JEE Main 2018 April 8 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. CBSE conducted the pen-and-paper (offline) Paper 1 on April 8, 2018, in the morning session from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The JEE Main 2018 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour pen-and-paper (offline) paper: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2018 April 8 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2018 April 8 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

Let \(f(x)=x^2+\frac{1}{x^2}\) and \(g(x)=x-\frac{1}{x}\), \(x\in R-\{-1,0,1\}\). If \(h(x)=\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}\), then the local minimum value of \(h(x)\) is

  • (1) \(2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(3\)
  • (3) \(-3\)
  • (4) \(-2\sqrt{2}\)

Question 2:

If \(\alpha,\beta\in C\) are the distinct roots of the equation \(x^2-x+1=0\), then \(\alpha^{101}+\beta^{107}\) is equal to :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) -1
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 1

Question 3:

If \(\begin{vmatrix}x-4&2x&2x\\2x&x-4&2x\\2x&2x&x-4\end{vmatrix}=(A+Bx)(x-A)^2\), then the ordered pair \((A,B)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \((4,5)\)
  • (2) \((-4,-5)\)
  • (3) \((-4,3)\)
  • (4) \((-4,5)\)

Question 4:

For each \(t\in R\), let \([t]\) be the greatest integer less than or equal to \(t\). Then \(\lim_{x\to0^+}x\left(\left[\frac{1}{x}\right]+\left[\frac{2}{x}\right]+\cdots+\left[\frac{15}{x}\right]\right)\)

  • (1) does not exist in R
  • (2) is equal to 0
  • (3) is equal to 15
  • (4) is equal to 120

Question 5:

Two sets \(A\) and \(B\) are as under: \(A = \{(a, b) \in R \times R : |a - 5| < 1\) and \(|b - 5| < 1\} \); \(B = \{(a, b) \in R \times R : 4(a - 6)2 + 9(b - 5)^2 \leq 36\}\). Then

  • (1) \(B \subset A \)
  • (2) \(A \subset B \)
  • (3) \(A \cap B = \phi \) (an empty set)
  • (4) neither \(A \subset B\) nor \( B \subset A\)

Question 6:

Let \(S=\{t\in R: f(x)=|x-\pi|\cdot\left(e^{|x|}-1\right)\sin|x|\) is not differentiable at \(t\}\), then the set \(S\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\{0,\pi\}\)
  • (2) \(\phi\) (an empty set)
  • (3) \(\{0\}\)
  • (4) \(\{\pi\}\)

Question 7:

The integral \(\int\frac{\sin^2x\cos^2x}{\left(\sin^5x+\cos^3x\sin^2x+\sin^3x\cos^2x+\cos^5x\right)^2}dx\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{-1}{1+\cot^3x}+C\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{3\left(1+\tan^3x\right)}+C\)
  • (3) \(\frac{-1}{3\left(1+\tan^3x\right)}+C\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{1+\cot^3x}+C\)

Question 8:

A bag contains \(4\) red and \(6\) black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag, its colour is observed and this ball along with two additional balls of the same colour are returned to the bag. If now a ball is drawn at random from the bag, then the probability that this drawn ball is red, is :

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 9:

Let \(\vec{u}\) be a vector coplanar with the vectors \(\vec{a}=2\hat{i}+3\hat{j}-\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{b}=\hat{j}+\hat{k}\). If \(\vec{u}\) is perpendicular to \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{u}\cdot\vec{b}=24\), then \(|\vec{u}|^2\) is equal to

  • (1) 336
  • (2) 315
  • (3) 256
  • (4) 84

Question 10:

If \(\sum_{i=1}^{9}(x_i-5)=9\) and \(\sum_{i=1}^{9}(x_i-5)^2=45\), then the standard deviation of the 9 items \(x_1,x_2,\ldots,x_9\) is

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 2

Question 11:

Let \(a_1,a_2,a_3,\ldots,a_{49}\) be in A.P. such that \(\sum_{k=0}^{12}a_{4k+1}=416\) and \(a_9+a_{43}=66\). If \(a_1^2+a_2^2+\cdots+a_{17}^2=140m\), then \(m\) is equal to

  • (1) 33
  • (2) 66
  • (3) 68
  • (4) 34

Question 12:

The value of \(\displaystyle\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2}\dfrac{\sin^2 x}{1+2^x}\,dx\) is :

