JEE Main 2020 September 2 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the second shift on September 2, 2020, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2020 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 75 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 25 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 5 numerical value questions per subject, all compulsory, 4 marks each
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect MCQ, 0 for an unattempted question; no negative marking for numerical value questions
  • Maximum marks: 300 (100 per subject)

JEE Main 2020 September 2 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2020 September 2 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

If the equation \(\cos^4\theta + \sin^4\theta + \lambda = 0\) has real solutions for \(\theta\), then \(\lambda\) lies in the interval :

  • (1) \(\left[-\frac{3}{2}, -\frac{5}{4}\right]\)
  • (2) \(\left(-\frac{1}{2}, -\frac{1}{4}\right]\)
  • (3) \(\left(-\frac{5}{4}, -1\right]\)
  • (4) \(\left[-1, -\frac{1}{2}\right]\)

Question 2:

Let \(A = \{X = (x, y, z)^T : PX = 0 \text{ and } x^2+y^2+z^2 = 1\}\) where \(P = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 1 \\ -2 & 3 & -4 \\ 1 & 9 & -1 \end{bmatrix}\), then the set A :

  • (1) is an empty set.
  • (2) contains more than two elements.
  • (3) contains exactly two elements.
  • (4) is a singleton.

Question 3:

For some \(\theta \in \left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\), if the eccentricity of the hyperbola, \(x^2 - y^2\sec^2\theta = 10\) is \(\sqrt{5}\) times the eccentricity of the ellipse, \(x^2\sec^2\theta + y^2 = 5\), then the length of the latus rectum of the ellipse, is :

  • (1) \(\sqrt{30}\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{6}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{4\sqrt{5}}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2\sqrt{5}}{3}\)

Question 4:

If the sum of first 11 terms of an A.P., \(a_1, a_2, a_3, \ldots\) is 0 \((a_1 \ne 0)\), then the sum of the A.P., \(a_1, a_3, a_5, \ldots, a_{23}\) is \(ka_1\), where k is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{121}{10}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{121}{10}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{72}{5}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{72}{5}\)

Question 5:

Let \(f :(-1, \infty) \rightarrow R\) be defined by \(f (0)=1\) and \(f ( x )=\frac{1}{ x } \log _{ e }(1+ x ), x \neq 0 .\) Then the function \(f\)

  • (1) decreases in \((-1, \infty)\)
  • (2) decreases in (-1,0) and increases in \((0, \infty)\)
  • (3) increases in \((-1, \infty)\)
  • (4) increases in (-1,0) and decreases in \((0, \infty)\)

Question 6:

If a curve \(y = f(x)\), passing through the point \((1, 2)\), is the solution of the differential equation, \(2x^2\,dy = (2xy + y^2)\,dx\), then \(f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{1-\log_e 2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{1+\log_e 2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{-1}{1+\log_e 2}\)
  • (4) \(1+\log_e 2\)

Question 7:

Consider a region \(R = \{(x, y) \in \mathbb{R}^2 : x^2 \le y \le 2x\}\). If a line \(y = \alpha\) divides the area of region R into two equal parts, then which of the following is true?

  • (1) \(3\alpha^2 - 8\alpha + 8 = 0\)
  • (2) \(\alpha^3 - 6\alpha^{3/2} - 16 = 0\)
  • (3) \(3\alpha^2 - 8\alpha^{3/2} + 8 = 0\)
  • (4) \(\alpha^3 - 6\alpha^2 + 16 = 0\)

Question 8:

The imaginary part of \(\left(3+2\sqrt{-54}\right)^{\frac12}-\left(3-2\sqrt{-54}\right)^{\frac12}\) can be :

  • (1) \(-2\sqrt{6}\)
  • (2) \(6\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{6}\)
  • (4) \(-\sqrt{6}\)

Question 9:

Let \(f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}\) be a function which satisfies \(f(x+y) = f(x) + f(y)\ \forall\ x, y \in \mathbb{R}\). If \(f(1) = 2\) and \(g(n) = \sum\limits_{k=1}^{(n-1)} f(k)\), \(n \in \mathbb{N}\), then the value of n, for which \(g(n) = 20\), is :

  • (1) 20
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 4

Question 10:

