) and \((x^2 - 1)\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + \lambda x\frac{dy}{dx} + ky = 0\), then \(\lambda + k\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(-23\)
  • (2) \(-24\)
  • (3) 26
  • (4) \(-26\)

Question 12:

The function f defined by \(f(x) = x^3 - 3x^2 + 5x + 7\), is :

  • (1) increasing in \(\mathbf{R}\).
  • (2) decreasing in \(\mathbf{R}\).
  • (3) decreasing in \((0, \infty)\) and increasing in \((-\infty, 0)\).
  • (4) increasing in \((0, \infty)\) and decreasing in \((-\infty, 0)\).

Question 13:

Let f be a polynomial function such that \(f(3x) = f'(x)\cdot f''(x)\), for all \(x \in \mathbf{R}\). Then :

  • (1) \(f(2) + f'(2) = 28\)
  • (2) \(f''(2) - f'(2) = 0\)
  • (3) \(f''(2) - f(2) = 4\)
  • (4) \(f(2) - f'(2) + f''(2) = 10\)

Question 14:

If \(f\left(\frac{3x - 4}{3x + 4}\right) = x + 2,\ x \neq -\frac43\), and \(\int f(x)\,dx = A\log|1 - x| + Bx + C\), then the ordered pair \((A, B)\) is equal to :
(where C is a constant of integration)

  • (1) \(\left(\frac83, \frac23\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(-\frac83, \frac23\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(-\frac83, -\frac23\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\frac83, -\frac23\right)\)

Question 15:

If \(\int_1^2 \frac{dx}{(x^2 - 2x + 4)^{3/2}} = \frac{k}{k + 5}\), then k is equal to :

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 16:

If \(\lim_{n\to\infty}\dfrac{1^a+2^a+\cdots+n^a}{(n+1)^{a-1}\left[(na+1)+(na+2)+\cdots+(na+n)\right]}=\dfrac{1}{60}\) for some positive real number \(a\), then \(a\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(7\)
  • (2) \(8\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{15}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{17}{2}\)

Question 17:

A tangent to the curve, \(y=f(x)\) at \(P(x,y)\) meets \(x\)-axis at \(A\) and \(y\)-axis at \(B\). If \(AP:BP=1:3\) and \(f(1)=1\), then the curve also passes through the point :

  • (1) \(\left(\dfrac13,\,24\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(\dfrac12,\,4\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(2,\,\dfrac18\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(3,\,\dfrac1{28}\right)\)

Question 18:

A square, of each side \(2\), lies above the \(x\)-axis and has one vertex at the origin. If one of the sides passing through the origin makes an angle \(30^\circ\) with the positive direction of the \(x\)-axis, then the sum of the \(x\)-coordinates of the vertices of the square is :

  • (1) \(2\sqrt3-1\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt3-2\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt3-2\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt3-1\)

Question 19:

A line drawn through the point \(P(4,7)\) cuts the circle \(x^2+y^2=9\) at the points \(A\) and \(B\). Then \(PA\cdot PB\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(53\)
  • (2) \(56\)
  • (3) \(74\)
  • (4) \(65\)

Question 20:

The eccentricity of an ellipse having centre at the origin, axes along the co-ordinate axes and passing through the points \((4,-1)\) and \((-2,2)\) is :

  • (1) \(\dfrac12\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac{2}{\sqrt5}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac{\sqrt3}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac{\sqrt3}{4}\)

Question 21:

If \(y=mx+c\) is the normal at a point on the parabola \(y^2=8x\) whose focal distance is \(8\) units, then \(|c|\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(2\sqrt3\)
  • (2) \(8\sqrt3\)
  • (3) \(10\sqrt3\)
  • (4) \(16\sqrt3\)

Question 22:

If a variable plane, at a distance of \(3\) units from the origin, intersects the coordinate axes at \(A\), \(B\) and \(C\), then the locus of the centroid of \(\Delta ABC\) is :

