JEE Main 2022 June 27 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the second shift on June 27, 2022, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2022 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, all compulsory, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, any 5 to be attempted, 4 marks each
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 300 (100 per subject)

JEE Main 2022 June 27 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2022 June 27 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

The number of points of intersection of \(|z - (4 + 3i)| = 2\) and \(|z| + |z - 4| = 6\), \(z \in \mathbb{C}\), is 

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3

Question 2:

If \(a_1, a_2, a_3\) ….. and \(b_1, b_2, b_3\) ….. are A.P., and \(a_1 = 2, a_{10} = 3, a_1b_1 = 1 = a_{10}b_{10}\), then \(a_4b_4\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{35}{27}\)
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \(\frac{27}{28}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{28}{27}\)

Question 3:

If m and n respectively are the number of local maximum and local minimum points of the function
\(f(x)=∫_0 ^{x^2} \frac{t^2–5t+4}{2+et}dt\), then the ordered pair (m, n) is equal to

  • (1) (3, 2)
  • (2) (2, 3)
  • (3) (2, 2)
  • (4) (3, 4)

Question 4:

Let f be a differentiable function in \((0, \frac{π}{2})\). If \(∫_{cosx} ^1 t^2f(t)dt=sin^3x+cosx\), then \(\frac{1}{\sqrt3}f'(\frac{1}{\sqrt3})\) is equal to

  • (1) \(6-9\sqrt2\)
  • (2) \(6-\frac{9}{\sqrt2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{9}{2}-6\sqrt2\)
  • (4) \(\frac{9}{\sqrt 2}-6\)

Question 5:

The integral \(∫_0^ 1 \frac{ 1}{7^{[\frac{1}{z}}]}dx\) where [⋅] denotes the greatest integer function, is equal to

  • (1) \(1+6log_e(\frac{6}{7})\)
  • (2) \(1-6log_e(\frac{6}{7})\)
  • (3) \(log_e(\frac{7}{6})\)
  • (4) \(1-7log_e(\frac{6}{7})\)

Question 6:

If the solution curve of the differential equation \(((tan−1y)−x)dy=(1+y^2)dx\) passes through the point \((1, 0)\), then the abscissa of the point on the curve whose ordinate is \(tan(1)\), is

  • (1) \(2e\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2}{e}\)
  • (3) \(e\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{e}\)

Question 7:

If the equation of the parabola, whose vertex is at \((5, 4)\) and the directrix is \(3x + y – 29 = 0\), is \(x^2 + ay^2 + bxy + cx + dy + k = 0\), then \(a + b + c + d + k\) is equal to

  • (1) 575
  • (2) -575
  • (3) 576
  • (4) -576

Question 8:

The set of values of \(k\), for which the circle \(C : 4x^2 + 4y^2 – 12x + 8y + k = 0\) lies inside the fourth quadrant and the point \(\bigg(1, -\frac{1}{3}\bigg)\) lies on or inside the circle \(C\), is

  • (1) An empty set
  • (2) \(\bigg(6/\frac{65}{9}\bigg)\)
  • (3) \(\bigg(\frac{80}{9},10\bigg)\)
  • (4) \(\bigg(9,\frac{92}{9}\bigg)\)

Question 9:

The shortest distance between the lines \(\frac{x−3}{2}=\frac{y−2}{3}=\frac{z−1}{−1}\) and \(\frac{x+3}{2}=\frac{y-6}{1}=\frac{z−5}{3}\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{18}{\sqrt5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{22}{3\sqrt5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{46}{3\sqrt5}\)
  • (4) \(6\sqrt3\)

Question 10:

Let \(\overrightarrow a\) and \(\overrightarrow b\) be the vectors along the diagonals of a parallelogram having area \(2\sqrt2\). Let the angle between \(\overrightarrow a\) and \(\overrightarrow b\) be acute,\( |\overrightarrow a|=1\), and \(|\overrightarrow a⋅\overrightarrow b|=|\overrightarrow a×\overrightarrow b|\) If \(\overrightarrow c=2\sqrt2(\overrightarrow a×\overrightarrow b→)−2\overrightarrow b\) then an angle between\( \overrightarrow b\) and \(\overrightarrow c\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{π}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5π}{6}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3π}{4}\)

