JEE Main 2021 August 26 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the first shift on August 26, 2021, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2021 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, all compulsory, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, any 5 to be attempted, 4 marks each
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect MCQ, 0 for an unattempted question; no negative marking for numerical value questions
  • Maximum marks: 300 (100 per subject)

JEE Main 2021 August 26 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2021 August 26 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

The mean and standard deviation of 20 observations were calculated as 10 and 2.5 respectively. It was found that by mistake one data value was taken as 25 instead of 35. If \(\alpha\) and \(\sqrt{\beta}\) are the mean and standard deviation respectively for correct data, then \((\alpha, \beta)\) is :

  • (1) \((11, 25)\)
  • (2) \((11, 26)\)
  • (3) \((10.5, 26)\)
  • (4) \((10.5, 25)\)

Question 2:

Let \(y = y(x)\) be a solution curve of the differential equation \((y + 1) \tan^2x dx + \tan x dy + y dx = 0, x \in \left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\). If \(\lim_{x \to 0^+} xy(x) = 1\), then the value of \(y\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{4} - 1\)
  • (2) \(\frac{\pi}{4} + 1\)
  • (3) \(\frac{\pi - 4}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

Question 3:

Let \(A\) and \(B\) be independent events such that \(P(A) = p, P(B) = 2p\). The largest value of \(p\), for which \(P(\text{exactly one of } A, B \text{ occurs}) = \frac{5\lt /strong\gt {9}\), is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{4}{9}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{12}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{9}\)

Question 4:

Let \(\theta \in \left(0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)\). If the system of linear equations
\((1 + \cos^2\theta)x + \sin^2\theta y + 4\sin3\theta z = 0\)
\(\cos^2\theta x + (1 + \sin^2\theta)y + 4\sin3\theta z = 0\)
\(\cos^2\theta x + \sin^2\theta y + (1 + 4\sin3\theta)z = 0\)
has a non-trivial solution, then the value of \(\theta\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{18}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{7\pi}{18}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5\pi}{18}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{4\pi}{9}\)

Question 5:

Let \(f(x) = \cos\left(2\tan^{-1} \sin \left(\cot^{-1} \sqrt{\frac{1-x}{x}}\right)\right)\), \(0<x<1\). Then :

  • (1) \((1-x)^2 f'(x) - 2(f(x))^2 = 0\)
  • (2) \((1+x)^2 f'(x) + 2(f(x))^2 = 0\)
  • (3) \((1-x)^2 f'(x) + 2(f(x))^2 = 0\)
  • (4) \((1+x)^2 f'(x) - 2(f(x))^2 = 0\)

Question 6:

Out of all the patients in a hospital 89% are found to be suffering from heart ailment and 98% are suffering from lungs infection. If K% of them are suffering from both ailments, then K can not belong to the set :

  • (1) \{84, 86, 88, 90\}
  • (2) \{80, 83, 86, 89\}
  • (3) \{79, 81, 83, 85\}
  • (4) \{84, 87, 90, 93\}

Question 7:

The equation \(\arg\left(\frac{z - 1}{z + 1}\right) = \frac{\pi}{4}\) represents a circle with :

  • (1) centre at (0, 0) and radius \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (2) centre at (0, 1) and radius 2
  • (3) centre at (0, 1) and radius \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (4) centre at (0, -1) and radius \(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 8:

If a line along a chord of the circle \(4x^2 + 4y^2 + 120x + 675 = 0\), passes through the point \((-30, 0)\) and is tangent to the parabola \(y^2 = 30x\), then the length of this chord is :

  • (1) 7
  • (2) \(3\sqrt{5}\)
  • (3) 5
  • (4) \(5\sqrt{3}\)

Question 9:

The value of \(\int_{-1/\sqrt{2}}^{1/\sqrt{2}} \left[\left(\frac{x+1}{x-1}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{x-1}{x+1}\right)^2 - 2\right]^{1/2} dx\) is :

