JEE Main 2019 April 8 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the first shift on April 8, 2019, from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. The JEE Main 2019 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2019 April 8 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2019 April 8 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

\(\int\frac{\sin \frac{5x}{2}}{\sin \frac{x}{2}} dx \) is equal to : (where \(c\) is a constant of integration)

  • (1) \(2x + sin \,x + 2 sin\,2x + c\)
  • (2) \(x + 2\,sinx + 2\,sin2x + c\)
  • (3) \(x + 2\, sin x + sin \,2x + c\)
  • (4) \(2x + sinx + sin2x + c\)

Question 2:

The mean and variance of 7 observations are 8 and \(16,\) respectively. If five observations are \(2,4,10,12,14,\) then the absolute difference of the remaining two observations is :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 1

Question 3:

The greatest value of \(c \in R\) for which the system of linear equations
\(x - cy - cz = 0\)
\(cx - y + cz = 0\)
\(cx + cy - z = 0\)
has a non-trivial solution, is :

  • (1) \(-1\)
  • (2) \(0\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(2\)

Question 4:

The sum of all natural numbers 'n' such that \(100 \lt n \lt 200\) and H.C.F. \((91, n) \gt 1\) is :

  • (1) \(3221\)
  • (2) \(3121\)
  • (3) \(3203\)
  • (4) \(3303\)

Question 5:

The sum of the squares of the lengths of the chords intercepted on the circle, \(x^2 + y^2 = 16\), by the lines, \(x + y = n\), \(n \in N\), where N is the set of all natural numbers, is :

  • (1) \(210\)
  • (2) \(160\)
  • (3) \(320\)
  • (4) \(105\)

Question 6:

A point on the straight line, \(3x + 5y = 15\) which is equidistant from the coordinate axes will lie only in :

  • (1) 1st and 2nd qudratants
  • (2) 4th qudratant
  • (3) 1st and 2nd and 4th qudratants
  • (4) 1st qudratant

Question 7:

If \(\cos(\alpha + \beta) = 3/5\), \(\sin(\alpha - \beta) = 5/13\) and \(0 \lt \alpha, \beta \lt \frac{\pi}{4}\), then \(\tan(2\alpha)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(21/16\)
  • (2) \(63/52\)
  • (3) \(33/52\)
  • (4) \(63/16\)

Question 8:

Let \(y = y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation,
\((x^2 + 1)^2\frac{dy}{dx} + 2x(x^2 + 1)y = 1\)
such that \(y(0) = 0\). If \(\sqrt{a}\,y(1) = \frac{\pi}{32}\), then the value of 'a' is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{16}\)
  • (3) \(1\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 9:

The sum of the solutions of the equation
\(\left|\sqrt{x} - 2\right| + \sqrt{x}\left(\sqrt{x} - 4\right) + 2 = 0\)
\((x \gt 0)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(9\)
  • (2) \(12\)
  • (3) \(4\)
  • (4) \(10\)

Question 10:

If \(f(x) = \log_e\left(\frac{1 - x}{1 + x}\right)\), \(|x| \lt 1\), then \(f\left(\frac{2x}{1 + x^2}\right)\) is equal to

  • (1) \(2f(x^2)\)
  • (2) \(2f(x)\)
  • (3) \((f(x))^2\)
  • (4) \(-2f(x)\)

Question 11:

Let \(f : [0, 2] \to R\) be a twice differentiable function such that \(f''(x) \gt 0\), for all \(x \in (0, 2)\). If \(\phi(x) = f(x) + f(2 - x)\), then \(\phi\) is :

  • (1) decreasing on \((0, 2)\)
  • (2) decreasing on \((0, 1)\) and increasing on \((1, 2)\)
  • (3) increasing on \((0, 2)\)
  • (4) increasing on \((0, 1)\) and decreasing on \((1, 2)\)

Question 12:

Let \(O(0, 0)\) and \(A(0, 1)\) be two fixed points. Then the locus of a point P such that the perimeter of \(\Delta AOP\) is 4, is :

  • (1) \(9x^2 + 8y^2 - 8y = 16\)
  • (2) \(8x^2 - 9y^2 + 9y = 18\)
  • (3) \(8x^2 + 9y^2 - 9y = 18\)
  • (4) \(9x^2 - 8y^2 + 8y = 16\)

Question 13:

\(\displaystyle\lim_{x\to0} \frac{\sin^{2}x}{\sqrt{2} - \sqrt{1+\cos x}} \) equals :

  • (1) \(2 \sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) \(4 \sqrt{2}\)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) 4

Question 14:

If \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) be the roots of the equation \(x^2 - 2x + 2 = 0\), then the least value of n for which \(\left(\frac{\alpha}{\beta}\right)^n = 1\) is :

  • (1) \(2\)
  • (2) \(5\)
  • (3) \(4\)
  • (4) \(3\)

Question 15:

The length of the perpendicular from the point \((2, -1, 4)\) on the straight line,
\(\frac{x + 3}{10} = \frac{y - 2}{-7} = \frac{z}{1}\) is :

  • (1) less than 2
  • (2) greater than 4
  • (3) greater than 2 but less than 3
  • (4) greater than 3 but less than 4

Question 16:

Let A and B be two non-null events such that \(A \subset B\). Then, which of the following statements is always correct?

  • (1) \(P(A|B) = 1\)
  • (2) \(P(A|B) = P(B) - P(A)\)
  • (3) \(P(A|B) \le P(A)\)
  • (4) \(P(A|B) \ge P(A)\)

Question 17:

All possible numbers are formed using the digits \(1,1,2,2,2,2,3,4,4\) taken all at a time. The number of such numbers in which the odd digits occupy even places is :

  • (1) 175
  • (2) 162
  • (3) 160
  • (4) 180

Question 18:

Let \(A = \begin{pmatrix}\cos\alpha & -\sin\alpha\\ \sin\alpha & \cos\alpha\end{pmatrix}\), \((\alpha \in R)\) such that \(A^{32} = \begin{pmatrix}0 & -1\\ 1 & 0\end{pmatrix}\) then a value of \(\alpha\) is

  • (1) \(0\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{16}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{32}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi}{64}\)

Question 19:

The area (in sq. units) of the region \(A = \{(x, y) \in R \times R \mid 0 \le x \le 3,\ 0 \le y \le 4,\ y \le x^2 + 3x\}\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{59}{6}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{26}{3}\)
  • (3) \(8\)
  • (4) \(\frac{53}{6}\)

Question 20:

If \(\alpha = \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{5}\right)\), \(\beta = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)\), where \(0 \lt \alpha, \beta \lt \frac{\pi}{2}\), then \(\alpha - \beta\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{9}{14}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{9}{5\sqrt{10}}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\cos^{-1}\left(\frac{9}{5\sqrt{10}}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{9}{5\sqrt{10}}\right)\)

Question 21:

If \(S_1\) and \(S_2\) are respectively the sets of local minimum and local maximum points of the function \(f(x) = 9x^4 + 12x^3 - 36x^2 + 25,\ x \in R\), then :

  • (1) \(S_1 = \{-1\};\ S_2 = \{0, 2\}\)
  • (2) \(S_1 = \{-2\};\ S_2 = \{0, 1\}\)
  • (3) \(S_1 = \{-2, 0\};\ S_2 = \{1\}\)
  • (4) \(S_1 = \{-2, 1\};\ S_2 = \{0\}\)

Question 22:

If \(f\left(x\right) = \frac{2- x\cos x}{2+x \cos x}\) and \( g\left(x\right) =\log_{e}x ., \left(x>0\right) \) then the value of integral \(\int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4}}_{-\frac{\pi}{4}} g\left(f\left(x\right)\right)dx \) is :

  • (1) \(\log_e 3\)
  • (2) \(\log_e 2\)
  • (3) \(\log_e e\)
  • (4) \(\log_e 1\)

Question 23:

If \(2y = \left(\cot^{-1}\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}\cos x + \sin x}{\cos x - \sqrt{3}\sin x}\right)\right)^2,\ x \in \left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(2x - \frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{6} - x\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{3} - x\)
  • (4) \(x - \frac{\pi}{6}\)

Question 24:

The magnitude of the projection of the vector \(2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + \hat{k}\) on the vector perpendicular to the plane containing the vectors \(\hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k}\) and \(\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}\), is :

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{6}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}\)
  • (4) \(3\sqrt{6}\)

Question 25:

The shortest distance between the line \(y = x\) and the curve \(y^2 = x - 2\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{7}{4\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{7}{8}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{11}{4\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (4) \(2\)

Question 26:

If the sum of the co-efficients of all the positive even powers of x in the binomial expansion of \((2x^3+\frac{3}{x})^{10} \) is 510 – β·39, the β is equal to ____.


Question 27:

The sum of the series 2 \times 1 \times 20C_4 - 3 \times 2 \times 20C_5 + 4 \times 3 \times 20C_6 - 5 \times 4 \times 20C_7 + ... + 18 \times 17 \times 20C_{20}, is equal to


Question 28:

The contrapositive of the statement "If you are born in India, then you are a citizen of India", is :

  • (1) If you are born in India, then you are not a citizen of India.
  • (2) If you are not a citizen of India, then you are not born in India.
  • (3) If you are a citizen of India, then you are born in India.
  • (4) If you are not born in India, then you are not a citizen of India.

Question 29:

The equation of a plane containing the line of intersection of the planes \(2x - y - 4 = 0\) and \(y + 2z - 4 = 0\) and passing through the point \((1, 1, 0)\) is :

  • (1) \(x - 3y - 2z = -2\)
  • (2) \(2x - z = 2\)
  • (3) \(x - y - z = 0\)
  • (4) \(x + 3y + z = 4\)

Question 30:

If the tangents on the ellipse \(4x^2 + y^2 = 8\) at the points \((1, 2)\) and \((a, b)\) are perpendicular to each other, then \(a^2\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{17}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{64}{17}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{128}{17}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{4}{17}\)

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

Four particles A, B, C and D with masses \(m_A = m\), \(m_B = 2m\), \(m_C = 3m\) and \(m_D = 4m\) are at the corners of a square. They have accelerations of equal magnitude with directions as shown. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the particles is :

  • (1) \(\frac{a}{5}(\hat{i} + \hat{j})\)
  • (2) \(\frac{a}{5}(\hat{i} - \hat{j})\)
  • (3) \(a(\hat{i} + \hat{j})\)
  • (4) Zero

Question 32:

A thermally insulated vessel contains \(150\,g\) of water at \(0^{\circ}C\). Then the air from the vessel is pumped out adiabatically. A fraction of water turns into ice and the rest evaporates at \(0^{\circ}C\) itself. The mass of evaporated water will be closest to : (Latent heat of vaporization of water \(= 2.10 \times 10^6 \; J \; kg^{-1}\) and Latent heat of Fusion of water = \(3.36 \times 10^5 \; J \; kg^{-1}\))

  • (1) 130 g
  • (2) 35 g
  • (3) 20 g
  • (4) 150 g

Question 33:


A wire of length \(2L\), is made by joining two wires A and B of same length but different radii \(r\) and \(2r\) and made of the same material. It is vibrating at a frequency such that the joint of the two wires forms a node. If the number of antinodes in wire A is \(p\) and that in B is \(q\) then the ratio \(p : q\) is :

  • (1) \(3 : 5\)
  • (2) \(4 : 9\)
  • (3) \(1 : 2\)
  • (4) \(1 : 4\)

Question 34:

A thin circular plate of mass \(M\) and radius \(R\) has its density varying as \(\rho (r) = \rho_0 r\) with \(\rho_0\) as constant and \(r\) is the distance from its centre. The moment of Inertia of the circular plate about an axis perpendicular to the plate and passing through its edge is \(I = aMR^2\). The value of the coefficient \(a\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{8}{5}\)

Question 35:

A thin strip 10 cm long is on a U shaped wire of negligible resistance and it is connected to a spring of spring constant \(0.5\ \mathrm{N\,m^{-1}}\) (see figure). The assembly is kept in a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T. If the strip is pulled from its equilibrium position and released, the number of oscillation it performs before its amplitude decreases by a factor of \(e\) is \(N\). If the mass of the strip is 50 grams, its resistance \(10\ \Omega\) and air drag negligible, \(N\) will be close to :

  • (1) 50000
  • (2) 1000
  • (3) 5000
  • (4) 10000

Question 36:

Two particles move at right angle to each other. Their de-Broglie wavelengths are \(\lambda_1\) and \(\lambda_2\) respectively. The particles suffer perfectly inelastic collision. The de-Broglie wavelength \(\lambda_2\) of the final particle, is given by :

  • (1) \(\lambda = \frac{\lambda_1 + \lambda_2}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{\lambda^2} = \frac{1}{\lambda_1^2} + \frac{1}{\lambda_2^2}\)
  • (3) \(\lambda = \sqrt{\lambda_1\lambda_2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{\lambda} = \frac{1}{\lambda_1} + \frac{1}{\lambda_2}\)

Question 37:

The bob of a simple pendulum has mass 2g and a charge of \(5.0\ \mu\mathrm{C}\). It is at rest in a uniform horizontal electric field of intensity 2000 V/m. At equilibrium, the angle that the pendulum makes with the vertical is : (take \(g = 10\ \mathrm{m/s^2}\))

  • (1) \(\tan^{-1}(5.0)\)
  • (2) \(\tan^{-1}(2.0)\)
  • (3) \(\tan^{-1}(0.5)\)
  • (4) \(\tan^{-1}(0.2)\)

Question 38:

If \(10^{22}\) gas molecules each of mass \(10^{-26}\) kg collide with a surface (perpendicular to it) elastically per second over an area \(1\, m^2\) with a speed \(10^4\) m/s, the pressure exerted by the gas molecules will be of the order of :

  • (1) \(10^8 \; N/m^2\)
  • (2) \(10^4 \; N/m^2\)
  • (3) \(10^3 \; N/m^2\)
  • (4) \(10^{16} \; N/m^2\)

Question 39:

The reverse breakdown voltage of a Zener diode is 5.6 V in the given circuit.

The current \(I_Z\) through the Zener is :

  • (1) 7 mA
  • (2) 17 mA
  • (3) 15 mA
  • (4) 10 mA

Question 40:

An alternating voltage \( V(t) = 220 \sin 100 \pi t \) volt is applied to a purely resistive load of 50 \( \Omega \). The time taken for the current to rise from half of the peak value to the peak value is:

  • (1) 5 ms
  • (2) 3.3 ms
  • (3) 7.2 ms
  • (4) 2.2 ms

Question 41:

In an interference experiment the ratio of amplitudes of coherent waves is \(\frac{a_1}{a_2} = \frac{1}{3}\) . The ratio of maximum and minimum intensities of fringes will be :

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 9
  • (4) 18

Question 42:

Four identical particles of mass \(M\) are located at the corners of a square of side \('a'\). What should be their speed if each of them revolves under the influence of other?s gravitational field in a circular orbit circumscribing the square?

  • (1) \(1.21 \sqrt{\frac{GM}{a}} \)
  • (2) \(1.41 \sqrt{\frac{GM}{a}} \)
  • (3) \(1.16 \sqrt{\frac{GM}{a}} \)
  • (4) \(1.35 \sqrt{\frac{GM}{a}} \)

Question 43:

A circular coil having \(N\) turns and radius \(r\) carries a current \(I\). It is held in the \(XZ\) plane in a magnetic field \(B \hat{i}\) . The torque on the coil due to the magnetic field is :

  • (1) \(B \pi r^2 IN\)
  • (2) \( \frac{B r^2 I}{\pi N}\)
  • (3) Zero
  • (4) \( \frac{B \pi r^2 I}{N}\)

Question 44:

A steel wire having a radius of \(2.0\, mm\), carrying a load of \(4 \,kg\), is hanging from a ceiling. Given that \(g = 3.1 \; \pi \; ms^{-2}\), what will be the tensile stress that would be developed in the wire ?

  • (1) \( 4.8 \times 10^6 \; Nm^{-2}\)
  • (2) \( 5.2 \times 10^6 \; Nm^{-2}\)
  • (3) \( 6.2 \times 10^6 \; Nm^{-2}\)
  • (4) \(3.1 \times 10^6 \; Nm^{-2}\)

Question 45:

Radiation coming from transitions \(n = 2\) to \(n = 1\) of hydrogen atoms fall on \(\mathrm{He^+}\) ions in \(n = 1\) and \(n = 2\) states. The possible transition of helium ions as they absorb energy from the radiation is :

  • (1) \(n = 1 \to n = 4\)
  • (2) \(n = 2 \to n = 5\)
  • (3) \(n = 2 \to n = 4\)
  • (4) \(n = 2 \to n = 3\)

Question 46:

Ship A is sailing towards north-east with velocity \(\vec{v} = 30\hat{i} + 50\hat{j}\) km/hr where \(\hat{i}\) points east and \(\hat{j}\), north. Ship B is at a distance of 80 km east and 150 km north of Ship A and is sailing towards west at 10 km/hr. A will be at minimum distance from B in :

  • (1) 2.2 hrs
  • (2) 4.2 hrs
  • (3) 2.6 hrs
  • (4) 3.2 hrs

Question 47:

Water from a pipe is coming at a rate of 100 litres per minute. If the radius of the pipe is 5 cm, the Reynolds number for the flow is of the order of : (density of water = 1000 kg/m3, coefficient of viscosity of water = 1mPas)

  • (1) \(10^{6}\)
  • (2) \(10^{4}\)
  • (3) \(10^{3}\)
  • (4) \(10^{2}\)

Question 48:

A \(20\) Henry inductor coil is connected to a \(10\) ohm resistance in series as shown in figure. The time at which rate of dissipation of energy (joule's heat) across resistance is equal to the rate at which magnetic energy is stored in the inductor is :

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{\ell n2}\)
  • (2) \(\ell n 2 \)
  • (3) \(2 \ell n 2 \)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2} \ell n 2 \)

Question 49:

In figure, the optical fiber is \(l\) = 2m long and has a diameter of d = 20 \(\mu\)m. If a ray of light is incident on one end of the fiber at angle \(\theta_1\) = 40°, the number of reflection it makes before emerging from the other end is close to: (refractive index of fibre is 1.31 and sin 40° = 0.64)

  • (1) 57000
  • (2) 55000
  • (3) 66000
  • (4) 45000

Question 50:

Voltage rating of a parallel plate capacitor is \(500\,V\). Its dielectric can withstand a maximum electric field of \(10^6\) V/m. The plate area is \(10^{-4} \; m^2\). What is the dielectric constant is the capacitance is \(15\, pF\) ? (given \(\in_0 = 8.86 \times 10^{-12} C^2 / Nm^2\))

  • (1) 3.8
  • (2) 4.5
  • (3) 6.2
  • (4) 8.5

Question 51:

An upright object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front of a convergent lens of focal length 20 cm. A convergent mirror of focal length 10 cm is placed at a distance of 60 cm on the other side of the lens. The position and size of the final image will be :

  • (1) 20 cm from the convergent mirror, same size as the object
  • (2) 40 cm from the convergent mirror, same size as the object
  • (3) 40 cm from the convergent lens, same size as the object
  • (4) 20 cm from the convergent mirror, twice the size of the object

Question 52:

A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along the x-direction. The electric field component of the wave at a particular point of space and time is \(E = 6 \; V \; m^{-1}\) along y-direction. Its corresponding magnetic field component, B would be :

  • (1) \(6 \times 10^{-8} \) T along z-direction
  • (2) \(6 \times 10^{-8} \) T along x-direction
  • (3) \(2 \times 10^{-8} \) T along z-direction
  • (4) \(2 \times 10^{-8} \) T along y-direction

Question 53:

Two identical breakers A and B contain equal volumes of two different liquids at \(60^{\circ}C\) each and left to cool down. Liquid in A has density of \(8 \times 10^2 \; kg/m^3\) and sp ecific heat o f 2000 J \(kg^{-1} \; K^{-1}\) while liquid in B has density o f 103 kg m-3 and sp ecific heat o f 4000 J \(kg^{-1} K^{-1}\). Which of the following best describes their temperature versus time graph schematically? (assume the emissivity of both the beakers to be the same)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 54:

For the circuit shown, with R1 = 1.0W, R2 = 2.0 W, E1 = 2 V and E2 = E3 = 4 V, the potential difference between the points 'a' and 'b' is approximately (in V):

  • (1) 3.3
  • (2) 2.7
  • (3) 2.3
  • (4) 3.7

Question 55:

A particle moves in one dimension from rest under the influence of a force that varies with the distance travelled by the particle as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of the particle after it has travelled 3m is :

  • (1) 6.5 J
  • (2) 2.5 J
  • (3) 5 J
  • (4) 4 J

Question 56:

In SI units, the dimensions of \(\sqrt{\dfrac{\in_0}{\mu_0}}\) is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{A^{-1}TML^{3}}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{A^{2}T^{3}M^{-1}L^{-2}}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{AT^{-3}ML^{3/2}}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{AT^{2}M^{-1}L^{-1}}\)

Question 57:

A boy's catapult is made of rubber cord which is \(42\, cm\) long, with \(6\, mm\) diameter of cross-section and of negligible mass. The boy keeps a stone weighing \(0.02\,kg\) on it and stretches the cord by \(20\, cm\) by applying a constant force. When released, the stone flies off with a velocity of \(20\, ms^{-1}\). Neglect the change in the area of cross-section of the cord while stretched. The Young's modulus of rubber is closest to:

  • (1) \(10^4 \; N/m^{-2}\)
  • (2) \(10^8 \; N/m^{-2}\)
  • (3) \(10^6 \; N/m^{-2}\)
  • (4) \(10^3 \; N/m^{-2}\)

Question 58:

A solid conducting sphere, having a charge \(Q\), is surrounded by an uncharged conducting hollow spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid sphere and that of the outer surface o f the hollow shell be \(V\). If the shell is now given a charge of \(-4\, Q\), the new potential difference between the same two surfaces is :

  • (1) V
  • (2) 2V
  • (3) -2V
  • (4) 4V

Question 59:

A 200 \(\Omega\) resistor has a certain color code. If one replaces the red color by green in the code, the new resistance will be :

  • (1) \(500\ \Omega\)
  • (2) \(100\ \Omega\)
  • (3) \(200\ \Omega\)
  • (4) \(300\ \Omega\)

Question 60:

The wavelength of the carrier waves in a modern optical fiber communication network is close to :

  • (1) 1500 nm
  • (2) 2400 nm
  • (3) 600 nm
  • (4) 900 nm

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

Which of the following amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide reaction ?

  • (1) neo-pentylamine
  • (2) n-butylamine
  • (3) t-butylamine
  • (4) triethylamine

Question 62:

The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moment of metal ions in the following low spin complexes, \({[V(CN)_6]^{4-}, [Fe(CN)6]^{4-}, [Ru (NH3)6]^{3+},}\) and \({[Cr(NH3)6]^{2+}}\), is :

  • (1) \({V^{2+} > Cr^{2+} > Ru^{3+} > Fe^{2+}}\)
  • (2) \({V^{2+} > Ru^{3+} > Cr^{2+}> Fe^{2+}}\)
  • (3) \({Cr^{2+} > V^{2+} > Ru^{3+} > Fe^{2+}}\)
  • (4) \({ Cr^{2+} > Ru^{3+} > Fe^{2+} > V^{2+} }\)

Question 63:

The following ligand is :

  • (1) hexadentate
  • (2) bidentate
  • (3) tetradentate
  • (4) tridentate

Question 64:

An organic compound neither reacts with neutral ferric chloride solution nor with fehling solution. it however, reacts with Grignard reagent and gives positive iodoform test. The compound is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 65:

The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

  • (1) 2-Methyl-3Hydroxypentan-5-oic acid
  • (2) 4,4-Dimethyl-3-hydroxy butanoic acid
  • (3) 3-Hydroxy-4 -methylpentanoic acid
  • (4) 4-Methyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid

Question 66:

For silver, \( {C_{p}(JK^{-1} mol^{-1}) = 23 + 0.01T}\). If the temperature (T) of \(3\) moles of silver is raised from \(300\,K\) to \(1000\, K\) at \(1\, atm\) pressure, the value of \(\Delta H\) will be close to

  • (1) 21 kJ
  • (2) 16 kJ
  • (3) 13 kJ
  • (4) 62 kJ

Question 67:

The size of the iso-electronic species \(Cl^-, Ar\) and \( {Ca^{2+}}\) is affected by -

  • (1) Principal quantum number of valence shell
  • (2) Nuclear charge
  • (3) Azimuthal qunatum number of valence shell
  • (4) Electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals

Question 68:

If solublity product of \(\mathrm{Zr_3(PO_4)_4}\) is denoted by \(\mathrm{K_{sp}}\) and its molar solubility is denoted by S, then which of the following relation between S and \(\mathrm{K_{sp}}\) is correct ?

  • (1) \(S=\left(\dfrac{K_{sp}}{929}\right)^{1/9}\)
  • (2) \(S=\left(\dfrac{K_{sp}}{6912}\right)^{1/7}\)
  • (3) \(S=\left(\dfrac{K_{sp}}{144}\right)^{1/6}\)
  • (4) \(S=\left(\dfrac{K_{sp}}{216}\right)^{1/7}\)

Question 69:

Maltose on treatment with dilute HCI gives :

  • (1) D-Galactose
  • (2) D-Glucose and D-Fructose
  • (3) D-Glucose
  • (4) D-Fructose

Question 70:

The major product of the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 71:

The lanthanide ion that would show colour is-

  • (1) \({Sm^{3+} }\)
  • (2) \({La^{3+} }\)
  • (3) \({Lu^{3+} }\)
  • (4) \({Gd^{3+} }\)

Question 72:

Given that
\(E^{\ominus}_{\mathrm{O_2/H_2O}} = 1.23\ \mathrm{V}\);
\(E^{\ominus}_{\mathrm{S_2O_8^{2-}/SO_4^{2-}}} = 2.05\ \mathrm{V}\)
\(E^{\ominus}_{\mathrm{Br_2/Br^-}} = 1.09\ \mathrm{V}\)
\(E^{\ominus}_{\mathrm{Au^{3+}/Au}} = 1.4\ \mathrm{V}\)
The strongest oxidizing agent is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{O_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{Au^{3+}}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{Br_2}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{S_2O_8^{2-}}\)

Question 73:

The major product of the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 74:

In order to oxidise a mixture one mole of each of \(\({FeC2O_4, Fe2(C2O4)3, FeSO4}\)\) and \(\({Fe2(SO4)3}\)\) in acidic medium, the number of moles of \(\({KMnO_4 }\)\) required is -

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 1.5

Question 75: For the reaction \(2\mathrm{A} + \mathrm{B} \to \mathrm{C}\), the values of initial rate at diffrent reactant concentrations are given in the table below. The rate law for the reaction is :
[A] (mol L-1)[B] (mol L-1)Initial Rate (mol L-1 s-1)
0.050.050.045
0.100.050.090
0.200.100.72
  • (1) \(\mathrm{Rate} = k[\mathrm{A}][\mathrm{B}]^2\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{Rate} = k[\mathrm{A}]^2[\mathrm{B}]^2\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{Rate} = k[\mathrm{A}]^2[\mathrm{B}]\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{Rate} = k[\mathrm{A}][\mathrm{B}]\)

Question 76:

An organic compound 'X' showing the following solubility profile is -

  • (1) m-Cresol
  • (2) Oleic acid
  • (3) o-Toluidine
  • (4) Benzamide

Question 77:

The major product of the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 78:

In the following compounds, the decreasing order of basic strength will be :

  • (1) \((\mathrm{C_2H_5})_2\mathrm{NH} \gt \mathrm{NH_3} \gt \mathrm{C_2H_5NH_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{NH_3} \gt \mathrm{C_2H_5NH_2} \gt (\mathrm{C_2H_5})_2\mathrm{NH}\)
  • (3) \((\mathrm{C_2H_5})_2\mathrm{NH} \gt \mathrm{C_2H_5NH_2} \gt \mathrm{NH_3}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{C_2H_5NH_2} \gt \mathrm{NH_3} \gt (\mathrm{C_2H_5})_2\mathrm{NH}\)

Question 79:

The vapour pressures of pure liquids \(A\) and \(B\) are \(400\) and \(600\, mmHg\), respectively at \(298\,K\). On mixing the two liquids, the sum of their initial volumes is equal to the volume of the final mixture. The mole fraction of liquid \(B\) is \(0.5\) in the mixture. The vapour pressure of the final solution, the mole fraction of components \(A\) and \(B\) in vapour phase, respectively are -

  • (1) 500 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5
  • (2) 450 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6
  • (3) 450 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5
  • (4) 500 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6

Question 80:

Which one of the following equations does not correctly represent the first law of thermodynamics for the given processes involving an ideal gas ? (Assume non-expansion work is zero)

  • (1) Cyclic process : \(q = - w\)
  • (2) Isothermal process : \(q = - w\)
  • (3) Adiabatic process : \(\Delta U = - w\)
  • (4) Isochoric process : \(\Delta U = q\)

Question 81:

Given below are the quantum numbers for 4 electrons.
A. n=3, l=2, ml=1,ms=+\(\frac{1}{2}\)
B. n=4, l=1, ml=0,ms=+\(\frac{1}{2}\)
C. n=4, l=2, ml=–2,ms=–\(\frac{1}{2}\)
D. n=3, l=1, ml=–1,ms=+\(\frac{1}{2}\)
The correct order of increasing energy is

  • (1) D < B < A < C
  • (2) D < A < B < C
  • (3) D < A < B < C
  • (4) B < D < A < C

Question 82:

Coupling of benzene diazonium chloride with 1 - naphthol in alkaline medium will give :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 83:

Which is wrong with respect to our responsibility as a human being to protect our environment ?

  • (1) Avoiding the use of floodlighted facilities
  • (2) Restricting the use of vehicles
  • (3) Using plastic bags
  • (4) Setting up compost tin in gardens

Question 84:

With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps to predict the feasibility of its -

  • (1) Vapour phase refining
  • (2) Zone refining
  • (3) Electrolysis
  • (4) Thermal reduction

Question 85:

Diborane \({(B2H6)}\) reacts independently with \({O_2}\) and \({H2O}\) to produce, respectively

  • (1) \({HBO_2}\) and \({H3BO3}\)
  • (2) \({ H3BO3}\) and \({B_2O_3 }\)
  • (3) \({B_2O_3 }\) and \({ H_3BO_3}\)
  • (4) \({B_2O_3 }\) and \({[BH_4]^{-} }\)

Question 86:

The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali metal ions is -

  • (1) \(\c{ Li^{+} > Na^{+} > K^{+} > Rb^{+} > Cs^{+} }\)
  • (2) \(\c{ Li^{+} > Na^{+} > K^{+} > Cs^{+} > Rb^{+} }\)
  • (3) \(\c{ Na^{+} >Li^{+} > K^{+} > Rb^{+} > Cs^{+} }\)
  • (4) \(\c{ Na^{+} > Li^{+} >K^{+} > Cs^{+} > Rb^{+} }\)

Question 87:

100 mL of a water sample contains 0.81 g of calcium bicrabonate and 0.73 g of magnesium bicarbonate. The hardness of this water sample expressed in terms of equivalents of \(\mathrm{CaCO_3}\) is : (Molar mass of calcium bicarbonate is 162 g mol-1 and magnesium bicarbonate is 146 g mol-1)

  • (1) 1,000 ppm
  • (2) 100 ppm
  • (3) 10,000 ppm
  • (4) 5,000 ppm

Question 88:

Adsorption of a gas follows freundlich adosorbed isotherm. x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass m of the adsorbent. The plot \(\log \frac{x}{m}\) versus \(\log p\) is shown in the given graph. \(\frac{x}{m}\) is proportional to :

  • (1) \(p^{2/3}\)
  • (2) \(p^{3}\)
  • (3) \(p^{2}\)
  • (4) \(p^{3/2}\)

Question 89:

Element 'B' forms ccp structure and 'A' occupies half of the octahedral voids, while oxygen atoms occupy all the tetrahedral voids. The structure of bimetallic oxide is :

  • (1) \({ A_2BO_4}\)
  • (2) \({ A_2B_2O}\)
  • (3) \({ A_4B_2O}\)
  • (4) \({ AB_2O_4}\)

Question 90:

Ozone is destroyed by CFCs in the upper stratosphere Ozone holes increase the amount of UV radiation reaching the earth.

  • (1) Assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the explanation for the assertion
  • (2) Assertion is false, but the reason is correct
  • (3) Assertion and reason are incorrect, Assertion and reason are both correct
  • (4) And the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion

JEE Main 2019 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2019 April 8 Shift 1 Difficulty Level

JEE Main Paper 1 April Session Forenoon Slot was conducted on April 8, between 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. As per the test-takers, the overall difficulty level was rated moderate. Students reported the April session to be of the same level of difficulty as the January session. The Physics section was the most difficult section in the question paper. A total of 90 questions were listed by NTA. Each question carried 4 marks. NCERT plays a crucial role in solving the questions.

JEE Main 2019 B.E./B.Tech Question Paper - Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2019 B.E./B.Tech Question Paper- Paper Analysis

  • The Chemistry was the easiest section than Mathematics and Physics
  • The Mathematics section was overall moderate. Majority of the questions were asked from the NCERT and 11th syllabus
  • The questions from the Physics section were tricky and more time-consuming
  • The cutoff for the same goes upto 80-85
Sections Difficulty Level Analysis
Physics The most difficult section to attempt Most of the questions appeared from class 11th
Chemistry Competitively Easy There was no involvement of tricky questions. Most of the questions were factual based
Mathematics Easy to moderate Some of the test-takers rated Mathematics at an easy level. None of the questions listed from Mathematical Induction chapter

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