Question 11:

The mean and variance of the data \(4, 5, 6, 6, 7, 8, x, y\), where \(x<y\), are \(6\) and \(\frac{9}{4}\), respectively. Then \(x^4+y^2\) is equal to

  • (1) 162
  • (2) 320
  • (3) 674
  • (4) 420

Question 12:

If a point \(A(x, y)\) lies in the region bounded by the \(y\)-axis, straight lines  \(2y + x = 6\) and \(5x – 6y = 30\), then the probability that \(y < 1\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5}{6}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{6}{7}\)

Question 13:

The value of \(\cot\left(\sum_{n=1}^{50} \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{1+n+n^2}\right)\right)\) is

  • (1) \(\frac{26}{25}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{25}{26}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{50}{51}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{52}{51}\)

Question 14:

\(\alpha = \sin 36^\circ\)  is a root of which of the following equation?

  • (1) \(16x^4 - 10x^2 - 5 = 0\)
  • (2) \(16x^4 + 20x^2 - 5 = 0\)
  • (3) \(16x^4 - 20x^2 + 5 = 0\)
  • (4) \(16x^4 - 10x^2 + 5 = 0\)

Question 15:

Let
\(f(x) = \begin{vmatrix} a & -1 & 0\\ ax & a & -1\\ ax^2 & ax & a \end{vmatrix}\)
a ∈ R. Then the sum of the square of all the values of a, for which 2f′(10) –f′(5) + 100 = 0, is

  • (1) 117
  • (2) 106
  • (3) 125
  • (4) 136

Question 16:

Let for some real numbers \(α\) and \(β\), \(a = α – iβ\). If the system of equations \(4ix + (1 + i) y = 0\) and \(8\bigg(cosx\frac{2π}{3}+i\;sin\frac{2π}{3}\bigg)x+\bar ay=0 \)has more than one solution, then \(\frac{α}{β}\) is equal to

  • (1) \(-2 + \sqrt3\)
  • (2) \(2 – \sqrt3\)
  • (3) \(2 + \sqrt3\)
  • (4) \(-2 – \sqrt3\)

Question 17:

Let A and B be two \(3 × 3\) matrices such that AB = I and |A| =\(\frac{1}{8}\). Then |adj (B adj(2A))| is equal to

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 32
  • (3) 64
  • (4) 128

Question 18:

Let \(S=2+\frac{6}{7}+\frac{12}{7 ^2}+\frac{20}{7 ^3}+\frac{30}{7 ^4}+…\) Then \(4S\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\bigg(\frac{7}{3}\bigg)^2\)
  • (2) \(\bigg(\frac{7 ^3}{3 ^2}\bigg)\)
  • (3) \(\bigg(\frac{7}{3}\bigg)^3\)
  • (4) \(\bigg(\frac{7 ^2}{3^ 3}\bigg)\)

Question 19:

Let the foot of the perpendicular from the point \((1, 2, 4)\) on the line \(\frac{x+2}{4}=\frac{y−1}{2}=\frac{z+1}{3}\) be \(P\), Then the distance of \(P\) from the plane \(3x+4y+12z+23=0\) is

  • (1) \(5\)
  • (2) \(\frac{50}{13}\)
  • (3) \(4\)
  • (4) \(\frac{63}{13}\)

Question 20:

Which of the following statement is a tautology?

  • (1) \((\sim q \land p) \land q\)
  • (2) \((\sim q \land p) \land (p \land \sim p)\)
  • (3) \((\sim q \land p) \lor (p \lor \sim p)\)
  • (4) \((p \land q) \land (\sim (p \land q)\)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let \(S = \{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10\}\). Define \(f : S → S\) as
\(f(n) =  \begin{cases}     2n, & \text{if } n \in \{1,2,3,4,5\} \\     2n-11, & \text{if } n \in \{6,7,8,9,10\} \end{cases}\)
Let \(g : S → S\) be a function such that.
\((f \circ g)(n) =  \begin{cases}     n + 1, & \text{if } n \text{ is odd} \\     n - 1, & \text{if } n \text{ is even} \end{cases}\) 
Then \(g(10) \cdot (g(1) + g(2) + g(3) + g(4) + g(5))\) is equal to __________.