  • (1) \(4 \log_e (3 + 2\sqrt{2})\)
  • (2) \(\log_e 4\)
  • (3) \(\log_e 16\)
  • (4) \(2 \log_e 16\)

Question 10:

If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}} & \frac{2}{\sqrt{5}} \\ -\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}} & \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}} \end{bmatrix} \), \( B = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ i & 1 \end{bmatrix} \), \( i = \sqrt{-1} \), and \( Q = A^T B A \), then the inverse of the matrix \( A Q^{2021} A^T \) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ -2021i & 1 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (2) \(\begin{bmatrix} \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}} & -2021 \\ 2021 & \frac{1}{\sqrt{5}} \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (3) \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & -2021i \\ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (4) \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 2021i & 1 \end{bmatrix}\)

Question 11:

If the sum of an infinite GP \(a, ar, ar^2, ar^3, \dots\) is 15 and the sum of the squares of its each term is 150, then the sum of \(ar^2, ar^4, ar^6, \dots\) is :

  • (1) \(5/2\)
  • (2) \(1/2\)
  • (3) \(9/2\)
  • (4) \(25/2\)

Question 12:

The sum of solutions of the equation \(\frac{\cos x}{1 + \sin x} = |\tan 2x|\), \(x \in \left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right) - \left\{\frac{\pi}{4}, -\frac{\pi}{4}\right\}\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{\pi}{10}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{11\pi}{30}\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{7\pi}{30}\)
  • (4) \(-\frac{\pi}{15}\)

Question 13:

On the ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{8} + \frac{y^2}{4} = 1\) let \(P\) be a point in the second quadrant such that the tangent at \(P\) to the ellipse is perpendicular to the line \(x + 2y = 0\). Let \(S\) and \(S'\) be the foci of the ellipse and \(e\) be its eccentricity. If \(A\) is the area of the triangle \(SPS'\) then, the value of \((5 - e^2) \cdot A\) is :

  • (1) 24
  • (2) 14
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 6

Question 14:

The sum of the series \(\frac{1}{x+1} + \frac{2}{x^2+1} + \frac{2^2}{x^4+1} + \dots + \frac{2^{100}}{x^{2^{100}}+1}\) when \(x = 2\) is :

  • (1) \(1 - \frac{2^{101}}{4^{101}-1}\)
  • (2) \(1 - \frac{2^{100}}{4^{100}-1}\)
  • (3) \(1 + \frac{2^{101}}{4^{101}-1}\)
  • (4) \(1 + \frac{2^{100}}{4^{100}-1}\)

Question 15:

If \({}^{20}C_r\) is the co-efficient of \(x^r\) in the expansion of \((1+x)^{20\lt /strong\gt \), then the value of \(\sum_{r=0}^{20} r^2 \cdot {}^{20}C_r\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(420 \times 2^{19}\)
  • (2) \(380 \times 2^{19}\)
  • (3) \(380 \times 2^{18}\)
  • (4) \(420 \times 2^{18}\)

Question 16:

Let \(\vec{a} = \hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k}\) and \(\vec{b} = \hat{j} - \hat{k}\). If \(\vec{c}\) is a vector such that \(\vec{a} \times \vec{c} = \vec{b}\) and \(\vec{a} \cdot \vec{c} = 3\), then \(\vec{a} \cdot (\vec{b} \times \vec{c})\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(-2\)
  • (2) 2
  • (3) \(-6\)
  • (4) 6

Question 17:

A plane \(P\) contains the line \(x + 2y + 3z + 1 = 0 = x - y - z - 6\), and is perpendicular to the plane \(-2x + y + z + 8 = 0\). Then which of the following points lies on \(P\) ?