Let \(E^C\) denote the complement of an event E. Let \(E_1\), \(E_2\) and \(E_3\) be any pairwise independent events with \(P(E_1) > 0\) and \(P(E_1 \cap E_2 \cap E_3) = 0\).
Then \(P\left(E_2^C \cap E_3^C / E_1\right)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(P\left(E_3^C\right) - P(E_2)\)
  • (2) \(P\left(E_2^C\right) + P(E_3)\)
  • (3) \(P\left(E_3^C\right) - P\left(E_2^C\right)\)
  • (4) \(P(E_3) - P\left(E_2^C\right)\)

Question 11:

Let f(x) be a quadratic polynomial such that f(–1) + f(2) = 0. If one of the roots of f(x) = 0 is 3, then its other root lies in :

  • (1) (-3,-1)
  • (2) (1,3)
  • (3) (-1,0)
  • (4) (0,1)

Question 12:

\(\lim\limits_{x\to0}\left(\tan\left(\frac{\pi}{4}+x\right)\right)^{\frac1x}\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(2\)
  • (2) \(1\)
  • (3) \(e\)
  • (4) \(e^2\)

Question 13:

Let \(n > 2\) be an integer. Suppose that there are n Metro stations in a city located along a circular path. Each pair of stations is connected by a straight track only. Further, each pair of nearest stations is connected by blue line, whereas all remaining pairs of stations are connected by red line. If the number of red lines is 99 times the number of blue lines, then the value of n is :

  • (1) 201
  • (2) 199
  • (3) 101
  • (4) 200

Question 14:

Let a, b, c \(\in \mathbb{R}\) be all non-zero and satisfy \(a^3+b^3+c^3=2\). If the matrix \(A=\begin{pmatrix} a & b & c \\ b & c & a \\ c & a & b \end{pmatrix}\) satisfies \(A^TA = I\), then a value of abc can be :

  • (1) 3
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{3}\)

Question 15:

The set of all possible values of \(\theta\) in the interval
\((0, \pi)\) for which the points \((1, 2)\) and \((\sin\theta, \cos\theta)\) lie
on the same side of the line \(x + y = 1\) is :

  • (1) \(\left(0, \frac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(0, \frac{3\pi}{4}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{3\pi}{4}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)

Question 16:

An equilateral triangle OAB is inscribed in the parabola \(y^2 = 4x\) with the vertex O at the vertex of the parabola. Then the minimum distance of the circle having AB as a diameter from the origin is

  • (1) \(4(6+\sqrt{3})\)
  • (2) \(4(3-\sqrt{3})\)
  • (3) \(2(8-3\sqrt{3})\)
  • (4) \(2(3+\sqrt{3})\)

Question 17:

A plane passing through the point \((3, 1, 1)\) contains two lines whose direction ratios are \(1, -2, 2\) and \(2, 3, -1\) respectively. If this plane also passes through the point \((\alpha, -3, 5)\), then \(\alpha\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(-10\)
  • (2) \(10\)
  • (3) \(5\)
  • (4) \(-5\)

Question 18:

The equation of the normal to the curve
\(y = (1+x)^{2y} + \cos^{2}(\sin^{-1}x)\) at \(x = 0\) is :

  • (1) \(y = 4x + 2\)
  • (2) \(x + 4y = 8\)
  • (3) \(y + 4x = 2\)
  • (4) \(2y + x = 4\)

Question 19:

If the sum of the first 10 terms of the series \[ \frac{4 \cdot 1}{1 + 4 \cdot 1^4} + \frac{4 \cdot 2}{1 + 4 \cdot 2^4} + \frac{4 \cdot 3}{1 + 4 \cdot 3^4} + \ldots \] is \(\frac{m}{n}\), where \(\gcd(m, n) = 1\), then \(m + n\) is equal to _____.


Question 20:

Which of the following statements is a tautology?

  • (1) \(((\sim p) \vee q) \Rightarrow p\)
  • (2) \(p \Rightarrow((\sim p ) \vee q )\)
  • (3) \(((\sim p ) \vee q ) \Rightarrow q\)
  • (4) \(q \Rightarrow((\sim p) \vee q)\)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q25)

Question 21:

If \(y=\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{6} k\cos^{-1}\left\{\frac{3}{5}\cos kx-\frac{4}{5}\sin kx\right\}\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx}\) at \(x=0\) is _______.


Question 22:

If the variance of the terms in an increasing A.P.,
\(b_1, b_2, b_3, \ldots, b_{11}\) is 90, then the common difference of this A.P. is _______.


