JEE Main 2022 June 25 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the first shift on June 25, 2022, from 9:00 AM to 12:00 PM. The JEE Main 2022 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, all compulsory, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, any 5 to be attempted, 4 marks each
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 300 (100 per subject)

JEE Main 2022 June 25 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2022 June 25 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

The value of \(\int\limits_0^π \frac {e^{cos⁡\ x} sin⁡x}{(1+cos^2⁡x)(e^{cos⁡\ x}+e^{−cos⁡\ x})}dx\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac {\pi^2}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac {\pi^2}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac {\pi}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac {\pi}{2}\)

Question 2:

Let \(ƒ : N→R\) be a function such that \(ƒ(x + y) = 2ƒ(x) ƒ(y)\) for natural numbers x and y. If \(ƒ(1) = 2\), then the value of α for which \(\displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{10} f(α+k)=\frac {512}{3} (2^{20}−1)\) holds, is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 6

Question 3:

Let A be a \(3×3\) real matrix such that \(A\begin{pmatrix}   1 \\1  \\ 0  \end{pmatrix}\)=\(\begin{pmatrix}   1 \\1  \\ 0  \end{pmatrix}\); \(A\begin{pmatrix}   1 \\0  \\ 1  \end{pmatrix}\)=\(A\begin{pmatrix}   -1 \\0  \\ 1  \end{pmatrix}\) and \(A\begin{pmatrix}   0 \\0  \\ 1  \end{pmatrix}\)=\(\begin{pmatrix}   1 \\1  \\ 2  \end{pmatrix}\)
If \(X = [x_1, x_2, x_3]^T \)and \(I\) is an identity matrix of order \(3\), then the system \([A−2I]X \)= \(\begin{pmatrix}   4 \\1  \\ 1 \end{pmatrix}\) has:

  • (1) No solution
  • (2) Infinitely many solutions
  • (3) Unique solution
  • (4) Exactly two solutions

Question 4:

Let \(ƒ : R→R\) be defined as \(ƒ(x) = x^3 + x – 5\) . If g(x) is a function such that \(ƒ(g(x)) = x\), ∀‘x‘∈R. Then \(g^′(63)\) is equal to_____.

  • (1) \(\frac {1}{49}\)
  • (2) \(\frac {3}{49}\)
  • (3) \(\frac {43}{49}\)
  • (4) \(\frac {91}{49}\)

Question 5:

If \(\frac {1}{2⋅3^{10}}+\frac {1}{2^2⋅3^9}+⋯+\frac {1}{2^{10}⋅3} = \frac {K}{2^{10}⋅3^{10}}.\) Then the remainder when \(K\) is divided by \(6\) is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 5

Question 6:

Let \(ƒ(x)\) be a polynomial function such that \(ƒ(x) + ƒ^′(x) + ƒ^{′′}(x) = x^5 + 64\). Then, the value of \(\lim\limits_{x \to 1}\frac {f(x)}{x−1}\) is equal to :

  • (1) -15
  • (2) -60
  • (3) 60
  • (4) 15

Question 7:

Let \(E_1\) and \(E_2\) be two events such that the conditional probabilities \(P(E_1|E_2)=\frac 12\), \(P(E_2|E_1)=\frac 34\) and \(P(E_1∩E_2)=\frac 18\)⋅ Then:

  • (1) \(P(E_1∩E_2)=P(E_1)⋅P(E_2)\)
  • (2) \(P(E'_1∩E'_2)=P(E'_1)⋅P(E'_2)\)
  • (3) \(P(E_1∩E'_2)=P(E_1)⋅P(E_2)\)
  • (4) \(P(E'_1∩E_2)=P(E_1)⋅P(E_2)\)

Question 8:

Let \(A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -2 \\[0.3em] 2 & 0 \end{bmatrix}\). If \(M\) and \(N\) are two matrices given by \(M = \displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{10} A^{2k}\) and \(N = \displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{10} A^{2k-1}\)
then \(MN^2 \) is :

  • (1) a non-identity symmetric matrix
  • (2) a skew-symmetric matrix
  • (3) neither symmetric nor skew-symmetric matrix
  • (4) an identity matrix

Question 9:

