JEE Main 2023 Chemistry April 8 Shift 1 Question Paper is available here for download. Candidates can download official JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper PDF with Solution and Answer Key for April 8 Shift 1 using the link below. JEE Main Chemistry Question Paper is divided into two sections, Section A with 20 MCQs and Section B with 10 numerical type questions. Candidates are required to answer all questions from Section A and any 5 questions from section B.

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JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper April 8 Shift 1 PDF

JEE Main 2023 8th April Shift 1 Chemistry Question Paper with Solution PDF download iconDownload Check Solution


Question 1:

1: The reaction \[ \frac{1}{2} H_2(g) + AgCl(s) \leftrightharpoons H^+(aq) + Cl^-(aq) + Ag(s) \]
occurs in which of the given galvanic cells?

  • (A) Pt \(\vert\) H\(_2\)(g) \(\vert\) HCl(sol\(^n\)) \(\vert\) AgNO\(_3\)(sol\(^n\)) \(\vert\) Ag
  • (B) Pt \(\vert\) H\(_2\)(g) \(\vert\) HCl(sol\(^n\)) \(\vert\) AgCl(s) \(\vert\) Ag
  • (C) Pt \(\vert\) H\(_2\)(g) \(\vert\) KCl(sol\(^n\)) \(\vert\) AgCl(s) \(\vert\) Ag
  • (D) Ag \(\vert\) AgCl(s) \(\vert\) KCl(sol\(^n\)) \(\vert\) AgNO\(_3\) \(\vert\) Ag
Correct Answer: (B) Pt \(\vert\) H\(_2\)(g) \(\vert\) HCl(sol\(^n\)) \(\vert\) AgCl(s) \(\vert\) Ag
View Solution

Question 2:

Sulphur (S)-containing amino acids from the following are:

  • (A) Isoleucine
  • (B) Cysteine
  • (C) Lysine
  • (D) Methionine
  • (E) Glutamic acid \textbf{Choose the correct answer from the following:}
  • (A) b, c, e
  • (B) a, d
  • (C) a, b, c
  • (D) b, d
Correct Answer: (D) b, d
View Solution

Sulphur-containing amino acids are those that have a sulphur atom in their side chain. From the given list:

Cysteine: Contains a thiol group (-SH) in its side chain.
Methionine: Contains a thioether (-S-) group in its side chain.


The remaining amino acids (Isoleucine, Lysine, and Glutamic acid) do not contain sulphur in their structures.

Thus, the sulphur-containing amino acids are b (Cysteine) and d (Methionine). Quick Tip: To identify sulphur-containing amino acids, look for functional groups like -SH (thiol) or -S- (thioether) in the side chains.


Question 3:

Which of the following complex is octahedral, diamagnetic and the most stable?

  • (1) K\(_3\)[Co(CN)\(_6\)]
  • (2) [Ni(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]Cl\(_2\)
  • (3) [Co(H\(_2\)O)\(_6\)]Cl\(_2\)
  • (4) Na\(_3\)[CoCl\(_6\)]
Correct Answer: (1) K\(_3\)[Co(CN)\(_6\)]
View Solution

Question 4:

Which of the following metals can be extracted through alkali leaching technique?

  • (1) Cu
  • (2) Au
  • (3) Pb
  • (4) Sn
Correct Answer: (4) Sn
View Solution


Alkali leaching technique: This technique is used to extract metals that are amphoteric in nature. Amphoteric metals can react with both acids and bases.
Amphoteric nature of Sn: Tin (Sn) is amphoteric, meaning it reacts with alkali solutions (such as NaOH) to form soluble complexes. For example:
\[ SnO + 2NaOH \to Na_2SnO_2 + H_2O \]
Comparison with other metals:

Copper (Cu): Copper is not amphoteric; it does not react with alkalis.
Gold (Au): Gold is a noble metal and does not exhibit amphoteric behavior.
Lead (Pb): While lead exhibits slight amphoteric behavior, it is not commonly extracted through alkali leaching.



Thus, Sn is the only metal from the options that can be extracted via alkali leaching due to its amphoteric nature. Quick Tip: Amphoteric metals like Sn and Al can react with both acids and bases, making them suitable for alkali leaching processes.


