JEE Main 2022 July 25 Shift 2 Question Paper is available here with solutions PDF and detailed solutions for every question. NTA conducted the second shift on July 25, 2022, from 3:00 PM to 6:00 PM. The JEE Main 2022 Paper 1 (B.E./B.Tech) question paper includes the following:

  • 90 questions in a 3-hour CBT Mode: 30 each from Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry (75 to be attempted)
  • Section A: 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) per subject, all compulsory, 4 marks each
  • Section B: 10 numerical value questions per subject, any 5 to be attempted, 4 marks each
  • Marking: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for an incorrect answer, 0 for an unattempted question
  • Maximum marks: 300 (100 per subject)

JEE Main 2022 July 25 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

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JEE Main 2022 July 25 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions


Mathematics - Section A (Q1 - Q20)

Question 1:

For \(z \in C\) if the minimum value of \((| z -3 \sqrt{2}|+| z - p \sqrt{2} i |)\) is \(5 \sqrt{2}\), then a value of \(p\) is ______

  • (1) 3
  • (2) \(\frac{7}{2}\)
  • (3) 4
  • (4) \(\frac{9}{2}\)

Question 2:

The number of real values \(\lambda\), such that the system of linear equations \(2 x-3 y+5 z=9 \) \( x+3 y-z=-18 \) \( 3 x-y+\left(\lambda^2-|\lambda|\right) z=16\) has no solution, is :-

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 4

Question 3:

The number of bijective functions \(f :\{1,3,5\), \(7, \ldots \ldots 99\} \rightarrow\{2,4,6,8, \ldots \ldots , 100\}\), such that \(f (3) \geq f (9) \geq f (15) \geq f (21) \geq \ldots f (99), \) is _____

  • (1) \({ }^{50} P _{17}\)
  • (2) \({ }^{50} P _{33}\)
  • (3) \(33 ! \times 17 !\)
  • (4) \(\frac{50 \text { ! }}{2}\)

Question 4:

The remainder when \((11)^{1011}+(1011)^{11}\) is divided by \(9\) is

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 8

Question 5:

\(\lim_{x\rightarrow \frac{\pi}{4}}\) 8\(\sqrt2\)−(cosx+sinx)\(^{\frac{7}{\sqrt2}}\)−\(\sqrt2\)sin2x is equal to


Question 6:

If A and B are two events such that \(P(A)=\frac1{3},P(B)=\frac1{5}\)  and \(P(A∪B)=\frac1{2}\) then \(P(\frac{A}{B'}) + P(\frac{B}{A'})\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{3}4\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5}8\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}4\)
  • (4) \(\frac{7}8\)

Question 7:

Let \([t]\) denote the greatest integer less than or equal to t Then the value of the integral \(\int\limits_{-3}^{101}\left([\sin (\pi x)]+e^{[\cos (2 \pi x)]}\right) d x\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{52(1- e )}{ e }\)
  • (2) \(\frac{52}{ e }\)
  • (3) \(\frac{52(2+ e )}{ e }\)
  • (4) \(\frac{104}{ e }\)

Question 8:

Let the point \(P(\alpha, \beta)\) be at a unit distance from each of the two lines \(L _1: 3 x -4 y +12=0\), and \(L _2: 8 x +6 y +11=0\) If \(P\) lies below \(L _1\) and above \(L _2\), then \(100(\alpha+\beta)\) is equal to

  • (1) \(-14\)
  • (2) 42
  • (3) \(-22\)
  • (4) 14

Question 9:

If the ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1\) meets the line \(\frac{x}{7}+\frac{y}{2 \sqrt{6}}=1\) on the \(x\)-axis and the line \(\frac{x}{7}-\frac{y}{2 \sqrt{6}}=1\) on the \(y\)-axis, then the eccentricity of the ellipse is

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{7}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2 \sqrt{6}}{7}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2 \sqrt{5}}{7}\)

Question 10:

Let the foci of the ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{16}+\frac{y^2}{7}=1\) and the hyperbola \(\frac{x^2}{144}-\frac{y^2}{\alpha}=\frac{1}{25}\) coincide Then the length of the latus rectum of the hyperbola is:-

  • (1) \(\frac{32}{9}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{18}{5}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{27}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{27}{10}\)

Question 11:

The shortest distance between the lines \(\frac{x+7}{-6}=\frac{y-6}{7}=z\) and \(\frac{7-x}{2}=y-2=z-6\) is

  • (1) \(2 \sqrt{29}\)
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \(\sqrt{\frac{37}{29}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{\sqrt{29}}{2}\)

Question 12:

Let \(\overset{→}a = \hat{i}- \hat{J}+2\hat{K}\) and \(\overset{→}b\) be a vector such that \(\overset{→}a×\overset{→}b=2\hat{i}−\hat{k} \) and \(\overset{→}a⋅\overset{→}b=3\). Then the projection of \(\overset{→}b\) on the vector \(\overset{→}a-\overset{→}b\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac2{\sqrt{21}}\)
  • (2) \(2\sqrt{\frac3{7}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}3\sqrt{\frac7{3}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac2{3}\)

Question 13:

If the mean deviation about median for the number \(3,5,7,2 k , 12,16,21,24\) arranged in the ascending order, is 6 then the median is

  • (1) \(11.5\)
  • (2) \(10.5\)
  • (3) 12
  • (4) 11

Question 14:

2sin(\(\frac{\pi}{22}\))sin(\(\frac{3\pi}{22}\))sin(\(\frac{5\pi}{22}\))sin(\(\frac{7\pi}{22}\))sin(\(\frac{9\pi}{22}\)) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{16}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{16}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{32}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{9}{32}\)

Question 15:

The sum \(\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{21} \frac{3}{(4 n-1)(4 n+3)}\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{7}{87}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{7}{29}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{14}{87}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{21}{29}\)

Question 16:

\(lim_{n→∞} \frac1{2^n}(\frac1{\sqrt{1-1/2^n}} +\frac1{\sqrt{1-\frac2{2^n}}}+\frac1{\sqrt{1-\frac3{2^n}}}+...+\frac1{\sqrt{1-\frac{2^n-1}{2^n}}})\) is equal to

  • (1) \(\frac1{2}\)
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) -2

Question 17:

Let a smooth curve \(y=f(x)\) be such that the slope of the tangent at any point \((x, y)\) on it is directly proportional to \(\left(\frac{-y}{x}\right)\) If the curve passes through the point \((1,2)\) and \((8,1)\), then \(\left|y\left(\frac{1}{8}\right)\right|\) is equal to

  • (1) \(2 \log _{ e } 2\)
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 1
  • (4) \(4 \log _{ e } 2\)

Question 18:

The tangents at the point \(A (1,3)\) and \(B (1,-1)\) on the parabola \(y^2-2 x-2 y=1\) meet at the point \(P\) Then the area (in unit \(^2\) ) of \(\triangle PAB\) is :-

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 7
  • (4) 8

Question 19:

A plane \(E\) is perpendicular to the two planes \(2 x-2 y+z=0\) and \(x-y+2 z=4\), and passes through the point \(P (1,-1,1)\) If the distance of the plane \(E\) from the point \(Q(a, a, 2)\) is \(3 \sqrt{2}\), then \(( PQ )^2\) is equal to

  • (1) 9
  • (2) 12
  • (3) 21
  • (4) 33

Question 20:

Consider the following statements : \(P\) : Ramu is intelligent \(Q: \) Ramu is rich \(R\) : Ramu is not honest The negation of the statement "Ramu is intelligent and honest if and only if Ramu is not rich" can be expressed as :