  • (1) \((2, -1, 1)\)
  • (2) \((0, 1, 1)\)
  • (3) \((1, 0, 1)\)
  • (4) \((-1, 1, 2)\)

Question 18:

The value of \(\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{r=0}^{2n-1} \frac{n^2}{n^2 + 4r^2}\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4} \tan^{-1}(4)\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1}(4)\)
  • (3) \(\tan^{-1}(4)\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1}(2)\)

Question 19:

Let \(ABC\) be a triangle with \(A(-3, 1)\) and \(\angle ACB = \theta, 0<\theta \leq \frac{\pi}{2}\). If the equation of the median through \(B\) is \(2x + y - 3 = 0\) and the equation of angle bisector of \(C\) is \(7x - 4y - 1 = 0\), then \(\tan \theta\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (4) 2

Question 20:

If the truth value of the Boolean expression \(((p \vee q) \wedge (q \to r) \wedge (\sim r)) \to (p \wedge q)\) is false, then the truth values of the statements \(p, q, r\) respectively can be :

  • (1) \(T, F, T\)
  • (2) \(T, F, F\)
  • (3) \(F, T, F\)
  • (4) \(T, T, F\)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:
Let \( z = \frac{1 - i\sqrt{3}}{2}, \, i = \sqrt{-1} \). Then the value of

\[ 21 + \left( z + \frac{1}{z} \right)^3 + \left( z^2 + \frac{1}{z^2} \right)^3 + \left( z^3 + \frac{1}{z^3} \right)^3 + \dots + \left( z^{21} + \frac{1}{z^{21}} \right)^3 \] is _________.


Question 22:

The sum of all integral values of \(k\) (\(k \neq 0\)) for which the equation \(\frac{2}{x - 1} - \frac{1}{x - 2} = \frac{2}{k}\) in \(x\) has no real roots, is _________.


Question 23:

If \({}^1P_1 + 2 \cdot {}^2P_2 + 3 \cdot {}^3P_3 + \dots + 15 \cdot {}^{15}P_{15} = {}^qP_r - s\), where \(0 \leq s \leq 1\), then \(q + s + {}^qC_{r - s}\) is equal to _________.


Question 24:

A wire of length 36 m is cut into two pieces, one of the pieces is bent to form a square and the other is bent to form a circle. If the sum of the areas of the two figures is minimum, and the circumference of the circle is \(k\) (meter), then \(\left( \frac{4}{\pi} + 1 \right)k\) is equal to _________.


Question 25:

The area of the region \(S = \{(x, y) : 3x^2 \leq 4y \leq 6x + 24\}\) is _________.


Question 26:

The locus of a point, which moves such that the sum of squares of its distances from the points (0, 0), (1, 0), (0, 1), (1, 1) is 18 units, is a circle of diameter \(d\). Then \(d^2\) is equal to _________.


Question 27:

If \(y = y(x)\) is an implicit function of \(x\) such that \(\log_e (x + y) = 4xy\), then \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\) at \(x = 0\) is equal to _________.


Question 28:

The number of three-digit even numbers, formed by the digits 0, 1, 3, 4, 6, 7 if the repetition of digits is not allowed, is _________.


Question 29:

Let \( a, b \in \mathbb{R}, b \neq 0 \). Define a function \[ f(x) = \begin{cases} a \sin \frac{\pi}{2}(x - 1), & \text{for } x \leq 0 \\ \frac{\tan 2x - \sin 2x}{bx^3}, & \text{for } x > 0 \end{cases} \] If \( f \) is continuous at \( x = 0 \), then \( 10 - ab \) is equal to ________.


Question 30:

Let the line \(L\) be the projection of the line \[ \frac{x - 1}{2} = \frac{y - 3}{1} = \frac{z - 4}{2} \] in the plane \(x - 2y - z = 3\). If \(d\) is the distance of the point \((0, 0, 6)\) from \(L\), then \(d^2\) is equal to _________.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

The fractional change in the magnetic field intensity at a distance 'r' from centre on the axis of current carrying coil of radius 'a' to the magnetic field intensity at the centre of the same coil is : (Take \(r \ll a\))

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2} \frac{a^2}{r^2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2}{3} \frac{a^2}{r^2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3} \frac{r^2}{a^2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{2} \frac{r^2}{a^2}\)

Question 32:

The magnitude of vectors \(\vec{OA}\), \(\vec{OB}\) and \(\vec{OC}\) in the given figure are equal. The direction of \(\vec{OA} + \vec{OB} - \vec{OC}\) with x-axis will be : 