Question 22:

Let \(\alpha, \beta\) be the roots of the equation \(x^2 - 4\lambda x + 5 = 0\) and α, γ be the roots of the equation \(x^2 - (3\sqrt{2} + 2\sqrt{3})x + 7 + 3\lambda\sqrt{3} = 0\). If \(\beta + \gamma = 3\sqrt{2}\) then \((\alpha + 2\beta + \gamma)^2\) is equal to _______.


Question 23:

Let A be a matrix of order 2 × 2, whose entries are from the set {0, 1, 3, 4, 5}. If the sum of all the entries of A is a prime number p, \(2 < p < 8\), then the number of such matrices A is ___________.


Question 24:

Let [t] denote the greatest integer ≤ t and {t} denote the fractional part of t. The integral value of α for which the left-hand limit of the function \(f(x) = \left\lfloor 1 + x \right\rfloor + \frac{\alpha^{2\left\lfloor x \right\rfloor + \left\{ x \right\}} + \left\lfloor x \right\rfloor - 1}{2\left\lfloor x \right\rfloor + \left\{ x \right\}} \) at x=0 is equal to  \(\alpha -\frac{4}{3}\), is


Question 25:

If \(y(x) = (x^x)^x, \quad x > 0\), then \(\frac{d^2x}{dy^2} + 20\) at \(x = 1\) is equal to __________.


Question 26:

If the area of the region \(\{(x, y) : x^{2/3} + y^{2/3} \leq 1, x + y \geq 0, y \geq 0\}\) is A, then \(\frac{(256 A)}{\pi} \)is equal to_______.


Question 27:

Let \(y = y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation \((1 - x^2) \, dy = (xy + (x^3 + 2) \sqrt{1 - x^2}) \, dx \quad -1 < x < 1\), and \(y(0) = 0.\) If \(\int_{-\frac{1}{2}}^{\frac{1}{2}} \sqrt{1 - x^2} \, y(x) \, dx = k\) then \(k^{−1}\) is equal to_______.


Question 28:

Let S = {E1, E2, ……………., E8} be a sample space of a random experiment such that \(P(E_n) = \frac{n}{36}\) for every n = 1, 2, ………, 8. Then the number of elements in the set\(\{ A \subseteq S : P(A) \geq \frac{4}{5} \}\) is_________.


Question 29:

If the sum of the coefficients of all the positive powers of x, in the Binomial expansion of \(\left(x^n+\frac{2}{x^5}\right)^7\) is 939, then the sum of all the possible integral values of n is ____________.


Question 30:

Let a circle C of radius 5 lie below the x-axis. The line L1 : 4x + 3y + 2 = 0 passes through the centre P of the circle C and intersects the line L2 : 3x – 4y – 11 = 0 at Q. The line L2 touches C at the point Q. Then the distance of P from the line 5x – 12y + 51 = 0 is _____


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

The SI unit of a physical quantity is pascal-second. The dimensional formula of this quantity will be

  • (1) \([ML^{–1}T^{–1}]\)
  • (2) \([ML^{–1}T^{–2}]\)
  • (3) \([ML^2T^{–1}]\)
  • (4) \([M^{–1}L^3T^0]\)

Question 32:

The distance of the Sun from Earth is \(1.5 × 10^{11}\) \(m\), and its angular diameter is \((2000)\) \(s\) when observed from the earth. The diameter of the Sun will be :

  • (1) \(2.45 × 10^{10 }\) \(m\)
  • (2) \(1.45 × 10^{10}\; m\)
  • (3) \(1.45 × 10^9 \;m\)
  • (4) \(0.14 × 10^9 \;m\)

Question 33:

When a ball is dropped into a lake from a height 4.9 m above the water level, it hits the water with a velocity v and then sinks to the bottom with the constant velocity v. It reaches the bottom of the lake 4.0 s after it is dropped. The approximate depth of the lake is :