  • (1) \((( P \wedge(\sim R )) \wedge Q ) \wedge((\sim Q ) \wedge((\sim P ) \vee R ))\)
  • (2) \((( P \wedge R ) \wedge Q ) \vee((\sim Q ) \wedge((\sim P ) \vee(\sim R )))\)
  • (3) \((( P \wedge R ) \wedge Q ) \wedge((\sim Q ) \wedge((\sim P ) \vee(\sim R )))\)
  • (4) \((( P \wedge(\sim R )) \wedge Q ) \vee((\sim Q ) \wedge((\sim P ) \vee R ))\)

Mathematics - Section B (Q21 - Q30)

Question 21:

Let \(A :\{1,2,3,4,5,6,7\}\). Define \(B=\{T \subseteq A\) : either \(1 \notin T\) or \(2 \in T \}\) and \(C = \{T _{\subseteq} A : T\) the sum of all the elements of \(T\) is a prime number \(\}\). Then the number of elements in the set \(B \cup C\) is _______ .


Question 22:

Let \(f(x)\) be a quadratic polynomial with leading coefficient 1 such that \(f(0) = p, p≠0\) and \(f(1)=\frac{1}{3}\). If the equation \(f(x) = 0\) and \(fofofof(x) = 0\) have a common real root, then \(f(–3)\) is equal to.......................


Question 23:

Let \(A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & a & a \\ 0 & 1 & b \\ 0 & 0 & 1\end{bmatrix}, a , b \in R\). 
If for some \(n \in N , A ^{ n }=\begin{bmatrix}1 & 48 & 2160 \\ 0 & 1 & 96 \\ 0 & 0 & 1\end{bmatrix}\) 
then \(n + a + b\) is equal to _________.


Question 24:

The sum of the maximum and minimum values of the function |5x-7|+[x2+2x] is the interval \(\left[\frac{5}{4}, 2\right]\), where \([t]\) is the greatest integer \(\leq t\) is ______


Question 25:

Let \(y=y(x)\) be the solution of the differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{4 y^3+2 y x^2}{3 x y^2+x^3}, y(1)=1\) If for some \(n \in N , y (2) \in[ n -1, n )\), then \(n\) is equal to ______


Question 26:

Let \(f\) be a twice differentiable function on \(R\). 
If \(f ^{\prime}(0)=4\) and \(f(x)+\int\limits_0^x(x-t) f^{\prime}(t) d t=\left(e^{2 x}+e^{-2 x}\right) \cos 2 x+\frac{2}{a} x,\) 
then \((2 a+1)^5 a^2\) is equal to ______.


Question 27:

Let \(a _{ n }=\int\limits_{-1}^{ n }\left(1+\frac{ x }{2}+\frac{ x ^2}{2}+\frac{ x ^3}{3}+\ldots \ldots +\frac{ x ^{ n -1}}{ n }\right) dx\) for \(n \in N\) Then the sum of all the elements of the set \(\left\{ n \in N : a _{ n } \in(2,30)\right\}\) is ______


Question 28:

Let the area enclosed by the \(x\)-axis, and the tangent and normal drawn to the curve \(4 x^3-3 x y^2+6 x^2-5 x y-8 y^2+9 x+14=0\) at the point \((-2,3)\) be \(A\). Then \(8 A\) is equal to ______


Question 29:

Let \(x=\sin \left(2 \tan ^{-1} \alpha\right)\) and \(y=\sin \left(\frac{1}{2} \tan ^{-1} \frac{4}{3}\right)\) If \(S =\left\{\alpha \in R : y ^2=1- x \right\}\), then \(\displaystyle\sum_{\alpha \in S } 16 \alpha^3\) is equal to ______


Question 30:

If the circles \(x^2+y^2+6 x+8 y+16=0\) and \(x^2+y^2+2(3-\sqrt{3}) x+x+2(4-\sqrt{6}) y\) \(= k +6 \sqrt{3}+8 \sqrt{6}, k >0\) touch internally at the point \(P(\alpha, \beta)\), then \((\alpha+\sqrt{3})^2+(\beta+\sqrt{6})^2\) is equal to _______