Question 23:

Let the position vectors of points \(A\) and \(B\) be \(\hat{i}+\hat{j}+\hat{k}\) and \(2\hat{i}+\hat{j}+3\hat{k}\), respectively. A point \(P\) divides the line segment \(AB\) internally in the ratio \(\lambda : 1\) (\(\lambda \gt 0\)). If \(O\) is the origin and
\(\overrightarrow{OB}\cdot\overrightarrow{OP}-3\left|\overrightarrow{OA}\times\overrightarrow{OP}\right|^{2}=6\), then \(\lambda\) is equal to _______.


Question 24:

Let \([t]\) denote the greatest integer less than or equal to \(t\). Then the value of
\(\displaystyle\int_{1}^{2}\left|2x-[3x]\right|dx\) is _______.


Question 25:

For a positive integer \(n\),
\(\left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right)^{n}\) is expanded
in increasing powers of \(x\). If three consecutive
coefficients in this expansion are in the ratio,
\(2 : 5 : 12\), then \(n\) is equal to _______.


Physics - Section A (Q26 - Q45)

Question 26:

In a Young's double slit experiment, 16 fringes are observed in a certain segment of the screen when light of a wavelength 700 nm is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, the number of fringes observed in the same segment of the screen would be

  • (1) 28
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 18

Question 27:

A \(10\ \mu\mathrm{F}\) capacitor is fully charged to a potential difference of 50 V. After removing the source voltage it is connected to an uncharged capacitor in parallel. Now the potential difference across them becomes 20 V. The capacitance of the second capacitor is :

  • (1) \(20\ \mu\mathrm{F}\)
  • (2) \(15\ \mu\mathrm{F}\)
  • (3) \(10\ \mu\mathrm{F}\)
  • (4) \(30\ \mu\mathrm{F}\)

Question 28:

If momentum \( (P)\), area \((A)\) and time \((T)\) are taken to be the fundamental quantities then the dimensional formula for energy is :

  • (1) \(\left[ PA ^{-1} T ^{-2}\right]\)
  • (2) \(\left[ PA ^{1 / 2} T ^{-1}\right]\)
  • (3) \(\left[ P ^{2} AT ^{-2}\right]\)
  • (4) \( \left[ P ^{1 / 2} AT ^{-1}\right]\)

Question 29:

The height 'h' at which the weight of a body will be the same as that at the same depth 'h' from the surface of the earth is (Radius of the earth is R and effect of the rotation of the earth is neglected)

  • (1) \(\frac{R}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}R-R}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}R-R}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{2}R-R\)

Question 30:

When the temperature of a metal wire is increased from \(0^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\) to \(10^{\circ}\mathrm{C}\), its length increases by \(0.02\%\). The percentage change in its mass density will be closest to :

  • (1) \(0.008\)
  • (2) \(0.06\)
  • (3) \(0.8\)
  • (4) \(2.3\)

Question 31:

A wire carrying current \(I\) is bent in the shape ABCDEFA as shown, where rectangle ABCDA and ADEFA are perpendicular to each other. If the sides of the rectangles are of lengths \(a\) and \(b\), then the magnitude and direction of magnetic moment of the loop ABCDEFA is

  • (1) \(\sqrt{2}\,abI\), along \(\left(\frac{\hat{j}}{\sqrt{5}}+\frac{2\hat{k}}{\sqrt{5}}\right)\)
  • (2) \(abI\), along \(\left(\frac{\hat{j}}{\sqrt{5}}+\frac{2\hat{k}}{\sqrt{5}}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{2}\,abI\), along \(\left(\frac{\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}}+\frac{\hat{k}}{\sqrt{2}}\right)\)
  • (4) \(abI\), along \(\left(\frac{\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}}+\frac{\hat{k}}{\sqrt{2}}\right)\)

Question 32:

Two uniform circular discs are rotating independently in the same direction around their common axis passing through their centres. The moment of inertia and angular velocity of the first disc are \(0.1\, kg - m ^{2}\) and \(10 \,rad\, s^{-1}\) respectively while those for the second one are \(0.2\, kg - m ^{2}\) and \(5\, rad \,s ^{-1}\) respectively. At some instant they get stuck together and start rotating as a single system about their common axis with some angular speed. The Kinetic energy of the combined system is :

  • (1) \(\frac{10}{3}\, J\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2}{3}\, J\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{3}\, J\)
  • (4) \(\frac{20}{3} \,J\)

Question 33:

An ideal gas in a closed container is slowly heated. As its temperature increases, which of the following statements are true?
(A) the mean free path of the molecules decreases.
(B) the mean collision time between the molecules decreases.
(C) the mean free path remains unchanged.
(D) the mean collision time remains unchanged.