  • (1) 19.6 m
  • (2) 29.4 m
  • (3) 39.2 m
  • (4) 73.5 m

Question 34:

One end of a massless spring of spring constant k and natural length \(l_0\) is fixed while the other end is connected to a small object of mass \(m\) lying on a frictionless table. The spring remains horizontal on the table. If the object is made to rotate at an angular velocity \(ω\) about an axis passing through fixed end, then the elongation of the spring will be :

  • (1) \(\frac{k-mω^2l_0}{mω^2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{mω^2l_0}{k+mω^2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{mω^2l_0}{k-mω^2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{(k+mω^2l_0)}{mω^2}\)

Question 35:

A stone tied to a string of length \(L\) is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the string at the centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a speed \(u\). The magnitude of change in its velocity, as it reaches a position where the string is horizontal, is \(\sqrt{x(u^2−gL)}\). The value of \(x\) is

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 5

Question 36:

Four spheres each of mass m form a square of side d (as shown in figure). A fifth sphere of mass M is situated at the centre of square. The total gravitational potential energy of the system is:
Four spheres each of mass m form a square of side d

  • (1) \(−\frac{Gm}{d}\bigg[\bigg(4+\sqrt2\bigg)m+4\sqrt2M\bigg]\)
  • (2) \(−\frac{Gm}{d}\bigg[\bigg(4+\sqrt2\bigg)M+4\sqrt2m\bigg]\)
  • (3) \(−\frac{Gm}{d}\bigg[3m^2+4\sqrt2M\bigg]\)
  • (4) \(−\frac{Gm}{d}\bigg[6m^2+4\sqrt2M\bigg]\)

Question 37:

For a perfect gas, two pressures \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) are shown in the figure. The graph shows:

  • (1) \(P_1>P_2\)
  • (2) \(P_1<P_2\)
  • (3) \(P_1 = P_2\)
  • (4) Insufficient data to draw any conclusion

Question 38:

According to kinetic theory of gases,
A. The motion of the gas molecules freezes at 0°C
B. The mean free path of gas molecules decreases if the density of molecules is increased.
C. The mean free path of gas molecules increases if temperature is increased keeping pressure constant.
D. Average kinetic energy per molecule per degree of freedom is \(\frac{3}{2}k_BT\) (for monoatomic gases).
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and C only
  • (2) B and C only
  • (3) A and B only
  • (4) C and D only

Question 39:

A lead bullet penetrates into a solid object and melts. Assuming that 40% of its kinetic energy is used to heat it, the initial speed of bullet is: (Given initial temperature of the bullet = 127°C), Melting point of the bullet = 327°C, Latent heat of fusion of lead = \(2.5 × 10^4 J kg^{–1}\) Specific heat capacity of lead = 125 J/kg K)

  • (1) \(125\;ms^{–1}\)
  • (2) \(500\;ms^{–1}\)
  • (3) \(250\;ms^{–1}\)
  • (4) \(600\;ms^{–1}\)

Question 40:

The equation of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by \(x=sin\;π\bigg(t+\frac{1}{3}\bigg)m\).  At \(t = 1s\), the speed of the particle will be

  • (1) \(0\;cm\;s^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(157\;cm\;s^{-1}\)
  • (3) \(272\;cm\;s^{-1}\)
  • (4) \(314\;cm\;s^{-1}\)

Question 41:

If a charge q is placed at the centre of a closed hemispherical non-conducting surface, the total flux passing through the flat surface would be:

  • (1) \(\frac{q}{ε_0}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{q}{2ε_0}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{q}{4ε_0}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{q}{2πε_0}\)

Question 42:

Three identical charged balls each of charge \(2\) \(C\) are suspended from a common point \(P\) by silk threads of \(2\) \(m\) each (as shown in figure). They form an equilateral triangle of side \(1\) \(m\). The ratio of net force on a charged ball to the force between any two charged balls will be:
Three identical charged balls each of charge 2 C are suspended from a common point P