  • (1) \(\dfrac1{x^2}+\dfrac1{y^2}+\dfrac1{z^2}=1\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac1{x^2}+\dfrac1{y^2}+\dfrac1{z^2}=3\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac1{x^2}+\dfrac1{y^2}+\dfrac1{z^2}=\dfrac19\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac1{x^2}+\dfrac1{y^2}+\dfrac1{z^2}=9\)

Question 23:

If the line, \(\dfrac{x-3}{1}=\dfrac{y+2}{-1}=\dfrac{z+\lambda}{-2}\) lies in the plane, \(2x-4y+3z=2\), then the shortest distance between this line and the line, \(\dfrac{x-1}{12}=\dfrac y9=\dfrac z4\) is :

  • (1) \(2\)
  • (2) \(1\)
  • (3) \(0\)
  • (4) \(3\)

Question 24:

If the vector \(\vec b=3\hat j+4\hat k\) is written as the sum of a vector \(\vec b_1\), parallel to \(\vec a=\hat i+\hat j\) and a vector \(\vec b_2\), perpendicular to \(\vec a\), then \(\vec b_1\times\vec b_2\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(-3\hat i+3\hat j-9\hat k\)
  • (2) \(6\hat i-6\hat j+\dfrac92\hat k\)
  • (3) \(-6\hat i+6\hat j-\dfrac92\hat k\)
  • (4) \(3\hat i-3\hat j+9\hat k\)

Question 25:

From a group of \(10\) men and \(5\) women, four member committees are to be formed each of which must contain at least one woman. Then the probability for these committees to have more women than men, is :

  • (1) \(\dfrac{21}{220}\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac3{11}\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac1{11}\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac2{23}\)

Question 26:

Let \(E\) and \(F\) be two independent events. The probability that both \(E\) and \(F\) happen is \(\dfrac1{12}\) and the probability that neither \(E\) nor \(F\) happens is \(\dfrac12\), then a value of \(\dfrac{P(E)}{P(F)}\) is :

  • (1) \(\dfrac43\)
  • (2) \(\dfrac32\)
  • (3) \(\dfrac13\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac5{12}\)

Question 27:

The sum of \(100\) observations and the sum of their squares are \(400\) and \(2475\), respectively. Later on, three observations, \(3\), \(4\) and \(5\), were found to be incorrect. If the incorrect observations are omitted, then the variance of the remaining observations is :

  • (1) \(8.25\)
  • (2) \(8.50\)
  • (3) \(8.00\)
  • (4) \(9.00\)

Question 28:

A value of \(x\) satisfying the equation \(\sin\left[\cot^{-1}(1+x)\right]=\cos\left[\tan^{-1}x\right]\), is :

  • (1) \(-\dfrac12\)
  • (2) \(-1\)
  • (3) \(0\)
  • (4) \(\dfrac12\)

Question 29:

The two adjacent sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are \(2\) and \(5\) and the angle between them is \(60^\circ\). If the area of the quadrilateral is \(4\sqrt3\), then the perimeter of the quadrilateral is :

  • (1) \(12.5\)
  • (2) \(13.2\)
  • (3) \(12\)
  • (4) \(13\)

Question 30:

Contrapositive of the statement " If two numbers are not equal, then their squares are not equal." is :

  • (1) If the squares of two numbers are equal, then the numbers are not equal
  • (2) If the squares of two numbers are equal, then the numbers are equal
  • (3) If the squares of two numbers are not equal, then the numbers are equal
  • (4) If the squares of two numbers are not equal, then the numbers are not equal

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

A physical quantity \(P\) is described by the relation \(P = a^{1/2} b^2 c^3 d^{-4} \) If the relative errors in the measurement of \(a, b, c\) and \(d\) respectively, are \(2\%, 1\%, 3\%\) and \(5\%\), then the relative error in \(P\) will be :

  • (1) 8%
  • (2) 12%
  • (3) 32%
  • (4) 25%

Question 32:

A car is standing \(200\, m\) behind a bus, which is also at rest. The two start moving at the same instant but with different forward accelerations. The bus has acceleration \(2 \, m/s^2\) and the car has acceleration \(4 \, m/s^2\). The car will catch up with the bus after a time of :