Question 5:

The correct order of spin-only magnetic moments for the following complex ions is:

  • (1) [CoF\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) \(<\) [MnBr\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\) \(<\) [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) \(<\) [Mn(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)
  • (2) [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) \(<\) [CoF\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) \(<\) [MnBr\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\) \(<\) [Mn(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)
  • (3) [MnBr\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\) \(<\) [CoF\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) \(<\) [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) \(<\) [Mn(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)
  • (4) [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) \(<\) [Mn(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) \(<\) [CoF\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) \(<\) [MnBr\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)
Correct Answer: (4) [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) \(<\) [Mn(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) \(<\) [CoF\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\) \(<\) [MnBr\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)
View Solution

Question 6:

The water gas on reacting with cobalt as a catalyst forms:

  • (1) Methanoic acid
  • (2) Methanal
  • (3) Ethanol
  • (4) Methanol
Correct Answer: (4) Methanol
View Solution

The reaction between water gas (a mixture of CO and H\(_2\)) and a catalyst produces methanol (CH\(_3\)OH). The reaction is as follows: \[ CO + 2H_2 \xrightarrow{ZnO, Cr\(_2\)O\(_3\), 700K} CH_3OH \]

Reactants: CO and H\(_2\) are essential components of water gas.
Catalyst: ZnO and Cr\(_2\)O\(_3\) act as catalysts at a temperature of 700 K to speed up the reaction.
Product: Methanol is formed as the primary product due to the reaction of CO with H\(_2\). Quick Tip: Water gas reactions involve catalysts like ZnO or Cr\(_2\)O\(_3\) for selective synthesis of methanol at high temperatures.


Question 7:

The reaction:
\[ 2IO_3^- + xI^- + 12H^+ \to 6I_2 + 6H_2O \]
What is the value of \(x\)?

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 10
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 6
Correct Answer: (2)  10
View Solution


Question 8:

What is the purpose of adding gypsum to cement?

  • (1) To give a hard mass
  • (2) To speed up the process of setting
  • (3) To facilitate the hydration of cement
  • (4) To slow down the process of setting
Correct Answer: (4) To slow down the process of setting
View Solution

Question 9:

The major product formed in the following reaction is:
 

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

Question 10:

Match List I with List II:

  • (A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Correct Answer: (D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
View Solution

Question 11:

In chromyl chloride, the number of d-electrons present on chromium is the same as in:

(Given atomic numbers: Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26)

  • (1) Fe (III)
  • (2) V (IV)
  • (3) Ti (III)
  • (4) Mn (VII)
Correct Answer: (4)  Mn (VII)
View Solution

Question 12:

Assertion-Reason:

Assertion (A): Butan-1-ol has a higher boiling point than ethoxyethane.

Reason (R): Extensive hydrogen bonding leads to stronger association of molecules.

  • (A) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  • (B) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (C) A is false, but R is true.
  • (D) A is true, but R is false.
Correct Answer: (2) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
View Solution

Question 13:

Match List I with List II:

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (1)  A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
View Solution

Question 14:

Match List I with List II:


  • (A) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-II
  • (D) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Correct Answer: (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-II
View Solution

Question 15:

Match List I with List II:

  • (A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Correct Answer: (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
View Solution

Question 16:

The correct order of electronegativity for given elements is:

  • (A) P \(>\) Br \(>\) C \(>\) At
  • (B) C \(>\) P \(>\) At \(>\) Br
  • (C) Br \(>\) P \(>\) At \(>\) C
  • (D) Br \(>\) C \(>\) At \(>\) P
Correct Answer: (4) Br \(>\) C \(>\) At \(>\) P
View Solution

Question 17:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Lithium and Magnesium do not form superoxide.

Statement II: The ionic radius of Li\(^+\) is larger than the ionic radius of Mg\(^{2+}\).

  • (A) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (B) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
View Solution

Question 18:

Which of the following represent the Freundlich adsorption isotherms?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
  • (A) A, C, D only
  • (B) A, B only
  • (C) A, B, D only
  • (D) B, C, D only
Correct Answer: (3) A, B, D only
View Solution

Question 19:

Which halogen is known to cause the reaction given below:
\[ 2Cu^{2+} + 4X^- \to Cu_2X_2(s) + X_2 \]

  • (A) All halogens
  • (B) Only chlorine
  • (C) Only bromine
  • (D) Only iodine
Correct Answer: (4) Only iodine
View Solution

The reaction given involves the reduction of Cu\(^{2+}\) ions to Cu\(^+\), forming Cu\(_2\)I\(_2\) as a precipitate and iodine gas (I\(_2\)). Among the halogens, only iodine has the required reducing strength to cause this reaction: \[ 2Cu^{2+} + 4I^- \to Cu_2I_2 + I_2 \] Quick Tip: Iodide ions are strong enough to reduce Cu\(^{2+}\) to Cu\(^+\), forming Cu\(_2\)I\(_2\) as a solid precipitate.