  • (1) \(\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1 - \sqrt{3} - \sqrt{2}}{1 + \sqrt{3} + \sqrt{2}} \right)\)
  • (2) \(\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{\sqrt{3} - 1 + \sqrt{2}}{1 + \sqrt{3} - \sqrt{2}} \right)\)
  • (3) \(\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{1 + \sqrt{3} - \sqrt{2}}{1 - \sqrt{3} - \sqrt{2}} \right)\)
  • (4) \(\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{\sqrt{3} - 1 + \sqrt{2}}{1 - \sqrt{3} + \sqrt{2}} \right)\)

Question 33:

Car B overtakes another car A at a relative speed of 40 \(ms^{-1\lt /strong\gt \). How fast will the image of car B appear to move in the mirror of focal length 10 cm fitted in car A, when the car B is 1.9 m away from the car A ?

  • (1) \(0.1\) \(ms^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(0.2\) \(ms^{-1}\)
  • (3) 40 \(ms^{-1}\)
  • (4) 4 \(ms^{-1}\)

Question 34:

Inside a uniform spherical shell :
(a) the gravitational field is zero.
(b) the gravitational potential is zero.
(c) the gravitational field is same everywhere.
(d) the gravitation potential is same everywhere.
(e) all of the above
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (b), (c) and (d) only
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (3) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (4) (e) only

Question 35:

Two narrow bores of diameter 5.0 mm and 8.0 mm are joined together to form a U-shaped tube open at both ends. If this U-tube contains water, what is the difference in the level of two limbs of the tube. [Take surface tension of water \(T = 7.3 \times 10^{-2}\) \(Nm^{-1}\), angle of contact \(= 0\), \(g = 10\) \(ms^{-2}\) and density of water \(= 1.0 \times 10^3\) kg \(m^{-3}\)]

  • (1) 5.34 mm
  • (2) 3.62 mm
  • (3) 4.97 mm
  • (4) 2.19 mm

Question 36:

An electric appliance supplies 6000 J/min heat to the system. If the system delivers a power of 90 W. How long it would take to increase the internal energy by \(2.5 \times 10^3\) J ?

  • (1) \(2.5 \times 10^1\) s
  • (2) \(2.5 \times 10^2\) s
  • (3) \(2.4 \times 10^3\) s
  • (4) \(4.1 \times 10^1\) s

Question 37:

An inductor coil stores 64 J of magnetic field energy and dissipates energy at the rate of 640 W when a current of 8 A is passed through it. If this coil is joined across an ideal battery, find the time constant of the circuit in seconds :

  • (1) 0.2
  • (2) 0.4
  • (3) 0.8
  • (4) 0.125

Question 38:

A series LCR circuit driven by 300 V at a frequency of 50 Hz contains a resistance \(R = 3 \text{ k} \Omega\), an inductor of inductive reactance \(X_L = 250 \pi \text{ } \Omega\) and an unknown capacitor. The value of capacitance to maximize the average power should be : (take \(\pi^2 = 10\))

  • (1) 400 \(\mu\)F
  • (2) 40 \(\mu\)F
  • (3) 25 \(\mu\)F
  • (4) 4 \(\mu\)F

Question 39:

Identify the logic operation carried out by the given circuit : 

  • (1) AND
  • (2) OR
  • (3) NAND
  • (4) NOR

Question 40:

A particular hydrogen like ion emits radiation of frequency \(2.92 \times 10^{15}\) Hz when it makes transition from n=3 to n=1. The frequency in Hz of radiation emitted in transition from n=2 to n=1 will be :

  • (1) \(4.38 \times 10^{15}\)
  • (2) \(6.57 \times 10^{15}\)
  • (3) \(0.44 \times 10^{15}\)
  • (4) \(2.46 \times 10^{15}\)

Question 41:

In a photoelectric experiment ultraviolet light of wavelength 280 nm is used with lithium cathode having work function \(\phi = 2.5\) eV. If the wavelength of incident light is switched to 400 nm, find out the change in the stopping potential. (\(h=6.63 \times 10^{-34}\) Js, \(c=3 \times 10^8\) \(ms^{-1}\))

  • (1) 1.3 V
  • (2) 1.9 V
  • (3) 0.6 V
  • (4) 1.1 V

Question 42:

In the given figure, the emf of the cell is 2.2 V and if internal resistance is 0.6 \(\Omega\). Calculate the power dissipated in the whole circuit : 

  • (1) 2.2 W
  • (2) 4.4 W
  • (3) 0.65 W
  • (4) 1.32 W

Question 43:

A solid metal sphere of radius R having charge q is enclosed inside the concentric spherical shell of inner radius a and outer radius b as shown in figure. The approximate variation electric field \(\vec{E}\) as a function of distance r from centre O is given by : 

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 44:

The rms speeds of the molecules of Hydrogen, Oxygen and Carbondioxide at the same temperature are \(V_H\), \(V_O\) and \(V_C\) respectively then :

  • (1) \(V_H = V_O = V_C\)
  • (2) \(V_H = V_O>V_C\)
  • (3) \(V_H>V_O>V_C\)
  • (4) \(V_C>V_O>V_H\)

Question 45:

In a Screw Gauge, fifth division of the circular scale coincides with the reference line when the ratchet is closed. There are 50 divisions on the circular scale, and the main scale moves by 0.5 mm on a complete rotation. For a particular observation the reading on the main scale is 5 mm and the 20th division of the circular scale coincides with reference line. Calculate the true reading.

  • (1) 5.20 mm
  • (2) 5.25 mm
  • (3) 5.15 mm
  • (4) 5.00 mm

Question 46:

What equal length of an iron wire and a copper-nickel alloy wire, each of 2 mm diameter connected parallel to give an equivalent resistance of 3 \(\Omega\) ? (Given resistivities of iron and copper-nickel alloy wire are 12 \(\mu\Omega\) cm and 51 \(\mu\Omega\) cm respectively)

  • (1) 110 m
  • (2) 97 m
  • (3) 90 m
  • (4) 82 m

Question 47:

The initial mass of a rocket is 1000 kg. Calculate at what rate the fuel should be burnt so that the rocket is given an acceleration of 20 \(ms^{-2}\). The gases come out at a relative speed of 500 \(ms^{-1}\) with respect to the rocket : [Use \(g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\)]

  • (1) 60 kg \(s^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(6.0 \times 10^2\) kg \(s^{-1}\)
  • (3) 500 kg \(s^{-1}\)
  • (4) 10 kg \(s^{-1}\)

Question 48:

If E, L, M and G denote the quantities as energy, angular momentum, mass and constant of gravitation respectively, then the dimensions of P in the formula \(P = E L^2 M^{-5} G^{-2}\) are :

  • (1) \([M^1 L^1 T^{-2}]\)
  • (2) \([M^{-1} L^{-1} T^2]\)
  • (3) \([M^0 L^1 T^0]\)
  • (4) \([M^0 L^0 T^0]\)

Question 49:

The material filled between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor has resistivity 200 \(\Omega\)m. The value of capacitance of the capacitor is 2 pF. If a potential difference of 40 V is applied across the plates of the capacitor, then the value of leakage current flowing out of the capacitor is : (given the value of relative permittivity of material is 50)

  • (1) 9.0 mA
  • (2) 0.9 mA
  • (3) 0.9 \(\mu\)A
  • (4) 9.0 \(\mu\)A

Question 50:

Statement I : By doping silicon semiconductor with pentavalent material, the electrons density increases.
Statement II : The n-type semiconductor has net negative charge.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A uniform chain of length 3 meter and mass 3 kg overhangs a smooth table with 2 meter laying on the table. If k is the kinetic energy of the chain in joule as it completely slips off the table, then the value of k is _________.
(Take \(g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\))


Question 52:

The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by
\(\vec{E} = 200 \cos \left[ \left( \frac{0.5 \times 10^3}{\text{m}} \right) x - (1.5 \times 10^{11} \frac{\text{rad}}{\text{s}} \times t) \right] \frac{\text{V}}{\text{m}} \hat{j}\).
If this wave falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface having an area of \(100 \text{ cm}^2\). If the radiation pressure exerted by the E.M. wave on the surface during a 10 minute exposure is \(\frac{x}{10^9} \frac{\text{N}}{\text{m}^2}\). Find the value of \(x\).


Question 53:

Two spherical balls having equal masses with radius of 5 cm each are thrown upwards along the same vertical direction at an interval of 3 s with the same initial velocity of 35 m/s, then these balls collide at a height of _________ m.
(take \(g = 10 \text{ m/s}^2\))


Question 54:

A soap bubble of radius 3 cm is formed inside the another soap bubble of radius 6 cm. The radius of an equivalent soap bubble which has the same excess pressure as inside the smaller bubble with respect to the atmospheric pressure is _________ cm.


Question 55:

Two short magnetic dipoles \(m_1\) and \(m_2\) each having magnetic moment of \(1 \text{ Am}^2\) are placed at point O and P respectively. The distance between OP is 1 meter. The torque experienced by the magnetic dipole \(m_2\) due to the presence of \(m_1\) is _________ \(\times 10^{-7} \text{ Nm}\).
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Question 56:

Two travelling waves produces a standing wave represented by equation. \(y = 1.0 \text{ mm} \cos(1.57 \text{ cm}^{-1})x \sin(78.5 \text{ s}^{-1})t\). The node closest to the origin in the region \(x>0\) will be at \(x = \)_________ cm.


Question 57:

White light is passed through a double slit and interference is observed on a screen 1.5 m away. The separation between the slits is 0.3 mm. The first violet and red fringes are formed 2.0 mm and 3.5 mm away from the central white fringes. The difference in wavelengths of red and violet light is _________ nm.


Question 58:

Consider a badminton racket with length scales as shown in the figure. 

If the mass of the linear and circular portions of the badminton racket are same (M) and the mass of the threads are negligible, the moment of inertia of the racket about an axis perpendicular to the handle and in the plane of the ring at, \(\frac{r}{2}\) distance from the end A of the handle will be _________ \(Mr^2\). 
 


Question 59:

A source and a detector move away from each other in absence of wind with a speed of 20 m/s with respect to the ground. If the detector detects a frequency of 1800 Hz of the sound coming from the source, then the original frequency of source considering speed of sound in air 340 m/s will be _________ Hz.


Question 60:

An amplitude modulated wave is represented by \(C_m(t) = 10(1 + 0.2 \cos 12560 t) \sin(111 \times 10^4 t)\) volts. The modulating frequency in kHz will be _________.


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Which one of the following complexes is violet in colour ?

  • (1) \([Fe(SCN)_6]^{3-}\)
  • (2) \([Fe(CN)_5 NOS]^{4-}\)
  • (3) \(Fe_4[Fe(CN)_6]_3 \cdot H_2O\)
  • (4) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}\)

Question 62:

Which one of the following when dissolved in water gives coloured solution in nitrogen atmosphere ?

  • (1) \(ZnCl_2\)
  • (2) \(CuCl_2\)
  • (3) \(Cu_2Cl_2\)
  • (4) \(AgCl\)

Question 63:

The major products formed in the following reaction sequence A and B are : 

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 64:

The major product formed in the following reaction is :

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 65:

The major product formed in the following reaction is : 

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 66:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The limiting molar conductivity of KCl (strong electrolyte) is higher compared to that of \(CH_3COOH\) (weak electrolyte).
Statement II : Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration of electrolyte.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 67:

The correct options for the products A and B of the following reactions are : 

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 68:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : In the titration between strong acid and weak base methyl orange is suitable as an indicator.
Statement II : For titration of acetic acid with NaOH phenolphthalein is not a suitable indicator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 69:

Among the following compounds I-IV, which one forms a yellow precipitate on reacting sequentially with (i) NaOH (ii) dil. \(HNO_3\) (iii) \(AgNO_3\)? 

  • (1) I
  • (2) II
  • (3) III
  • (4) IV

Question 70:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : According to Bohr's model of an atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of electron increases with decrease in positive charges on the nucleus as there is no strong hold on the electron by the nucleus.
Statement II : According to Bohr's model of an atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of electron increases with decrease in principal quantum number.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 71:

The correct sequential addition of reagents in the preparation of 3-nitrobenzoic acid from benzene is :

  • (1) \(HNO_3/H_2SO_4\), \(Br_2/AlBr_3\), \(Mg/ether\), \(CO_2\), \(H_3O^+\)
  • (2) \(Br_2/AlBr_3\), \(NaCN\), \(H_3O^+\), \(HNO_3/H_2SO_4\)
  • (3) \(Br_2/AlBr_3\), \(HNO_3/H_2SO_4\), \(NaCN\), \(H_3O^+\)
  • (4) \(Br_2/AlBr_3\), \(HNO_3/H_2SO_4\), \(Mg/ether\), \(CO_2\), \(H_3O^+\)

Question 72:

Excess of isobutane on reaction with \(Br_2\) in presence of light at \(125^\circ C\) gives which one of the following, as the major product ? 

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 73:

Which one of the following is correct for the adsorption of a gas at a given temperature on a solid surface ?

  • (1) \(\Delta H>0, \Delta S>0\)
  • (2) \(\Delta H<0, \Delta S>0\)
  • (3) \(\Delta H>0, \Delta S<0\)
  • (4) \(\Delta H<0, \Delta S<0\)

Question 74:

The polymer formed on heating Novolac with formaldehyde is :

  • (1) Melamine
  • (2) Bakelite
  • (3) Polyester
  • (4) Nylon 6,6

Question 75:

The conversion of hydroxyapatite occurs due to presence of \(F^-\) ions in water. The correct formula of hydroxyapatite is :

  • (1) \([3Ca_3(PO_4)_2 \cdot CaF_2]\)
  • (2) \([Ca_3(PO_4)_2 \cdot CaF_2]\)
  • (3) \([3Ca_3(PO_4)_2 \cdot Ca(OH)_2]\)
  • (4) \([3Ca(OH)_2 \cdot CaF_2]\)

Question 76:

Which one of the following methods is most suitable for preparing deionized water ?

  • (1) Clark's method
  • (2) Synthetic resin method
  • (3) Calgon's method
  • (4) Permutit method

Question 77:

Given below are two statements.
Statement I : The choice of reducing agents for metals extraction can be made by using Ellingham diagram, a plot of \(\Delta G\) vs temperature.
Statement II : The value of \(\Delta S\) increases from left to right in Ellingham diagram.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 78:

What are the products formed in sequence when excess of \(CO_2\) is passed in slaked lime ?

  • (1) \(CaCO_3, Ca(HCO_3)_2\)
  • (2) \(Ca(HCO_3)_2, CaCO_3\)
  • (3) \(CaO, CaCO_3\)
  • (4) \(CaO, Ca(HCO_3)_2\)

Question 79:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Frenkel defects are vacancy as well as interstitial defects.
Statement II : Frenkel defect leads to colour in ionic solids due to presence of F-centres.
Choose the most appropriate answer for the statements from the options given below :

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 80:

The incorrect statement is :

  • (1) \(Cl_2\) is more reactive than \(ClF\)
  • (2) \(F_2\) is more reactive than \(ClF\)
  • (3) On hydrolysis \(ClF\) forms \(HOCl\) and \(HF\)
  • (4) \(F_2\) is a stronger oxidizing agent than \(Cl_2\) in aqueous solution

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

\(AB_3\) is an interhalogen T-shaped molecule. The number of lone pairs of electrons on A is _________. (Integer answer)


Question 82:

These are physical properties of an element
(A) Sublimation enthalpy
(B) Ionisation enthalpy
(C) Hydration enthalpy
(D) Electron gain enthalpy
The total number of above properties that affect the reduction potential is _________. (Integer answer)