  • (1) (C) and (D)
  • (2) (A) and (D)
  • (3) (B) and (C)
  • (4) (A) and (B)

Question 34:

A capillary tube made of glass of radius 0.15 mm is dipped vertically in a beaker filled with methylene iodide (surface tension = 0.05 Nm-1, density = 667 kg m-3) which rises to height \(h\) in the tube. It is observed that the two tangents drawn from liquid-glass interfaces (from opp. sides of the capillary) make an angle of 60o with one another. Then \(h\) is close to (\(g = 10\ \mathrm{ms^{-2}}\))

  • (1) 0.049 m
  • (2) 0.087 m
  • (3) 0.137 m
  • (4) 0.172 m

Question 35:

A charge \(Q\) is distributed over two concentric conducting thin spherical shells radii \(r\) and \(R\) \(( R > r )\). If the surface charge densities on the two shells are equal, the electric potential at the common centre is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{( R +2 r ) Q }{2\left( R ^{2}+ r ^{2}\right)}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{( R + r )}{2\left( R ^{2}+ r ^{2}\right)} Q\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{( R + r )}{\left( R ^{2}+ r ^{2}\right)} Q\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{(2 R+r)}{\left(R^{2}+r^{2}\right)} Q\)

Question 36:

An inductance coil has a reactance of 100 \(\Omega\). When an AC signal of frequency 1000 Hz is applied to the coil, the applied voltage leads the current by 45o. The self-inductance of the coil is

  • (1) \(6.7\times10^{-7}\) H
  • (2) \(1.1\times10^{-1}\) H
  • (3) \(5.5\times10^{-5}\) H
  • (4) \(1.1\times10^{-2}\) H

Question 37:

The figure shows a region of length '\(l\)' with a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T in it and a proton entering the region with velocity \(4\times10^{5}\ \mathrm{ms^{-1}}\) making an angle \(60^\circ\) with the field. If the proton completes 10 revolution by the time it cross the region shown, '\(l\)' is close to
(mass of proton = \(1.67\times10^{-27}\) kg, charge of the proton = \(1.6\times10^{-19}\) C)

  • (1) 0.22 m
  • (2) 0.11 m
  • (3) 0.88 m
  • (4) 0.44 m

Question 38:

The displacement time graph of a particle executing S.H.M is given in figure :
(sketch is schematic and not to scale)

Which of the following statements is/are true for this motion?
(A) The force is zero at \(t = \frac{3T}{4}\)
(B) The acceleration is maximum at \(t = T\)
(C) The speed is maximum at \(t = \frac{T}{4}\)
(D) The P.E. is equal to K.E. of the oscillation at \(t = \frac{T}{2}\)

  • (1) (B), (C) and (D)
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C)
  • (3) (A) and (D)
  • (4) (A), (B) and (D)

Question 39:

In the following digital circuit, what will be the output at 'Z', when the input (A, B) are (1, 0), (0, 0), (1, 1), (0, 1)

  • (1) 1, 1, 0, 1
  • (2) 0, 1, 0, 0
  • (3) 1, 0, 1, 1
  • (4) 0, 0, 1, 0

Question 40:

In a hydrogen atom the electron makes a transition from \((n+1)^{th}\) level to the \(n^{th}\) level. If \(n \gg 1\), the frequency of radiation emitted is proportional to :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{n}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{n^2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{n^3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{n^4}\)

Question 41:

In an electromagnetic wave the electric field vector and magnetic field vector are given as \(\vec{E} = E_0\hat{i}\) and \(\vec{B} = B_0\hat{k}\) respectively. The direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is along :

  • (1) \(\left(\hat{k}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\hat{j}\)
  • (3) \(\left(-\hat{k}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(-\hat{j}\right)\)

Question 42:

A particle is travelling 4 times as fast as an electron. Assuming the ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of a particle to that of electron is 2 : 1, the mass of the particle is :

  • (1) 8 times the mass of e⁻
  • (2) 1/16 times the mass of e⁻
  • (3) 16 times the mass of e⁻
  • (4) 1/8 times the mass of e⁻

Question 43:

In the given circuit, charge \(Q_2 \) on the \(2 \mu F \) capacitor changes as \(C\) is varied from \(1 \mu F \) to \(3 \mu F. \) \(Q_2 \) as a function of \('C'\) is given properly by (figures are drawn schematically and are not to scale)