  • (1) \(1:1\)
  • (2) \(1:4\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt3:2\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt3:1\)

Question 43:

Two long parallel conductors \(S_1\) and \(S_2\) are separated by a distance \(10\) cm and carrying currents of \(4\) A and \(2\) A respectively. The conductors are placed along x-axis in X–Y plane. There is a point P located between the conductors (as shown in figure). A charge particle of \(3π\) coulomb is passing through the point P with velocity \(\overrightarrow v=(2\hat i+3\hat j)\) m/s; where \(\hat i\) and \(\hat j\) represents unit vector along x & y axis respectively. The force acting on the charge particle is \(4π×10^{−5}(−x\hat i+2\hat j)N\). The value of x is:
The conductors are placed along x-axis in X–Y plane. There is a point P located between the conductors

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 3
  • (4) -3

Question 44:

If L, C and R are the self-inductance, capacitance and resistance, respectively, which of the following does not have the dimension of time?

  • (1) \(RC\)
  • (2) \(\frac{L}{R}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{LC}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{L}{C}\)

Question 45:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A time varying electric field is a source of changing magnetic field and vice-versa. Thus a disturbance in electric or magnetic field creates EM waves.
Statement II: In a material medium, the EM wave travels with speed
\(V=\frac{1}{\sqrt{µ0ε0}}\) In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both statement I and statement II are true
  • (2) Both statement I and statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

Question 46:

A convex lens has power P. It is cut into two halves along its principal axis. Further one piece (out of the two halves) is cut into two halves perpendicular to the principal axis . Choose the incorrect option for the reported pieces.

  • (1) Power of \(L_1 = \frac{P}{2}\)
  • (2) Power of \(L_2 = \frac{P}{2}\)
  • (3) Power of \(L_3 = \frac{P}{2}\)
  • (4) Power of \(L_1 = P\)

Question 47:

If a wave gets refracted into a denser medium, then which of the following is true?

  • (1) Wavelength, speed and frequency decreases
  • (2) Wavelength increases, speed decreases and frequency remains constant
  • (3) Wavelength and speed decreases but frequency remains constant
  • (4) wavelength, speed and frequency increases

Question 48:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In hydrogen atom, the frequency of radiation emitted when an electron jumps from lower energy orbit \((E_1)\) to higher energy orbit \((E_2)\), is given as \(hf = E_1 – E_2.\)
Statement II: The jumping of electron from higher energy orbit \((E_2)\) to lower energy orbit \((E_1)\) is associated with frequency of radiation given as
\(f=\frac{(E_2−E_1)}{h}\) This condition is Bohr’s frequency condition.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both statement I and statement II are true
  • (2) Both statement I and statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

Question 49:

For a transistor to act as a switch, it must be operated in

  • (1) Active region
  • (2) Saturation state only
  • (3) Cut-off state only
  • (4) Saturation and cut-off state

Question 50:

We do not transmit low frequency signal to long distance because-
(a) The size of the antenna should be comparable to signal wavelength which is unreal solution for a signal of longer wavelength
(b) Effective power radiated by a long wavelength baseband signal would be high
(c) We want to avoid mixing up signals transmitted by different transmitter simultaneously
(d) Low frequency signal can be sent to long distances by superimposing with a high frequency wave as well
Therefore, the most suitable option will be

  • (1) All statements are true
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c) are true only
  • (3) (a), (c) and (d) are true only
  • (4) (b), (c) and (d) are true only

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A mass of \(10\) kg is suspended vertically by a rope of length \(5\) m from the roof. A force of \(30\) N is applied at the middle point of rope in horizontal direction. The angle made by upper half of the rope with vertical is \(θ\) = \(tan^{–1} (x × 10^{–1})\). The value of \(x\) is _______.(Given, \(g = 10\; m/s^2\))


Question 52:

A rolling wheel of \(12\) kg is on an inclined plane at position P and connected to a mass of \(3\) kg through a string of fixed length and pulley as shown in figure. Consider PR as friction free surface.
The velocity of centre of mass of the wheel when it reaches at the bottom Q of the inclined plane PQ will be \(\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{ xgh}\) \(m/s\). The value of x is _________.