Physics - Section A (Q31 - Q50)

Question 31:

The electric current in a circular coil of 2 turns produces a magnetic induction \(B _1\) at its centre The coil is unwound and is rewound into a circular coil of 5 turns and the same current produces a magnetic induction \(B _2\) at its centre The ratio of \(\frac{ B _2}{ B _1}\) is :

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{25}{4}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{25}{2}\)

Question 32:

A drop of liquid of density ρ is floating half immersed in a liquid of density σ and surface tension 7.5×10−4 Ncm−1. The radius of drop in cm will be : ( Take : g=10 m/s2)

  • (1) \(\frac{15}{\sqrt{2 \rho-\sigma}}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{15}{\sqrt{\rho-\sigma}}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{3}{2 \sqrt{\rho-\sigma}}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{20 \sqrt{2 \rho-\sigma}}\)

Question 33:

Two billiard balls of mass \(005\, kg\) each moving in opposite directions with \(10 \, ms ^{-1}\) collide and rebound with the same speed If the time duration of contact is \(t =0005 \, s\), then what is the force exerted on the ball due to each other?

  • (1) 100 N
  • (2) 200 N
  • (3) 300 N
  • (4) 400 N

Question 34:

For a free body diagram shown in the figure, the four forces are applied in the ' \(x\) ' and ' \(y\) ' directions What additional force must be applied and at what angle with positive \(x\)-axis so that the net acceleration of body is zero?

  • (1) \(\sqrt{2} N , 45^{\circ}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2} N , 135^{\circ}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} N , 30^{\circ}\)
  • (4) \(2 N , 45^{\circ}\)

Question 35:

Capacitance of an isolated conducting sphere of radius \(R_1\) becomes \(n\) times when it is enclosed by a concentric conducting sphere of radius \(R_2\) connected to earth The ratio of their radii \(\left(\frac{ R _2}{ R _1}\right)\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{n}{n-1}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{2 n}{2 n+1}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{ n +1}{ n }\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2 n+1}{n}\)

Question 36:

The ratio of wavelengths of proton and deuteron accelerated by potential \(V_p\) and \(V_d\) is \(1: \sqrt{2}\) Then, the ratio of \(V_p\) to \(V_d\) will be

  • (1) \(1: 1\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2}: 1\)
  • (3) \(2: 1\)
  • (4) \(4: 1\)

Question 37:

For an object placed at a distance \(24\, m\) from a lens, a sharp focused image is observed on a screen placed at a distance \(12\, cm\) from the lens A glass plate of refractive index \(15\) and thickness \(1 \,cm\) is introduced between lens and screen such that the glass plate plane faces parallel to the screen By what distance should the object be shifted so that a sharp focused image is observed again on the screen?

  • (1) 0.8 m
  • (2) 3.2 m
  • (3) 1.2 m
  • (4) 5.6 m

Question 38:

Light wave travelling in air along \(x\)-direction is given by \(E_y=540 \sin \pi \times 10^4(x-c t) Vm ^{-1}\) Then, the peak value of magnetic field of wave will be (Given \(c =3 \times 10^8 ms ^{-1}\) )

  • (1) \(18 \times 10^{-7} T\)
  • (2) \(54 \times 10^{-7} T\)
  • (3) \(54 \times 10^{-8} T\)
  • (4) \(18 \times 10^{-8} T\)

Question 39:

When you walk through a metal detectorcarrying a metal object in your pocket, itraises an alarm This phenomenon works on

  • (1) Electromagnetic induction
  • (2) Resonance in ac circuits
  • (3) Mutual induction in ac circuits
  • (4) interference of electromagnetic waves

Question 40:

A current of \(15 \,mA\) flows in the circuit asshown in figure The value of potentialdifference between the points \(A\) and \(B\) will be

  • (1) 50 V
  • (2) 75 V
  • (3) 150 V
  • (4) 275 V

Question 41:

The length of a seconds pendulum at a height h=2R from earth surface will be :
(Given : R= Radius of earth and acceleration due to gravity at the surface of earth g=π2ms−2)

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{9} m\)
  • (2) \(\frac{4}{9} m\)
  • (3) \(\frac{8}{9} m\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{9} m\)

Question 42:

Sound travels in a mixture of two moles of helium and \(n\) moles of hydrogen If rms speed of gas molecules in the mixture is \(\sqrt{2}\) times the speed of sound, then the value of \(n\) will be

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 43:

An object is taken to a height above the surface of earth at a distance \(\frac{5}{4} R\) from the centre of the earth Where radius of earth, \(R =6400 km\) The percentage decrease in the weight of the object will be

  • (1) \(36 \%\)
  • (2) \(50 \%\)
  • (3) \(64 \%\)
  • (4) \(25 \%\)

Question 44:

A bag of sand of mass \(98\, kg\) is suspended by a rope A bullet of \(200\, g\) travelling with speed \(10\, ms ^{-1}\) gets embedded in it, then loss of kinetic energy will be

  • (1) \(4.9 J\)
  • (2) \(9.8 J\)
  • (3) \(14.7 J\)
  • (4) \(19.6 J\)

Question 45:

A ball is projected from the ground with a speed 15 ms1 at an angle θ with horizontal so that its range and maximum height are equal, then ‘tan θ’ will be equal to

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 4

Question 46:

The maximum error in the measurement of resistance, current and time for which current flows in an electrical circuit are 1%, 2% and 3% respectively. The maximum percentage error in the detection of the dissipated heat will be

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 8

Question 47:

Hydrogen atom from excited state comes to the ground by emitting a photon of wavelength \(\lambda\) The value of principal quantum number 'n' of the excited state will be :(R : Rydberg constant)

  • (1) \(\sqrt{\frac{\lambda R }{\lambda-1}}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{\frac{\lambda R}{\lambda R-1}}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{\frac{\lambda}{\lambda R -1}}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{\frac{\lambda R ^2}{\lambda R -1}}\)

Question 48:

In AM modulation, a signal is modulated on a carrier wave such that maximum and minimum amplitude are found to be \(6 V\) and \(2 V\) respectively The modulation index is

  • (1) \(100 \%\)
  • (2) \(80 \%\)
  • (3) \(60 \%\)
  • (4) \(50 \%\)

Question 49:

An electron with energy \(01\, keV\) moves at right angle to the earth's magnetic field of \(1 \times 10^{-4} Wbm ^{-2}\) The frequency of revolution of the electron will be (Take mass of electron \(=90 \times 10^{-31} kg\) )

  • (1) \(1.6 \times 10^5 Hz\)
  • (2) \(5.6 \times 10^5 Hz\)
  • (3) \(2.8 \times 10^6 Hz\)
  • (4) \(1.8 \times 10^6 Hz\)

Question 50:

Let \(\eta_1\) is the efficiency of an engine at \(T _1=447^{\circ} C\) and \(T _2=147^{\circ} C\) while \(\eta_2\) is the efficiency at \(T _1=947^{\circ} C\) and \(T _2=47^{\circ} C\) The ratio \(\frac{\eta_1}{\eta_2}\) will be :

  • (1) \(0.41\)
  • (2) \(0.56\)
  • (3) \(0.73\)
  • (4) \(0.70\)

Physics - Section B (Q51 - Q60)

Question 51:

A particle is moving in a straight line such that its velocity is increasing at 5 ms–1 per meter. The acceleration of the particle is _______ms–2 at a point where its velocity is 20 ms–1.