  • (1) \(\sqrt{110} s \)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{120} s \)
  • (3) \(10 \sqrt{2} s\)
  • (4) \(15\, s\)

Question 33:

Two particles \(A\) and \(B\) of equal mass \(M\) are moving with the same speed \(v\) as shown in the figure. They collide completely inelastically and move as a single particle \(C\). The angle \(\theta\) that the path of \(C\) makes with the \(X-axis\) is given by :

  • (1) \(\tan\theta = \frac{\sqrt{3} + \sqrt{2}}{1-\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (2) \(\tan\theta = \frac{\sqrt{3} - \sqrt{2}}{1-\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (3) \(\tan\theta = \frac{ 1 - \sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2} (1 + \sqrt{3})} \)
  • (4) \(\tan\theta = \frac{ 1 - \sqrt{3}}{1 + \sqrt{2}} \)

Question 34:

The machine as shown has 2 rods of length 1 m connected by a pivot at the top. The end of one rod is connected to the floor by a stationary pivot and the end of the other rod has a roller that rolls along the floor in a slot. As the roller goes back and forth, a 2 kg weight moves up and down. If the roller is moving towards right at a constant speed, the weight moves up with a :

  • (1) constant speed
  • (2) decreasing speed
  • (3) increasing speed
  • (4) speed which is \(\frac{3}{4}\)th of that of the roller when the weight is 0.4 m above the ground

Question 35:

A conical pendulum of length \(1\,m\) makes an angle \(\theta = 45^{\circ}\) w.r.t. \(Z-axis\) and moves in a circle in the \(XY\) plane. The radius of the circle is \(0.4 \,m\) and its center is vertically below \(O\). The speed of the pendulum, in its circular path, will be : (Take \(g = 10 \, ms^{-2}\))

  • (1) 0.4 m/s
  • (2) 4 m/s
  • (3) 0.2 m/s
  • (4) 2 m/s

Question 36:

A circular hole of radius \(\frac{R}{4}\) is made in a thin uniform disc having mass M and radius R, as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the remaining portion of the disc about an axis passing through the point O and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is :

  • (1) \(\frac{219\,MR^2}{256}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{237\,MR^2}{512}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{19\,MR^2}{512}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{197\,MR^2}{256}\)

Question 37:

The mass density of a spherical body is given by \(\rho(r) = \frac{k}{r}\) for \(r \le R\) and \(\rho(r) = 0\) for \(r > R\), where r is the distance from the centre.
The correct graph that describes qualitatively the acceleration, a, of a test particle as a function of r is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 38:

A steel rail of length \(5\,m\) and area of cross section 40 \(cm^2\) is prevented from expanding along its length while the temperature rises by \(10^{\circ}C\). If coefficient of linear expansion and Young?s modulus of steel are \(1.2 \times 10^{-5} \, K^{-1}\) and \(2 \times 10^{11} \, Nm^{-2}\) respectively, the force developed in the rail is approximately :

  • (1) \(2 \times 10^7 N\)
  • (2) \(1 \times 10^5 N\)
  • (3) \(2 \times 10^9 N\)
  • (4) \(3 \times 10^{-5} N\)

Question 39:

Two tubes of radii \(r_1\) and \(r_2\), and lengths \(l_1\) and \(l_2\), respectively, are connected in series and a liquid flows through each of them in stream line conditions. \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) are pressure differences across the two tubes. If \(P_2\) is \(4P_1\) and \(l_2\) is \(\frac{l_1}{4}\), then the radius \(r_2\) will be equal to :

  • (1) \(r_1\)
  • (2) \(2r_1\)
  • (3) \(4r_1\)
  • (4) \(\frac{r_1}{2}\)

Question 40:

For the P-V diagram given for an ideal gas, (curve \(P = \frac{\text{Constant}}{V}\) from point 1 at high pressure to point 2 at lower pressure), out of the following which one correctly represents the T-P diagram ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 41:

N moles of a diatomic gas in a cylinder are at a temperature T. Heat is supplied to the cylinder such that the temperature remains constant but n moles of the diatomic gas get converted into monatomic gas. What is the change in the total kinetic energy of the gas ?