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 44:

A potentiometer wire PQ of 1 m length is connected to a standard cell E1. Another cell E2 of emf 1.02 V is connected with a resistance 'r' and switch S (as shown in figure). With switch S open, the null position is obtained at a distance of 49 cm from Q. The potential gradient in the potentiometer wire is :

  • (1) 0.04 V/cm
  • (2) 0.01 V/cm
  • (3) 0.02 V/cm
  • (4) 0.03 V/cm

Question 45:

A heat engine is involved with exchange of heat of 1915 J, \(-40\) J, \(+125\) J and \(-Q\) J, during one cycle achieving an efficiency of 50.0%. The value of \(Q\) is

  • (1) 980 J
  • (2) 40 J
  • (3) 400 J
  • (4) 640 J

Physics - Section B (Q46 - Q50)

Question 46:

A square shaped hole of side \(l = \frac{a}{2}\) is carved out at a distance \(d = \frac{a}{2}\) from the centre 'O' of a uniform circular disk of radius \(a\). If the distance of the centre of mass of the remaining portion from O is \(-\frac{a}{X}\), value of \(X\) (to the nearest integer) is :


Question 47:

A particle of mass m moving with a velocity v collides with a particle of mass 2m at rest and sticks to it. Velocity of the combined mass equal to? 

  • (1) v
  • (2) \(\frac{v}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{v}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{v}{4}\)

Question 48:

A wire of density \(8 × 10^3\) \(kg/m^3\) is stretched between two clamps 0.5 m apart. The extension developed in the wire is \(3.2 × 10^{–4}\) m. If Y = \(8 × 10^{10}\) \(N/m^2\) , the fundamental frequency of vibration in the wire will be ________Hz.


Question 49:

An ideal cell of emf 10 V is connected in circuit shown in figure. Each resistance is \(2\ \Omega\). The potential difference (in V) across the capacitor when it is fully charged is ______.


Question 50:

A light ray enters a solid glass sphere of refractive index \(\mu = \sqrt{3}\) at an angle of incidence \(60^\circ\). The ray is both reflected and refracted at the farther surface of the sphere. The angle (in degrees) between the reflected and refracted rays at this surface is ________.


Chemistry - Section A (Q51 - Q70)

Question 51: Two compounds A and B with same molecular formula (\(\mathrm{C_3H_6O}\)) undergo Grignard's reaction with methylmagnesium bromide to give products C and D. Products C and D show following chemical tests.
TestCD
Ceric ammonium nitrate TestPositivePositive
Lucas TestTurbidity obtained after five minutesTurbidity obtained immediately
Iodoform TestPositiveNegative
C and D respectively are :
  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 52:

The shapes of the compounds XeF2, XeF4, XeO3 and XeO4 respectively are:

  • (1) (A) Distorted octahedral, Tetrahedral, Square planar, and Trigonal bipyramidal
  • (2) (B) See-saw, octahedral, Tetrahedral and Square planar
  • (3) (C) Linear, Square planar, Trigonal bipyramidal, and Tetrahedral
  • (4) (D) Square planar, octahedral, Pyramidal and See-saw

Question 53:

Simplified absorption spectra of three complexes ((i), (ii) and (iii)) of \(\mathrm{Mn^{+}}\) ion are provided below; their \(\lambda_{max}\) values are marked as A, B and C respectively. The correct match between the complexes and their \(\lambda_{max}\) values is

(i) \(\mathrm{[M(NCS)_6]^{(-6+n)}}\)
(ii) \(\mathrm{[MF_6]^{(-6+n)}}\)
(iii) \(\mathrm{[M(NH_3)_6]^{n+}}\)

  • (1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii)
  • (2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i)
  • (3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)
  • (4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)

Question 54:

The number of subshells associated with \(n = 4\) and \(m = -2\) quantum numbers is

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 16
  • (4) 4

Question 55:

The size of a raw mango shrinks to a much smaller size when kept in a concentrated salt solution. Which one of the following processes can explain this?