Question 52:

Three identical spheres each of mass \(M\) are placed at the corners of a right angled triangle with mutually perpendicular sides equal to \(3 m\) each Taking point of intersection of mutually perpendicular sides as origin, the magnitude of position vector of centre of mass of the system will be \(\sqrt{ x } m\) The value of \(x\) is


Question 53:

A block of ice of mass \(120\, g\) at temperature \(0^{\circ} C\) is put in \(300\, gm\) of water at \(25^{\circ} C\) The \(xg\) of ice melts as the temperature of the water reaches \(0^{\circ} C\) The value of \(x\) is [Use: Specific heat capacity of water \(=4200\,Jkg ^{-1} K ^{-1}\), Latent heat of ice = 3.5 \(\times\) 105 JKg-1]


Question 54:

\(\frac{x}{x+4}\) is the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an electron of hydrogen atom from its (i) third permitted energy level to the second level and (ii) the highest permitted energy level to the second permitted level The value of \(x\) will be


Question 55:

Two ideal diodes are connected in the network as shown in figure The equivalent resistance between \(A\) and \(B\) is ______\(\Omega\)


Question 56:

Two parallel plate capacitors of capacity \(C\) and \(3 C\) are connected in parallel combination and charged to a potential difference \(18\, V\) The battery is then disconnected and the space between the plates of the capacitor of capacity \(C\) is completely filled with a material of dielectric constant \(9\) The final potential difference across the combination of capacitors will be______ \(V\)


Question 57:

A convex lens of focal length \(20\, cm\) is placed in front of convex mirror with principal axis coinciding each other The distance between the lens and mirror is \(10\, cm\) A point object is placed on principal axis at a distance of \(60 \, cm\) from the convex lens The image formed by combination coincides the object itself The focal length of the convex mirror is ________ \(cm\)


Question 58:

Magnetic flux (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance \(20 \,\Omega\) varies with time \(t ( s )\) as \(\phi=8 t^2-9 t+5\). The magnitude of the induced current at \(t =0.25\, s\) will be ______\(mA\)


Question 59:

In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf \(1.20\, V\) gives a balance point at \(36 \, cm\) length of wire This cell is now replaced by another cell of emf \(1.80\, V\). The difference in balancing length of potentiometer wire in above conditions will be _______\(cm\)


Question 60:

Two waves executing simple harmonic motion travelling in the same direction with same amplitude and frequency are superimposed The resultant amplitude is equal to the \(\sqrt{3}\) times of amplitude of individual motions The phase difference between the two motions is _______(degree)


Chemistry - Section A (Q61 - Q80)

Question 61:

Match List I with List II :
 

List-I (molecule)List-II (hybridization; shape)
AXeO3​isp3d ; linear
BXeF2​iisp3; pyramidal
CXeOF4​iiisp3d3; distorted octahedral
DXeF6​ivsp3d2 ;square pyramidal


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Question 62:

Two solutions \(A\) and \(B\) are prepared by dissolving \(1 g\) of non-volatile solutes \(X\) and \(Y\) respectively in \(1 \,kg\) of water The ratio of depression in freezing points for \(A\) and \(B\) is found to be \(1: 4\) The ratio of molar masses of \(X\) and \(Y\) is :

  • (1) \(1: 4\)
  • (2) \(1: 0.25\)
  • (3) \(1: 0.20\)
  • (4) \(1: 5\)

Question 63:

Ka1, Ka2 and Ka3 are the respective ionization constants for the following reactions (a),(b), and (c).
(a) H2C2O4⇌H++HC2O4−
(b) HC2O4−⇌H++HC2O42−
(c) H2C2O4⇌2H++C2O42−
The relationship between Ka1,Ka2 and Ka3 is given as

  • (1) Ka3=Ka1+Ka2
  • (2) Ka3=Ka1−Ka2
  • (3) Ka3=\(\frac{Ka_1}{Ka_2}\)
  • (4) Ka3=Ka1×Ka2

Question 64:

The molar conductivity of a conductivity cell filled with \(10\) moles of \(20\, mL\, NaCl\) solution is \(\Lambda_{ m 1}\) and that of \(20\) moles another identical cell heaving \(80 \, mL \, NaCl\) solution is \(\Lambda_{ m 2}\), The conductivities exhibited by these two cells are same The relationship between \(\Lambda_{ m 2}\) and \(\Lambda_{ m 1}\) is