  • (1) \(\pi\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (3) \(4\pi\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 13:

A straight line through a fixed point \((2, 3)\) intersects the coordinate axes at distinct points \(P\) and \(Q\). If \(O\) is the origin and the rectangle \(OPRQ\) is completed, then the locus of \(R\) is:

  • (1) 3x + 2y = 6
  • (2) 2x + 3y = xy
  • (3) 3x + 2y = xy
  • (4) 3x + 2y = 6xy

Question 14:

Let \(y=y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation \(\sin x\frac{dy}{dx}+y\cos x=4x\), \(x\in(0,\pi)\). If \(y\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=0\), then \(y\left(\frac{\pi}{6}\right)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(-\frac{4}{9}\pi^2\)
  • (2) \(\frac{4}{9\sqrt3}\pi^2\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{8}{9\sqrt3}\pi^2\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{8}{9}\pi^2\)

Question 15:

Let \(g(x)=\cos x^2\), \(f(x)=\sqrt{x}\) and \(\alpha,\beta\ (\alpha\lt\beta)\) be the roots of the quadratic equation \(18x^2-9\pi x+\pi^2=0\). Then the area (in sq. units) bounded by the curve \(y=(g\circ f)(x)\) and the lines \(x=\alpha\), \(x=\beta\) and \(y=0\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac12\left(\sqrt2-1\right)\)
  • (2) \(\frac12\left(\sqrt3-1\right)\)
  • (3) \(\frac12\left(\sqrt3+1\right)\)
  • (4) \(\frac12\left(\sqrt3-\sqrt2\right)\)

Question 16:

From 6 different novels and 3 different dictionaries, 4 novels and 1 dictionary are to be selected and arranged in a row on a shelf so that the dictionary is always in the middle. The number of such arrangements is :

  • (1) at least 750 but less than 1000
  • (2) at least 1000
  • (3) less than 500
  • (4) at least 500 but less than 750

Question 17:

If the system of linear equations
\( x+y+3z=0 \)
\( x+3y+k^2z=0 \)
\( 3x+y+3z=0 \)
has a non-zero solution \((x, y, z)\) for some \(k\in R\), then \( x+\left(\frac{y}{z}\right) \) is equal to :

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 3
  • (3) -9
  • (4) -3

Question 18:

Let \(S=\{x\in R: x\ge0\) and \(2\left|\sqrt{x}-3\right|+\sqrt{x}\left(\sqrt{x}-6\right)+6=0\}\). Then \(S\)

  • (1) contains exactly four elements
  • (2) is an empty set
  • (3) contains exactly one element
  • (4) contains exactly two elements

Question 19:

If the curves \(y^2=6x\), \(9x^2+by^2=16\) intersect each other at right angles, then the value of \(b\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac92\)
  • (2) 6
  • (3) \(\frac72\)
  • (4) 4

Question 20:

The length of the projection of the line segment joining the points \( (5, -1, 4)\) and \((4, -1, 3)\) on the plane, \(x + y + z = 7\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{2 }{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2 }{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{\frac{2 }{3}}\)

Question 21:

The sum of the co-efficients of all odd degree terms in the expansion of \((x+\sqrt{x^3-1})^5+(x-\sqrt{x^3-1})^5\), \((x \gt 1)\) is

  • (1) 2
  • (2) -1
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 1

Question 22:

If \(L_1\) is the line of intersection of the planes \(2x - 2y + 3z - 2 =0, x - y + z + 1 = 0\) and \(L_2\) is the line of intersection of the planes \(x + 2y - z - 3 = 0, 3x - y + 2z - 1 = 0,\) then the distance of the origin from the plane, containing the lines \(L_1\) and \(L_2\), is:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4 \sqrt{2}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{3\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 23:

Let \(A\) be the sum of the first \(20\) terms and \(B\) be the sum of the first \(40\) terms of the series \(1^2 + 2.2^2 + 3^2 + 2.4^2 + 5^2 + 2.6^2 + ?.\) If \(B - 2A = 100\lambda\), then \(\lambda\) is equal to :

  • (1) 232
  • (2) 248
  • (3) 464
  • (4) 496

Question 24:

Let the orthocenter an centroid of a triangle be \(A(-3, 5)\) and \(B(3, 3)\) respectively. If \(C\) is the circumcentre of this triangle, then the radius of the circle having line segment \(AC\) as diameter, is:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{10}\)
  • (2) \(2 \sqrt{10}\)
  • (3) \(3 \sqrt{\frac{5}{2}}\)
  • (4) \( \frac{3\sqrt{5}}{2}\)

Question 25:

Tangent and normal are drawn at \(P(16, 16)\) on the parabola \(y^2 = 16x\), which intersect the axis of the parabola at A and B, respectively. If C is the centre of the circle through the points P, A and B and \(\angle CPB = \theta\), then a value of \(\tan\theta\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 26:

Tangents are drawn to the hyperbola \(4x^2 - y^2 = 36\) at the points P and Q. If these tangents intersect at the point \(T(0, 3)\) then the area (in sq. units) of \(\triangle PTQ\) is :

  • (1) \(36\sqrt{5}\)
  • (2) \(45\sqrt{5}\)
  • (3) \(54\sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(60\sqrt{3}\)

Question 27:

If sum of all the solutions of the equation \(8 \cos x.\left(\cos \left(\frac{\pi}{6} + x\right). \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{6} - x\right) - \frac{1}{2}\right)= 1 \) in \(\left[0, \pi\right]\) is \( k \pi \), then \(k\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{13}{9}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{8}{9}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{20}{9}\)

Question 28:

\(PQR\) is a triangular park with \(PQ = PR = 200 \,m. A \,T.V\). tower stands at the mid-point of \(QR\). If the angles of elevation of the top of the tower at \(P, Q \) and \(R\) are respectively \(45^{\circ}, 30^{\circ}\) and \(30^{\circ}\), then the height of the tower (in m) is :

  • (1) 100
  • (2) 50
  • (3) \(100 \sqrt{3}\)
  • (4) \(50 \sqrt{2}\)

Question 29:

If the tangent at \((1, 7)\) to the curve \(x^2 = y - 6\) touches the circle \(x^2 + y^2 + 16x + 12y + c = 0\) then the value of c is:

  • (1) 195
  • (2) 185
  • (3) 85
  • (4) 95

Question 30:

The Boolean expression \(\sim(p \vee q) \vee (\sim p \wedge q)\) is equivalent to :

  • (1) \(\sim q\)
  • (2) \(\sim p\)
  • (3) p
  • (4) q

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance \(90\, pF\) is connected to a battery of emf \(20\, V\). If a dielectric material of dielectric constant \( K = \frac{5}{3} \) is inserted between the plates, the magnitude of the induced charge will be :

  • (1) 1.2 n C
  • (2) 0.3 n C
  • (3) 2.4 n C
  • (4) 0.9 n C

Question 32:

In an a.c. circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f. and current are given by
\(e = 100\sin 30t\)
\(i = 20\sin\left(30t-\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
In one cycle of a.c., the average power consumed by the circuit and the wattless current are, respectively

  • (1) 50, 0
  • (2) 50, 10
  • (3) \(\frac{1000}{\sqrt{2}}\), 10
  • (4) \(\frac{50}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 33:

On interchanging the resistances, the balance point of a meter bridge shifts to the left by \(10\, cm\). The resistance of their series combination is \(1 \, k\Omega\) . How much was the resistance on the left slot before interchanging the resistances ?

  • (1) \(990\,\Omega\)
  • (2) \(505 \,\Omega\)
  • (3) \(550 \,\Omega\)
  • (4) \(910 \,\Omega\)

Question 34:

A granite rod of \(60\, cm\) length is clamped at its middle point and is set into longitudinal vibrations. The density of granite is \(2.7 \times 10^3 \, kg/m^3\) and its Young's modules is \(9.27 \times 10^{10}\, Pa\). What will be the fundamental frequency of the longitudinal vibrations ?

  • (1) 5 kHz
  • (2) 2.5 kHz
  • (3) 10 kHz
  • (4) 7.5 kHz

Question 35:

A silver atom in a solid oscillates in simple harmonic motion in some direction with a frequency of \(10^{12} / \sec\). What is the force constant of the bonds connecting one atom with the other ? ( Mole wt. of silver \(= 108 \) and Avogadro number \(= 6.02 \times 10^{23} \, gm \, mole^{-1} \) )

  • (1) 6.4 N/m
  • (2) 7.1 N/m
  • (3) 2.2 N/m
  • (4) 5.5 N/m

Question 36:

Two batteries with e.m.f. \(12\, V\) and \(13\, V\) are connected in parallel across a load resistor of \(10 \, \Omega\). The internal resistances of the two batteries are \(1 \, \Omega\) and \(2 \, \Omega\) respectively. The voltage across the load lies between :

  • (1) 11.6 V and 11.7 V
  • (2) 11.5 V and 11.6 V
  • (3) 11.4 V and 11.5 V
  • (4) 11.7 V and 11.8 V

Question 37:

A particle is moving in a circular path of radius a under the action of an attractive potential \(U = - \frac{k}{2r^2}\). Its total energy is -

  • (1) \( - \frac{k}{4a^2}\)
  • (2) \( \frac{k}{2a^2}\)
  • (3) zero
  • (4) \( - \frac{3}{2} \frac{k}{a^2} \)

Question 38:

Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas occupies a volume \(V\) at \(27^{\circ}C\). The gas expands adiabatically to a volume \(2V\). Calculate \((a)\) the final temperature of the gas and \((b) \) change in its internal energy -

  • (1) (a) 189 K (b) 2.7 kJ
  • (2) (a) 195 K (b) - 2.7 kJ
  • (3) (a) 189 K (b) -2.7 kJ
  • (4) (a) 195 K (b) 2.7 kJ

Question 39:

Two masses \(m_1 = 5\ \mathrm{kg}\) and \(m_2 = 10\ \mathrm{kg}\), connected by an inextensible string over a frictionless pulley, are moving as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction of horizontal surface is 0.15. The minimum weight m that should be put on top of \(m_2\) to stop the motion is :

  • (1) 10.3 kg
  • (2) 18.3 kg
  • (3) 27.3 kg
  • (4) 43.3 kg

Question 40:

All the graphs below are intended to represent the same motion. One of them does it incorrectly. Pick it up.

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 41:

A particle is moving with a uniform speed in a circular orbit of radius \(R \) in a central force inversely proportional to the nth power of \(R\). If the period of rotation of the particle is \(T\) then -

  • (1) \(T \propto R^{3/2}\) for any n
  • (2) \(T \propto R^{\frac{n}{2} + 1}\)
  • (3) \(T \propto R^{(n + 1) / 2 }\)
  • (4) \(T \propto R^{\frac{n}{2} }\)

Question 42:

From a uniform circular disc of radius \(R\) and mass \(9 \,M\), a small disc of radius \(\frac{R}{3}\) is removed as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through centre of disc is -

  • (1) \(4 MR^2\)
  • (2) \(\frac{40}{9} MR^2\)
  • (3) \(10 MR^2\)
  • (4) \(\frac{37}{9} MR^2\)

Question 43:

Seven identical circular planar disks, each of mass \(M\) and radius \(R\) are welded symmetrically as shown. The moment of inertia of the arrangement about the axis normal to the plane and passing through the point \(P\) is -

  • (1) \(\frac{19}{2} MR^2 \)
  • (2) \(\frac{55}{2} MR^2 \)
  • (3) \(\frac{73}{2} MR^2 \)
  • (4) \(\frac{181}{2} MR^2 \)

Question 44:

The density of a material in the shape of a cube is determined by measuring three sides of the cube and its mass. If the relative errors in measuring the mass and length are respectively 1.5% and 1%, the maximum error in determining the density is:

  • (1) 6%
  • (2) 2.5%
  • (3) 3.5%
  • (4) 4.5%

Question 45:

A solid sphere of radius r made of a soft material of bulk modulus K is surrounded by a liquid in a cylindrical container. A massless piston of area a floats on the surface of the liquid, covering entire cross section of cylindrical container. When a mass m is placed on the surface of the piston to compress the liquid, the fractional decrement in the radius of the sphere, \(\left(\frac{dr}{r}\right)\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{mg}{Ka}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{Ka}{mg}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{Ka}{3mg}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{mg}{3Ka}\)

Question 46:

An electron , a proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular orbits of radii \(r_e, r_p, r_{\alpha} \) respectively in a uniform magnetic field \(B\). The relation between \(r_e, r_p, r_{\alpha}\) is :

  • (1) \(r_e > r_p = r_{\alpha}\)
  • (2) \(r_e < r_p = r_{\alpha}\)
  • (3) \(r_e < r_p < r_{\alpha}\)
  • (4) \(r_e < r_{\alpha} < r_p\)

Question 47:

The reading of the ammeter for a silicon diode in the given circuit is

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 15 mA
  • (3) 11.5 mA
  • (4) 13.5 mA

Question 48:

In a collinear collision, a particle with an initial speed \(v_0\) strikes a stationary particle of the same mass. If the final total kinetic energy is \(50 \%\) grater than the original kinetic energy, the magnitude of the relative velocity between the two particles, after collision, is -

  • (1) \(\frac{v_0}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2} v_0\)
  • (3) \(\frac{v_0}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{v_0}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 49:

The mass of a hydrogen molecule is \(3.32 \times 10^{-27} \, kg\). If \(10^{23}\) hydrogen molecules strike, per second,a fixed wall of area \( 2 \, cm^2\) at an angle of \(45^{\circ} \) to the normal, and rebound elastically with a speed of \(10^3 \, m/s\) , then the pressure on the wall is nearly :

  • (1) \(2.35 \times 10^3 \, N/m^2\)
  • (2) \(4.70 \times 10^3 \, N/m^2\)
  • (3) \(2.35 \times 10^2 \, N/m^2\)
  • (4) \(4.70 \times 10^2 \, N/m^2\)

Question 50:

If the series limit frequency of the Lyman series is \(\nu_L\), then the series limit frequency of the Pfund series is:

  • (1) \(\nu_L/25\)
  • (2) \(25\nu_L\)
  • (3) \(16\nu_L\)
  • (4) \(\nu_L/16\)

Question 51:

The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a current \(I\), is \(m\) and the magnetic field at the centre of the loop is \(B_1\). When the dipole moment is doubled by keeping the current constant, the magnetic field at the centre of the loop is \(B_2\). The ratio \(\frac{B_1}{B_2}\) is :

  • (1) \(2\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 52:

An electron from various excited states of hydrogen atom emit radiation to come to the ground state. Let \(\lambda_n, \lambda_g\) be the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in the \(n^{th}\) state and the ground state respectively. Let \(\Lambda_n\) be the wavelength of the emitted photon in the transition from the \(n^{th}\) state to the ground state. For large \(n,\) (\(A, B\) are constants)

  • (1) \(\Lambda_n \approx A + \frac{B}{\lambda^2_n}\)
  • (2) \(\Lambda_n \approx A + B \lambda_n \)
  • (3) \(\Lambda_n^2 \approx A + B \lambda_n^2\)
  • (4) \(\Lambda_n^2 \approx \lambda\)

Question 53:

An \(EM\) wave from air enters a medium. The electric fields are \(\vec{E_1} = E_{01} \hat{x} \cos \left[ 2 \pi v\left( \frac{z}{c} - t \right) \right]\) in air and \(\vec{E}_2 = E_{02} \hat{x} \cos [k (2 z - ct)]\) in medium, where the wave number \(k\) and frequency \(?\) refer to their values in air. The medium is non-magnetic . If \(\in_{r_1} \) and \(\in_{r_2} \) refer to relative permittivities of air and medium respectively, which of the following options is correct ?

  • (1) \(\frac{\in_{r_1}}{\in_{r_2}} = 4 \)
  • (2) \(\frac{\in_{r_1}}{\in_{r_2}} = 2\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\in_{r_1}}{\in_{r_2}} = \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (4) \(\frac{\in_{r_1}}{\in_{r_2}} = \frac{1}{2} \)

Question 54:

The angular width of the central maximum in a single slit diffraction pattern is \(60^{\circ}\). The width of the slit is \(1 \mu m\). The slit is illuminated by monochromatic plane waves. If another slit of same width is made near it, Young's fringes can be observed on a screen placed at a distance \(50 \,cm\) from the slits. If the observed fringe width is \(1\, cm\), what is slit separation distance ? (i.e. distance between the centres of each slit.)

  • (1) \(25 \, \mu m \)
  • (2) \(50 \, \mu m \)
  • (3) \(75 \, \mu m \)
  • (4) \(100 \, \mu m \)

Question 55:

It is found that if a neutron suffers an elastic collinear collision with deuterium at rest, fractional loss of its energy is \(p_d\); while for its similar collision with carbon nucleus at rest, fractional loss of energy is \(p_c\). The values of \(p_d\) and \(p_c\) are respectively :

  • (1) (0, 1)
  • (2) (0.89, 0.28)
  • (3) (0.28, 0.89)
  • (4) (0, 0)

Question 56:

Unpolarized light of intensity I passes through an ideal polarizer A. Another identical polarizer B is placed behind A. The intensity of light beyond B is found to be \(I/2\). Now another identical polarizer C is placed between A and B. The intensity beyond B is now found to be \(I/8\). The angle between polarizer A and C is :

  • (1) \(60^\circ\)
  • (2) \(30^\circ\)
  • (3) \(45^\circ\)
  • (4) \(0^\circ\)

Question 57:

Three concentric metal shells A, B and C of respective radii a, b and c \((a \lt b \lt c)\) have surface charge densities \(+\sigma\), \(-\sigma\) and \(+\sigma\) respectively. The potential of shell B is :

  • (1) \(\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0}\left[\frac{b^2-c^2}{c}+a\right]\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0}\left[\frac{a^2-b^2}{a}+c\right]\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0}\left[\frac{a^2-b^2}{b}+c\right]\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0}\left[\frac{b^2-c^2}{b}+a\right]\)

Question 58:

In a potentiometer experiment, it is found that no current passes through the galvanometer when the terminals of the cell are connected across \(52\, cm\) of the potentiometer wire. If the cell is shunted by a resistance of \(5 \Omega\) , a balance is found when the cell is connected across \(40\, cm\) of the wire. Find the internal resistance of the cell.

  • (1) \(1 \Omega \)
  • (2) \(1.5 \Omega \)
  • (3) \(2 \Omega \)
  • (4) \(2.5 \Omega \)

Question 59:

A telephonic communication service is working at carrier frequency of \(10 \,GHz\). Only \(10\%\) of it is utilized for transmission. How many telephonic channels can be transmitted simultaneously if each channel requires a bandwidth of \(5\, kHz\) ?

  • (1) \(2 \times 10^3\)
  • (2) \(2 \times 10^4\)
  • (3) \(2 \times 10^5\)
  • (4) \(2 \times 10^6\)

Question 60:

For an RLC circuit driven with voltage of amplitude \(v_m\) and frequency \(\omega_0 = \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}\) the current exhibits resonance. The quality factor, Q is given by :

  • (1) \(\frac{CR}{\omega_0}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\omega_0 L}{R}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\omega_0 R}{L}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{R}{\omega_0 C}\)

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

Nitrogen gas is obtained by thermal decomposition of

  • (1) Ba(NO3)2
  • (2) Ba(N3)2
  • (3) NaNO2
  • (4) NaNO3

Question 62:

The increasing order of basicity of the following compounds is :

  • (1) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
  • (2) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)
  • (3) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
  • (4) (d) < (b) < (a) < (c)

Question 63:

Which of the following compounds will be suitable for Kjeldahl's method for nitrogen estimation?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 64:

For \(1\) molal aqueous solution of the following compounds, which one will show the highest freezing point ?

  • (1) \([Co(H_2O)6]Cl_3 \)
  • (2) \([Co(H_2O)_5Cl]Cl_2.H_2O\)
  • (3) \([Co(H_2O)_4Cl_2]Cl._2H_2O \)
  • (4) \([Co(H_2O)_3Cl_3]._3H_2O \)

Question 65:

An alkali is titrated against an acid with methyl orange as indicator, which of the following is a correct combination?

  • (1) Base: Weak; Acid: Strong; End point: Colourless to pink
  • (2) Base: Strong; Acid: Strong; End point: Pinkish red to yellow
  • (3) Base: Weak; Acid: Strong; End point: Yellow to pinkish red
  • (4) Base: Strong; Acid: Strong; End point: Pink to colourless

Question 66:

Consider the following reaction and statements:
\(\mathrm{[Co(NH_3)_4Br_2]^+ + Br^- \rightarrow [Co(NH_3)_3Br_3] + NH_3}\)
(I) Two isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is a cis-isomer
(II) Two isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is a trans-isomer
(III) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex ion is a trans-isomer
(IV) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex ion is a cis-isomer
The correct statements are

  • (1) (II) and (IV)
  • (2) (I) and (II)
  • (3) (I) and (III)
  • (4) (III) and (IV)

Question 67:

Phenol reacts with methyl chloroformate in the presence of \(NaOH\) to form product \(A, A\) reacts with \(Br_2\) to form product \(B. A\) and \(B\) are respectively :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 68:

The major product of the following reaction is:

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 69:

The predominant form of histamine present in human blood is \((pK_a\) Histidine \(= 6.0)\)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 70:

Glucose on prolonged heating with \(HI\) gives :

  • (1) n-Hexane
  • (2) 1-Hexene
  • (3) Hexanoic acid
  • (4) 6-iodohexanal

Question 71:

How long (approximate) should water be electrolysed by passing through \(100\) amperes current so that the oxygen released can completely burn \(27.66 \,g\) of diborane ? (Atomic weight of \(B = 10.8\, u\) )

  • (1) 6.4 hours
  • (2) 0.8 hours
  • (3) 3.2 hours
  • (4) 1.6 hours

Question 72:

The oxidation states of \(Cr\) in \( [Cr(H_2O)_6]Cl_3, [Cr(C_6H_6)_2]\), and \(K_2[Cr(CN)_2(O)_2(O_2)(NH_3)]\) respectively are :

  • (1) +3, +4, and +6
  • (2) +3, +2, and +4
  • (3) +3, 0, and +6
  • (4) +3, 0, and +4

Question 73:

Which of the following salts is the most basic in aqueous solution?

  • (1) \(Al(CN)_3 \)
  • (2) \(CH_3COOK \)
  • (3) \(FeCl_3\)
  • (4) \(Pb(CH_3COO)_2 \)

Question 74:

Which of the following are Lewis acids ?

  • (1) \(PH_3\) and \(BCl_3\)
  • (2) \(AlCl_3\) and \(SiCl_4\)
  • (3) \(PH_3 \) and \(SiCl_4\)
  • (4) \(BCl_3\) and \(AlCl_3\)

Question 75:

At \(518^{\circ} C\) , the rate of decomposition of sample of gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure of \(363\) Torr, was \(1. 00\) Torr \(s^{-1}\) when \(5\%\) had reacted and \(0.5\) Torr \(s^{-1}\) when \(33\%\) had reacted. The order of the reaction is -

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 0

Question 76:

Which of following lines correctly show the temperature dependence of equilibrium constant \(K\), for an exothermic reaction ?

  • (1) A and B
  • (2) B and C
  • (3) C and D
  • (4) A and D

Question 77:

Total number of lone pair of electrons in \(\mathrm{I_3^-}\) ion is

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 12

Question 78:

Which of the following compounds contain(s) no covalent bond(s)?
\(\mathrm{KCl, PH_3, O_2, B_2H_6, H_2SO_4}\)

  • (1) \(\mathrm{KCl, B_2H_6}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{KCl, B_2H_6, PH_3}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{KCl, H_2SO_4}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{KCl}\)

Question 79:

According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following will not be a viable molecule ?

  • (1) \(He^{2+}_2\)
  • (2) \(He^{+}_2\)
  • (3) \(He^{-}_2\)
  • (4) \(He^{2-}_2\)

Question 80:

The ratio of mass percent of \(C\) and \(H\) of an organic compound \(\left( C _{ X } H _{ Y } O _{ Z }\right)\) is \(6: 1 .\) If one molecule of the above compound \(\left( C _{ X } H _{ Y } O _{ Z }\right)\) contains half as much oxygen as required to burn one molecule of compound \(C _{X} H_{Y}\) completely to \(CO _{2}\) and \(H _{2} O\). The empirical formula of compound \(C _{ X } H _{ Y } O _{ Z }\) is

  • (1) \(C_3H_6O_3 \)
  • (2) \(C_2H_4O\)
  • (3) \(C_3H_4O_2 \)
  • (4) \(C_2H_4O_3\)

Question 81:

An aqueous solution contains an unknown concentration of \(Ba^{2+}\). When \(50 \,mL\) of a \(1\, M\) solution of \(Na_2SO_4\) is added, \(BaSO_4\) just begins to precipitate. The final volume is \(500 \,mL\). The solubility product of \(BaSO_4\) is \(1 \times 10^{-10}\). What is the original concentration of \(Ba^{2+}\) ?