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}nRT\)
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{2}nRT\)
  • (4) \(\frac{5}{2}nRT\)

Question 42:

A block of mass 0.1 kg is connected to an elastic spring of spring constant \(640\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}\) and oscillates in a damping medium of damping constant \(10^{-2}\ \mathrm{kg\,s^{-1}}\). The system dissipates its energy gradually. The time taken for its mechanical energy of vibration to drop to half of its initial value, is closest to :

  • (1) \(2\ \mathrm{s}\)
  • (2) \(3.5\ \mathrm{s}\)
  • (3) \(5\ \mathrm{s}\)
  • (4) \(7\ \mathrm{s}\)

Question 43:

A standing wave is formed by the superposition of two waves travelling in opposite directions. The transverse displacement is given by
\(y(x,t) = 0.5\sin\left(\frac{5\pi}{4}x\right)\cos(200\pi t)\).
What is the speed of the travelling wave moving in the positive \(x\) direction ?
(\(x\) and \(t\) are in meter and second, respectively.)

  • (1) \(160\ \mathrm{m/s}\)
  • (2) \(90\ \mathrm{m/s}\)
  • (3) \(180\ \mathrm{m/s}\)
  • (4) \(120\ \mathrm{m/s}\)

Question 44:

Four closed surfaces and corresponding charge distributions are shown below.

Let the respective electric fluxes through the surfaces be \(\Phi_1\), \(\Phi_2\), \(\Phi_3\) and \(\Phi_4\). Then :

  • (1) \(\Phi_1 \lt \Phi_2 = \Phi_3 \gt \Phi_4\)
  • (2) \(\Phi_1 \gt \Phi_2 \gt \Phi_3 \gt \Phi_4\)
  • (3) \(\Phi_1 = \Phi_2 = \Phi_3 = \Phi_4\)
  • (4) \(\Phi_1 \gt \Phi_3\,;\ \Phi_2 \lt \Phi_4\)

Question 45:

A combination of parallel plate capacitors is maintained at a certain potential difference.

When a 3 mm thick slab is introduced between all the plates, in order to maintain the same potential difference, the distance between the plates is increased by 2.4 mm. Find the dielectric constant of the slab.

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 6

Question 46:

A uniform wire of length \(l\) and radius \(r\) has a resistance of \(100 \, \Omega\) . It is recast into a wire of radius \(\frac{r}{2}\). The resistance of new wire will be :

  • (1) \(1600 \, \Omega\)
  • (2) \(400 \, \Omega\)
  • (3) \(200 \, \Omega\)
  • (4) \(100 \, \Omega\)

Question 47:

The figure shows three circuits I, II and III which are connected to a 3V battery. If the powers dissipated by the configurations I, II and III are \(P_1\), \(P_2\) and \(P_3\) respectively, then :

  • (1) \(P_1 \gt P_2 \gt P_3\)
  • (2) \(P_1 \gt P_3 \gt P_2\)
  • (3) \(P_2 \gt P_1 \gt P_3\)
  • (4) \(P_3 \gt P_2 \gt P_1\)

Question 48:

A negative test charge is moving near a long straight wire carrying a current. The force acting on the test charge is parallel to the direction of the current. The motion of the charge is :

  • (1) away from the wire
  • (2) towards the wire
  • (3) parallel to the wire along the current
  • (4) parallel to the wire opposite to the current

Question 49:

A uniform magnetic field B of 0.3 T is along the positive Z-direction. A rectangular loop (abcd) of sides 10 cm \(\times\) 5 cm carries a current I of 12 A. Out of the following different orientations which one corresponds to stable equilibrium ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 50:

A sinusoidal voltage of peak value \(283\, V\) and angular frequency \(320/s\) is applied to a series \(LCR\) circuit. Given that \(R = 5 \, \Omega , L = 25 \, mH \) and \(C=1000 \, \mu F\). The total impedance, and phase difference between the voltage across the source and the current will respectively be :

  • (1) \(10 \Omega \) and \(\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{5}{3} \right)\)
  • (2) \(7 \Omega\) and \(45^{\circ}\)
  • (3) \(10 \Omega \) and \(\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{8}{3} \right)\)
  • (4) \(7 \Omega \) and \(\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{5}{3} \right)\)

Question 51:

The electric field component of a monochromatic radiation is given by
\(\vec{E} = 2E_0\,\hat{i}\,\cos kz\,\cos\omega t\)
Its magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) is then given by :

  • (1) \(\frac{2E_0}{c}\,\hat{j}\,\sin kz\,\cos\omega t\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{2E_0}{c}\,\hat{j}\,\sin kz\,\sin\omega t\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2E_0}{c}\,\hat{j}\,\sin kz\,\sin\omega t\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2E_0}{c}\,\hat{j}\,\cos kz\,\cos\omega t\)

Question 52:

In an experiment a convex lens of focal length \(15\, cm\) is placed coaxially on an optical bench in front of a convex mirror at a distance of \(5 \,cm\) from it. It is found that an object and its image coincide, if the object is placed at a distance of \(20 \,cm \) from the lens. The focal length of the convex mirror is :

  • (1) \(27.5 \,cm\)
  • (2) \(20.0 \,cm\)
  • (3) \(25.0\,cm\)
  • (4) \(30.5\, cm\)

Question 53:

A single slit of width 0.1 mm is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wavelength 6000 \(\mathrm{\AA}\) and diffraction bands are observed on a screen 0.5 m from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central bright band is :

  • (1) 3 mm
  • (2) 9 mm
  • (3) 4.5 mm
  • (4) 1.5 mm

Question 54:

A Laser light of wavelength 660 nm is used to weld Retina detachment. If a Laser pulse of width 60 ms and power 0.5 kW is used the approximate number of photons in the pulse are :
[Take Planck's constant h = \(6.62\times10^{-34}\) Js]

  • (1) \(10^{20}\)
  • (2) \(10^{18}\)
  • (3) \(10^{22}\)
  • (4) \(10^{19}\)

Question 55:

The acceleration of an electron in the first orbit of the hydrogen atom (n = 1) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{h^2}{\pi^2 m^2 r^3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{h^2}{8\pi^2 m^2 r^3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{h^2}{4\pi^2 m^2 r^3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{h^2}{4\pi m^2 r^3}\)

Question 56:

Imagine that a reactor converts all given mass into energy and that it operates at a power level of \(10^9\) watt. The mass of the fuel consumed per hour in the reactor will be : (velocity of light, c is \(3\times10^8\) m/s)

  • (1) 0.96 gm
  • (2) 0.8 gm
  • (3) \(4\times10^{-2}\) gm
  • (4) \(6.6\times10^{-5}\) gm

Question 57:

The current gain of a common emitter amplifier is \(69\) . If the emitter current is \(7.0 \,mA\), collector current is :

  • (1) 9.6 mA
  • (2) 6.9 mA
  • (3) 0.69 mA
  • (4) 69 mA

Question 58:

A signal is to be transmitted through a wave of wavelength \(\lambda\), using a linear antenna. The length l of the antenna and effective power radiated \(P_{eff}\) will be given respectively as :
(K is a constant of proportionality)

  • (1) \(\lambda,\ P_{eff} = K\left(\frac{1}{\lambda}\right)^{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\lambda}{8},\ P_{eff} = K\left(\frac{1}{\lambda}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\lambda}{16},\ P_{eff} = K\left(\frac{1}{\lambda}\right)^{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\lambda}{5},\ P_{eff} = K\left(\frac{1}{\lambda}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)

Question 59:

In a meter bridge experiment resistances are connected as shown in the figure. Initially resistance \(P = 4\,\Omega\) and the neutral point N is at 60 cm from A. Now an unknown resistance R is connected in series to P and the new position of the neutral point is at 80 cm from A. The value of unknown resistance R is :