  • (1) \(\Lambda_{ m 2}=2 \Lambda_{ m 1}\)
  • (2) \(\Lambda_{ m 2}=\Lambda_{ m 1} / 2\)
  • (3) \(\Lambda_{ m 2}=\Lambda_{ m 1}\)
  • (4) \(\Lambda_{ m 2}=4 \Lambda_{ m 1}\)

Question 65:

The first ionization enthalpies of \(Be , B , N\) and \(O\) follow the order

  • (1) \(O \lt N \lt B \lt Be\)
  • (2) \(Be \lt B \lt N \lt O\)
  • (3) \(B \lt Be \lt N \lt O\)
  • (4) \(B \lt Be \lt O \lt N\)

Question 66:

The correct order of energy of absorption for the following metal complexes is :
A : \([\mathrm{Ni(en)_3}]^{2+}\), B : \([\mathrm{Ni(NH_3)_6}]^{2+}\), C : \([\mathrm{Ni(H_2O)_6}]^{2+}\)

  • (1) \(\mathrm{C}\lt\mathrm{B}\lt\mathrm{A}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{B}\lt\mathrm{C}\lt\mathrm{A}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{C}\lt\mathrm{A}\lt\mathrm{B}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{A}\lt\mathrm{C}\lt\mathrm{B}\)

Question 67:

Match List I with List II.
 

List-IList-II
ASulphateIPesticide
BFluorideIIBending of bones
CNicotineIIILaxative effect
DSodium arsiniteIVHerbicide


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

 

  • (1) A-II, B-III. C-IV, D-I
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Question 68:

Major product of the following reaction is -

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 69:

What is the major product of the following reaction?
 major product of the following reaction

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 70:

Arrange the following in decreasing acidic strength.
 decreasing acidic strength.

  • (1) A > B > C > D
  • (2) B > A > C > D
  • (3) D > C > A > B
  • (4) D > C > B > A

Question 71:

The correct structure of C is
structure of C

  • (1)
  • (2)
  • (3)
  • (4)

Question 72:

Glycosidic linkage between \(C _1\) of \(\alpha\)-glucose and \(C_2\) of \(\beta\)-fructose is found in

  • (1) maltose
  • (2) sucrose
  • (3) lactose
  • (4) amylose

Question 73:

In base vs acid titration, at the endpoint methyl orange is present as

  • (1) quinonoid form
  • (2) heterocyclic form
  • (3) phenolic form
  • (4) benzenoid form

Question 74:

For micelle formation, which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Micelle formation is an exothermic process
(B) Micelle formation is an endothermic process
(C) The entropy change is positive
(D) The entropy change is negative

  • (1) A and D only
  • (2) A and C only
  • (3) B and C only
  • (4) B and D only

Question 75:

Given below are two statements Statement I : Pig iron is obtained by heating cast iron with scrap iron Statement II : Pig iron has a relatively lower carbon content than that of cast iron In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are not correct.
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
  • (4) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct.

Question 76:

High purity (>99.95%) dihydrogen is obtained by

  • (1) Reaction of zinc with aqueous alkali
  • (2) Electrolysis of acidified water using platinum electrodes
  • (3) Electrolysis of warm aqueous barium hydroxide solution between nickel electrodes
  • (4) Reaction of zinc with dilute acid

Question 77:

The correct order of density is

  • (1) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr
  • (2) Sr > Ca > Mg > Be
  • (3) Sr > Be > Mg > Ca
  • (4) Be > Sr > Mg > Ca

Question 78:

The total number of acidic oxides from the following list is: \(NO , N _2 O , B _2 O _3, N _2 O _5\), \(CO , SO _3, P _4 O _{10}\)

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 6

Question 79:

Match List I with List II :
 