Question 53:

A diatomic gas\( (γ = 1.4)\) does \(400\) \(J\) of work when it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to the gas in the process is ________ \(J\).


Question 54:

A particle executes simple harmonic motion. Its amplitude is 8 cm and time period is 6s. The time it will take to travel from its position of maximum displacement to the point corresponding to half of its amplitude, is _________s.


Question 55:

A parallel plate capacitor is made up of stair like structure with a plate area A of each stair and that is connected with a wire of length b, as shown in the figure. The capacitance of the arrangement is \(\frac{x}{15} \frac{ε_0A}{b}\), the value of \(x\) is ______?
A parallel plate capacitor is made up of stair like structure with a plate area A of each stair and that is connected with a wire of length b


Question 56:

The current density in a cylindrical wire of radius \(r = 4.0\) mm is \(1.0 \times 10^6\) \(A/m^2\). The current through the outer portion of the wire between radial distances \(\frac{r}{2}\) and \(r\) is \(xπ\) \(A\); where \(x\) is _________.


Question 57:

In the given circuit ‘a‘ is an arbitrary constant. The value of m for which the equivalent circuit resistance is minimum, will be \(\frac{\sqrt x}{2}\).The value of x is________.


Question 58:

A deuteron and a proton moving with equal kinetic energy enter into a uniform magnetic field at right angle to the field. If \(r_d\) and \(r_p\) are the radii of their circular paths respectively, then the ratio \(\frac{r_d}{r_p}\) will be \(\sqrt x:1\) where \(x\) is__________


Question 59:

A metallic rod of length \(20\) cm is placed in North-South direction and is moved at a constant speed of 20 m/s towards East. The horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field at that place is \(4 × 10^{–3}\) T and the angle of dip is \(45º\). The emf induced in the rod is __________mV.


Question 60:

The cut-off voltage of the diodes (shown in figure) in forward bias is \(0.6\; V\). The current through the resistor of \(40\) \(Ω\) is____ mA.
The cut-off voltage of the diodes


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Identify the incorrect statement for \(PCl_5\) from the following.

  • (1) In this molecule, orbitals of phosphorous are assumed to undergo \(sp^3d\) hybridization
  • (2) The geometry of \(PCl_5 \)is trigonal bipyramidal.
  • (3) \(PCl_5\) has two axial bonds stronger than three equatorial bonds.
  • (4) The three equatorial bonds of \(PCl_5\) lie in a plane

Question 62:

The correct order of increasing intermolecular hydrogen bond strength is

  • (1) \(HCN < H_2O < NH_3\)
  • (2) \(HCN < CH_4 < NH_3\)
  • (3) \(CH_4 < HCN < NH_3\)
  • (4) \(CH_4 < NH_3 < HCN\)

Question 63:

The correct order of increasing ionic radii is

  • (1) \(Mg^{2+} < Na^+ < F^– < O^{2–} < N^{3–}\)
  • (2) \(N^{3–} < O^{2–} < F^{–} < Na^{+} < Mg^{2+}\)
  • (3) \(F^– < Na^+ < O^{2–} < Mg^{2+} < N^{3–}\)
  • (4) \(Na^+ < F^– < Mg^{2+ }< O^{2–} < N^{3–}\)

Question 64:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Fluorine forms one oxoacid.
Reason R: Fluorine has smallest size amongst all halogens and is highly electronegative.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.

  • (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (3) A is correct but R is not correct.
  • (4) A is not correct but R is correct.