  • (1) \(\frac{33}{5}\,\Omega\)
  • (2) \(6\,\Omega\)
  • (3) \(7\,\Omega\)
  • (4) \(\frac{20}{3}\,\Omega\)

Question 60:

In an experiment to determine the period of a simple pendulum of length 1 m, it is attached to different spherical bobs of radii \(r_1\) and \(r_2\). The two spherical bobs have uniform mass distribution. If the relative difference in the periods, is found to be \(5\times10^{-4}\) s, the difference in radii, \(|r_1 - r_2|\) is best given by :

  • (1) 1 cm
  • (2) 0.1 cm
  • (3) 0.5 cm
  • (4) 0.01 cm

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

An ideal gas undergoes isothermal expansion at constant pressure. During the process :

  • (1) enthalpy increases but entropy decreases.
  • (2) enthalpy remains constant but entropy increases
  • (3) enthalpy decreases but entropy increases.
  • (4) Both enthalpy and entropy remain constant .

Question 62:

50 mL of 0.2 M ammonia solution is treated with 25 mL of 0.2 M HCl. If \(\mathrm{p}K_\mathrm{b}\) of ammonia solution is 4.75, the pH of the mixture will be :

  • (1) 3.75
  • (2) 4.75
  • (3) 8.25
  • (4) 9.25

Question 63:

The electron in the hydrogen atom undergoes transition from higher orbitals to orbital of radius \(211.6\, pm\). This transition is associated with

  • (1) Lyman series
  • (2) Balmer series
  • (3) Paschen series
  • (4) Brackett series

Question 64:

At \(300\, K\), the density of a certain gaseous molecule at \(2\) bar is double to that of dinitrogen \((N_2)\) at \(4\) bar. The molar mass of gaseous molecule is :

  • (1) \(28 \, g \, mol^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(56 \, g \, mol^{-1}\)
  • (3) \(112\, g \, mol^{-1}\)
  • (4) \(224 \, g \, mol^{-1}\)

Question 65:

What quantity (in mL) of a \(45\%\) acid solution of a monoprotic strong acid must be mixed with a \(20\%\) solution of the same acid to produce \(800\ mL\) of a \(29.875\%\) acid solution ?

  • (1) 320
  • (2) 325
  • (3) 316
  • (4) 330

Question 66:

To find the standard potential of \(\mathrm{M^{3+}/M}\) electrode, the following cell is constituted :
\(\mathrm{Pt/M/M^{3+}(0.001\ mol\ L^{-1})/Ag^{+}(0.01\ mol\ L^{-1})/Ag}\)
The emf of the cell is found to be 0.421 volt at 298 K. The standard potential of half reaction \(\mathrm{M^{3+} + 3e^{-} \to M}\) at 298 K will be :
(Given \(E^{\ominus}_{\mathrm{Ag^{+}/Ag}}\) at 298 K = 0.80 Volt)

  • (1) 0.38 Volt
  • (2) 0.32 Volt
  • (3) 1.28 Volt
  • (4) 0.66 Volt

Question 67:

A gas undergoes change from state A to state B. In this process, the heat absorbed and work done by the gas is 5 J and 8 J, respectively. Now gas is brought back to A by another process during which 3 J of heat is evolved. In this reverse process of B to A :

  • (1) 10 J of the work will be done by the gas.
  • (2) 6 J of the work will be done by the gas.
  • (3) 10 J of the work will be done by the surrounding on gas.
  • (4) 6 J of the work will be done by the surrounding on gas.

Question 68:

Adsorption of a gas on a surface follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm. Plot of \(\log\frac{x}{m}\) versus \(\log p\) gives a straight line with slope equal to 0.5, then :
(\(\frac{x}{m}\) is the mass of the gas adsorbed per gram of adsorbent)

  • (1) Adsorption is independent of pressure.
  • (2) Adsorption is proportional to the pressure.
  • (3) Adsorption is proportional to the square root of pressure.
  • (4) Adsorption is proportional to the square of pressure.

Question 69:

The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from \(300\) to \(310\, K\). The activation energy of this reaction is : (Assume activation energy and pre-exponential factor are independent of temperature; \(ln\, 2 = 0.693; R=8.314 \,J\) \(mol^{-1} \, K^{-1}\))

  • (1) \(107.2 \, kJ \, mol^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(53.6 \, kJ \, mol^{-1}\)
  • (3) \(26.8 \, kJ \, mol^{-1}\)
  • (4) \(214.4 \, kJ \, mol^{-1}\)

Question 70:

A solution is prepared by mixing 8.5 g of \(\mathrm{CH_2Cl_2}\) and 11.95 g of \(\mathrm{CHCl_3}\). If vapour pressure of \(\mathrm{CH_2Cl_2}\) and \(\mathrm{CHCl_3}\) at 298 K are 415 and 200 mmHg respectively, the mole fraction of \(\mathrm{CHCl_3}\) in vapour form is :
(Molar mass of Cl = 35.5 g \(\mathrm{mol^{-1}}\))

  • (1) 0.162
  • (2) 0.675
  • (3) 0.325
  • (4) 0.486

Question 71:

The electronic configuration with the highest ionization enthalpy is :

  • (1) \([Ne] \, 3s^2 \, 3p^1\)
  • (2) \([Ne] \, 3s^2 \, 3p^2\)
  • (3) \([Ne] \, 3s^2 \, 3p^3\)
  • (4) \([Ar] \, 3d^{10} \, 4s^2 \, 4p^3\)

Question 72:

The following reaction occurs in the Blast furnace where iron ore is reduced to iron metal:
\(\text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3(s) + 3\text{CO}(g) \rightleftharpoons 2\text{Fe}(l) + 3\text{CO}_2(g)\)
Using Le Chatelier's principle, predict which one of the following will not disturb the equilibrium.

  • (1) Addition of \( \text{Fe}_2\text{O}_3 \)
  • (2) Addition of \( \text{CO}_2 \)
  • (3) Removal of \( \text{CO} \)
  • (4) Removal of \( \text{CO}_2 \)

Question 73:

Which one of the following is an oxide ?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{KO_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{BaO_2}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{SiO_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{CsO_2}\)

Question 74:

Which of the following is a set of green house gases ?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CH_4,\ O_3,\ N_2,\ SO_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{O_3,\ N_2,\ CO_2,\ NO_2}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{O_3,\ NO_2,\ SO_2,\ Cl_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{CO_2,\ CH_4,\ N_2O,\ O_3}\)

Question 75:

The group having triangular planar structures is :

  • (1) \(BF_3 , NF_3 , CO^{2-}_3\)
  • (2) \( CO^{2-}_3 , NO^{-}_3, SO_3\)
  • (3) \(NH_3 , SO_3 , CO^{2-}_3\)
  • (4) \(NCl_3, BCl_3 , SO_3\)

Question 76:

\(XeF_6\) on partial hydrolysis with water produces a compound \('X'\). The same compound \('X'\) is formed when \(XeF_6\) reacts with silica. The compound \('X'\) is :

  • (1) \(XeF_2\)
  • (2) \(XeF_4\)
  • (3) \(XeOF_4\)
  • (4) \(XeO_3\)

Question 77:

The number of P-OH bonds and the oxidation state of phosphorus atom in pyrophosphoric acid (\(\mathrm{H_4P_2O_7}\)) respectively are :

  • (1) four and four
  • (2) five and four
  • (3) five and five
  • (4) four and five

Question 78:

Which of the following ions does not liberate hydrogen gas on reaction with dilute acids?

  • (1) \({Ti^{2+}}\)
  • (2) \({V^{2+}}\)
  • (3) \({Cr^{2+}}\)
  • (4) \({Mn^{2+}}\)

Question 79:

The correct sequence of decreasing number of \(\pi\)-bonds in the structures of \(\mathrm{H_2SO_3}\), \(\mathrm{H_2SO_4}\) and \(\mathrm{H_2S_2O_7}\) is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{H_2SO_3 > H_2SO_4 > H_2S_2O_7}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{H_2SO_4 > H_2S_2O_7 > H_2SO_3}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{H_2S_2O_7 > H_2SO_4 > H_2SO_3}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{H_2S_2O_7 > H_2SO_3 > H_2SO_4}\)

Question 80:

\(\mathrm{[Co_2(CO)_8]}\) displays :

  • (1) one Co-Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
  • (2) one Co-Co bond, four terminal CO and four bridging CO
  • (3) no Co-Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
  • (4) no Co-Co bond, four terminal CO and four bridging CO

Question 81:

A compound of molecular formula \(\mathrm{C_8H_8O_2}\) reacts with acetophenone to form a single cross-aldol product in the presence of base. The same compound on reaction with conc. NaOH forms benzyl alcohol as one of the products. The structure of the compound is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 82:

Which of the following compounds is most reactive to an aqueous solution of sodium carbonate ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 83:

In the following structure, the double bonds are marked as I, II, III and IV

Geometrical isomerism is not possible at site (s) :

  • (1) III
  • (2) I
  • (3) I and III
  • (4) III and IV

Question 84:

The major product of the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 85:

The incorrect statement among the following is :

  • (1) \(\alpha\)-D-glucose and \(\beta\)-D-glucose are anomers.
  • (2) \(\alpha\)-D-glucose and \(\beta\)-D-glucose are enantiomers.
  • (3) Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide made up of only \(\beta\)-D-glucose units.
  • (4) The penta acetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine.

Question 86:

Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer ?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 87:

The increasing order of the boiling points for the following compounds is :
\(\mathrm{C_2H_5OH}\) (I) \(\mathrm{C_2H_5Cl}\) (II)   \(\mathrm{C_2H_5CH_3}\) (III)   \(\mathrm{C_2H_5OCH_3}\) (IV)

  • (1) (III) < (IV) < (II) < (I)
  • (2) (IV) < (III) < (I) < (II)
  • (3) (II) < (III) < (IV) < (I)
  • (4) (III) < (II) < (I) < (IV)

Question 88:

Which of the following compounds will show highest dipole moment ?

  • (1) (I)
  • (2) (II)
  • (3) (III)
  • (4) (IV)

Question 89:

In the following reaction sequence :
I (\(\mathrm{C_3H_6Cl_2}\)) \(\xrightarrow{\mathrm{KOH(aq)}}\) II \(\xrightarrow[\mathrm{(ii)\ H_2O/H^+}]{\mathrm{(i)\ CH_3MgBr}}\) III \(\xrightarrow{\mathrm{Anhy.\ ZnCl_2 + Con.\ HCl}}\) gives turbidity immediately
The compound I is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CH_2Cl-CHCl-CH_3}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{CH_2Cl-CH_2-CH_2Cl}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{CHCl_2-CH_2-CH_3}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{CH_3-CCl_2-CH_3}\)

Question 90:

Among the following compounds, the increasing order of their basic strength is :

(I) aniline (II) pyrrole   (III) N-methylpiperidine   (IV) cyclohexylamine

  • (1) (I) < (II) < (IV) < (III)
  • (2) (I) < (II) < (III) < (IV)
  • (3) (II) < (I) < (IV) < (III)
  • (4) (II) < (I) < (III) < (IV)

JEE Main 2017 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2017 April 9 Difficulty Level

In terms of difficulty level, B.E/B.Tech was of moderate to difficult level.

JEE Main 2017 Question Paper Analysis

  • The question paper comprised a total of 90 questions divided among 3 sections i.e, Physics, Chemistry and Maths. Each section consists of 30 questions
  • Physics Paper the questions were more calculative and formula based than theoretical. In terms of difficulty, the paper was moderate for students having good conceptual knowledge along with its applications.
  • Chemistry Paper had more theoretical questions than calculative, making it the quickest subject to solve
  • Maths Paper had Lengthy and application based questions several students rated as the most difficult section.

For every correct answer, candidates got 4 and for each wrong attempt -1 marks were deducted.