List-I PolymerList-II used for items
ANylon 6,6IBuckets
BLow density polytheneIINon-stick utensils
CHigh density polytheneIIIBristles of brushes
DTeflonIVToys
  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

Question 80:

Some drugs bind to a site other than the active site of an enzyme. This site is known as

  • (1) non-active site
  • (2) allosteric site
  • (3) competitive site
  • (4) therapeutic site

Chemistry - Section B (Q81 - Q90)

Question 81:

\(56.0 \,L\) of nitrogen gas is mixed with excess of hydrogen gas and it is found that \(20\, L\) of ammonia gas is produced The volume of unused nitrogen gas is found to be _______ \(L\)


Question 82:

When the excited electron of a H atom from n = 5 drops to the ground state, the maximum number of emission lines observed are ____.


Question 83:

While performing a thermodynamics experiment, a student made the following observations.
HCl + NaOH \(\rightarrow\) NaCl + H2O; ΔH = – 57.3 kJ mol–1
CH3COOH + NaOH \(\rightarrow\) CH3COONa + H2O; ΔH = –55.3 kJ mol–1
The enthalpy of ionization of CH3COOH, as calculated by the student, is ______ kJ mol–1. [nearest integer]


Question 84:

For the decomposition of azomethane, CH3N2CH3(g) → CH3CH3(g) + N2(g), a first-order reaction, the variation in partial pressure with time at 600 K is given as
The half-life of the reaction is ______ × 10–5s. [Nearest integer]


Question 85:

The sum of number of lone pairs of electrons present on the central atoms of \(XeO _3, XeOF _4\) and \(XeF _6\) is_____


Question 86:

The spin-only magnetic moment value of \(M ^{3+}\) ion (in gaseous state) from the pairs \(Cr ^{3+} / Cr ^{2+}, Mn ^{3+} / Mn ^2, \quad Fe ^{3+} / Fe ^{2+}\) and \(Co ^{3+} / Co ^{2+}\) that has negative standard electrode potential, is BM [Nearest integer]


Question 87:

A sample of 4.5 mg of an unknown monohydric alcohol, R–OH was added to methylmagnesium iodide. A gas is evolved and is collected and its volume measured to be 3.1 mL. The molecular weight of the unknown alcohol is___ g/mol. [Nearest integer]


Question 88:

The separation of two coloured substances was done by paper chromatography The distances travelled by solvent front, substance \(A\) and substance \(B\) from the base line are \(3.25\, cm.  2.08 \, cm\) and \(1.05\, cm\) respectively. The ratio of \(R_f\) values of \(A\) to \(B\) is _______


Question 89:

The total number of monobromo derivatives formed by the alkanes with molecular formula \(C _5 H _{12}\) is (excluding stereo isomers) _______


Question 90:

A sealed flask with a capacity of \(2\, dm ^3\) contains \(11 \, g\) of propane gas The flask is so weak that it will burst if the pressure becomes \(2\, MPa\) The minimum temperature at which the flask will burst is ______\({ }^{\circ} C\) [Nearest integer] 

(Given: \(R =8.3 \,J \,K ^{-1} mol ^{-1}\) Atomic masses of \(C\) and \(H\) are \(12\, u\) and \(1 \,u\) respectively) (Assume that propane behaves as an ideal gas)

JEE Main 2022 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

ParticularsDetails
Exam ModeOnline (Computer-Based Test)
PaperB.E./B.Tech (Paper 1)
Duration3 hours (180 minutes)
Type of QuestionsMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs) + Numerical Value Questions
SubjectsMathematics, Physics, Chemistry
Total Questions90 questions (75 to be attempted)
Total Marks300 marks
Marking Scheme+4 for correct answer & -1 for incorrect MCQ and Numerical Value-based Questions

JEE Main 2022 July 25 Shift 2 Difficulty Level

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JEE Main 2022 July 25 Shift 2 Subject-wise Memory-Based Solutions PDF

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