Question 20:

Choose the halogen which is most reactive towards S\(_N\)1 reaction in the given compounds (A, B, C, \& D):


  • (A) A-Br(a); B-I(a); C-Br(b); D-Br(a)
  • (B) A-Br(a); B-I(a); C-Br(a); D-Br(a)
  • (C) A-Br(b); B-I(b); C-Br(b); D-Br(b)
  • (D) A-Br(a); B-Br(a); C-Br(a); D-I(a)
Correct Answer: (1) A-Br(a); B-I(a); C-Br(b); D-Br(a)
View Solution

Question 21:

Molar mass of the hydrocarbon (X) which on ozonolysis consumes one mole of O\(_3\) per mole of (X) and gives one mole each of ethanol and propanone is:

Correct Answer: 70
View Solution

Question 22:

XeF\(_4\) reacts with SbF\(_5\) to form:
\[ [XeF_m]^{n+}[SbF_y]^{z-} \]
What is \(m+n+y+z\)?

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 11
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 13
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution



The reaction is: \[ XeF_4 + SbF_5 \to [XeF_3]^+ + (SbF_6)^- \]
From the reaction: \[ m + n + y + z = 3 + 1 + 6 + 1 = 11 \] Quick Tip: In xenon-fluoride reactions, xenon acts as a donor/acceptor with fluoride ions, forming ionic complexes.


Question 23:

The number of following statements which is/are incorrect is:

  • (A) Line emission spectra are used to study the electronic structure.
  • (B) The emission spectra of atoms in the gas phase show a continuous spread of wavelength from red to violet.
  • (C) An absorption spectrum is like the photographic negative of an emission spectrum.
  • (D) The element helium was discovered in the sun by spectroscopic method.
Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

Question 24:

The titration curve of weak acid vs. strong base with phenolphthalein as indicator is shown below:




The \(K_{phenolphthalein} = 4 \times 10^{-10}\) and log 2 = 0.3. The number of correct statements about phenolphthalein is:

  • (A) It can be used as an indicator for the titration of weak acid with weak base.
  • (B) It begins to change color at pH = 8.4.
  • (C) It is a weak organic base.
  • (D) It is colorless in acidic medium.
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 25:

When a 60 W electric heater is immersed in a gas for 100 s in a constant volume container with adiabatic walls, the temperature of the gas rises by 5°C. The heat capacity of the given gas is:

Correct Answer: 1200
View Solution

Question 26:

The vapor pressure vs. temperature curve for a solution-solvent system is shown below. The boiling point of the solvent is:

  • (A) 81°C
  • (B) 82°C
  • (C) 83°C
  • (D) 84°C
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Question 27:

0.5 g of an organic compound (X) with 60% carbon will produce ____ \(\times 10^{-1}\) g of CO\(_2\) on complete combustion.

Correct Answer: 11
View Solution

Question 28:

The number of following factors which affect the percent covalent character of the ionic bond is ____.

  • (A) Polarising power of cation
  • (B) Extent of distortion of anion
  • (C) Polarisability of the anion
  • (D) Polarising power of anion
  • (B) \textbf{Extent of distortion of the anion:} A larger, more easily distortable anion increases covalent character.
Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

The percent covalent character in an ionic bond is influenced by:

(A) Polarising power of the cation: A small, highly charged cation can polarise the anion's electron cloud, increasing covalent character.

% Option
(B) Extent of distortion of the anion: A larger, more easily distortable anion increases covalent character.
% Option
(C) Polarisability of the anion: A more polarisable anion (e.g., I\(^-\)) results in a higher covalent character.

The polarising power of the anion does not contribute to covalent character.
Quick Tip: Fajans' rule explains the percent covalent character of ionic bonds: small, highly charged cations and large, polarisable anions increase covalent character.


Question 29:

Three bulbs are filled with CH\(_4\), CO\(_2\), and Ne as shown in the picture. The bulbs are connected through pipes of zero volume. When the stopcocks are opened and the temperature is kept constant throughout, the pressure of the system is found to be _____ atm. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

Question 30:

The number of given statements/s which is/are correct is _____:

  • (A) The stronger the temperature dependence of the rate constant, the higher is the activation energy.
  • (B) If a reaction has zero activation energy, its rate is independent of temperature.
  • (C) The stronger the temperature dependence of the rate constant, the smaller is the activation energy.
  • (D) If there is no correlation between the temperature and the rate constant, then it means that the reaction has negative activation energy.
Correct Answer:(B) If a reaction has zero activation energy, its rate is independent of temperature.
View Solution


JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Paper Analysis April 8 Shift 1

JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Paper Analysis for the exam scheduled on April 8 Shift 1 is available here. Candidates can check subject-wise paper analysis for the exam scheduled on April 8 Shift 1 here along with the topics with the highest weightage.

JEE Main 2023 Chemistry Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Chemistry Marks 100 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 20 MCQs + 10 Numerical Type Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 20 MCQs + 5 Numerical Type Questions
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

Also Check:

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper