JEE Main 2019 April 12 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the second shift on April 12, 2019, from 2:30 PM to 5:30 PM. The JEE Main 2019 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Question type: all multiple choice questions (MCQs) with a single correct option, 4 marks each
  • Sections: Mathematics (30), Physics (30) and Chemistry (30), all questions compulsory
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 360 (120 per subject)

JEE Main 2019 April 12 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2019 April 12 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics (Q1 - Q30)

Question 1:

A circle touching the x-axis at \((3, 0)\) and making an intercept of length \(8\) on the y-axis passes through the point :

  • (1) (3, 10)
  • (2) (2,3)
  • (3) (1,5)
  • (4) (3,5)

Question 2:

A person throws two fair dice. He wins Rs. 15 for throwing a doublet (same numbers on the two dice), wins Rs. 12 when the throw results in the sum of 9, and loses Rs. 6 for any other outcome on the throw. Then the expected gain/loss (in Rs.) of the person is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4}\) loss
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\) gain
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\) loss
  • (4) 2 gain

Question 3:

Let \(a \in \left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\) be fixed. If the integral \(\int \frac{\tan x + \tan \alpha}{\tan x - \tan \alpha}\,dx = A(x)\cos 2\alpha + B(x)\sin 2\alpha + C\), where C is a constant of integration, then the functions A(x) and B(x) are respectively :

  • (1) \(x-\alpha\) and \(\log_e|\cos(x-\alpha)|\)
  • (2) \(x+\alpha\) and \(\log_e|\sin(x-\alpha)|\)
  • (3) \(x+\alpha\) and \(\log_e|\sin(x+\alpha)|\)
  • (4) \(x-\alpha\) and \(\log_e|\sin(x-\alpha)|\)

Question 4:

The term independent of x in the expansion of \(\bigg(\frac{1}{60} - \frac{x^8}{81}\bigg). \bigg(2x^2 - \frac{3}{x^2}\bigg)^6\) is equal to:

  • (1) 36
  • (2) -108
  • (3) -72
  • (4) -36

Question 5:

Let \(z \in C\) with Im(z) = 10 and it satisfies \(\frac{2z-n}{2z+n} = 2i -1\) for some natural number \(n\).Then :

  • (1) n = 20 and Re(z) = - 10
  • (2) n = 20 and Re(z) = 10
  • (3) n = 40 and Re(z) = - 10
  • (4) n = 40 and Re(z) = 10

Question 6:

A group of students comprises of 5 boys and n girls. If the number of ways, in which a team of 3 students can randomly be selected from this group such that there is at least one boy and at least one girl in each team, is 1750, then n is equal to :

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 25
  • (3) 27
  • (4) 28

Question 7:

If \(\alpha\), \(\beta\) and \(\gamma\) are three consecutive terms of a non-constant G.P. such that the equations \(\alpha x^2 + 2\beta x + \gamma = 0\) and \(x^2 + x - 1 = 0\) have a common root, then \(\alpha(\beta+\gamma)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\alpha\gamma\)
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \(\beta\gamma\)
  • (4) \(\alpha\beta\)

Question 8:

The general solution of the differential equation \((y^2 - x^3)\,dx - xy\,dy = 0\) \((x \ne 0)\) is : (where c is a constant of integration)

  • (1) \(y^2 + 2x^3 + cx^2 = 0\)
  • (2) \(y^2 + 2x^2 + cx^3 = 0\)
  • (3) \(y^2 - 2x + cx^3 = 0\)
  • (4) \(y^2 - 2x^3 + cx^2 = 0\)

Question 9:

Let the area of the triangle formed by a straight line \( L: x + by + c = 0 \) with co-ordinate axes be 48 square units. If the perpendicular drawn from the origin to the line \( L \) makes an angle of \( 45^\circ \) with the positive x-axis, then the value of \( b^2 + c^2 \) is:

  • (1) 90
  • (2) 93
  • (3) 97
  • (4) 83

Question 10:

Let A, B and C be sets such that \(\phi \ne A \cap B \subseteq C\). Then which of the following statements is not true ?

  • (1) If \((A - B) \subseteq C\), then \(A \subseteq C\)
  • (2) \(B \cap C \ne \phi\)
  • (3) \((C \cup A) \cap (C \cup B) = C\)
  • (4) If \((A - C) \subseteq B\), then \(A \subseteq B\)

Question 11:

Let \(f(x) = 5 - |x-2|\) and \(g(x) = |x+1|\), \(x \in R\). If \(f(x)\) attains maximum value at \(\alpha\) and \(g(x)\) attains minimum value at \(\beta\), then \(\lim_{x \to -\alpha\beta} \frac{(x-1)(x^2-5x+6)}{x^2-6x+8}\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 12:

A value of \(\alpha\) such that \(\int_{\alpha}^{\alpha+1} \frac{dx}{(x+\alpha)(x+\alpha+1)} = \log_e\left(\frac{9}{8}\right)\) is :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) - 2
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 13:

An ellipse, with foci at (0, 2) and (0, -2) and minor axis of length 4, passes through which of the following points?

  • (1) (1,2√2)
  • (2) (2,√2)
  • (3) (2,2√2)
  • (4) (√2,2)

Question 14:

A value of \(\theta \ \ \in \ (0, \pi /3)\) for which \(\begin {vmatrix} 1 + cos^2 \theta & sin^2\theta & 4 cos 6\theta\)
\(cos^2 \theta & 1+sin^2 \theta & 4 cos6 \theta\)
\(cos^2 \theta & sin^2 \theta & 1+4 cos6 \theta \end {vmatrix}\)
=0 , is :

  • (1) \(\frac{7\pi}{24}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{18}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi}{9}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{7\pi}{36}\)

Question 15:

If the area (in sq. units) bounded by the parabola \(y^2 = 4\lambda x\) and the line \(y = \lambda x\), \(\lambda \gt 0\), is \(\frac{1}{9}\), then \(\lambda\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(4\sqrt{3}\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{6}\)
  • (3) 48
  • (4) 24

Question 16:

\(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x + 2\sin x}{\sqrt{x^2 + 2\sin x + 1} - \sqrt{\sin^2 x - x + 1}}\) is :

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 2

Question 17:

The derivative of \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{\sin x - \cos x}{\sin x + \cos x}\right)\), with respect to \(\frac{x}{2}\), where \(\left(x \in \left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\right)\) is :

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 18:

If \(a_1, a_2, a_3, \ldots, a_n, \ldots\) are in A.P. such that \(a_4 - a_7 + a_{10} = m\), then the sum of first 13 terms of this A.P., is :

  • (1) \(10\,m\)
  • (2) \(12\,m\)
  • (3) \(13\,m\)
  • (4) \(15\,m\)

Question 19:

The equation of common tangent to the curves \(y^2 = 16x\) and \(xy = -4\), is :

  • (1) \(x - y + 4 = 0\)
  • (2) \(x + y + 4 = 0\)
  • (3) \(x - 2y + 16 = 0\)
  • (4) \(2x - y + 2 = 0\)

Question 20:

If [\(x\)] denotes the greatest integer \(\le x\), then the system of linear equations [\(sin\,\theta\)] x + [\(-cos\,\theta\)]y=0 [\(cot\,\theta\)] \(x + y = 0\)

  • (1) have infinitely many solutions if \(\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{2} , \frac{2\pi}{3}) \cup (\pi , \frac{7 \pi}{6})\)
  • (2) have infinitely many solutions if \(\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{2} , \frac{2\pi}{3}\)and has a unique solution if \(\theta \in (\pi , \frac{7\pi}{6})\)
  • (3) has a unique solution if \(\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{2} , \frac{2\pi}{3})\)and have infinitely many solutions if \(\theta \in (\pi, \frac{7 \pi}{6})\)
  • (4) has a unique solution if \(\theta \in (\frac{\pi}{2} , \frac{2\pi}{3}) \cup (\pi, \frac{7\pi}{6})\)

Question 21:

The Boolean expression \(\sim(p \Rightarrow (\sim q))\) is equivalent to :

  • (1) \(p \wedge q\)
  • (2) \(q \Rightarrow \sim p\)
  • (3) \(p \vee q\)
  • (4) \((\sim p) \Rightarrow q\)

Question 22:

The angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower standing on a horizontal plane is observed to be \(45^\circ\) from a point A on the plane. Let B be the point 30 m vertically above the point A. If the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from B be \(30^\circ\), then the distance (in m) of the foot of the tower from the point A is :

  • (1) \(15(1+\sqrt{3})\)
  • (2) \(15(3-\sqrt{3})\)
  • (3) \(15(3+\sqrt{3})\)
  • (4) \(15(5-\sqrt{3})\)

Question 23:

Let \(\alpha \in R\) and the three vectors \(\vec{a} = \alpha\hat{i} + \hat{j} + 3\hat{k}\), \(\vec{b} = 2\hat{i} + \hat{j} - \alpha\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{c} = \alpha\hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}\). Then the set \(S = \{\alpha : \vec{a}, \vec{b}\) and \(\vec{c}\) are coplanar\(\}\) :

  • (1) contains exactly two numbers only one of which is positive
  • (2) is singleton
  • (3) contains exactly two positive numbers
  • (4) is empty

Question 24:

The tangents to the curve \(y = (x-2)^2 - 1\) at its points of intersection with the line \(x - y = 3\), intersect at the point :

  • (1) \(\left(\frac{5}{2}, -1\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(-\frac{5}{2}, -1\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(\frac{5}{2}, 1\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(-\frac{5}{2}, 1\right)\)

Question 25:

A plane which bisects the angle between the two given planes \(2x - y + 2z - 4 = 0\) and \(x + 2y + 2z - 2 = 0\), passes through the point :

  • (1) \((1, -4, 1)\)
  • (2) \((1, 4, -1)\)
  • (3) \((2, 4, 1)\)
  • (4) \((2, -4, 1)\)

Question 26:

A triangle has a vertex at \((1, 2)\) and the mid points of the two sides through it are \((-1, 1)\) and \((2, 3)\). Then the centroid of this triangle is :

  • (1) \(\left(\frac{1}{3}, 2\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(\frac{1}{3}, \frac{5}{3}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(1, \frac{7}{3}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\frac{1}{3}, 1\right)\)

Question 27:

If \({}^{20}C_1 + (2^2)\,{}^{20}C_2 + (3^2)\,{}^{20}C_3 + \ldots + (20^2)\,{}^{20}C_{20} = A(2^{\beta})\), then the ordered pair \((A, \beta)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \((420, 19)\)
  • (2) \((420, 18)\)
  • (3) \((380, 18)\)
  • (4) \((380, 19)\)

Question 28:

For an initial screening of an admission test, a candidate is given fifty problems to solve. If the probability that the candidate solve any problem is \(\frac{4}{5}\), then the probability that he is unable to solve less than two problems is :

  • (1) \(\frac{164}{25}\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)^{48}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{316}{25}\left(\frac{4}{5}\right)^{48}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{201}{5}\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)^{49}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{54}{5}\left(\frac{4}{5}\right)^{49}\)

Question 29:

Let S be the set of all \(\alpha \in \mathbb{R}\) such that the equation, \(\cos 2x + \alpha \sin x = 2\alpha - 7\) has a solution. Then S is equal to :

  • (1) \([2, 6]\)
  • (2) \([3, 7]\)
  • (3) \([1, 4]\)
  • (4) \(\mathbb{R}\)

Question 30:

The length of the perpendicular drawn from the point \((2, 1, 4)\) to the plane containing the lines \(\vec{r} = (\hat{i}+\hat{j}) + \lambda(\hat{i}+2\hat{j}-\hat{k})\) and \(\vec{r} = (\hat{i}+\hat{j}) + \mu(-\hat{i}+\hat{j}-2\hat{k})\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (3) \(3\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{3}\)

Physics (Q31 - Q60)

Question 31:

Three identical polaroids \(P_1\), \(P_2\), and \(P_3\) are placed one after another. The pass axis of \(P_2\) and \(P_3\) are inclined at angles of \(60^\circ\) and \(90^\circ\) with respect to the axis of \(P_1\). The source \(S\) has an intensity of \(\frac{256 \, \text{W}}{\text{m}^2}\). The intensity of light at point \(O\) is _____ \(\frac{\text{W}}{\text{m}^2}\).
Ques Fig


Question 32:

One kg of water, at \(20^\circ\mathrm{C}\), heated in an electric kettle whose heating element has a mean (temperature averaged) resistance of \(20\ \Omega\). The rms voltage in the mains is \(200\ \mathrm{V}\). Ignoring heat loss from the kettle, time taken for water to evaporate fully, is close to : [Specific heat of water = \(4200\ \mathrm{J/(kg\,^\circ C)}\), Latent heat of water = \(2260\ \mathrm{kJ/kg}\)]

  • (1) 10 minutes
  • (2) 22 minutes
  • (3) 3 minutes
  • (4) 16 minutes

Question 33:

A spring whose unstretched length is \(l\) has a force constant \(k\). The spring is cut into two pieces of unstretched lengths \(l_1\) and \(l_2\) where, \(l_1\) = \(nl_2\) and \(n\) is an integer. The ratio \(k_1/k_2\) of the corresponding force constants, \(k_1\) and \(k_2\) will be :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{n^2}\)
  • (2) \(n^2\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{n}\)
  • (4) \(n\)

Question 34:

A diatomic gas with rigid molecules does \(10\ \mathrm{J}\) of work when expanded at constant pressure. What would be the heat energy absorbed by the gas, in this process ?

  • (1) \(35\ \mathrm{J}\)
  • (2) \(30\ \mathrm{J}\)
  • (3) \(25\ \mathrm{J}\)
  • (4) \(40\ \mathrm{J}\)

Question 35:

A transparent cube of side, made of a material of refractive index \(\mu_2\), is immersed in a liquid of refractive index \(\mu_1\ (\mu_1 \lt \mu_2)\). A ray is incident on the face AB at an angle \(\theta\) (shown in the figure). Total internal reflection takes place at point E on the face BC.

Then \(\theta\) must satisfy :

  • (1) \(\theta \gt \sin^{-1}\sqrt{\frac{\mu_2^2}{\mu_1^2} - 1}\)
  • (2) \(\theta \lt \sin^{-1}\sqrt{\frac{\mu_2^2}{\mu_1^2} - 1}\)
  • (3) \(\theta \lt \sin^{-1}\frac{\mu_1}{\mu_2}\)
  • (4) \(\theta \gt \sin^{-1}\frac{\mu_1}{\mu_2}\)

Question 36:

Three particles of masses \(50\, g, 100\, g\) and \(150\, g\) are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side \(1\, m\) (as shown in the figure). The \((x, y)\) coordinates of the centre of mass will be :

  • (1) \(\bigg(\frac{7}{12} m , \frac{\sqrt{3}}{8}\bigg)\)
  • (2) \(\bigg(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} m , \frac{\sqrt{5}}{12}\bigg)\)
  • (3) \(\bigg(\frac{7}{12} m , \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4}\bigg)\)
  • (4) \(\bigg(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{8} m , \frac{\sqrt{7}}{12}\bigg)\)

Question 37:

A small speaker delivers \(2\ \mathrm{W}\) of audio output. At what distance from the speaker will one detect \(120\ \mathrm{dB}\) intensity sound ? [Given reference intensity of sound as \(10^{-12}\ \mathrm{W/m^2}\)]

  • (1) \(20\ \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (2) \(10\ \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (3) \(40\ \mathrm{cm}\)
  • (4) \(30\ \mathrm{cm}\)

Question 38:

A tuning fork of frequency \(480\, Hz\) is used in an experiment for measuring speed of sound (n) in air by resonance tube method. Resonance is observed to occur at two successive lengths of the air column, \(l_1\) = 30 cm and \(l_2\) = \(70 \,cm\). Then, \(v\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(332\, ms^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(379 \,ms^{-1}\)
  • (3) \(384\, ms^{-1}\)
  • (4) \(338\, ms^{-1}\)

Question 39:

The electron in a hydrogen atom first jumps from the third excited state to the second excited state and subsequently to the first excited state. The ratio of the respective wavelengths, \(\frac{\lambda_1}{\lambda_2}\), of the photons emitted in this process is :

  • (1) \(\frac{22}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{7}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{9}{7}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{20}{7}\)

Question 40:

Figure shown a \(DC\) voltage regulator circuit, with a Zener diode of breakdown voltage = \(6V\). If the unregulated input voltage varies between \(10\, V\) to \(16\, V\), then what is the maximum Zener current ?

  • (1) 2.5 mA
  • (2) 3.5 mA
  • (3) 7.5 mA
  • (4) 1.5 mA

Question 41:

The ratio of the weights of a body on the Earth's surface to that on the surface of a planets is \(9 : 4\). The mass of the planet is \(\frac{1}{9}\)th of that of the Earth. If 'R' is the radius of the Earth, what is the radius of the planet ? (Take the planets to have the same mass density)

  • (1) \(\frac{R}{9}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{R}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{R}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{R}{4}\)

Question 42:

An electron, moving along the x-axis with an initial energy of \(100\, eV\), enters a region of magnetic field \(\vec{B} \, = (1.5 \times 10^{-3} T) \hat{k}\) at \(S\) (See figure). The field extends between \(x = 0\) and \(x = 2\, cm\). The electron is detected at the point \(Q\) on a screen placed \(8\, cm\) away from the point \(S\). The distance \(d\) between \(P\) and \(Q\) (on the screen) is : (electron's charge = \(1.6 \times 10^{-19}C.\) mass of electron = \(9.1 \times 10^{-31}kg)\)

  • (1) 12.87 cm
  • (2) 1.22 cm
  • (3) 11.65 cm
  • (4) 2.25 cm

Question 43:

Two particles are projected from the same point with the same speed \(u\) such that they have the same range \(R\), but different maximum heights, \(h_1\) and \(h_2\). Which of the following is correct ?

  • (1) \(R^2 \, = \, 2 h_1 h_2\)
  • (2) \(R^2 \, = \, 16 h_1 h_2\)
  • (3) \(R^2 \, = \, 4 h_1 h_2\)
  • (4) \(R^2 \, = \, h_1 h_2\)

Question 44:

A smooth wire of length \(2\pi r\) is bent into a circle and kept in a vertical plane. A bead can slide smoothly on the wire. When the circle is rotating with angular speed \(\omega\) about the vertical diameter AB, as shown in figure, the bead is at rest with respect to the circular ring at position P as shown. Then the value of \(\omega^2\) is equal to -

  • (1) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}\,g}{2r}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2g}{r\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{g\sqrt{3}}{r}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2g}{r}\)

Question 45:

The number density of molecules of a gas depends on their distance r from the origin as, \(n(r) = n_0e^{-\alpha r^4}\) Then the total number of molecules is proportional to :

  • (1) \(n_0 \alpha^{1/4}\)
  • (2) \(n_0 \alpha^{-3}\)
  • (3) \(n_0 \alpha^{-3/4}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{n_0} \alpha^{1/2}\)

Question 46:

A moving coil galvanometer, having a resistance G, produces full scale deflection when a current \(I_g\) flows through it. This galvanometer can be converted into (i) an ammeter of range 0 to \(I_0\ (I_0 \gt I_g)\) by connecting a shunt resistance \(R_A\) to it and (ii) into a voltmeter of range 0 to V \((V = GI_0)\) by connecting a series resistance \(R_V\) to it. Then,

  • (1) \(R_AR_V = G^2\) and \(\frac{R_A}{R_V} = \frac{I_g}{(I_0 - I_g)}\)
  • (2) \(R_AR_V = G^2\left(\frac{I_g}{I_0 - I_g}\right)\) and \(\frac{R_A}{R_V} = \left(\frac{I_0 - I_g}{I_g}\right)^2\)
  • (3) \(R_AR_V = G^2\left(\frac{I_0 - I_g}{I_g}\right)\) and \(\frac{R_A}{R_V} = \left(\frac{I_g}{I_0 - I_g}\right)^2\)
  • (4) \(R_AR_V = G^2\) and \(\frac{R_A}{R_V} = \left(\frac{I_g}{I_0 - I_g}\right)^2\)

Question 47:

A plane electromagnetic wave having a frequency \(\nu = 23.9\ \mathrm{GHz}\) propagates along the positive z-direction in free space. The peak value of the Electric Field is \(60\ \mathrm{V/m}\). Which among the following is the acceptable magnetic field component in the electromagnetic wave ?

  • (1) \(\vec{B} = 2\times 10^{-7}\sin(1.5\times 10^{2}\,x + 0.5\times 10^{11}\,t)\,\hat{j}\)
  • (2) \(\vec{B} = 60\sin(0.5\times 10^{3}\,x + 0.5\times 10^{11}\,t)\,\hat{k}\)
  • (3) \(\vec{B} = 2\times 10^{-7}\sin(0.5\times 10^{3}\,z + 1.5\times 10^{11}\,t)\,\hat{i}\)
  • (4) \(\vec{B} = 2\times 10^{-7}\sin(0.5\times 10^{3}\,z - 1.5\times 10^{11}\,t)\,\hat{i}\)

Question 48:

Consider an electron in a hydrogen atom, revolving in its second excited state (having radius \(4.65\,?\)). The de-Broglie wavelength of this electron is :

  • (1) 12.9 ?
  • (2) 3.5 ?
  • (3) 9.7 ?
  • (4) 6.6 ?

Question 49:

Find the magnetic field at point \(P\) due to a straight line segment \(AB\) of length \(6\, cm\) carrying a current of \(5\, A\). (See figure) (\(\mu_0 \, = \, 4\pi \times \, 10^{-7} \, N-A^{-2})\)

  • (1) \(3.0 \times 10^{-5} T\)
  • (2) \(2.5 \times 10^{-5} T\)
  • (3) \(2.0 \times 10^{-5} T\)
  • (4) \(1.5 \times 10^{-5} T\)

Question 50:

A solid sphere, of radius R acquires a terminal velocity \(v_1\) when falling (due to gravity) through a viscous fluid having a coefficient of viscosity \(\eta\). The sphere is broken into 27 identical solid spheres. If each of these spheres acquires a terminal velocity, \(v_2\), when falling through the same fluid, the ratio \((v_1/v_2)\) equals :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)
  • (3) 27
  • (4) 9

Question 51:

A uniform cylindrical rod of length \(L\) and radius \(r\), is made from a material whose Young's modulus of Elasticity equals \(Y\). When this rod is heated by temperature \(T\) and simultaneously subjected to a net longitudinal compressional force \(F\), its length remains unchanged. The coefficient of volume expansion, of the material of the rod, is (nearly) equals to :

  • (1) \(F /\left(3 \pi r ^{2} YT \right)\)
  • (2) \(3 F /\left(\pi r ^{2} YT \right)\)
  • (3) \(6 F /\left(\pi r ^{2} YT \right)\)
  • (4) \(9 F /\left(\pi r ^{2} YT \right)\)

Question 52:

A block of mass 5 kg is (i) pushed in case (A) and (ii) pulled in case (B), by a force \(F = 20\ \mathrm{N}\), making an angle of \(30^\circ\) with the horizontal, as shown in the figures. The coefficient of friction between the block and floor is \(\mu = 0.2\). The difference between the accelerations of the blocks, in case (B) and case (A) will be : (\(g = 10\ \mathrm{ms^{-2}}\))

  • (1) \(3.2\ \mathrm{ms^{-2}}\)
  • (2) \(0.8\ \mathrm{ms^{-2}}\)
  • (3) \(0\ \mathrm{ms^{-2}}\)
  • (4) \(0.4\ \mathrm{ms^{-2}}\)

Question 53:

Consider the \(LR\) circuit shown in the figure. If the switch \(S\) is closed at \(t = 0\) then the amount of charge that passes through the battery between \(t = 0\) and \(t = \frac{L}{R}\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{EL}{7.3 R^2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{EL}{2.7 R^2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{7.3 EL}{ R^2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2.7 EL}{ R^2}\)

Question 54:

In the given circuit, the charge on \(4\ \mu\mathrm{F}\) capacitor will be :

  • (1) \(5.4\ \mu\mathrm{C}\)
  • (2) \(9.6\ \mu\mathrm{C}\)
  • (3) \(13.4\ \mu\mathrm{C}\)
  • (4) \(24\ \mu\mathrm{C}\)

Question 55:

A particle is moving with speed \(v = b\sqrt{x}\) along positive x-axis. Calculate the speed of the particle at time \(t = \tau\) (assume that the particle is at origin at \(t = 0\)).

  • (1) \(\frac{b^2\tau}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (2) \(b^2\tau\)
  • (3) \(\frac{b^2\tau}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{b^2\tau}{4}\)

Question 56:

Let a total charge \(2Q\) be distributed in a sphere of radius \(R\), with the charge density given by \(\rho (r) = kr\), where r is the distance from the centre. Two charges \(A\) and \(B\), of \(-Q\) each, are placed on diametrically opposite points, at equal distance, a, from the centre. If \(A\) and \(B\) do not experience any force, then :

  • (1) \(a = \frac{3R}{2^{1/4}}\)
  • (2) \(a = R / \sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) \(a = 8^{-1/4 R}\)
  • (4) \(a = 2^{-1/4} R\)

Question 57:

A Carnot engine has an efficiency of \(\frac{1}{6}\). When the temperature of the sink is reduced by \(62^\circ\mathrm{C}\), its efficiency is doubled. The temperatures of the source and the sink are, respectively

  • (1) \(99^\circ\mathrm{C},\ 37^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (2) \(124^\circ\mathrm{C},\ 62^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (3) \(37^\circ\mathrm{C},\ 99^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (4) \(62^\circ\mathrm{C},\ 124^\circ\mathrm{C}\)

Question 58:

In an amplitude modulator circuit, the carrier wave is given by, \(C(t) = 4\sin(20000\pi t)\) while modulating signal is given by, \(m(t) = 2\sin(2000\pi t)\). The values of modulation index and lower side band frequency are :

  • (1) 0.3 and 9 kHz
  • (2) 0.5 and 10 kHz
  • (3) 0.4 and 10 kHz
  • (4) 0.5 and 9 kHz

Question 59:

Two sources of sound \(S_1\) and \(S_2\) produce sound waves of same frequency 660 Hz. A listener is moving from source \(S_1\) towards \(S_2\) with a constant speed \(u\) m/s and he hears 10 beats/s. The velocity of sound is 330 m/s. Then, \(u\) equals :

  • (1) 10.0 m/s
  • (2) 5.5 m/s
  • (3) 15.0 m/s
  • (4) 2.5 m/s

Question 60:

Half-lives of two radioactive elements \(A\) and \(B\) are \(20\, \) minutes and \(40\,\) minutes, respectively. Initially, the samples have equal number of nuclei. After \(80\,\) minutes, the ratio of decayed numbers of \(A\) and \(B\) nuclei will be :

  • (1) \(1 : 16\)
  • (2) \(4 : 1\)
  • (3) \(1 : 4\)
  • (4) \(5 : 4\)

Chemistry (Q61 - Q90)

Question 61:

Among the following, the energy of 2s orbital is lowest in :

  • (1) Li
  • (2) H
  • (3) Na
  • (4) K

Question 62:

In comparison to boron, berylium has :

  • (1) lesser nuclear charge and greater first ionisation enthalpy
  • (2) lesser nuclear charge and lesser first ionisation enthalpy
  • (3) greater nuclear charge and greater first ionisation enthalpy
  • (4) greater nuclear charge and lesser first ionisation enthalpy

Question 63:

A solution is prepared by dissolving \(0.6\, g\) of urea (molar mass = \(60\, g\, mol^{-1})\) and \(1.8\, g\) of glucose (molar mass = \(180\, g\) mol\({-1}\)) in \(100\, mL\) of water at \(27^{\circ}C\). The osmotic pressure of the solution is : \((R = 0.08206 \; L \; atm \; K^{-1} \; mol^{-1} ) \)

  • (1) 4.92 atm
  • (2) 1.64 atm
  • (3) 2.46 atm
  • (4) 8.2 atm

Question 64:

The decreasing order of electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is : 0.1 M Formic acid (A), 0.1 M Acetic acid (B) 0.1 M Benzoic acid (C)

  • (1) C > B > A
  • (2) A > B > C
  • (3) A > C > B
  • (4) C > A > B

Question 65:

Which one of the following is likely to give a precipitate with \(\mathrm{AgNO_3}\) solution ?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{CHCl_3}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{(CH_3)_3CCl}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{CCl_4}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{CH_2{=}CH{-}Cl}\)

Question 66:

Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with aniline in the presence of dilute hydrochloric acid gives :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 67:

The compound used in the treatment of lead poisoning is :

  • (1) \(EDTA\)
  • (2) Cis-platin
  • (3) D-penicillamine
  • (4) desferrioxime \(B\)

Question 68:

The IUPAC name for the following compound is :

  • (1) 3, 5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-1-en-6-yne
  • (2) 3-methyl-4-(3-methylprop-1-enyl)-1-heptyne
  • (3) 3-methyl-4-(1-methylprop-2-enyl)-1-heptene
  • (4) 3,5-dimethyl-4-propylhept-6-en-1-yne

Question 69:

The INCORRECT match in the following is :

  • (1) \(\Delta G^\circ = 0,\ K = 1\)
  • (2) \(\Delta G^\circ \lt 0,\ K \lt 1\)
  • (3) \(\Delta G^\circ \gt 0,\ K \lt 1\)
  • (4) \(\Delta G^\circ \lt 0,\ K \gt 1\)

Question 70:

10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion gives 40 mL of CO\(_2\)(g) and 50 mL of water vapour. The total number of carbon and hydrogen atoms in the hydrocarbon is ______ .


Question 71:

In which one of the following equilibria, \(K_p \neq K_C\) ?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{2NO(g) \rightleftharpoons N_2(g) + O_2(g)}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{2C(s) + O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2CO(g)}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{2HI(g) \rightleftharpoons H_2(g) + I_2(g)}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{NO_2(g) + SO_2(g) \rightleftharpoons NO(g) + SO_3(g)}\)

Question 72:

Consider the following reactions

'A' is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 73:

Heating of 2-chloro-1-phenylbutane with EtOK/EtOH gives X as the major product. Reaction of X with \(\mathrm{Hg(OAc)_2/H_2O}\) followed by \(\mathrm{NaBH_4}\) gives Y as the major product. Y is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 74:

The pair that has similar atomic radii is :

  • (1) Sc and Ni
  • (2) Ti and HF
  • (3) Mo and W
  • (4) Mn and Re

Question 75:

An 'Assertion' and a 'Reason' are given below. Choose the correct answer from the following options :
Assertion (A) : Vinyl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution easily.
Reason (R) : Even though the intermediate carbocation is stabilized by loosely held p-electrons, the cleavage is difficult because of strong bonding.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct statements but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct statements and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is correct statement but (R) is a wrong statement
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong statements.

Question 76:

What will be the major product when m-cresol is reacted with propargyl bromide (HC\(\equiv\)C–CH2Br) in presence of K2CO3 in acetone?

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 77:

The coordination numbers of Co and Al in \({ [Co(Cl)(en)2]Cl}\) and \({K3[Al(C2O4)3]}\), respectively, are : (en=ethane-1,2-diamine)

  • (1) 3 and 3
  • (2) 6 and 6
  • (3) 5 and 6
  • (4) 5 and 3

Question 78:

The molar solubility of Cd(OH)2 is \(1.84 \times 10^{-5}\) M in water. The expected solubility of Cd(OH)2 in a buffer solution of pH = 12 is :

  • (1) \(2.49 \times 10^{-10}\) M
  • (2) \(1.84 \times 10^{-9}\) M
  • (3) \(6.23 \times 10^{-11}\) M
  • (4) \(\frac{2.49}{1.84} \times 10^{-9}\) M

Question 79:

\( {NO_2}\) required for a reaction is produced by the decomposition of \( {N2O5}\) in \( {CCl4}\) as per the equation \( { 2N2O5(g) -> 4NO2(g) + O2(g).}\) The initial concentration of \( {N2O5}\) is \(3.00\, mol\) \( {L^{-1}}\) and it is \(2.75\, mol\) \( {L^{-1}}\) after \(30\) minutes. The rate of formation of \( {NO2}\) is :