  • (1) \(5 \times 10^{-9} M\)
  • (2) \(2 \times 10^{-9} M\)
  • (3) \(1.1 \times 10^{-9} M\)
  • (4) \(1.0 \times 10^{-10} M\)

Question 82:

Phenol on treatment with \(CO_2\) in the presence of \(NaOH\) followed by acidification produces compound \(X\) as the major product. \(X\) on treatment with \((CH_3CO)_2O\) in the presence of catalytic amount of \(H_2SO_4\) produces :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 83:

The major product formed in the following reaction is : 

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 84:

The trans-alkenes are formed by the reduction of alkynes with :

  • (1) \(H_2 - Pd/C, BaSO_4 \)
  • (2) \(NaBH_4 \)
  • (3) \( Na/li NH_3 \)
  • (4) Sn - HCl

Question 85:

An aqueous solution contains \(0.10 \, M \, H_2S\) and \(0.20 \, M \, HCl\) . If the equilibrium constants for the formation of \(HS^-\) from \(H_2S\) is \(1.0 \times 10^{-7}\) and that of \(S^{2- }\) from \(HS^-\) ions is \( 1.2 \times 10^{-13}\) then the concentration of \(S^{2-}\) ions in aqueous solution is -

  • (1) \(5 \times 10^{-8}\)
  • (2) \(3 \times 10^{-20}\)
  • (3) \(6 \times 10^{-21}\)
  • (4) \(5 \times 10^{-19}\)

Question 86:

The combustion of benzene \( (l)\) gives \(CO_2(g)\) and \(H_2O(l)\) . Given that heat of combustion of benzene at constant volume is \(-3263.9 \, kJ \, mol^{-1}\) at \(25^{\circ} C\) ; heat of combustion (in \( kJ \, mol^{-1}\) ) of benzene at constant pressure will be -\( (R = 8.314 \, JK^{-1} \, mol^{-1}) \)

  • (1) 4152.6
  • (2) -452.46
  • (3) 3260
  • (4) -3267.6

Question 87:

When metal ? \(M\) ? is treated with \(NaOH\), a white gelatinous precipitate ?\(X\)? is obtained, which is soluble in excess of \(NaOH\). Compound ?\(X\)? when heated strongly gives an oxide which is used in chromatography as an adsorbent. The metal ?\(M\)? is :

  • (1) Zn
  • (2) Ca
  • (3) Al
  • (4) Fe

Question 88:

Which type of 'defect' has the presence of cations in the interstitial sites?

  • (1) Metal deficiency defect
  • (2) Schottky defect
  • (3) Vacancy defect
  • (4) Frenkel defect

Question 89:

Hydrogen peroxide oxidises \([Fe(CN)6]^{4-}\) to \([Fe(CN)6]^{3-}\) in acidic medium but reduces \([Fe(CN)6]^{3-}\) to\([Fe(CN)6]^{4-}\) in alkaline medium. The other products formed are, respectively

  • (1) \( (H_2O + O_2)\) and \(H_2O\)
  • (2) \((H_2O + O_2)\) and \((H_2O + OH^{-})\)
  • (3) \(H_2O\) and \((H_2O + O_2) \)
  • (4) \(H_2O \) and \((H_2O + OH^{-})\)

Question 90:

The recommended concentration of fluoride ion in drinking water is up to 1 ppm as fluoride ion is required to make teeth enamel harder by converting \(\mathrm{[3Ca_3(PO_4)_2.Ca(OH)_2]}\) to

  • (1) \(\mathrm{[3\{Ca(OH)_2\}.CaF_2]}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{[CaF_2]}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{[3(CaF_2).Ca(OH)_2]}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{[3Ca_3(PO_4)_2.CaF_2]}\)

JEE Main 2018 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOffline (Pen and Paper)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2018 April 8 Shift 1 Difficulty Level

Candidates rated JEE Main 2018 B.E./B.Tech Question Paper as tough in terms of overall difficulty.

JEE Main B.E./B.Tech 2018 Paper Analysis

  • The most difficult section in the exam was Physics. Candidates had a tough time to solve a few of the questions.
  • Easiest of all was the Chemistry section. Candidates did not have to think out of the box to solve it. Many of the questions were direct.
  • Mathematics section was moderate in level of difficulty. But many students found Mathematics as tough and a lengthy paper.
  • This time, the distribution of questions from class 11 was comparatively higher than class 12 for Mathematics.
  • Topics that were found easy: Integration, Conic Sections, Semiconductor, Optics.
  • Electrodynamics and Mechanics flooded the questions in Physics.