Question 83:

Of the following four aqueous solutions, total number of those solutions whose freezing point is lower than that of 0.10 M \(C_2H_5OH\) is _________. (Integer answer)
(i) 0.10 M \(Ba_3(PO_4)_2\)
(ii) 0.10 M \(Na_2SO_4\)
(iii) 0.10 M KCl
(iv) 0.10 M \(Li_3PO_4\)


Question 84:

The \(OH^-\) concentration in a mixture of 5.0 mL of 0.0504 M \(NH_4Cl\) and 2 mL of 0.0210 M \(NH_3\) solution is \(x \times 10^{-6}\) M. The value of \(x\) is _________. (Nearest integer)
[Given \(K_w = 1 \times 10^{-14}\) and \(K_b = 1.8 \times 10^{-5}\)]


Question 85:

The number of 4f electrons in the ground state electronic configuration of \(Gd^{2+}\) is _________. [Atomic number of Gd = 64] (Integer answer)


Question 86:

The ratio of number of water molecules in Mohr's salt and potash alum is _________ \(\times 10^{-1}\). (Integer answer)


Question 87:

The following data was obtained for chemical reaction given below at 975 K: 

The order of the reaction with respect to NO is _________. (Integer answer) 
 


Question 88:

The Born-Haber cycle for KCl is evaluated with the following data:
\(\Delta_f H^\ominus\) for KCl = -436.7 kJ \(mol^{-1}\); \(\Delta_{sub} H^\ominus\) for K = 89.2 kJ \(mol^{-1}\);
\(\Delta_{ionization} H^\ominus\) for K = 419.0 kJ \(mol^{-1}\); \(\Delta_{electron gain} H^\ominus\) for \(Cl_{(g)\lt /strong\gt \) = -348.6 kJ \(mol^{-1}\);
\(\Delta_{bond} H^\ominus\) for \(Cl_2\) = 243.0 kJ \(mol^{-1}\).
The magnitude of lattice enthalpy of KCl in kJ \(mol^{-1}\) is _________. (Nearest integer)}


Question 89:

The total number of negative charge in the tetrapeptide, Gly-Glu-Asp-Tyr, at pH 12.5 will be _________. (Integer answer)


Question 90:

An aqueous KCl solution of density 1.20 g \(mL^{-1}\) has a molality of 3.30 mol \(kg^{-1}\). The molarity of the solution in mol \(L^{-1}\) is _________. (Nearest integer)
[Molar mass of KCl = 74.5]

JEE Main 2021 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions (75 to be attempted)
Total Marks300 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ; no negative marking for Numerical Value Questions

JEE Main 2021 August 26 Shift 1 Difficulty Level

JEE Main 2021 B.E./B.Tech August 26, 2021 Forenoon Question Paper was rated to be a little easier than the previous exam (July 27) and was overall moderate in terms of difficulty. The paper was the first paper of the JEE Main 4th session in 2021. Physics was the most difficult section of the paper, followed by Chemistry. Mathematics was the easiest of the three sections, with direct formula-based questions. Approximately 48 Questions were asked from class XII and 42 questions were from class XI JEE Main syllabus.

JEE Main 2021 B.E./B.Tech Question Paper August 26 (FN): Weightage of Topics

JEE Main 2021 B.E./B.Tech Paper on August 26 Forenoon Session was conducted between 9.00 AM to 12.00 Noon. The topics with the highest weightage in the question paper are:

Subject Topic Marks (including NATs)
Physics Current Electricity 12
Electrostatics 8
Heat and Thermodynamics 12
Rectilinear motion and vectors, Unit and Dimensions, Surface Tension 24 (8 marks each)
Atomic Physics 12
Chemistry d block and f block elements 8
Hydrocarbons 8
Polymers 8
Electrochemistry 8
Mole Concept 8
Mathematics Coordinate Geometry 12
Differential Calculus 8
Integral Calculus 12
Vectors 8
Matrices and Determinants 8