Let \(g : (0, ∞) →R\) be a differentiable function such that \(∫(\frac {x(cos⁡x−sin⁡x)}{e^x+1} + \frac {g(x)(e^x+1−xe^x)}{(e^x+1)2})dx = \frac {xg(x)}{e^x+1}+c,\) for all \(x>0\), where c is an arbitrary constant. Then:

  • (1) g is decreasing in \((0, \frac \pi4)\)
  • (2) g′ is increasing in \((0, \frac \pi4)\)
  • (3) g+g′ is increasing in \((0, \frac \pi2)\)
  • (4) g-g' is increasing in \((0, \frac \pi2)\)

Question 10:

Let \(f :R→R\) and \(g : R→R\) be two functions defined by \(f(x) = log_e(x^2 + 1) – e^{–x} + 1\) and \(g(x)=\frac {1−2e^{2x}}{e^x}\). Then, for which of the following range of α, the inequality \(f(g((\frac {α−1)^2}{3}))>f(g(α−\frac 53))\) holds?

  • (1) (2, 3)
  • (2) (–2, –1)
  • (3) (1, 2)
  • (4) (–1, 1)

Question 11:

Let \(\vec a=a_1\hat i+a_2\hat j+a_3\hat k\), \(a_i>0,\ i=1, 2, 3\) be a vector which makes equal angles with the coordinate axes OX, OY and OZ. Also, let the projection of \(\vec a\) on the vector \(3\hat i+4\hat j\) be 7. Let \(\vec b\) be a vector obtained by rotating \(\vec a\) with 90°. If \(\vec a,\vec b\) and x-axis are co-planar, then projection of a vector \(\vec b\) on \(3\hat i+4\hat j\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\sqrt 7\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt 2\)
  • (3) \(2\)
  • (4) \(7\)

Question 12:

Let \(y = y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation \((x + 1)y' – y = e^{3x}(x + 1)^2\), with \(y(0)=\frac 13\). Then, the point \(x=−\frac 43\) for the curve \(y = y(x)\) is :

  • (1) not a critical point
  • (2) a point of local minima
  • (3) a point of local maxima
  • (4) a point of inflection

Question 13:

If the solution curve \(y = y(x)\) of the differential equation\( y^2dx + (x^2 – xy + y^2)dy = 0\), which passes through the point \((1,1)\) and intersects the line \(y=\sqrt 3x\) at the point \((α,\sqrt 3α)\), then value of \(log_e(\sqrt 3α)\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac {\pi}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac {\pi}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac {\pi}{12}\)
  • (4) \(\frac {\pi}{6}\)

Question 14:

Let \(x=2t,\ y=\frac {t^2}{3}\) be a conic. Let S be the focus and B be the point on the axis of the conic such that SA⊥BA, where A is any point on the conic. If k is the ordinate of the centroid of the ΔSAB, then \(\lim\limits_{t \to 1} k\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac {17}{18}\)
  • (2) \(\frac {19}{18}\)
  • (3) \(\frac {11}{18}\)
  • (4) \(\frac {13}{18}\)

Question 15:

Let a circle C in complex plane pass through the points \(z_1 = 3 + 4i\), \(z_2 = 4 + 3i\) and \(z_3 = 5i\). If \(z(≠z_1)\) is a point on C such that the line through \(z\) and \(z_1\) is perpendicular to the line through \(z_2\) and \(z_3\), then \(arg\ (z)\) is equal to:

  • (1) \(tan^{-1}(\frac {2}{\sqrt5})-\pi\)
  • (2) \(tan^{-1}(\frac {24}{7})-\pi\)
  • (3) \(tan^{-1}(3)-\pi\)
  • (4) \(tan^{-1}(\frac 34)-\pi\)

Question 16:

Let a circle C touch the lines L1 : 4x – 3y +K1 = 0 and L2 : 4x – 3y + K2 = 0, K1, K2∈R. If a line passing through the centre of the circle C intersects L1 at (–1, 2) and L2 at (3, –6), then the equation of the circle C is :

  • (1) (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = 4
  • (2) (x + 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = 4
  • (3) (x – 1)2 + (y + 2)2 = 16
  • (4) (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = 16

Question 17:

Let a, b and c be the length of sides of a triangle ABC such that:
\(\frac {a+b}{7}=\frac {b+c}{8}=\frac {c+a}{9}\)
If \(r\) and \(R\) are the radius of incircle and radius of circumcircle of the triangle ABC, respectively, then the value of \(\frac Rr\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(\frac 52\)
  • (2) \(2\)
  • (3) \(\frac 32\)
  • (4) \(1\)

Question 18:

Consider the following two propositions:
\(P_1 : ~ (p → ~ q)\)
\(P_2: (p ∧ ~q) ∧ ((-~p) ∨ q)\)
If the proposition \(p → ((~p) ∨ q)\) is evaluated as FALSE, then:

  • (1) P1 is TRUE and P2 is FALSE
  • (2) P1 is FALSE and P2 is TRUE
  • (3) Both P1 and P2 are FALSE
  • (4) Both P1 and P2 are TRUE

Question 19:

If \(y = m_1x + c_1 \)and \(y = m_2x + c_2\), \(m_1≠m_2\) are two common tangents of circle \(x_2 + y_2 = 2\) and parabola \(y^2 = x\), then the value of \(8|m_1m_2|\) is equal to :

  • (1) \(3+4\sqrt 2\)
  • (2) \(-5+6\sqrt 2\)
  • (3) \(-4+3\sqrt 2\)
  • (4) \(7+6\sqrt 2\)

Question 20:

Let \(Q\) be the mirror image of the point \(P(1, 0, 1)\) with respect to the plane \(S\): \(x + y + z = 5\). If a line L passing through \((1, –1, –1)\), parallel to the line \(PQ\) meets the plane \(S\) at \(R\), then \(QR_2\) is equal to :

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 11

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

The number of 3-digit odd numbers, whose sum of digits is a multiple of 7, is ________.


Question 22:

Let \(θ\) be the angle between the vectors \(\vec a\) and \(\vec b\), where \(|\vec a|=4\), \(|\vec b|=3\) and \(θ(\frac \pi 4,\ \frac \pi3)\) . Then \(|(\vec a−\vec b)×(\vec a+\vec b)|^2+4(\vec a.\vec b)^2\) is equal to ______.


Question 23:

Let the abscissae of the two points \(P\) and \(Q\) be the roots of \(2x^2 – rx + p = 0\) and the ordinates of \(P\) and \(Q\) be the roots of \(x^2 – sx – q = 0\). If the equation of the circle described on \(PQ\) as diameter is \(2(x^2 + y^2) – 11x – 14y – 22 = 0\), then \(2r + s – 2q + p\) is equal to _________.


Question 24:

Let \(f :R→R\) be a function defined by \(f(x)=(2(1−\frac {x^{25}}{2})(2+x^{25}))^{\frac {1}{50}}\). If the function \(g(x) = f (f (f (x))) + f (f (x))\), then the greatest integer less than or equal to \(g(1)\) is _________.


Question 25:

Let A be a 3 × 3 matrix having entries from the set {–1, 0, 1}. The number of all such matrices A having sum of all the entries equal to 5, is ______.


Question 26:

Let \(C_r\) denote the binomial coefficient of \(x^r \)in the expansion of \((1 + x)^{10}\). If for \(α, β∈R\), \(C_1 + 3⋅2 C_2 + 5⋅3 C_3 + …\) upto 10 terms =\(\frac {α×211}{2^β−1}(C_0+\frac {C_1}{2}+\frac {C_2}{3}…..\)upto 10 terms) then the value of \(α + β\) is equal to _______.


Question 27:

The number of values of x in the interval \((\frac \pi 4, \frac {7\pi }{4})\) for which \(14cosec^2x – 2sin^2x = 21 – 4cos^2x\) holds, is ______.


Question 28:

For a natural number \(n\), let \(α_n = 19n – 12n\). Then, the value of \(\frac {31α_9−α_{10}}{57α_8}\) is _____.


Question 29:

Let the lines
\(L_1:\vec r=λ(\hat i+2\hat j+3 \hat k), \ λ∈R\)
\(L_2:\vec r=(\hat i+3\hat j+\hat  k)+μ(\hat i+\hat j+\hat 5k), \ μ∈R\)
intersect at the point \(S\). If a plane \(ax + by – z + d = 0\) passes through \(S\) and is parallel to both the lines \(L_1\) and \(L_2\) then the value of \(a + b + d\) is equal to _______.


Question 30:

The greatest integer less than or equal to the sum of first \(100\) terms of the sequence \(\frac 13, \frac 59, \frac {19}{27}, \frac {65}{81},…...\) is equal to ______.


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

If \(Z=\frac {A^2B^3}{C^4},\) then the relative error in Z will be

  • (1) \(\frac {△A}{A}+\frac {△B}{B}+\frac {△C}{C}\)
  • (2) \(\frac {2△A}{A}+\frac {3△B}{B}-\frac {4△C}{C}\)
  • (3) \(\frac {2△A}{A}+\frac {3△B}{B}+\frac {4△C}{C}\)
  • (4) \(\frac {△A}{A}+\frac {△B}{B}-\frac {△C}{C}\)

Question 32:

\(\vec A\) is a vector quantity such that
\(|\vec A|\) = non-zero constant.
Which of the following expression is true for \(\vec A\)?

  • (1) \(\vec A.\vec A=0\)
  • (2) \(\vec A \times \vec A<0\)
  • (3) \(\vec A \times\vec A=0\)
  • (4) \(\vec A \times\vec A>0\)

Question 33:

Which of the following relations is true for two unit vector \(\hat A\) and \(\hat B\) making an angle θ to each other?

  • (1) \(|\hat A+\hat B| = |\hat A-\hat B|\ tan\frac {θ}{2}\)
  • (2) \(|\hat A-\hat B| = |\hat A+\hat B|\ tan\frac {θ}{2}\)
  • (3) \(|\hat A+\hat B| = |\hat A-\hat B|\ cos\frac {θ}{2}\)
  • (4) \(|\hat A-\hat B| = |\hat A+\hat B|\ cos\frac {θ}{2}\)

Question 34:

If force \(\vec F=3\hat i+4\hat j−2\hat k\) acts on a particle having position vector \(2\hat i+\hat j+2\hat k\) then, the torque about the origin will be

  • (1) \(3\hat i+4\hat j−2\hat k\)
  • (2) \(-10\hat i+10\hat j+5\hat k\)
  • (3) \(10\hat i+5\hat j-10\hat k\)
  • (4) \(10\hat i+\hat j-5\hat k\)

Question 35:

The height of any point P above the surface of earth is equal to diameter of earth. The value of acceleration due to gravity at point P will be (Given g = acceleration due to gravity at the surface of earth).

  • (1) \(\frac g2\)
  • (2) \(\frac g4\)
  • (3) \(\frac g3\)
  • (4) \(\frac g9\)

Question 36:

The terminal velocity \((v_t)\) of the spherical rain drop depends on the radius (r) of the spherical rain drop as

  • (1) \(r^{\frac 12}\)
  • (2) \(r\)
  • (3) \(r^2\)
  • (4) \(r^3\)

Question 37:

The relation between root mean square speed \((v_{rms})\) and most probable speed (\(v_p\)) for the molar mass M of oxygen gas molecule at the temperature of 300 K will be

  • (1) \(v_{rms} = \sqrt {\frac 23}v_p\)
  • (2) \(v_{rms} = \sqrt {\frac 32}v_p\)
  • (3) \(v_{rms} = v_p\)
  • (4) \(v_{rms} = \sqrt {\frac 13}v_p\)

Question 38:

In the figure, a very large plane sheet of positive charge is shown. \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) are two points at distance \(l \) and \(2l\) from the charge distribution. If \(σ \) is the surface charge density, then the magnitude of electric fields \(E_1\) and \(E_2\) and \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) respectively are

  • (1) \(E_1 = \frac {σ}{ε_0}, E_2 = \frac {σ}{2ε_0}\)
  • (2) \(E_1 = \frac {2σ}{ε_0}, E_2 = \frac {σ}{ε_0}\)
  • (3) \(E_1 = E_2 = \frac {σ}{2ε_0}\)
  • (4) \(E_1 = E_2 = \frac {σ}{ε_0}\)

Question 39: Match List-I with List-II
List-IList-II
(A) AC generator(I) Detects the presence of current in the circuit
(B) Galvanometer(II) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
(C) Transformer(III) Works on the principle of resonance in AC circuit
(D) Metal detector(IV) Changes an alternating voltage for smaller or greater value
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
  • (1) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
  • (2) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
  • (3) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
  • (4) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)

Question 40:

A long straight wire with a circular cross-section having radius R, is carrying a steady current I. The current I is uniformly distributed across this cross-section. Then the variation of magnetic field due to current I with distance r (r < R) from its centre

  • (1) \(B∝r^2\)
  • (2) \(B∝r\)
  • (3) \(B∝\frac {1}{r^2}\)
  • (4) \(B∝\frac {1}{r}\)

Question 41:

If wattless current flows in the AC circuit, then the circuit is:

  • (1) Purely Resistive circuit
  • (2) Purely Inductive circuit
  • (3) LCR series circuit
  • (4) RC series circuit only

Question 42:

The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by \(E = 56.5\ sin ω(t – \frac xc)\ NC^{–1}\). Find the intensity of the wave if it is propagating along x-axis in the free space. (Given \(∈_0 = 8.85 × 10^{–12} C^2N^{–1}m^{–2}\))

  • (1) \(5.65\ Wm^{–2}\)
  • (2) \(4.24\ Wm^{–2}\)
  • (3) \(1.9 × 10–7\ Wm^{–2}\)
  • (4) \(56.5\ Wm^{–2}\)

Question 43:

The two light beams having intensities \(I\) and \(9I\) interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen. The phase difference between the beams is \(\frac {\pi}{2}\) at point P and \(\pi\) at point Q. Then the difference between the resultant intensities at P and Q will be:

  • (1) \(2I\)
  • (2) \(6I\)
  • (3) \(5I\)
  • (4) \(7I\)

Question 44:

A light wave travelling linearly in a medium of dielectric constant 4, incidents on the horizontal interface separating medium with air. The angle of incidence for which the total intensity of incident wave will be reflected back into the same medium will be:
(Given : relative permeability of medium μr = 1)

  • (1) 10°
  • (2) 20°
  • (3) 30°
  • (4) 60°

Question 45:

The ratio for the speed of the electron in the 3rd orbit of He+ to the speed of the electron in the 3rd orbit of hydrogen atom will be :

  • (1) 1:1
  • (2) 1:2
  • (3) 4:1
  • (4) 2:1

Question 46:

The photodiode is used to detect the optical signals. These diodes are preferably operated in reverse biased mode because:

  • (1) fractional change in majority carriers produce higher forward bias current.
  • (2) fractional change in majority carriers produce higher reverse bias current.
  • (3) fractional change in minority carriers produce higher forward bias current.
  • (4) fractional change in minority carriers produce higher reverse bias current.

Question 47:

The difference of speed of light in the two media A and B(υA – υB) is 2.6 × 107 m/s. If the refractive index of medium B is 1.47, then the ratio of refractive index of medium B to medium A is: (Given: speed of light in vacuum C = 3 × 108 ms–1)

  • (1) 1.303
  • (2) 1.318
  • (3) 1.13
  • (4) 0.12

Question 48:

A teacher in his physics laboratory allotted an experiment to determine the resistance (G) of a galvanometer. Students took the observations for \(\frac 13\) deflection in the galvanometer. Which of the below is true for measuring value of G?

  • (1) \(\frac 13\) deflection method cannot be used for determining the resistance of the galvanometer.
  • (2) \(\frac 13\) deflection method can be used and in this case the G equals to twice the value of shunt resistance(s).
  • (3) \(\frac 13\) deflection method can be used and in this case, the G equals to three times the value of shunt resistance(s).
  • (4) \(\frac 13\) deflection method can be used and in this case the G value equals to the shunt resistance(s).

Question 49:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Davisson-Germer experiment establishes the wave nature of electrons.
Statement II: If electrons have wave nature, they can interfere and show diffraction.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the option given below :

  • (1) Both statement I and statement II are true.
  • (2) Both statement I and statement II are false.
  • (3) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
  • (4) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

Question 50:

A signal of 100 THz frequency can be transmitted with maximum efficiency by :

  • (1) Coaxial cable
  • (2) Optical fibre
  • (3) Twisted pair of copper wires
  • (4) Water

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A uniform chain of 6 m length is placed on a table such that a part of its length is hanging over the edge of the table. The system is at rest. The co-efficient of static friction between the chain and the surface of the table is 0.5, the maximum length of the chain hanging from the table is ____m.


Question 52:

A \(0.5\ kg\) block moving at a speed of \(12\ ms^{–1}\) compresses a spring through a distance 30 cm when its speed is halved. The spring constant of the spring will be _____ \(Nm^{–1}\).


Question 53:

The velocity of upper layer of water in a river is \(36\ kmh^{–1}\). Shearing stress between horizontal layers of water is \(10^{–3} Nm^{–2}\). Depth of the river is ______ m. (Co-efficient of viscosity of water is \(10^{–2} Pa.s\))


Question 54:

The first overtone frequency of an open organ pipe is equal to the fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm. The length of the open organ pipe is ______ cm.


Question 55:

The equivalent capacitance between points A and B in below shown figure will be ______ μF.


Question 56:

A resistor develops 300 J of thermal energy in 15 s, when a current of 2 A is passed through it. If the current increases to 3 A, the energy developed in 10 s is ______ J.


Question 57:

The total current supplied to the circuit as shown in figure by the 5 V battery is _______ A.


Question 58:

The current in a coil of self inductance \(2.0\ H\) is increasing according to \(I = 2\ sin(t^2)\ A\). The amount of energy spent during the period when current changes from 0 to \(2\ A\) is _______ \(J\).


Question 59:

A force on an object of mass \(100\ g\) is \((10\hat i+5\hat j)\ N\). The position of that object at \(t = 2s\) is \((a\hat i+b\hat j)\ m\) after starting from rest. The value of \(\frac ab\) will be _______ .


Question 60:

A steam engine intakes \(50\ g\) of steam at \(100°C\) per minute and cools it down to \(20°C\). If latent heat of vaporization of steam is \(540\ cal\ g^{–1}\), then the heat rejected by the steam engine per minute is ______ \(× 10^3\) \(cal.\)
(Given : specific heat capacity of water : \(1\ cal \ g^{–1} °C^{–1}\))


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Bonding in which of the following diatomic molecule(s) become(s) stronger, on the basis of MO Theory, by removal of an electron?
(A) NO
(B) N2
(C) O2
(D) C2
(E) B2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (A), (B), (C) only
  • (2) (B), (C), (E) only
  • (3) (A), (C) only
  • (4) (D) only

Question 62:

The pair, in which ions are isoelectronic with \(Al^{3+}\) is:

  • (1)

    Br– and Be2+

  • (2) Cl– and Li+
  • (3) S2– and K+
  • (4) O2– and Mg2+

Question 63:

Number of electron deficient molecules among the following
\(PH_3, B_2H_6, CCl_4, NH_3, LiH \) and \(BCl_3\) is

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 64:

White precipitate of \(AgCl\) dissolves in aqueous ammonia solution due to formation of:

  • (1) \([Ag(NH_3)_4]CI_2\)
  • (2) \([Ag(Cl)_2(NH_3)_2]\)
  • (3) \([Ag(NH_3)_2]Cl\)
  • (4) \([Ag(NH_3)Cl]Cl\)

Question 65:

Cerium (IV) has a noble gas configuration. Which of the following is correct statement about it?

  • (1) It will not prefer to undergo redox reactions.
  • (2) It will prefer to gain electron and act as an oxidizing agent
  • (3) It will prefer to give away an electron and behave as reducing agent
  • (4) It acts as both, oxidizing and reducing agent.

Question 66:

Among the following which is the strongest oxidizing agent?

  • (1) \(Mn^{3+}\)
  • (2) \(Fe^{3+}\)
  • (3) \(Ti^{3+}\)
  • (4) \(Cr^{3+}\)

Question 67:

Phenol on reaction with dilute nitric acid, gives two products. Which method will be most efficient for large scale separation?

  • (1) Chromatographic separation
  • (2) Fractional crystallisation
  • (3) Steam distillation
  • (4) Sublimation

Question 68:

In the following structures, which one is having staggered conformation with maximum dihedral angle?

  • (1) staggered conformation with maximum dihedral angle
  • (2) staggered conformation with maximum dihedral angle
  • (3) staggered conformation with maximum dihedral angle
  • (4) staggered conformation with maximum dihedral angle

Question 69:

The product formed in the following reaction.

  • (1) reaction mechanism of hydrocarbon
  • (2) reaction mechanism of hydrocarbon
  • (3) reaction mechanism of hydrocarbon
  • (4) reaction mechanism of hydrocarbon

Question 70:

The IUPAC name of ethylidene chloride is:

  • (1) 1-Chloroethene
  • (2) 1-Chloroethyne
  • (3) 1, 2-Dichloroethane
  • (4) 1, 1-Dichloroethane

Question 71:

The major product in the reaction is:
The major product in the reaction with product2-Methyl prop-1-ene

  • (1) t-Butyl ethyl ether
  • (2) 2, 2-Dimethyl butane
  • (3) 2-Methyl pent-1-ene
  • (4) 2-Methyl prop-1-ene

Question 72:

The intermediate X, in the reaction is:

  • (1) Reaction mechanism of hydrocarbon
  • (2) Reaction mechanism of hydrocarbon
  • (3) Reaction mechanism of hydrocarbon
  • (4) Reaction mechanism of hydrocarbon

Question 73:

In the following reaction:The compound A and B respectively are:

  • (1) Reaction mechanism of hydrocarbon
  • (2) Reaction mechanism of hydrocarbon
  • (3) Reaction mechanism of hydrocarbon
  • (4) Reaction mechanism of hydrocarbon

Question 74:

The reaction of
 Reaction with bromine and KOH
with bromine and \(KOH\) gives \(RNH_2\) as the end product. Which one of the following is the intermediate product formed in this reaction?

  • (1) Reaction with bromine and KOH
  • (2) \(R-NH-Br\)
  • (3) \(R-N=C=O\)
  • (4) Reaction with bromine and KOH

Question 75:

Incorrect statement for Tyndall effect is:

  • (1) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium differ greatly in magnitude.
  • (2) The diameter of the dispersed particles is much smaller than the wavelength of the light used.
  • (3) During projection of movies in the cinemas hall, Tyndall effect is noticed.
  • (4) It is used to distinguish a true solution from a colloidal solution.

Question 76:

Leaching of gold with dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in presence of oxygen gives complex [A], which on reaction with zinc forms the elemental gold and another complex [B]. [A] and [B], respectively are :

  • (1) \([Au(CN)_4]^–\) and \([Zn(CN)_2 (OH)_2]^{2-}\)
  • (2) \([Au(CN)_2]^–\) and \([Zn (OH)_4]^{2-}\)
  • (3) \([Au(CN)_2]^–\) and \([Zn (CN)_4]^{2-}\)
  • (4) \([Au(CN)_4]^{2-}\) and \([Zn (CN)_6]^{4-}\)

Question 77:

Which one of the following alkaline earth metal ions has the highest ionic mobility in its aqueous solution?

  • (1) \(Be^{2+}\)
  • (2) \(Mg^{2+}\)
  • (3) \(Ca^{2+}\)
  • (4) \(Sr^{2+}\)

Question 78:

The eutrophication of water body results in:

  • (1) loss of Biodiversity.
  • (2) breakdown of organic matter.
  • (3) increase in biodiversity.
  • (4) decrease in BOD.

Question 79:

Using very little soap while washing clothes, does not serve the purpose of cleaning of clothes, because:

  • (1) soap particles remain floating in water as ions.
  • (2) the hydrophobic part of soap is not able to take away grease.
  • (3) the micelles are not formed due to concentration of soap, below its CMC value.
  • (4) colloidal structure of soap in water is completely distributed.

Question 80:

Which one of the following is an example of artificial sweetner?

  • (1) Bithional
  • (2) Alitame
  • (3) Salvarsan
  • (4) Lactose

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

The number of N atoms in \(681\ g\) of \(C_7H_5N_3O_6\) is \(x × 10^{21}\). The value of \(x\) is ______ . (\(N_A\) = \(6.02 × 10^{23}\ mol^{–1}\)) (Nearest Integer)


Question 82:

The longest wavelength of light that can be used for the ionisation of lithium atom (Li) in its ground state is \(x × 10^{–8}\ m\). The value of \(x\) is ______. (Nearest Integer)
(Given : Energy of the electron in the first shell of the hydrogen atom is \(2.2 \times 10^{–18} J\);
\(h = 6.63 × 10^{–34}Js\) and \(c = 3 × 10^8 ms^{–1}\))


Question 83:

The standard entropy change for the reaction \(4Fe(s) + 3O_2(g) → 2Fe_2O_3(s)\) is \(–550\ J K^{–1}\) at \(298\ K\). The temperature in K at which the reaction attains equilibrium is ______. (Nearest Integer)
[Given: The standard enthalpy change for the reaction is \(–165\ kJmol^{–1}\)].


Question 84:

1L aqueous solution of \(H_2SO_4\) contains 0.02 m mol \(H_2SO_4\). 50% of this solution is diluted with deionized water to give 1L solution (A). In solution (A), 0.01 m mol of \(H_2SO_4\) are added. Total m mols of \(H_2SO_4\) in the final solution is ______ \(× 10^3\) m mols.


Question 85:

The standard free energy change \((ΔG°)\) for \(50%\) dissociation of \(N_2O_4\) into \(NO_2\) at \(27°C\) and 1 atm pressure is \(x\ J mol^{–1}\). The value of \(x\) is _____. (Nearest Integer)
[Given : \(R = 8.31\ JK^{–1} mol^{–1}\), \(log\ 1.33 = 0.1239\), \(ln\ 10 = 2.3\)]


Question 86:

In a cell, the following reactions take place
\(Fe^{2+} → Fe^{3+} + e^-\)
\(E°_{Fe^{3+}/Fe^{2+}} = 0.77\ V\)
\(2I^- → I_2 + 2e^-\)
\(E_{I_2/I^-} = 0.54\ V\)
The standard electrode potential for the spontaneous reaction in the cell is \(x×10^{–2} V\) at \(208\ K\). The value of \(x\) is _______. (Nearest Integer)


Question 87:

For a given chemical reaction
\(γ_1A + γ_2B → γ_3C + γ_4D\)
Concentration of C changes from 10 mmol dm–3 to 20 mmol dm–3 in 10 seconds. Rate of appearance of D is 1.5 times the rate of disappearance of B which is twice the rate of disappearance A. The rate of appearance of D has been experimentally determined to be 9 mmol dm–3 s–1. Therefore, the rate of reaction is _____ mmol dm–3 s–1. (Nearest Integer)


Question 88:

If \([Cu(H_2O)_4]^{2+}\) absorbs a light of wavelength 600 nm for d-d transition, then the value of octahedral crystal field splitting energy for [\(Cu(H_2O)_6]^{2+}\) will be _______ \(×10^{–21} J\). [Nearest integer]
(Given : h = \(6.63 × 10^{–34} Js\) and \(c = 3.08×10^8 ms^{–1}\))


Question 89:

Number of grams of bromine that will completely react with 5.0 g of pent-1-ene is ______ × 10–2 g. (Atomic mass of Br = 80 g/mol) [Nearest integer]


Question 90:

The distance between \(Na^+\) and \(Cl^–\) ions in solid \(NaCl\) of density \(43.1\ g\ cm^{–3}\) is ____ \(× 10^{–10}\ m\). (Nearest Integer)
(Given : \(N_A = 6.02 × 10^{23} mol^{–1}\))

JEE Main 2022 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions (75 to be attempted)
Total Marks300 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions

JEE Main 2022 June 25 Shift 1 Difficulty Level

As per the students’ initial reaction, JEE Main 2022 Question Paper for June 25- Shift 1 was reported as moderate to difficult. The Mathematics section in JEE Main 2022 June 25- Shift 1 Question Paper was reported as moderate to difficult, Physics as moderate and Chemistry as easy. Candidates can download the memory-based JEE Main 2022 Question Paper with Solution and Answer Key PDFs for June 25- Shift 1 using the link below.

JEE Main 2022 June 25 Shift 1 Subject-wise Memory-Based Solutions PDF

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JEE Main 2022 B.E/ B. Tech Other Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

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