Question 65:

In \(3d\) series, the metal having the highest \(M^{2+}/M\) standard electrode potential is

  • (1) Cr
  • (2) Fe
  • (3) Cu
  • (4) Zn

Question 66:

The ′f′ orbitals are half and completely filled, respectively in lanthanide ions
[Given: Atomic no. Eu, 63; Sm, 62; Tm, 69; Tb, 65; Yb, 70; Dy, 66]

  • (1) \(Eu^{2+}\) and \(Tm^{2+}\)
  • (2) \(Sm^{2+}\) and \(Tm^{3+}\)
  • (3) \(Tb^{4+}\) and \(Yb^{2+}\)
  • (4) \(Dy^{3+}\) and \(Yb^{3+}\)

Question 67:

Arrange the following coordination compounds in the increasing order of magnetic moments. (Atomic numbers: \(Mn = 25; Fe = 26\))
(1) \([FeF_6]^{3–}\)
(2) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{3–}\)
(3) \([MnCl_6]^{3–}\) (high spin)
(4) \([Mn(CN)_6]^{3–}\)

  • (1) 1 < 2 < 4 < 3
  • (2) 2 < 4 < 3 < 1
  • (3) 1 < 3 < 4 < 2
  • (4) 2 < 4 < 1 < 3

Question 68:

Which of the following is most stable?

  • (1) Which of the following is most stable
  • (2) Which of the following is most stable
  • (3) Which of the following is most stable
  • (4) Which of the following is most stable

Question 69:

What will be the major product of the following sequence of reactions?
\(n−Bu−≡ \xrightarrow[{(ii)Lindlar catalyst, H_2}]{(i)n-BuLi,n-C_5H_{11}Cl}\)

  • (1) sequence of reactions
  • (2) sequence of reactions
  • (3) sequence of reactions
  • (4) sequence of reactions

Question 70:

Product ‘A’ of the following sequence of reactions is                                       
\(Ethylbenzene \xrightarrow[{(b)Cl_2,Δ;(c) alc.KOH}]{ (a)Br_2,Fe }\)‘ \(\;  \;\; \;\;A′\\major Product\)

  • (1) sequence of reactions is
  • (2) sequence of reactions is
  • (3) sequence of reactions is
  • (4) sequence of reactions is

Question 71: Match List I with List II. 
 List-I List-II
A.I.Br2 in CS2
B.II.Na2CR2O7/H2SO4
C.III.Zn
D.IV.CHCl3/NaOH

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Question 72:

Decarboxylation of all six possible forms of diaminobenzoic acid \(C_6H_3(NH_2)2COOH\) yields three products A, B and C. Three acids give a product ‘A’, two acids give a product ‘B’ and one acid gives a product ‘C’. The melting point of product ‘C’ is

  • (1) 63ºC
  • (2) 90ºC
  • (3) 104ºC
  • (4) 142ºC

Question 73:

Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Maltose has two\(α-D-glucose\) units linked at \(C_1\) and \(C_4\) and is a reducing sugar.
Statement II: Maltose has two monosaccharides : 
\(α-D-glucose\) and \(β-D-glucose\) linked at \(C_1\) and \(C_6\) and it is a non-reducing sugar.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 74: Match List I with List II.
 List I (Anion) List II (gas evolved on reaction with dil \(H_2SO_4\))
A.\(CO_3^{ 2−}\)I.Colourless gas which turns lead acetate paper black.
B.\(S^{2–}\)II.Colourless gas which turns acidified potassium dichromate solution green
C.\(SO_3^{ 2−}\)III.Brown fumes which turns acidified KI solution containing starch blue.
D.\(NO_2^{−}\)IV.Colourless gas evolved with brisk effervescence, which turns lime water milky.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Question 75:

Which amongst the given plots is the correct plot for pressure \((p)\) vs density \((d)\) for an ideal gas?

  • (1) plot for pressure (p) vs density (d) for an ideal gas
  • (2) plot for pressure (p) vs density (d) for an ideal gas
  • (3) plot for pressure (p) vs density (d) for an ideal gas
  • (4) plot for pressure (p) vs density (d) for an ideal gas

Question 76:

Statement-I : Leaching of gold with cyanide ion in absence of air/O2 leads to cyano complex of Au(III).
Statement-II : Zinc is oxidized during the displacement reaction carried out for gold extraction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
  • (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
  • (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

Question 77:

The gas produced by treating an aqueous solution of ammonium chloride with sodium nitrite is

  • (1) \(NH_3\)
  • (2) \(N_2\)
  • (3) \(N_2O\)
  • (4) \(Cl_2\)

Question 78:

On the surface of polar stratospheric clouds, hydrolysis of chlorine nitrate gives A and B while its reaction with HCl produces B and C. A, B and C are, respectively

  • (1) \(HOCl, HNO_3, Cl_2\)
  • (2) \(Cl_2, HNO_3, HOCl\)
  • (3) \(HClO_2, HNO_2, HOCl\)
  • (4) \(HOCl, HNO_2, Cl_2O\)

Question 79:

Which is true about Buna-N?