  • (1) \(\ce{2.083 \times 10^{-3} \; mol \; L^{-1} \; min^{-1}}\)
  • (2) \(\ce{4.167 \times 10^{-3} \; mol \; L^{-1} \; min^{-1}}\)
  • (3) \(\ce{8.333 \times 10^{-3} \; mol \; L^{-1} \; min^{-1}}\)
  • (4) \(\ce{1.667 \times 10^{-2} \; mol \; L^{-1} \; min^{-1}}\)

Question 80:

Thermal decomposition of a Mn compound (X) at 513 K results in compound Y, MnO2 and gaseous product. MnO2 reacts with NaCl and concentrated H2O4 to give a pungent gas Z. X, Y and Z, respectively, are :

  • (1) KMnO4, K2MnO4 and Cl2
  • (2) K2MnO4, KMnO4 and SO2
  • (3) K3MnO4, K2MnO4 and Cl2
  • (4) K2MnO4, KMnO4 and Cl2

Question 81:

In the following skew conformation of ethane, \(H'-C-C-H''\) dihedral angle is :

  • (1) \(120^{\circ}\)
  • (2) \(58^{\circ}\)
  • (3) \(149^{\circ}\)
  • (4) \(151^{\circ}\)

Question 82:

Which of the given statements is INCORRECT about glycogen?

  • (1) It is a straight chain polymer similar to amylose
  • (2) It is present in animal cells
  • (3) It is present in some yeast and fungi
  • (4) Only \(\alpha\)-linkages are present in the molecule

Question 83:

The temporary hardness of a water sample is due to compound X. Boiling this sample converts X to compound Y. X and Y, respectively, are :

  • (1) Mg(HCO3)2 and MgCO3
  • (2) Ca(HO3)2 and CaO
  • (3) Ca(HCO3)2 and Ca(OH)2
  • (4) Mg(HCO3)2 and Mg(OH)2

Question 84:

The correct statement is :

  • (1) leaching of bauxite using concentrated NaOH solution gives sodium aluminate and sodium silicate
  • (2) the Hall-Heroult process is used for the production of aluminium and iron
  • (3) pig iron is obtained from cast iron
  • (4) the blistered appearance of copper during the metallurgical process is due to the evolution of CO2

Question 85:

The correct name of the following polymer is :

  • (1) Polytert-butylene
  • (2) Polyisobutane
  • (3) Polyisobutylene
  • (4) Polyisoprene

Question 86:

The INCORRECT statement is :

  • (1) Lithium is least reactive with water among the alkali metals.
  • (2) \(LiCl\) crystallises from aqueous solution as \(\ce{LiCl.2H2O.}\)
  • (3) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals.
  • (4) \(\ce{LiNO3}\) decomposes on heating to give \(\ce{LiNO2}\) and \(\ce{O2}\).

Question 87:

The primary pollutant that leads to photochemical smog is :

  • (1) sulphur dioxide
  • (2) acrolein
  • (3) ozone
  • (4) nitrogen oxides

Question 88:

The ratio of number of atoms present in a simple cubic, body centered cubic and face centered cubic structure are, respectively :

  • (1) 1:02:04
  • (2) 8:01:06
  • (3) 4:02:01
  • (4) 4:02:03

Question 89:

The C–C bond length is maximum in :

  • (1) C60
  • (2) diamond
  • (3) graphite
  • (4) C70

Question 90:

Among the following, the INCORRECT statement about colloids is :

  • (1) The range of diameters of colloidal particles is between 1 and to 1000 nm
  • (2) they are larger than small molecules and have high molar mass
  • (3) They can scatter light
  • (4) The osmotic pressure of a colloidal solution is of higher order than the true solution at the same concentration.

JEE Main 2019 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions
Total Marks360 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect answer; 0 for unattempted

JEE Main 2019 April 12 Shift 2 Difficulty Level

The exam was successfully concluded by NTA (National Testing Agency) for the first time. Candidates rated JEE Main 2019 Question Paper as easy to moderate in terms of overall difficulty. The question paper comprises a total of 90 questions. The 90 questions were distributed across three main sections i.e. Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics.

JEE Main 2019 Question Paper: Paper Analysis

  • 8-9 questions were lengthy in the Mathematics section. Very less number of questions were based on Formula
  • Equal number of questions were asked from class 11th and class 12th in the Mathematics section
  • Surprisingly, the Physics section was as compared to the previous slots
  • 9-10 questions were based on formulas
  • The Chemistry section has been the easiest section in the entire session. 2-3 questions appeared from the last year

Please go through the below-mentioned the see the details of number of listed questions as per the difficulty level and carried marks-

Sections No. Of Questions Asked Carried Marks Difficulty Level
Chemistry 30 120 Easy
Physics 30 120 Easy to Moderate
Mathematics 30 120 Moderate
Total 90 360