  • (1) Osmosis
  • (2) Reverse osmosis
  • (3) Diffusion
  • (4) Dialysis

Question 56:

The one that is not expected to show isomerism is :

  • (1) \(\mathrm{[Pt(NH_3)_2Cl_2]}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{[Ni(NH_3)_4(H_2O)_2]^{2+}}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{[Ni(en)_3]^{2+}}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{[Ni(NH_3)_2Cl_2]}\)

Question 57:

The correct observation in the following reactions is :

(Sucrose \(\xrightarrow[\text{(Hydrolysis)}]{\text{Glycosidic bond cleavage}}\) A + B \(\xrightarrow{\text{Seliwanoff's reagent}}\) ?)

  • (1) Formation of blue colour
  • (2) Formation of violet colour
  • (3) Formation of red colour
  • (4) Gives no colour

Question 58: Match the type of interaction in column A with the distance dependence of their interaction energy in column B
AB
(i) ion-ion(a) \(\frac{1}{r}\)
(ii) dipole-dipole(b) \(\frac{1}{r^2}\)
(iii) London dispersion(c) \(\frac{1}{r^3}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{r^6}\)
  • (1) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(d)
  • (2) (I)-(b), (II)-(d), (III)-(c)
  • (3) (I)-(a), (II)-(b), (III)-(c)
  • (4) (I)-(a), (II)-(c), (III)-(d)

Question 59: The results given in the below table were obtained during kinetic studies of the following reaction
\(2A + B \to C + D\)
Experiment[A]/mol L-1[B]/mol L-1Initial rate/mol L-1 min-1
I0.10.1\(6.00 \times 10^{-3}\)
II0.10.2\(2.40 \times 10^{-2}\)
III0.20.1\(1.20 \times 10^{-2}\)
IVX0.2\(7.20 \times 10^{-2}\)
V0.3Y\(2.88 \times 10^{-1}\)
X and Y in the given table are respectively :
  • (1) 0.3, 0.4
  • (2) 0.4, 0.3
  • (3) 0.4, 0.4
  • (4) 0.3, 0.3

Question 60:

If you spill a chemical toilet cleaning liquid on your hand, your first aid would be

  • (1) aqueous \(\mathrm{NaOH}\)
  • (2) aqueous \(\mathrm{NaHCO_3}\)
  • (3) aqueous \(\mathrm{NH_3}\)
  • (4) vinegar

Question 61:

Three elements X, Y and Z are in the 3rd period of the periodic table. The oxides of X, Y and Z, respectively, are basic, amphoteric and acidic. The correct order of the atomic numbers of X, Y and Z is :

  • (1) \(X \lt Z \lt Y\)
  • (2) \(Y \lt X \lt Z\)
  • (3) \(Z \lt Y \lt X\)
  • (4) \(X \lt Y \lt Z\)

Question 62:

The molecular geometry of \(\mathrm{SF_6}\) is octahedral. What is the geometry of \(\mathrm{SF_4}\) (including lone pair(s) of electrons, if any)?

  • (1) Tetrahedral
  • (2) Trigonal bipyramidal
  • (3) Square planar
  • (4) Pyramidal

Question 63:

The major product of the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 64:

An organic compound ‘A’ (\(\mathrm{C_9H_{10}O}\)) when treated with conc. HI undergoes cleavage to yield compounds ‘B’ and ‘C’. ‘B’ gives yellow precipitate with \(\mathrm{AgNO_3}\) where as ‘C’ tautomerizes to ‘D’. ‘D’ gives positive iodoform test. ‘A’ could be

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 65:

Arrange the following labelled hydrogens in decreasing order of acidity :

  • (1) b > c > d > a
  • (2) b > a > c > d
  • (3) c > b > d > a
  • (4) c > b > a > d

Question 66:

Consider the reaction sequence given below:

Which of the following statements is true?

  • (1) Changing the concentration of base will have no effect on reaction (1)
  • (2) Changing the concentration of base will have no effect on reaction (2)
  • (3) Changing the base from \(\mathrm{OH^-}\) to \(\mathrm{{}^-OR}\) will have no effect on reaction (2)
  • (4) Doubling the concentration of base will double the rate of both the reactions

Question 67:

The major product obtained from \(\mathrm{E_2}\) - elimination of 3-bromo-2-fluoropentane is

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 68:

Cast iron is used for the manufacture of :

  • (1) wrought iron and pig iron
  • (2) wrought iron and steel
  • (3) wrought iron, pig iron and steel
  • (4) pig iron, scrap iron and steel

Question 69:

Amongst the following statements regarding adsorption, those that are valid are

(a) \(\Delta H\) becomes less negative as adsorption proceeds
(b) On a given adsorbent, ammonia is adsorbed more than nitrogen gas
(c) On adsorption, the residual force acting along the surface of the adsorbent increases
(d) With increase in temperature, the equilibrium concentration of adsorbate increases

  • (1) (c) and (d)
  • (2) (a) and (b)
  • (3) (d) and (a)
  • (4) (b) and (c)

Question 70:

Two elements A and B have similar chemical properties. They don’t form solid hydrogencarbonates, but react with nitrogen to form nitrides. A and B, respectively, are :

  • (1) Li and Mg
  • (2) Cs and Ba
  • (3) Na and Rb
  • (4) Na and Ca

Chemistry - Section B (Q71 - Q75)

Question 71:

The oxidation states of \(Cr\) in \( [Cr(H_2O)_6]Cl_3, [Cr(C_6H_6)_2]\), and \(K_2[Cr(CN)_2(O)_2(O_2)(NH_3)]\) respectively are :

  • (1) +3, +4, and +6
  • (2) +3, +2, and +4
  • (3) +3, 0, and +6
  • (4) +3, 0, and +4

Question 72:

The heat of combustion of solid benzoic acid at constant volume is \(-321.30 \, \text{kJ}\) at \(27^\circ \text{C}\). The heat of combustion at constant pressure is \((-321.30 - xR)\, \text{kJ}\). The value of \(x\) is:


Question 73:

For the disproportionation reaction
\(\mathrm{2Cu^+(aq) \rightleftharpoons Cu(s) + Cu^{2+}(aq)}\) at 298 K. \(\ln K\) (where K is the equilibrium constant) is ___________ \(\times 10^{-1}\).
Given : ( \(E^0_{\mathrm{Cu^{2+}/Cu^+}} = 0.16\) V, \(E^0_{\mathrm{Cu^+/Cu}} = 0.52\) V, \(\dfrac{RT}{F} = 0.025\) )


Question 74:

The work function of sodium metal is \(4.41 \times 10^{-19}\) J. If photons of wavelength 300 nm are incident on the metal, the kinetic energy of the ejected electrons will be (h = \(6.63 \times 10^{-34}\) J s; c = \(3 \times 10^{8}\) m/s) ________ \(\times 10^{-21}\) J.


Question 75:

The ratio of the mass percentages of ‘C & H’ and ‘C & O’ of a saturated acyclic organic compound ‘X’ are 4 : 1 and 3 : 4 respectively. Then, the moles of oxygen gas required for complete combustion of two moles of organic compound ‘X’ is ________.

JEE Main 2020 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions75 questions
Total Marks300 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ; no negative marking for Numerical Value Questions

JEE Main 2020 September 2 Shift 2 Difficulty Level

JEE Main B.E/ B. Tech September 2, 2020 Question Paper was divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. The overall difficulty level of the question paper was moderately high. The difficulty level of the Maths section was tough as compared to the previous sessions’ question paper. The chemistry section was equally tough as the Maths section. The Physics section was moderate in difficulty, which made it the easiest section of the paper. To develop an idea about the paper pattern and its difficulty level, candidates who are appearing for the upcoming JEE Main 2022 sessions are advised to go through the question paper for September 2, 2020, which is provided below with its answer key.

JEE Main 2020 B.E./B.Tech September 2 Question Paper (AN): Paper Analysis

The section-wise paper analysis for JEE Main September 2, 2020 B.E./B.Tech Question paper is as follows:

Subjects Sectional Analysis Related Links
Mathematics
  • The section was the toughest section in the paper.
  • Differential Calculus (20%), and Integral Calculus (18%) had the highest weightage in the section.
  • There was 1 NAT type of Question-based on Trigonometric Equations.
  • 1 NAT type Question was based on Series and Sequences.
JEE Main Mathematics Syllabus
Physics
  • The Physics section was moderate in difficulty.
  • Electrodynamics (32%) had the highest weightage in the paper.
  • Mechanics (24%) was the next in terms of weightage.
  • 2 NAT questions were framed from Electrodynamics.
  • 2 NAT Questions were framed from Mechanics.
JEE Main Physics Syllabus
Chemistry
  • The Chemistry section was rated high in terms of difficulty.
  • Organic Chemistry II (32%) was the dominant unit in the section.
  • The next major unit was Inorganic Chemistry I.
  • 1 NAT question was framed from Chemical Equilibrium.
  • 1 NAT question was framed from Gas Equations.
JEE Main Chemistry Syllabus