  • (1) It is a linear polymer of 1, 3-butadiene
  • (2) It is obtained by copolymerization of 1, 3-butadiene and styrene
  • (3) It is obtained by copolymerization of 1, 3-butadiene and acrylonitrile
  • (4) The suffix N in Buna-N stands for its natural occurrence.

Question 80: Match List I with List II
List I  List II
A.AntipyreticI.Reduces pain
B.AnalgesicII.Reduces stress
C.TranquilizerIII.Reduces fever
D.AntacidIV.Reduces acidity (stomach)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

116 g of a substance upon dissociation reaction, yields 7.5 g of hydrogen, 60 g of oxygen and 48.5 g of carbon. Given that the atomic masses of H, O and C are 1, 16 and 12, respectively. The data agrees with how many formulae of the following? _______
A. \(CH_3COOH\)
B. \(HCHO\)
C. \(CH_3OOCH_3\)
D. \(CH_3CHO\)


Question 82:

Consider the following set of quantum numbers.
\(n \,|\, m_|\)
A. 3 3 –3
B. 3 2 –2
C. 2 1 +1
D. 2 2 +2
The number of correct sets of quantum numbers is _____.


Question 83:

When 5 moles of He gas expand isothermally and reversibly at 300 K from 10 litre to 20 litre, the magnitude of the maximum work obtained is _____ J. [nearest integer] (Given : R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1 and log 2 = 0.3010)


Question 84:

A solution containing 2.5 × 10–3 kg of a solute dissolved in 75 × 10–3 kg of water boils at 373.535 K. The molar mass of the solute is _____ g mol–1. [nearest integer] (Given : Kb(H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol–1 and boiling point of water = 373.15 K)


Question 85:

pH value of 0.001 M NaOH solution is _______.


Question 86:

For the reaction taking place in the cell: 
Pt(s) | H2(g) | H+ (q) || Ag+(aq) | Ag(s), 
Eocell = + 0.5332 V. 
The value of ΔfGo is _____kJ mol–1 [in nearest integer]


Question 87:

It has been found that for a chemical reaction with rise in temperature by 9 K the rate constant gets doubled. Assuming a reaction to be occurring at 300 K, the value of activation energy is found to be _________kJ mol–1. [nearest integer] (Given ln10 = 2.3, R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1, log 2 = 0.30)


Question 88:

0.25 g of an organic compound containing chlorine gave 0.40 g of silver chloride in Carius estimation. The percentage of chlorine present in the compound is ______. [in nearest integer]
(Given : Molar mass of \(Ag\) is 108 g mol–1 and that of \(Cl\) is 35.5 g mol–1


Question 89:

\(BeO\) reacts with \(HF\) in presence of ammonia to give \([A]\) which on thermal decomposition produces \([B]\) and ammonium fluoride. Oxidation state of Be in \([A]\) is _______


Question 90:
Fig. 













If the initial pressure of a gas 0.03 atm, the mass of the gas absorbed per gram of the adsorbent is ____× 10–2g

JEE Main 2022 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions (75 to be attempted)
Total Marks300 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions

JEE Main 2022 June 27 Shift 2 Difficulty Level

As per the students’ initial reaction, JEE Main 2022 Question Paper for June 27- Shift 2 was reported as moderate. The Mathematics section in JEE Main 2022 June 27- Shift 2 Question Paper was reported as difficult, Physics as moderate and Chemistry as easy.

JEE Main 2022 June 27 Shift 2 Subject-wise Memory-Based Solutions PDF

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JEE Main 2022 B.E/ B. Tech Other Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

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